NBRC TMC/CRT/RRT EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |AGRADE

Ascites

accumulation of fluid in the abdomen caused by LIVER FAILURE

Venous distention

-occurs with CHF
-seen with obstructive patients (seen in exhalation phase)

Capillary refill

-indication of peripheral circulation
-Normal < 3 seconds

Jaundice skin color

-increase in bilirubin.
-mostly in face and trunk

Bradypnea (oligopnea)

-decreased respiratory rate (<12bpm) variable depth and irregular rhythm

Hyperpnea

-increased rate, depth, with regular rhythm

Cheyne-Stokes

-gradually increasing then decreasing rate and depth in a cycle lasting from 30 – 180 secs, with apnea up to 60 secs

-increased ICP, meningitis, overdose

Biots

-increased rate and depth with irregular periods of apnea

-CNS problem, head/brain injury

Kussmaul’s

-increased rate, depth, irregular rhythm, breathing sounds labored
-Raspy voice

Apneustic

prolonged gasping inspiration followed by extremely short, insufficient expiration

-respiratory center problems, trauma, tumor

cachectic

muscle atrophy/loss of muscle tone

retractions

-chest moves inward during inspiratory efforts instead of outward
-blocked airway in adults = INTUBATE
-RDS in infants

Character of cough

-dry, non-productive cough may indicate tumor in the lungs or asthma
-productive cough may indicate infection

evidence of difficult airway

-short receding mandible (chin)
-enlarged tongue (macroglossia)
-bull neck
-limited neck range-of-motion

pulsus paradoxus

-pulse/blood pressure varies with respiration. may indicate severe air trapping (status asthmaticus or cardiac tamponade)

tactile fremitus

-vibrations felt by hand on chest wall
-vocal fremitus: voice vibrations on the chest wall
-pleural rub fremitus: grating sensation due to roughened pleural spaces
-Rhonchial fremitus(palpable rhonchi): secretions in airways

Crepitus

-bubbles of air under skin that can be palpated and indicates subcutaneous emphysema

Resonant percussion

-hollow sound
-normal lungs

Flat percussion

-heard over sternum, muscles, or areas of atelectasis

Dull percussion

-heard over fluid-filled organs such as heart or liver (thudding)
-pleural effusion or pneumonia

Tympanic percussion

-heard over air-filled stomach.
-drum-like sound and when heard over lung = increased volume

Hyperresonant

-found where pneumothorax or emphysema is present.
-booming sound

vesicular breath sounds

normal sounds in lungs

bronchial breath sounds

-normal sounds over airways.
-breath sounds over lungs indicate LUNG CONSOLIDATION

Egophony

-patient instructed to say E and sounds like A.
-lung consolidation

Bronchophony / whisphered pectoriloquy

-increased intensity or transmission of the spoken voice and indicate CONSOLIDATION or PNEUMONIA
-increase in spoken voice = consolidation
-decrease in spoken voice = obstructon, pneumo, emphysema

Rales

-crackles
-secretions/fluid

Coarse rales

-rhonchi
-LARGE airway secretions
-needs suctioning

medium rales

-middle airway secretions
-needs CPT

Fine rales

-fluid in alveoli
-CHF, pulmonary edema
-IPPB, heart drugs, diuretics and O2

Wheeze

-due to bronchospasm
-bronchodilator Tx
-unilateral wheeze indicative of a foreign body obstruction

stridor

-upper airway obstruction
-supraglottic swelling (epiglottitis) (thumb sign)
-subglottic swelling (croup, postextubation) (steeple sign)
-foreign body aspiration
-Racemic epinephrine
-intubation if MARKED stridor
-Lateral neck Xray for confirmation

Pleural friction rub

-coarse grating or crunching sound
-visceral and parietal pleura rubbing together
-associated with TB, pneumonia, pulmonary infarction, cancer
-steroids and antibiotics

Heart Sound S₁

-closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the beginning of ventricular contraction

Heart Sound S₂

-closure of pulmonic and aortic valves
-occurs when systole ends; ventricles relax

Heart Sound S₃

-abnormal and may suggest CHF

Heart Sound S₄

-abnormal and indicative of cardiac abnormality such as myocardial infarction or cardiomegaly

Heart murmurs

-sounds caused by turbulent blood flow
-heart valve defects or congenital heart abnormalities
-can occur when blood is pushed through an abnormal opening (ASD, PDA)

Bruits

-sounds made in an artery or vein when blood flow becomes turbulent or flows at an abnormal speed.
-usually heard via stethoscope over the identified vessel (carotid artery)

Blood pressure

-systolic and diastolic pressures
-sphygmomanometer to measure cuff pressures
-↑BP = cardiac stress = hypoxemia
-↓BP = poor perfusion = hypovolemia, CHF

Costophrenic Angle

-angle made by the outer curve of the diaphragm and the chest wall
-obliterated by pleural effusions and pneumonia

Diaphragm

-dome shaped normally
-flattened with COPD
-hemidiaphragms may shift downward with pneumothorax
-right hemidiaphragm is level of 6th anterior rib and slightly higher than the left
-right lung: 55% and appear larger than left lung

Lateral decubitus CXR

-patient lying on affected side
-detecting small pleural effusions

End expiratory film

-taken when patient is at end-exhalation
-detecting small pneumothorax/foreign body aspiration (FBA)

Position of ET/Tracheostomy tube

-tip should be positioned below the vocal chords and no closer than 2 cm or 1 inch above the carina.
-approx same level of the aortic knob/arch
-observation and auscultation will quickly determine adequate ventilation before CXR is taken
-cuff should not extend over the end of the ET or tracheostomy tube

Pacemaker, catheters, Etc.

-pacemaker should be positioned in the right ventricle
-PAC should appear in right lower lung field
-central venous catheters are placed in the right or left subclavian or jugular vein and should rest in the vena cava or right atrium
-chest tubes should be located in the pleural space surrounding the lung
-NG tubes should be in stomach 2-5 cm below the diaphragm

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

-viral disorder
-narrowing subglottic swelling
-steeple/picket fence/pencil sign
-gradual onset
-infants
-Mist tent, O2, Racemic epi, corticosteroids
-barking cough

Epiglottitis

-bacterial infection
-supraglottic swelling with an enlraged and flattened epiglottis and swollen aryepiglottic folds
-Thumb sign
-Rapid onset
-pediatrics
-provide airway and antibiotics

Computerized Tomography (CT scan)

-X-ray through a specific plane and appear as slices of organs/body parts
-diagnosis of bronchiectasis
-spiral CT scan w/ contrast dye for PE

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

-2D view without use of radiation
-used for determining thoracic aneurysms, congenital abnormalities of the aorta and major thoracic vessels esp. the hilar area
-able to locate precise position of tumors

V/Q scan

Ventilation scan
-Radioisotope (xenon) gas is inhaled
-and obstruction to airflow will allow little gas to enter

Perfusion scan
-albumin, tagged with radioactive iodine is injected into a peripheral vein and lodges in the pulmonary capillaries
-scanned over chest and shows distribution and volume of perfusion

Ventilation with no perfusion = PE (deadspace disease)

Barium swallow (esophagram)

-for diagnosing of abnormalities in the hypopharynx, esophagus, or stomach
-ingested and traced through the hypopharynx and into the esophagus via fluoroscope and xray at the end
-suspected esophageal malignancy, dysphagia, congenital defect in hypopharync, esophagus, gastric reflux, esophageal varices.

Positron Emission Tomography (PET scan)

-for determining cancer, brain disorders and heart disease
-injected with radioactive substance

bronchography (bronchogram)

-injection of radio-opaque contrast into tracheobronchial tree
-study of OBSTRUCTING LESIONS (tumors) and BRONCHIECTASIS
-better administration of postural drainage

Electroencephalography (EEG)

-measures electrical activity in the brain
-brain tumors, traumatic brain injuries, retardation, loss of brain function, epilepsy/seizures,
-EVALUATION OF SLEEP DISORDERS

Pulmonary Angiography

-most definitive for DX of pulmonary embolism
-pressures in cardiac chambers can be measured
-inserted into the femoral vein and advanced through the right heart and into the pulmonary artery which could identify filling defects

ultrasonography of the heart (Echocardiogram)

-noninvasive for monitoring cardiac performance
-doppler color flow mapping with 2D and M-Mode achocardiography to assess overall ventricular function including LEFT VENTRICULAR VOLUME and EJECTION FRACTION
-Valvular disease or dysfunction
-myocardial disease
-abnormalities of cardiac blood flow
-cardiac anomalies in the infant
-abnormal heart sounds

ICP monitoring

-track the dynamics inside the skull such as volume-pressure relationships, pressure waves, and cerebral perfusion pressures
-ICP > 20 mm Hg = hyperventilated until PaCO2 is 25-30 mmHg

CAUSES
-Intracranial tumors
-Abscesses
-Meningitis
-Cerebral Edema
-Subdural Hematoma

3 types of ICP monitoring

-Ventricular Catheter: inserted through a burr hole (surgical opening into the skull
-Subarachnoid bolt: metal screw with sensor chip that is inserted through a hole drilled into the subdural or subarachnoid space
-Epidural Sensor: consists of placement of a fiberoptic sensor, radio transmitter, or tiny balloon in the epidural space through a burr hole in the skull

Cerebral Perfusion Pressure (CPP)

-Pressure gradient that determines cerebral perfusion
-CPP = MAP – ICP
-Normal Value 70 – 90 mmHg

Exhaled Nitric Oxide (NIOX) Testing

-Measurement of nitric oxide concentration (FENO) in patient’s exhaled breath
-used to monitor asthma patient’s response to anti-inflammatory (corticosteroid) treatment
-decrease in FENO suggests a decrease in airway inflammation

Sputum colors

Clear = normal
Mucoid = white/gray, chronic bronchitis
Yellow = presence of WBC, bacterial infection
Green = stagnant sputum, gram neg bacteria (Bronchiectasis, pseudomonas
Brown/dark = old blood
Bright red = hemoptysis (bleeding tumor, TB)
Pink frothy = pulmonary edema

Sputum tests

sputum culture = identify bacteria present (days)
Sensitivity = identify what antibiotics will kill bacteria
Gram Stain = whether Gram positive or negative (5mins)
Acid Fast Stain = identify mycobacterium tuberculosis

can be done on blood, urine, and pleural samples. collect samples prior to mouthcare, meals, and treatments

Oscilloscope

-provides a continous visual image of the electrical activity of the heart on a screen
-displays rapid changes in voltage as a moving line on a phosphorescent screen

Four Critical Life Functions

-Ventilation
-Oxygenation
-Circulation
-Perfusion

Signs

-Objective information
-things that can be seen or measured

Symptoms

-subjective information
-things that the patient must tell you

Respiratory care orders

-type of treatment
-frequency
-medication dosage and dilution
-physician signature

CALL MD IF MISSING

CVP abnormalities

-decreased CVP = hypovolemia
-increased CVP = hypervolemia

Katz ADL

-Activities of Daily Living: Bathing, eating, dressing, toilet, transferring, urine and bowel continence
-patient is unable to perform or needs assistance = score of ZERO
-patient needs no direction or assistance = score of ONE
-6 = independent
-4 = impairment
-2 = severe impairment

General malaise

-run down feeling, nausea, weakness, fatigue, headache
-ELECTROLYTE IMBALANCE

Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

-Pulmonary Angiography
-V/Q Scan
-Spiral CT Scan

Chest ECG electrodes

-V1 = 4th intercostal space on right side of sternum
-V2 = 4th intercostal space on left side of sternum
-V3 = between V2 and V4 on left side
-V4 = 5th intercostal space, left mid-clavicular line
-V5 = between V4 and V6 on left side
-V6 = 5th intercostal space, left mid-axillary line

Estimating heart rate on ECG

-two R waves between 3-5 large boxes = normal
-two R waves closer and 3 large boxes = tachycardia
-two R waves wider than 5 large boxes = bradycardia

Sinus Bradycardia

Rate less than 60

Treat with Oxygen/Atropine

Multifocal PVC

Image: Multifocal PVC

Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVCs)

Image: Premature Ventricular Contraction (PVCs)

Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach)

Image: Ventricular Tachycardia (V-Tach)

Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib)

Image: Ventricular Fibrillation (V-Fib)

Asystole

Image: Asystole

1st Degree AV Block

Image: 1st Degree AV Block

2nd Degree AV Block

Image: 2nd Degree AV Block

3rd Degree AV Block

Image: 3rd Degree AV Block

Ischemia

-reduced blood flow to tissue
-indicated by a depressed or inverted T-WAVE

Injury

-indicated by an elevated ST segment

Infarction

-diagnosed by significant Q waves

APGAR Score

-1 minute will determine neonatal survival
-5 minute predicts future neurological outcome
-0-3 resuscitate
-4-6 Stimuiate (stimulate, warm, O2)
-7-10 Monitor (Routine care)

Transillumination

-Normally a small lighted halo around point of contact
-a pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum will cause the entire hemithorax to light up (LARGE HALO)

Dubowitz Method

-assessment of gestation age
– >40 = post term (meconium)
– <40 = pre term (IRDS)

New Ballard Score (NBS)

-modification of dubowitz
-score of 40 = 40 weeks

Pre and post ductal blood gas

-R to L shunt across ductus arteriousus, PaO2 from pre-ductal(right arm) often exceeds PaO2 from post-ductal(umbilical or legs)

-pre ductal is 15 torr higher than post ductal = PDA w/ R to L shunt

-echocardiogram recommended

Capnography

-PaCO2 = 40 torr/PetCO2 = 30 torr
-increase in PECO = decreased ventilation (vent failure)
-decrease in PECO = increase in ventilation (PE, hypovolemia)
-low petco2 after intubation = esophagus
-during CPR, PETCO would increase

Transcuataneous Monitoring

PO2 and PCO2 measurement
-heat to 43-45 °C
-correlates well with arterial values as long as perfusion is adequate

Pressure Transducer

-if transducer is above the catheter, readings are LOWER
-if transducer is below the catheter, readings are HIGHER

Hemodynamics

Image: Hemodynamics

Swan-Ganz Catheter

-When the balloon is inflated, the catheter will WEDGE and the back pressure from the pulmonary capillary will be measured
-measuring PAP = balloon deflated
-double spike (dicrotic notch) is normal for PAP
-Pressure Dampening = obstructed catheter (blood clot, bubble, kink)
-if a blood clot occurs: ASPIRATE-FLUSH-ROTATE catheter

Oropharyngeal Airway

-UNCONSCIOUS PATIENT
-supports base of tongue
-Bite block
-facilitate oral suctioning
-should be left unsecured
-gagging: remove-suction-oxygen

Nasopharygeal Airway

-CONSCIOUS PATIENT
-supports base of tongue
-facilitate deep tracheal suctioning
-decrease trauma during NT suctioning
-increased airway resistance (USE LARGEST SIZE)
-inserted anatomically shaped with lubricant

NARCAN

-Narcan – Narcotic overdose
-Atropine – Bradycardia
-Valium/Versed – Sedation
-Epinephrine -Asystole
-Lidocaine – PVC

– X2 normal IV dose + 10 mL saline

Cuff Pressures

-20 mmHg / 25 CM H20
– >5 – lymphatic – edema
– >10 – vein – edema
– >20 – artery – necrosis

-Low pressure, high volume, high compliance, floppy cuff is preferred

Cricoid Pressure

-Sellick maneuver
-indicated if larynx is in an anterior location

Assessment of Tube Position

– Inspect for bilateral chest expansion
– Ausculate for bilateral breath sounds
– Capnography or CO2 detectors
– Chest X-ray 2cm or 1 inch above carina or at aortic knob/notch

Laryngoscope

-mac: into vallecula, indirectly raises epiglottis
-miller: directly under and lifts the epiglottis (infants)
-tighten bulb, check handle attachment, change blade, check batteries

Stylet

-recessed 1 cm above tip of ET tube

Laryngoscope Blade Sizes

Adult: 3
Pediatric: 2
Term infant: 1
Pre-term infant: 0

ET Tube Size

pre-term: 2.5 – 3
Full term: 3.0 – 3.5
Adult: wt in kg / 10
Adult male: 8 – 9
Adult female: 7 – 8

Tube Markings

Oral Intubation: 21-25 cm mark at patient’s lips
Nasal intubation 26-29 cm mark at patient’s nares

Double-Lumen ET tube

-Endobronchial/Carlen’s tube
-can ventilate one lung separately
-two cuffs: distal cuff is high pressure, low volume for mainstem bronchus tube
-during pneumonectomies, lobectomies
-for bronchopleural fistulas etc

Esophageal Tracheal Combitube

-for emergency airway management
-if placed in trachea, distal balloon will seal trachea(ET tube) and clear #2 is used for ventilation
-if placed in esophagus, distal balloon will occlude esophagus
-ventilation will be provided through blue #2 longer tube

Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)

-positioned directly over trachea (hypopharynx)
-standard ET tube can be inserted directly through LMA into the trachea
-short term ventilation

Hi-Lo Evac Tubes

-for Continuous Aspiration of Subglottic Secretions (CASS)
-continuous suction via separate pilot tube @ 20 mmHg
-reduce VAP

Extubation

-inspire deeply
-remove tube at PEAK INSPIRATION to prevent vocal cord damage

MARKED distress/stridor = reintubate
moderate stridor = O2-Cool Mist-Racemic epinephrine
mild stridor = humidity, O2, Racemic epinephrine

Tracheostomy

-for long term ventilation
-cuff should be inflated when eating & PPV
-if obsructed = pass catheter, remove tube, ventilate and insert new tube
-clean with hydrogen peroxide

Fenestrated tube

-Used for weaning
-not for codes or emergencies
-when plugging the tube, deflate cuff, remove the inner cannula and then plug the trach tube

Tracheal button

-used to maintain stoma
-patients with sleep apnea

Jackson trach tube

-Metal trach tube
-not for resuscitation or PPV

Tracheal speaking Devices

-one way valve that attaches to trach
-cuff must be deflated

Tracheostomy Care

-clean the inner cannula by soaking it in a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water, rinse with sterile water
-clean the stoma site using cotton spplicators dipped in the water-hydrogen peroxide solution, replace gauze dressing

Laryngectomy & Laryngectomy tubes

-pt will breath through a laryngectomy tube initially
-pt cannot be orally or nasally intubated
-tube will be removed after 3-6 weeks then pt will have a permanent stoma
-tubes do NOT have an inflatable cuff

Remove Bronchopulmonary Secretions

-remove/improve mobilization of secretions
-for Bronchiectasis & CF
-not for TB, post-op, unstable pulmonary and cardiovascular system

Supine

for post-craniotomy patients

Fowlers, semi-fowlers, reverse trendelenburg

-for hypoxic, obese with dyspnea, post-op abdominal patients, and pulmonary edema

Trendelenburg

-patients with very low blood pressure

Lateral fowlers

-for very obese patients with air hunger

Lateral Flat

-best position to prevent aspiration
-if aspirating, first suction and then place in opposite position for postural drainage

unilateral consolidation

-place the affected lung up to allow it to drain and to increase perfusion to the unaffected lung
-BAD LUNG UP, GOOD LUNG DOWN

Postural Drainage Position

Left upper and right middle lobe: 15 degrees and 12-14 inches up

Lower lobes: 30 degrees and 18 inches up

Chest Percussion

-used in combination with postural drainage

not for PE, pleural effusion, tuberculosis and untreated pneumothorax

Positive Expiratory Pressure (PEP) Therapy

-applying positive pressure using a one-way inspiratory valve and a one-way expiratory resistor
-expiratory pressure from 10 – 20 cmH20 at mid-exhalation
-used for 15-20 mins 3-4x/day
-improve secretion expectoration, reduce RV (decrease hyperinflation) and improve airway maintenance (CF, pneumonia)
-discontinue if sinusitis, epistaxis or ear infection occurs
-inspire larger than normal VT and exhale actively but NOT forcefully. exhalation 2-3x longer than inspiration

Autogenic Drainage

-primarily for CF and bronchiectasis
-breathe at low lung volumes to loosen secretions from the small airways
-helps to accumulate secretions in the middle airways
-during the last stage the patient breathes at high lung volumes

Intrapulmonary Percussive Ventilation

-Combination of high frequency pulse delivery (100-250 cycles/min of a sub-tidal colume and a dense aerosol
-percussive effect of gas delivery improves ventilation past obstructions in the airway thereby delivering more aerosol to the distal airways.
-Dense aerosol delivery promotes bronchial hygiene, reduces edema, and relieves bronchospasm with the appropriate medications
-starting source pressure is 30 psi

Discontinuing bronchial hygiene

-clear breath sounds and x-ray
-ambulating well
-strong cough
-afebrile for 24 hours
-hazards occur (dizziness, SOB, cyanosis, etc.)

iatrogenic hypoxemia

induced by a physician’s words or therapy (used especially of a complication resulting from treatment)

can be caused by suctioning

Suction Pressures

Adult: 100 – 120 mm Hg
Child: 80 – 100 mm Hg
Infant: 60 – 80 mm Hg

Coude tip catheter

suction catheter angles to help suction the LEFT main stem bronchus

Closed system/inline suction catheter (Ballard)

-allows patient to recieve ventilation and oxygenation during suctioning
-for pt with high oxygen/PEEP requirements, pulmonary infections, frequent suctioning and hemodynamic instability

Catheter sizes

-ideal length is 20 – 22 inches
-external diameter of the suction catheter should be no greater than 1/2 the inside diameter of ET/trach tube

Lukens trap/sterile suction trap

-collect sputum specimen
-placed in an upright position between the suction catheter and the suction tubing
-flush catheter with sterile water or isotonic saline
-saline for cytology samples

Change size and type of catheter if

-difficulty removing secretions (verify appropriate size for airway)
-change to Coude Catheter for LEFT main stem bronchus
-change to closed system if pt has an infection, PEEP, or frequent desaturation

Altering negative pressure

-increase negative pressure to remove thick tenacious secretions
-do not exceed appropriate pressures

Instill irrigating solutions

-5-10 mL of normal saline to dilute secretions too thick to aspirate
-5-10 mL of 10% solution of Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) can be used for thick tenacious secretions + bronchodilator

Troubleshooting Suctioning procedure

-check catheter for patency
-assure vacuum is working/appropriate pressure
-change or empty a full collection bottle
-check all connections

Bubble humidiifier

-incorporates pressure pop-pff valves set at 2 psig/40 mm Hg
-check by occluding or pinching the connection tubing and listen for whistling sound
-if no sound = leak

Troubleshooting bubble humidifiers

-efficiency depends of water level in the reservoir = replace or refill if non disposable
-if whistling = flow too high or obstructed tubing

Passover or blow-by humidifer

-evaporation occurs as gas passes over the water container/reservoir
-least effective in humidifying an artificial airway unless heated
-commonly used in conjunction with infant ventilators and circuits

Heat Moisture Exchanger (HME)

-should be located in the vent circuit between the wye and the patient (where deadspace is located)
-creates a small VD
-can cause increased delivery pressure = replace HME
-removed during aerosol therapy
-not as effective as humidifiers and increase/thicken secretions = change to heated humidifiers

Wick Humidifers

-can deliver 100% body humidity (44mg/L)
-low risk of cross contamination (nosocomial infection) because no particles are being produced
-for vents, CPAP, etc

Heated Wire Circuits

-minimizes circuit condensation
-wire like structure inside the vent circuit to maintain a set gas temperature thru the entire circuit
-can be both limbs or just inspiratory limb

Jet Nebulizers

-utilize Bernoulli’s principle to create an aerosol then encounter a baffle
-creates particles within therapeutic size range (1-10 microns)

HHN/SVN

-1 to 3 second breath hold is important to enhance medication delivery
-sputtering sounds indicates that all of the solution has been nebulized

Large Volume Nebulizers

-deliver bland aerosol to upper airway
-output: 1-2 mL/min
-heating element for thick secretions
-FiO2 decreased = air entrainment is increased. lower mist density, total flow or mist output increases (vice-versa)
-increase in resistance such as water in tubing will increase FiO2

LVN not misting enough

-clogged capillary tube
-insufficient flow
-decrease in temperature causing condensation
-mist in short puffs = condensation = drain

LVN + blender

-set blender at desired FiO2
-Set LVN air entrainment @ 100%

Scavenger systems

-removes medications not inhaled by the patient
-commonly used when administering Pentamidine and Ribavirin

Ultrasonic Nebulizers

-uses vibrational energy
-highest output range
-clean with acetic acid
-for thick and tenacious secretions

increasing mist in USN (troubleshooting)

-check for low fluid
-increase amplitude (volume)
-increase blower flow and check filter
-check for water in tubing
-DO NOT adjust frequency (factory)
-not grounded

Metered Dose Inhaler

-1 to 2 inches off mouth
-inhale slowly and press once
-hold breath for 10 seconds
-if quick relief, wait one minute in between puffs, no wait with other meds

Modifying Therapy

-change type equipment (USN for thick secretions)
-change dilution of medication
-adjust temp of aerosol (jet nebulizer @ 37 C)
-modify breathing patters (slow/inspiratory hold)
-change aerosol output (tandem set up)

Alpha Response

-Vasoconstriction
-blood pressures

Beta 1 Response

-increase rate (chronotropic) and strength of contraction (inotropic) of cardiac muscle
-cardiac drugs

Beta 2 response

-Bronchodilator

If bronchospasm/wheezing persists

-increase to max dose first then increase frequency

Methylxanthines

-side door bronchodilators
-theophylline 10-20mg/mL
-theophylline is also given to increase diaphragmatic contractility and stimulate CNS in infants with apnea of prematurity.
-Serum levels are kept at 5 – 10 mcg/mL in neonates and children

Nystatin

-antifungal agent to treat thrush
-rinse mouth with water after ICS treatment

Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

-liquify thick tenacious secretions
-ACETAMINOPHEN OVERDOSE
-give bronchodilator prior to acetylcysteine
– 3 to 4 mL of 10 – 20%

Hypotonic Saline

-0.45% saline
-liquefying secretions and humidifying the airway

Hypertonic Saline

-15% saline
-induce sputum specimens, can irritate the airway and cause bronchospasm or secretion obstruction

Leukotriene modifiers

-Non-steroid drugs for mild to moderate persistent asthma
-Montelukast, Zafirlukast, Zileuton

Cardiac Glycosides

-for CHF (increases CO; inotropic)
-digitalis (crystodigin)
-digoxin (Lanoxin)

Lidocaine

-PVC
-pulseless v-tach/v-fib

procainamide

-Pronestyl
-Ventricular ectopic beats, v-tach, and atrial arrythmias

atrial arrhythmias

quinidine, propanolol(inderal)

verapamil

-control ventricular rates in narrow complex SVT

amiodarone

-pulseless VT and V-fib that has not responded to defibrillation

Bradycardia

-atropine
-epinephrine

Angina

-Nitroglycerin
-isordil

Vasopressors

-alpha adrenergic
-increases BP
-norepinephrine (levophed) =cardiogenic shock
-Dopamine and dobutamine

Mannitol

-Osmitrol
-for Head injuries and overdose

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents

-results in complete paralysis
-pancuronium (pavulon
-vercuronium (norcuron)
-atracurium (tracrium)
-cisatracurium (nimbex)

ALWAYS SEDATE THEN PARALYZE

Benzodiazepines

-sedative
-alprazolam (Xanax)
-diazepam (Valium)
-Midazolam (Versed)
-lorazepam (Ativan)

-antagonist = flumazenil (Romazicon)

Modified Ramsay Scale

1 = agitated, anxious, restless
2 = calm, cooperative, oriented
3 = responds to verbal commands
4 = brisk response to touch
5 = paralyzed

sedation level 3 should be achieved

Anesthetics

-propofol (Diprivan) for anesthesia and sedation of ventilated patients
-ketamine (Ketalar)

Analgesics

-reduce sensation of pain (Opiods)
-reversed with naloxone (Narcan)
-morphine
-fentanyl
-codeine
-hydrocodone
-oxycodone (Oxycontin)
-hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
-meperedine (Demerol)

Surfactant

-prevent/treat IRDS/HMD
-prophylactic/Rescue
-adverse effect: pneumothorax, devreased vital signs

respiratory stimulants

used to treat sleep apnea

Antibiotics

-cillins = gram positive
-myacins = gram negative
-coccus = gram positive
-everything else = gram negative
-common side effect: diarrhea
-Vancomycin = MRSA

Antiviral agents

-Ribavirin = treat RSV
-RSV Immune Globulin IV (RespiGam) = prevention of RSV
-palivizumab (Synagis) = man-made antibody to RSV

pentamidine

-treat Pneumocystis Jirovecii (carinii) infections (commonly with AIDS)
-must use one way valve and bacteria filter to avoid spreading

Vaccines

-against influenza and staphylococcus pneumoniae = Pneumovax for > 60 yrs
-Children at risk for RSV should be immunize with RespiGam and Synagis

Patient Positions

-Prone = ARDS
-Fowler’s = CHF
-Lateral Fowler’s = obese
-good lung down for unilateral lung disease

Sustained Maximal Inspiration (SMI)

-Prevention of atelectasis
-Date, time, volume should be charted (not durations)
-must be taught before surgery
-auscultate BS before and after
-Inhale! not exhale

IPPB Indications

-Prevent or correct atelectasis in patients unable to take a deep breath
-prevent/decrease pulmonary edema
-decrease WOB
-mechanical bronchodilation
-distribute aerosols more evenly
-Hazards include: hyperventilation (breathe slower), Impeding venous return, pneumothorax
-contraindications: pulmonary hemorrhage, untreated pneumothorax

Bird Mark 7

-Pressure Cycled
-increase flow = decrease i-time
-Air mix off = 100% source gas, low flow rate because air not entrained, increase flow setting when air mix off
-pressure limit controls volume

Bird Mark 7 changes that affect FiO2

-increase pressure will increase FiO2
-decrease flow will increase FiO2
-Air mix off will give 100% FiO2
-use of nebulize will increase FiO2 on PR-II
-Use of terminal flow on PR-2 will decrease FiO2

Bird Mark 7 control changes that affect volume

-increasing pressure will increase volume
-decreasing flow will increase volume
-increasing the flow will decrease volume

Bird Mark 7 control changes that affect the I:E ratio

-increased pressure will increase i-time and change I:E
-increased flow will decrease i-time
-increased rate will decrease e-time

IPPB Troubleshooting

-Loss of pressure = leak, low flow
-Excessive pressure = obstruction, excessive flow
-fail to cycle into inspiration = sensitivity, seal around mouthpiece
-fail to cycle into expiration = leak (mouthpiece, cuff, trach tube, loose connection)
-Pressure does not rise normally (needle reads low or negative) = insufficient flow

Mask CPAP

-short term, temporary use
-CO poisoning
-pneumonia
-post-op atelectasis, etc.

Nasal CPAP

-neonates since they are obligate nose breathers
-readjust nasal prongs if losing CPAP

Troubleshooting CPAP

-loss of pressure = leak, insufficient flow
-increased pressure = obstruction, excessive flow

Non-Invasive PPV (NPPV)

-avoid intubation in patients with COPD, CHF, and pulmonary edema
-long term ventilation at home
-periodic support with NMD, restrictive chest wall, sleep apneas

General Considerations of NPPV

-patient with uncomplicated obstructive sleep apnea started @ EPAP of 5-10 cmH2O
-patient started on EPAP for hypoxemia at 6-8 cmH2O and increased as necessary
-patients with NMD @ 10-15 cmH2O
-low level of EPAP (5cmH2O) prevents small airway collapse on exhalation
-oxygen must be titrated into the system to achieve desired FiO2
-IPAP always greater than EPAP
-I:E of 1:2 preferred

Capillary Samples

-should not be used to monitor oxygen therapy
-PO2 values DO NOT correlate very well with arterial blood, especially when arterial PO2 is >60 torr

Air Bubbles in ABG sample

-PaCO2 decreases toward 0 torr
-PaO2 increases to 150 torr
-pH increases

Improper cooling of ABG sample

-PaCO2 increases
-PaO2 decreases
-pH decreases

Too much heparin in ABG sample

-pH decreases towards 7.0
-PaCO2 decreases toward 0
-PaO2 increases towards room air

Severinghaus Electrode

Measures PCO2

Clark Electrode

Measures PO2

Sanz Electrode

Measures pH

Levey Jennings Charts

-detecting a machine that is out of control
-±2 Standard Deviations
-If random error = do nothing

A-a Gradient interpretations

-25-65 mmHg on 100% = Normal
-66-300 mmHg = V/Q Mismatch
->300 mmHg = shunting

each 100 mmHg = 5% shunt + 5% normal shunt

C(a-v)O2 interpretations

-CvO2 values will decrease when cardiac output decreases
-SvO2 values also decrease when cardiac output decreases
-C(a-v)O2 difference will increase when the CvO2 is decreasing and would indicate a decreasing cardiac output

PaO2/FiO2 ratio interpretations

->380 torr = normal
-<300 torr = ALI
-<200 torr = ARDS

OHDC curve LEFT

-increased oxygen affinity
-increase pH
-decrease CO2
-decrease Temp
-decrease 2-3 DPG

OHDC curve RIGHT

-decreased oxygen affinity
-decrease pH
-increase CO2
-increase Temp
-increase 2-3 DPG

Spirometers

-Measures Volumes and flow rates

Dry-rolling seal

-horizontal piston spirometer
-measures volume and time

Water-seal

-Collins, Stead-Wells spirometer
-measures colume and time
-most accurate and best to check accuracy of PFT equipment

Pneumotachometers

-measures flow
-turbine device (Wright respirometer
-measures flow and may display volume

-Pressure Differential (Fleisch) measures flow
-can continuously measure VE

Plethysmograph

-Body Box
-Measures thoracic gas volume (TGV) which is the same as FRC and also Raw
-accurately measure FRC with COPD

3L syringe

-accuracy must be ±3.5%
-2.9 – 3.1
-Calibrate with flows between 2 and 12 L/sec

Galvani fuel cell

-creates electron flow as a result of the oxidation/reduction of O2 (current)
-change fuel cell
-can be affected by water on sensor, high pressures, and altitude
-must be 2% of known value

Polarographic

-similar to galvanic except for the presence of a battery used to polarize the electrodes
-change batter and check electrolyte level
-can be affected by water on sensor, high pressures, and altitude
-must be 2% of known value

SVC

-Slow Vital Capacity
-provides the important VOLUMES used to identify RESTRICTIVE DISEASES

Restrictive Disease

Decreased Volumes

Obstructive Disease

-Decreased Flows
-FEV1
-FEF 200-1200
-FEF 25-75
-PEFR

FEV1/FVC

-best indicator of obstructive disease
-FEV1 decreased but FEV1/FVC ratio is normal = restrictive disease only
-minimum acceptable: 70-75%

FEF 200-1200

-first 1000 mL after 200 mL expired
-decreased = large airway obstruction

FEF 25-75%

-mid portion of the FVC
-decreased in the early stages of obstructive disease
-small airway obstruction

Peak Expiratory Flow Rate

-sometimes used to evaluate asthmatic patients, pre & post bronchodilation

FVC

-VOLUME and should be equal to SVC
-FVC<SVC = obstructive
-FVC cant be completed in 3 seconds = obstruction

Pre and Post bronchodilator Testing

-increase of 12% and 200 mL in the FEV1 post study is significant
-bronchodilator therapy should be held 8 hours prior to testing

Flow Volume Loops

-volumes and flow rates of the FVC
-Restrictive: skinny & tall
-Obstructive: short and wide

Diseases with Decreased DLCO

-Pulmonary fibrosis
-Sarcoidosis
-ARDS
-Edema
-Emphysema (Obstructive)

Bodaii adapter

-for patients receiving CMV during a bronchoscopy
-prevent loss of: Pressure, PEEP, VT
-High Frequency Jet ventilator preferred if not tolerating during bronchoscopy
-decontaminate with Cidex

Transport Ventilators

If respiratory rate or tidal volume decreases on pneumatic transport ventilator = check cylinder pressure

Ventilator Alarms

-10 above/below pressure limit
-100 mL minimum exhaled volume
-Fio2 = 5%

Initial Vent Settings – Infants

-Mode: IMV
-PIP: 20 – 30 cmH20
-RR: 20-30
-I-time: 0.5 – 0.6 seconds
-Flow: 5-6 L/min
-FiO2: same level
-PEEP: +2 – +4 (max 8)
-VT: 4-6-8 ml/kg

DeadSpace Ventilation

-1 mL per lb of IBW
-10 mL per inch of flex tubing (5″ = 50mL VD)

Controls that affect MAP

-PEEP
-PIP
-RR
-I-time
-Peak Flow
-TIdal Volume
-Inflation Hold

Assist/Control Mode

-allows patient to set the respiratory rate
-ventilator will maintain a minimum rate
-may be used with most patients in most cases
-Ventilator control tidal volume for every breath

SIMV mode

-USED FOR COPD TO NORMALIZE ABG
-USED FOR TACHYPNEA TO AVOID HYPERVENTILATION
-WEANING
-Reduce barotrauma (PEEP)

Pressure Control Ventilation

-patients requiring high FiO2 and PEEP
-High PIP
-Low PaO2 and decreased compliance

High Frequency Ventilation

-Rate = Frequency
-Volume – Amplitude
-% inspiratory time – I-time
-lower peak and mean airway pressure
-bronchopleural fistula/ARDS
-Pulmonary air leak (PIE)
-Paw is set 2-5 cmH2O above MAP on CMV

High Frequency Positive Pressure Ventilation

-HFPPV
-150 – 300
-2-5 hertz

High Frequency Jet Ventilation

-HFJV
-100-600
-1.5 – 10 hertz

High Frequency Flow Interrupter Ventilation

-HFFIV
-120-1320
-2-22 Hertz

High Frequency Oscillator Ventilation

-HFOV
-180-2200
-3-36 Hertz

Normalize a high PaCO2

-decrease or remove DEADSPACE
-Increase the tidal VOLUME
-increase the RATE

Normalize a low PaCO2

-increase the DEADSPACE
-Increase the RATE
-Decrease the tidal VOLUME

target for closed head injury patients is 25-30 torr

Normalize a high O2

-Decrease the FiO2 first at or above 60%
-once the FiO2 is below 60% then reduce PEEP/CPAP

Normalize a low O2

-increase FiO2 by 5-10% up to 60%
-Increase PEEP by 2 -5 cmH2O

Sigh Volume and rate

-Used to decrease microatelectasis
-sigh volume set at double Vt or less (1.5-2x Vt)
-Rate set at 1 -3 sighs every 4-15 minutes

Sensitivity controls

-Pressure trigger: 1-2 cmH20 below baseline
-Flow Trigger: 1-3 L/min below baseline or bias flow

PEEP/CPAP Therapy

-increase FRC
-increase compliance
-2-10 cmH2O physiologic
-11-30 cmH2O therapeutic
-lowest amount necessary = optimal

Therapeutic PEEP

-PaO2 increases
-Static compliance increases
-CO/CI increases
-Hemodynamics are stable
-stable PVO2, SVO2, A-a DO2

PEEP/CPAP too high

-PaO2 decreases
-Cstat decreases
-CO/CI decreases
-Hemodynamics increase
-decreased PVO2, SVO2
-closed head injuries or low BP, increase FiO2 instead

Vent protocols for ARDS

-VT: 4-6 mL/kg
-Pplat < 30 cmH20

Vent protocols for asthma

-VT: 4-6 mL/kg
-RR: 10-12
-permissive hypercapnea

Recruitment maneuvers

-CPAP of 30-40 cmH2O for 40 secs
-PEEP of 20 & PIP of 40
-Sustained inflation
-PCV with increased PEEP
-Increase PIP in increments of 5
-Sigh breaths

Flow-Volume Loops

-Flat is bad
-Must return to baseline
-oblique-shaped

Weaning criteria

-VT: >5 ml/kg
-VC: 1000 ml
-VE < 10 L/min
-MIP/NIF: > -20 cmH2O
-MEP: >40
-RSBI <100
-A-a DO2: <300 mmHg
-QS/QT: < 20%
-VD/VT: <60%

Lowest settings on the vent prior to extubation

-SIMV @ 4 bpm
-FiO2: 40%
-PEEP: 5 cmH2O

Weaning Methods

-T-Piece Trial
-SIMV
-PSV
-no sedatives

Summary of adverse conditions (STOP&NOTIFY)

-increased HR >20 bpm
-Change in BP by 10 – 20 mmHg
-Increased PaCO2 by >10 torr
-RR increases by >10 or >30 bpm

Head-tilt/Chin-lift

-preferred method for establishing airway during CPR
-not for trauma (Neck fracture)

Jaw Thrust

-establishing airway for patients with suspected neck fractures

Effectiveness of CPR

-Carotid pulse should be present during compressions
-Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC) = abrupt increase in PETCO2
-Do not remove cervical collar – check femoral pulse
-ECG shows sinus rhythm with no pulse = Continue CPR

Hypotension

-Fluid Challenge (1-2L Normal Saline or lactated Ringer’s
-Vasporessor (Dopamine, Dobutamine)

Bardycardia

-Atropine, dopamine, and epinephrine for adult
-Epinephrine and Atropine for children
-trancutaneous or transvenous pacing if no response

Ventricular Arrhythmias

PVC: O2 and Lidocaine
PVT: Defibrillate – Epinephrine – Amiodarone
V-Fib: Defibrillate – Epinephrine – Amiodarone

Cardioversion

-Midazolam(Versed) given prior
-synchronizing: ON
-delivered on R wave
-Monophasic: initial is 200 joules

-Biphasic
-Unstable A-Fib: 120-200 joules
-Unstable SVT or A-Flutter: 50-100 joules

Defibrillation

-PVT
-V-Fib
-Biphasic: 120-200 joules
-Monophasic: 360 joules
-Synchronizing: OFF

Self-Inflating Resusciation bag

-Adult: 800 mL
-Infant: 200 mL
-has Universal connector with a 22 mm OD and 15 mm ID
-pressure relief (25cmH2O) for pediatric

Troubleshooting Ambu-bag

-if bag fills rapidly and collapses easily on minimal pressure, check inlet valve
-if bag becomes difficult to compress and patient compliance is normal, patient valve may be stuck open or closed
-Excessively high flow may causes valves to jam. Use 15L/min or low range of flush
-do not attempt to fix, REPLACE

Transport

-0 to 80 miles: Ambulance
-81 to 150 miles: Helicopter
->150 miles: Fixed wing Aircraft
-use HME
-If RR or VT deceases on pneumatic transport vent, check tank pressure
-PaO2 will decrease as altitude increases during air transport, whether pressurized or not

Pulmonary Edema/CHF

-100% FiO2
-Digitalis (inotropy) increases CO
-Lasix/Fowlers – decrease venous return

Pulmonary Embolism

-100% FiO2
-Anticoagulant
-Thrombolytic drugs

Thoracentesis

-for Pleural Effusion
-Patient sitting up or leaning forward
-3-10 mL of 2% lidocaine with 25 AWG needle
-7th or 8th intercostal space TOP RIB
-100 to 300 mL of pleural fluid is aspirated for diagnostic with 50 mL syringe

Inductive Plethysmography

-series of elastic bands are placed around the chest to measure chest movement (Respiratory effort) and breathing frequency

CPAP Titration

-starting CPAP 3-5 cmH20 max 20 cmH20
-CPAP before BIPAP
-increased increments of 1 cmH2O every 10 minutes to decrease or eliminate obstructive respiratory events
-initiate BIPAP if not tolerated, or ineffective @ 15 cmH2O
-FiO2 if <88%
-start @ 1L +1L until >90%

BIPAP Titration

-initial of IPAP 8-10 and EPAP 3-5
-IPAP/EPAP increased by 1-2 until relieved
-increase IPAP if obstructive hypopnea, 2% desaturation or snoring
-increase EPAP with apnea and snoring
-FiO2 if <88%
-start @ 1L +1L until >90%

Chest Tube Placement

AIR: anterior chest (2nd intercostal in midclavicular line)
FLUID: 4th or 5th intercosal in midaxillary line

TOP RIB!

Chest Drainage System

Collection – Water Seal – Suction CTRL

-suction control regulates negative pressure
-water seal prevents air from entering pleura. bubbles = leak
-if water seal breaks, submerge chest tube in water. if on vent, leave on atm air

Valsalva Maneuver

-maneuver performed during removal of chest tube.
-patient exhales then performs valsalva maneuver

BronchAlveolar Lavage

-diagnosis and treatment of alveolar filling disorders (CF, Pneumocystis Pneumonia)
-diagnostic lavage = flexible bronchoscope + saline
-therapeutic lavage = large volume of saline
-lavage for entire lung = Carlen’s tube to perform one lung at a time

Nasal Cannula

-1 – 6 L/min
-stable COPD patients

Simple Mask

-6 to 10 L/min
-must be at least 6LPM to flush out CO2

Partial rebreather

-6 to 10 LPM
-no one way flap valves

Non-Rebreather

-100% O2 in emergency (CO, CHF, Heliox) + Blender
-increase flow, seal mask if bag collapses

Air Entrainment Mask

-Irregular VT and RR and breathing patterns
-FiO2 remains the same regardless of flow from O2 inlet
-FiO2 will increase as diameter of gas injector increases, increased resistance (water) in tubing
-FiO2 decreases and total flow increases as air entrainment increases

Briggs Adapter (T-piece)

-reservoir maintains FiO2
-if reservoir removed, FiO2 will decreases due to entrained room air
-should see aerosol on inspiration
-if aerosol disappears: increase flow, add more reservoir tubing, or tandem

Oxygen Hood

-7 to 14 LPM to prevent CO2 buildup and maintain FiO2 without sealing the infants neck around the hood
-Monitor FiO2 – O2 analyzer near infants face
-use humidifier not nebulizer

Mist Tent, O2 tent, Croupette

-controls FiO2, Temp, Filtered gas, humidity and aerosol delivery
-for pediatrics
-12 to 15 LPM to flush CO2
-if FiO2 fluctuates, tuck in tent
-Jet, ultrasonic, and Hydronamic Nebulizer
-O2 analyzer near infants face
-monitor for fluid overload (weight gain)

HyperBaric Oxygen Therapy

-CO poisoning
-Decompression sickness
-tisse transpalnts
-anaerobic infections
-2 to 3 ATA
-oxygen by mask or in-chamber @ 100%

Heliox

-decrease WOB in asthma, edema, obstruction, partial vocal cord paralysis
-80%/20% or 70%/30%
-Nonrebreather
-1.8 x flow for 80% = actual flow
-1.6 x flow for 70% = actual flow

Nitric Oxide Therapy

-relaxes smooth muscle = selective pulmonary vasodilation
-primary and chronic pulmonary hypertension, PE, RDS, CHF, PPHN, fibrosis
-initial 20ppm up to 80 ppm
-can cause Methehmoglobinemia

Disinfection

Destroying vegetative pathogenic microorganisms

Sterilization

complete destruction of all microorganisms

Vegetative organism

growing organism

Pathogenic organism

disease producing microorganism

Pasteurization

Disinfection process, kills vegetative organisms

Etylene oxide sterilization

sterilizes equipment by alkylation of enzymes
-affected by exposure and aeration time
-not for sterilizing a bronchoscope

Alkaline gluteraldehyde (Cidex)

-disinfection or sterilization
-bactericidal in 10 mins
-tuberculocidal in 10-20 mins
-sporicidal in 10 hours (sterile)
-plastics (tubing, nebulizer, humidifier)
-for flexible bronchoscope

Acid Gluteraldehyde (Sonacide)

-Disinfection or sterilization
-bactericidal in 10 mins
-tuberculocidal in 20 mins
-sporicidal in 1 hour
-can be used up to 28 days

Gram Negative Organisms

-Complicated names
-green sputum
-killed by “-myacins”

Gram Positive Organisms

-causes pneumonia and infections
-“-coccus”
-killed by “-cillins”

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

-thrives in water containing equipment (LVNs)
-produces pink/green sputum
-Gram Negative

HIV/AIDS and Hepatitis

-Standard Precautions unless underlying infection present
-DOUBLE BAG prior to steriliation

Prevention of VAP

-use of closed suction system
-head elevated 30-45 degrees
-drain and discard condensate
-use Heated Wire Circuits or HME
-Daily sedation vacation to evaluate weaning and extubation

Home Infection Control

-Clean equipment daily
-wash with mild detergent
-rinse well with water
-soak in acetic acid (white vinegar) for 20 mins
-rinse, drain and air dry

Criteria for home oxygen therapy

-PaO2 <55 torr on RA
-SpO2 88% or less
-exercise limitation
-frequent oximetry required
-polycythemia or cor pulmonale

Reservoir Cannula

-maintain FiO2 at lower flowrates by using a reservoir

Transtracheal Oxygen Catheters (TTO2)

-low flow oxygen directly into the airway by surgically implanter catheter
-increase duration of cylinder flow
between 2nd and 3rd tracheal rings
-if SOB and increased WOB = obstructed + remove and clean
-reduced to 1/2 to 1/3 previous flowrate

Liquid bulk oxygen

-last longer than cylinders
-can cause frostbite/skin damage
-if spilled, let it evaporate

oxygen concentrators

-electric and limited portability
-has molecular sieves
-1 to 2 LPM continuously
-if sieves are not working – analyze FiO2, check circuit breaker, fuse

Croup

-Viral
-Upper Respiratory infection
-During winter
-<3 yrs old
-Gradual Onset
-Stridor at rest
-Cool mist tent
-Dexamethasone (steroid)
-Racemic Epinephrine
-Subglottic Edema (STEEPLE/PENCIL)

Epiglottitis

-Bacterial
-No Upper Respiratory Infection
-Anytime
-3-7 Years old
-Sudden Onset
-Drooling
-Extended neck
-Suspicion of epiglottitis
-Intubation and IV Ampicillin
-Supraglottic Edema
-Thumb Sign
-Obliterated vallecula

Mycobacterium Disease – Tuberculosis

-Night Sweats
-dry cough
-consolidation, fibrosis and cavity formation

-Respiratory Isolation
-Isoniazid, ethambutol, streptomycin, rifampin

Myasthenia Gravis

-Auto-immune response
-slow, fatigue improves with rest
-Descending (Mind to Ground)
-Positive Tensilon test
-Monitor VC/MIP
-Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine(MESTINON), short term mechanical vent

Guillain Barre Syndrome

-Delayed reaction to viral infection
-URI – Present
-Acute, Sudden weakness
-Ascending (Ground to Brain)
-Spinal tap – protein in spinal fluid
-Monitor VC/MIP
-Steroids, Prophylactic Antibiotics, long term mechanical vent/trach, plasmapheresis

ER Treatment for Asthma Attack

-Oxygen Therapy
-Aerosol therapy with A&A
-Oral Steroids
-Close Monitoring
-Intubation if respiratory arrest
-Heliox

The patient’s lung has an air leak

You are called to the emergency department to help care for a patient who was in a vehicle accident and has chest injuries including broken ribs. Crepitations are felt while palpitating the patient’s neck. What is most likely the cause of this?

Reversible airway obstruction

A forced expiratory measurement obtained after the administration of a bronchodilator shows an increase in FEV1 from 60% to 80% of predicted. This indicates a:

complete airway obstruction

During capnography monitoring of a mechanically ventilated patient, you note that the end-tidal PCO2 (PetCO2) has dropped to 0 mm Hg. This finding may indicate:

inserting an esophageal-tracheal combitube

An unconscious apneic patient with a full stomach cannot be orally intubated in the emergency room. Which of the following would your recommend be?

patients size and clinical condition

While establishing initial ventilatory support settings for a new patient, the most important consideration is the:

Fever (hyperthermia)

A male patient has a lower than normal mixed venous O2 content. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?

apply 5-10 cm H20 pressure support

You are trying to wean an alert intubated patient off full ventilatory support using the CPAP protocol with 40% O2. Early in the initial effort her respiratory rate increases from 24 to 30/min and you start to observe some use of her accessory muscles while breathing. Which of the following would be your first action at this time?

70 minutes

What is the approximate duration of flow of an oxygen E-cylinder at 1000 psi running at 4 L/min?

increase the suction pressure to -120 mm Hg

While using a Yankauer device to suction an adult patient, you are unable to remove thick secretions. The regulator attached to the oropharyngeal suctioning device displays a reading of -70 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should you take at this time?

a missing lead

While setting up a 12-lead EKG on a patient, you are unable obtain any electrical signal. The batteries are fully charged and the device was able to power-on. The most likely cause of this problem is which of the following?

angiography

Which of the following imaging procedures is used to evaluate the arteries for abnormalities such as aneurysm, atherosclerosis, embolism, occlusion, stenosis, thrombosis, trauma, or vasculitis?

has smoked within the prior 12-24 hours

You obtain an expired carbon monoxide (CO) reading of 18 ppm on a COPD patient participating in a pulmonary rehabilitation program. Based on this finding, you can conclude that the patient:

decrease in O2 saturation from 91% to 82%

While monitoring a patient during a spontaneous breathing trial, which of the following observations would cause you to stop the trial and return the patient to ventilatory support?

increased ventilation

Your patient is receiving volume control A/C ventilation. She has become increasingly agitated and the end-tidal CO2 has decreased from 38 to 27 torr over the last 3 hours. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

3500 mL

A normal vital capacity for a female patient who is five feet three inches tall and weighs fifty kilograms would be approximately:

the sensitivity

An asthmatic patient is struggling to initiate inspiration on a ventilator operating in the assist-control mode. Which of the following ventilator settings would you first check in order to resolve of this problem?

atrial fibrillation

On inspection of a patient’s EKG strip, you note that there are no identifiable P waves; rapid irregular undulations of the isoelectric line; and an irregular ventricular rhythm. In addition, the precordial cardiac rate is greater than the peripheral pulse rate. What is the most likely problem?

Vital Capacity (VC)

Which of the following is the best bedside measurement for assessing the integrated function of the respiratory muscles and mechanical properties of the lungs and thorax?

Sinus Tachycardia

While inspecting an EKG rhythm strip from an adult patient, you note the following: rate of 148; regular rhythm; normal P waves, P-R intervals, and QRS complexes. What is most likely the problem?

whether the patient is stable on low FiO2s and PEEP

Which of the following is a prerequisite for discharging a ventilator-dependent patient to the homecare setting?

a large volume (3 L) calibration syringe

You would need which of the following equipment in order to calibrate a portable bedside spirometer?

Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)

A physician orders a blind bronchoalveolar lavage procedure for a patient in intensive care unit. What is the most likely potential diagnosis that the doctor is trying to confirm with this procedure?

croup

An AP X-ray of a 4-year-old child with wheezing and stridor shows an area of prominent subglottic edema, but the lateral neck X-ray appears normal. The most likely problem is?

sternocleidomastoid muscles used at rest

If noted on inspiration, which of the following respiratory signs of an adult patient would be considered abnormal?

between the 2nd and 4th thoracic vertebra

While reviewing the chest X-ray of a 30-year-old male receiving ventilatory support via an oral endotracheal tube. To assure proper placement of the tube, you would look for its tip to be positioned

pulseless ventricular tachycardia

Defibrillation should be done immediately in which of the following patient situations?

variable flow control and adjustable I:E ratios

An intubated adult 65-year-old male patient with severe expiratory airway obstruction requires ventilatory support. Which of the following capabilities would be most important in selecting a ventilator for this patient?

the patient cannot sustain prolonged spontaneous ventilation

You are called to obtain a bedside vital capacity (VC) of 450 ml on a 122 lb female patient receiving ventilatory support in the CMV mode. Which of the following can you draw from this finding?

hyperventilation/hypocapnia

Which of the following is the most common problem encountered when applying assist-control mode during ventilation?

flowmeter-humidifier connection for leaks

A bubble humidifier is not bubbling during oxygen therapy, despite the flowmeter set and running at 5 L/min. Which of the following should you check?

bronchospasm

Which of the following would cause an increase in a patient’s peak airway pressure while receiving volume control ventilation?

inspissated secretions

After review a patient’s chart, you note that an admission diagnosis of fluid depletion/dehydration. Which of the following findings would be most likely on bedside assessment of this patient?

it would underestimate the CVP

You are called to help a nurse in ICU measure a patient’s central venous pressure (CVP) with a strain-gauge pressure transducer. The pressure transducer appears to be positioned well above the middle of the patient’s lateral chest wall. What effect if any would this have on the measurement?

pneumothorax

Which of the following would cause a sudden increase in the peak pressure during volume controlled ventilation?

heated wick humidifier

Which of the following humidifier devices would you select in order to condition the inspired gas to 100% body humidity?

check the A-line stopcock position

While doing a normal patient assessment, you note that the arterial pressure monitor of a conscious patient in no apparent distress that the pressure waveform is absent and the alarm is sounding. What should your first action be?

Control Mode Ventilation (CMV)

Which of the following modes of ventilatory support is indicated when a precise I:E ratio must be maintained?

intubate/apply A/C ventilation, VT 400 mL, rate 12/min, FIO2 0.50

A 43-year-old 52 kg patient is admitted to the emergency room after overdosing on heroin. The patient is unconscious and is making minimal respiratory efforts. ABG results on a nonrebreathing mask @ 12 L/min are as follows: pH 7.28 PCO2 74 torr HCO3 20 mEq/L PaO2 315 torr You should you recommend?

the presence of a leak in the patient-ventilator system

While comparing previously recorded values to those currently observed on a patient receiving volume control ventilation, you note a decrease in expired volume and a decreased airway pressure. There has been no change in ventilator settings. Which of the following best explains these findings?

the catheter has moved from right ventricle to pulmonary artery

You are called to assist a physician who is inserting a pulmonary artery catheter. During the procedure, you note a changeover on the monitor from pressures of about 25/5 mm Hg to pressures of 25/15 mm Hg. Which of the following most likely has occurred?

CPAP titration at home or in the sleep lab

Based on an overnight oximetry test, a patient suspected of having sleep disordered breathing exhibits an oxygen desaturation index (ODI) of 48/hr. Which of the following would you recommend?

chest transillumination

You are called to the NICU. A premature neonate receiving positive pressure ventilation exhibits acute respiratory distress, hypotension, and asymmetrical chest motion. Which of the following procedures would you initially recommend?

the patient normally contributes to minute ventilation

Which of the following is true regarding synchronous intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)?

Squeeze the bag more slowly

While ventilating a child with a manual resuscitator, the pressure relief valve continually activates. Your first action should be which of the following?

right-sided pleural effusion

While performing posterior thoracic palpation of an adult, you note minimal right-side diaphragmatic movement as the patient takes a deep breath. His left-sided movement is normal. Which of the following conditions would best explain this finding?

right-sided pneumothorax

After feeling chest pain and shortness of breath, a 38-year-old female drove herself to the emergency room. After starting oxygen therapy on the patient, the RRT performed a physical exam and noted: a hyperresonant percussion note on the right side and a tracheal shift to the left. What is most likely the cause of these findings?

transcutaneous PCO2

To continuously monitor the adequacy of ventilation of a patient in ICU being supported by mask BiPAP, you would recommend which of the following?

peak flow

For testing purposes, you instruct a patient to take a deep breath and then exhale as quickly as possible. You then observe the recording of the fastest air movement. Which of the following tests is being measured?

a mucous plug in the ET tube

While at the bedside of a patient receiving volume control ventilation, you suddenly notice the simultaneous sounding of the high pressure and low volume alarms. Which of following is the most likely cause of this problem?

hypertension

While feeling a patient’s radial pulse, you note that the pulse feels bounding and full. Which of the following conditions would likely be the cause of this finding?

increase the set rate

The physician calls you over to examine the ABG results of a 52 kg female patient who is receiving volume control A/C ventilation. Currently the patient has a tidal volume of 400 mL, rate of 10/min, and 35% O2. Her blood gas results are as follows: pH 7.31 PaCO2 49 torr HCO3 24 mEq/L BE -2 mEq/L PaO2 74 torr SaO2 95% Based on these values, which of the following changes is appropriate?

decreased venous return to the heart

Your patient has a large pneumothorax and also displays hypotension. What is most likely the cause of this finding?

d-dimer

A patient in intensive care unit suddenly start to deteriorate. The attending physician wants to rule out an acute pulmonary embolism as the cause. Which of the following laboratory tests would you recommend?

the ventilator will automatically cycle to end inspiration

A ventilator operating in the volume controlled A/C mode incorporates an inspiratory time limit control as a safety backup to its normal cycling. If the time needed to deliver the volume increases to the preset limit, which of the following will occur?

secondary polycythemia

While reviewing the chart of a 63-year-old patient diagnosed with COPD and chronic hypoxemia, you would expect to find which of the following?

decreased forced expiratory flows

Which of the following PFT findings are common in patients with chronic bronchitis and also found in those with emphysema?

MDI with holding chamber and a mask

A 1-year-old child is admitted to the Emergency Department with severe asthmatic symptoms. The doctor orders a bronchodilator that is available in solution and MDI preparations. Which of the following would be the best delivery system for this drug to this patient?

a patient with a resting systolic BP > 200 mm Hg

Of the following patients undergoing a cardiopulmonary exercise test, for which would you recommend extra precautions?

draw and analyze an arterial blood gas

While reviewing the flow sheet of a patient receiving artificial ventilatory support, you note a progressive rise in heart rate over the last two hours. Which of the following actions would you recommend to help identify the cause of this problem?

use of generic vs. brand name medications

After obtaining a medication history from a patient admitted for asthma, which of the following information would you consider least important?

Control valve

Which of the following valves in a typical high frequency oscillation ventilator is used to regulate the mean airway pressure?

atelectasis of the left lung

After reviewing the patient’s chart, you note that results of a chest x-ray show: “Complete opacification of the left chest with a shift of the trachea and mediastinum to the left.” These findings are most likely to indicate which of the following?

a hemoglobin deficiency

A patient with a normal cardiac output and PaO2 is exhibiting signs and symptoms of tissue hypoxia. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

post-extubation edema

The most likely cause of stridor in an adult patient would be which of the following?

high-resolution CT scanning

A patient is admitted with signs and symptoms, as well as a history consistent with bronchiectasis. You should recommend which of the following to confirm or rule out this diagnosis?

left sided tension pneumothorax

When reviewing a chest x-ray, you note that the heart is shifted to the patient’s right. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

noninvasive pulse oximetry

A physician wants your recommendation on how to monitor the cardiopulmonary status of a patient that is undergoing a bronchoscopy procedure with moderate sedation. You would recommend which of the following:

pressure limit/PIP = 25 cm H2O; rate = 15/min; inspiratory time = 1 second

The physician orders A/C pressure control for a 55 kg postoperative male patient. Which of the following settings would you choose for this patient?

pass through the suction catheter and then enter the Lukens trap

You are called to perform a sputum induction on a trach patient to gather a sample for microbiological identification. The sample is collected using a Lukens trap. When applying suction after entering the airway, the mucus should:

Aspirated Foreign Body

You hear wheezing while auscultating a patient’s chest. This may indicate the presence of which of the following?

decrease the high pressure limit to 45-50 cm H2O

While performing a routine patient-ventilator check, you note the following settings and parameters: Exhaled tidal volume 650 mL Peak inspiratory pressure 33 cm H2O High pressure limit 60 cm H2O Low pressure alarm 20 cm H2O Low tidal volume alarm 500 mL Which of the following change would you make?

heart rate rises from 103 to 118/min

Which of the following are acceptable changes in a patient’s status during a spontaneous breathing trial for weaning from mechanical ventilation?

Check the electrode connections on the patient

An apnea monitor alarm is sounding continuously but your initial assessment of the patient reveals that they are breathing normally. You next action should be to:

cardiac tamponade

If a patient develops a paradoxical pulse following trauma or cardiothoracic surgery, especially in connection with increasing venous pressure and heart rate, it would suggest which of the following?

check the patient-ventilator circuit for system leaks

While performing a routine ventilator check on a patient receiving volume controlled ventilation, you note that the peak airway pressure has decreased from a prior value of 52 cm H2O to 32 cm H2O. There have been no changes to the ventilator settings. Which of the following actions would be appropriate at this time?

terminate the protocol and contact the doctor

A doctor orders O2 titration with exercise for a patient with a chief complaint of dyspnea on exertion. The patient’s baseline SpO2 is 84% on room air. You would:

monitor cuff integrity and pressure

What is the purpose of the pilot balloon on an endotracheal or tracheostomy tube?

vital capacity (VC)

If you were to instruct a patient to take a maximum deep breath and then exhale completely, which maneuver is being measured?

V4

Which of the following ECG leads should be placed in the 5th intercostal space?

vibrating mesh nebulizer

A 16-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis is receiving pressure control SIMV with pressure support due to a severe bilateral pneumonia. The pulmonologist asks you to administer aerosolized dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) in-line with the ventilator. Which of these devices would you select to administer this therapy?

IPPB

Atelectasis has been diagnosed via a chest x-ray on an unconscious patient who had a recent open heart surgery. Before surgery, the patient’s best FVC value was 55% of the predicted. What would you recommend in order to treat the patient’s atelectasis?

assess the patient’s need for suctioning

For your patient receiving volume control AC ventilation, you observe a flow-volume loop with a sawtooth pattern on exhalation. Which of the following actions would you consider most appropriate?

pressure limit/PIP = 30 cm H2O; rate = 15/min; PEEP = 10 cm H2O

A patient is stabilized with adequate oxygenation and ventilation on volume control ventilation (VC) with the following settings: rate = 15/min, tidal volume = 550 mL, peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) = 45 cm H2O, plateau pressure = 30 H2O and PEEP = 10 cm H2O. The doctor orders a changeover to pressure control ventilation (PC). Which of the following settings would you initially use to implement PC in this patient?

contact the patient’s physician for instructions

Your patient is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation. On auscultation, you suspect that the patient’s endotracheal tube is in the right main stem bronchus. Which action should you take at this time?

residual volume

Simple spirometry can be used to measure any of the following except:

carbon monoxide poisoning

An unconscious patient was admitted to the ER with an SpO2 of 94% but analysis of an arterial blood sample using a CO-oximeter reveals a SaO2 of 69%. Which of the following is most likely the problem?

“Can you explain to me what you would do if your symptoms worsen?”

While educating a 31-year-old patient with asthma, you explain to her how to recognize and respond to episodes of worsening symptoms. To confirm her understanding of this information you should ask:

capnography

Which of the following would you recommend to provide graphic data useful in evaluating the ventilator-patient interface?

morbid obesity

Which of the following conditions would most likely be associated with a difficult airway?

right-sided atelectasis

While examining a patient, you notice that the patient has greatly diminished breath sounds in the right lower lobe and the trachea has shifted to the right. These signs indicate which of the following conditions?

bronchoalveolar lavage

A patient in intensive care unit is suspected of having developed a bacterial ventilator associated pneumonia. Which of the following procedures would you recommend in order to diagnose the cause of this problem?

add or increase pressure support

A male patient with a smaller than normal trach tube is placed on volume control SIMV at a rate of 8/min. Over the last hour, you note the patient increasing use of his accessory muscles during spontaneous breaths, accompanied by some abdominal paradox. Which of the following would be the best way to overcome this problem?

replace the endotracheal tube

Before intubation in an emergency situation, injection of air into the pilot line fails to inflate the cuff. Which of the following should you do?

refractory hypoxemia

In assessing a patient in the acute phase of ARDS, which of the following would you expect to find?

check the connecting tubing for leaks or obstructions

A nurse who recently set up a pleural drainage system on a patient with a pneumothorax complains that she doesn’t see any bubbling in the suction control chamber. After checking the suction control regulator to confirm that it is on, which of the following would you recommend that she do next?

prevent gas leaks and aspiration

To provide long-term positive pressure ventilation, a cuffed artificial airway is needed in order to:

kyphosis

While inspecting an elderly female patient, you note that she has an abnormal anteroposterior (AP) curvature of the spine. This best describes which of the following?

disconnect patient and provide manual ventilation with 100% O2

You are called to check on a patient receiving volume controlled A/C ventilation. You note that both the low tidal volume and high pressure limit alarms are sounding on each inspiration. You first action should be which of the following?

lower peak pressure

A 54 year-old patient is on a ventilator in the volume control mode. After you perform endotracheal suctioning, which of the following would indicate effective clearance of retained secretions?

pulmonary embolism

Which of the following conditions would a ventilation scan appear normal but a perfusion scan reveal areas of absent blood flow?

-20 cm H2O

A patient is considered to have sufficient respiratory muscle strength to maintain adequate ventilation and prevent secretion retention when the maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP; NIF) is more negative than which of the following?

dietary habits

Which of the following selections in a patient’s medical history would be least important to consider in evaluating their pulmonary condition?

the spirometer is performing within acceptable limits

A normal 5-foot 4-inch tall staff member serves as a biologic control for the PFT lab. Her established FVC is 3.81 L with a SD of ±0.13 L. During quality control testing of a spirometer, she produces the following FVC results: FVC #1 = 3.73 L, FVC #2 = 3.88 L, FVC #3 = 3.71 L. You should conclude that the

tighten the regulator connection

After opening the valve on an E cylinder which has a regulator attached, you hear a hissing noise. The flowmeter/gauge is turned off. Which of the following corrective actions should you take?

SIMV allows graded levels of support

Which of the following is an advantage of SIMV over assist/control ventilation?

lower the PEEP back to 10 cm H2O

The physician orders an increase in PEEP from 10 to 14 cm H2O for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation. After you adjust the PEEP setting, you note a rapid drop in the patient’s blood pressure and a significant rise in heart rate. Which of the following actions would be appropriate?

pulmonary barotrauma

What is the major hazard associated with the use of bag-valve resuscitator?

discarded the sample and obtain a new one

While analyzing an ABG sample you obtained from a patient breathing room air, you obtain the following values: pH 7.44 PaCO2 46 torr PaO2 163 torr The patient’s blood gas results should be:

check/adjust ET tube cuff pressure

You are using a portable pressure-cycled ventilator with a heated humidifier and IPPB circuit to temporarily ventilate a post-operative patient who is regaining consciousness in the recovery room. After checking the patient and ventilator, you notice that the inspiratory time is prolonged and the machine does not cycle off without active patient effort. What should you do in order to correct the problem?

either the patient’s inspiratory efforts or a timing mechanism

A ventilator that is being used in the assist/control mode will trigger on in response to which of the following?

Exacerbation of COPD

A 62-year-old male patient with a history of COPD and CHF have arrived in the ER with a complaint of difficulty breathing. To help with the differential diagnosis, the doctor orders the patient’s blood to be tested for bacteremia, CK-MB, cTnI, cTnT, and BNP. All results are negative. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s dyspnea?

pneumonia

If you were to hear bronchial breath sounds over the patient’s right middle lobe, what condition would you suspect is probably present?

cheyne-stokes respiration

You are called to evaluate a patient’s breathing pattern. You see that the patient’s tidal volumes go from small to large to small and then stop for 10 seconds before starting again and it repeats itself. Which of the following would best describe this breathing pattern?

maintain the endotracheal tube in place

A trauma patient has been receiving volume controlled SIMV via an endotracheal tube for the past three days. The attending surgeon anticipates that the patient will likely be on the ventilator for another 4 to 5 days. Which of the following actions would you recommend?

maintain the current settings

You are monitoring a mechanically ventilated patient 36 hours post-craniotomy who has an ICP of 20 mmHg but is otherwise stable. The latest ABG results are as follows: pH 7.39 PaCO2 43 mm Hg HCO3 24 mEq/L BE 0 PaO2 88 mm Hg SaO2 95% Based on this information, which of the following is the most acceptable action?

decrease stroke volume during positive pressure

While assessing a patient who is receiving ventilatory support, you note significant weakening of the pulse during the inspiration of machine-given breaths. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?

ultrasound

Which of the following would you recommend to help guide a physician in locating the appropriate needle insertion site for thoracentesis performed at the bedside?

sample pH and PCO2 correlate well with standard ABGs

Of the following statements, which is TRUE regarding capillary blood gas sampling?

the patient’s airway resistance has increased

You notice over a 2-hour period, the plateau pressure of a patient receiving volume controlled ventilation has remained stable, but her peak pressure has steadily increased. Which of the following is most likely the reason for this observation?

decrease the minute ventilation

A 58-year-old postoperative male who weighs 78 kg (172 lb) is receiving volume control A/C ventilation at a rate of 14/min with a tidal volume of 650 mL and an FIO2 of 0.4. Results of arterial blood gas analysis are as follows: pH 7.51 PaCO2 30 torr HCO3 23 mEq/L BE -1 PaO2 117 torr SaO2 99% Based on this information, you should recommend which of the following?

vascular dyes

Which of the following will tend to cause false LOW readings when using a pulse oximeter?

metabolic acidosis

In assessing a new admission to the Intensive Care Unit, you note a spontaneous respiratory rate of 37/minute. The most likely cause of this observation is:

Sensitivity

If the patient complains of difficulty in starting the IPPB treatment, which control should you adjust?

delivered volume will decrease

You have a patient that is receiving pressure controlled A/C ventilation. Which of the following changes would you expect to occur if the patient’s lung compliance were to decrease?

miller

What type of laryngoscope blade would you select when performing an emergency intubation on an infant?

inspiratory flow

The attending physician requests that you increase the expiratory time on a patient receiving volume control ventilation, but not alter the minute ventilation. Which of the following settings would you adjust to fulfill this request?

increased pH and decreased SaO2

Which of the following initial blood gas results would a respiratory therapist expect to find in a patient with a mild flail chest?

check/confirm proper temperature setting

Your patient who is being mechanically ventilated has thick, mucoid secretions. It is determined that the wick humidifier is producing insufficient humidity. In this case, which of the follow should you do?

adjust the nasal mask to ensure a better fit with no pressure loss

The Respiratory Therapist is called to evaluate a home patient with a nasal CPAP mask for treatment of obstructive sleep apnea. The patient’s wife states that he has been snoring more loudly lately and having periods of apnea. You confirm this after observing the patient’s sleeping and breathing patterns for 2 hours. What would be your first course of action to try to correct the problem?

pressure vs. volume display

Which of the following ventilator graphics displays is the best choice to assess the work of breathing associated with patient triggering?

hypoxemia

A patient’s ABG shows respiratory alkalosis. Which of the following problems is most likely?

drain any accumulated water from the delivery tubing

A large volume jet nebulizer is operating on 70% oxygen at 12 L/min. You note that the aerosol being delivered is in short rapid puffs and also observe a gurgling sound in the system. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

increasing the power/amplitude

You are called and asked to decrease the PaCO2 of a patient receiving high-frequency oscillation ventilation. Which of the following should you consider adjusting?

“Do you need to use extra pillows when you sleep?”

Which of the following should be asked in order to help determine if a patient has orthopnea?

Consolidation in the patient’s left lower lobe

While auscultating a patient’s lungs, you hear bronchial breath sounds over the left lower lobe area. This would indicate which of the following?

left-sided pneumothorax

After assessing your patient, they are acutely dyspneic and hypotensive, you note the following (all limited to the left hemithorax): reduced chest expansion, hyperresonance to percussion, absent of breath sounds and tactile fremitus, and a tracheal shift to the right. Which of the following would these findings suggest?

flattening of the diaphragms

While observing the AP chest radiograph of a patient suffering from advanced stages of pulmonary emphysema, which of the following finding would you expect to see?

levalbuterol (Xopenex)

A 53-year-old female patient with chronic bronchitis is receiving volume controlled A/C ventilation. Wheezing is heard over all lung fields and rhonchial fremitus is felt over the central airways. Also, her secretions are very thick. The patient’s peak pressure is 45 cm H2O and plateau pressure is 20 cm H2O. Which of the following would be useful to treat the patient’s condition?

left ventricular failure

Before giving an aerosol treatment, you see a note in the chart that states your patient had pink frothy secretions on admission to the emergency department. This is most likely indicates which of the following:

left-sided pneumothorax

After assessing an acutely dyspneic and hypotensive patient, you note the following, all on the left side of the chest: reduced chest expansion, hyperresonance to percussion, absent of breath sounds and tactile fremitus, and a tracheal shift to the right. These findings most likely suggest:

increase the flow to the bag

Which of the following should you do when the reservoir bag of a nonrebreathing mask collapses completely during inspiration?

severe hypoxemia

You should recommend AGAINST performing a diagnostic bronchoscopy procedure on a patient with which of the following?

6 – 12 mm Hg

The normal range for the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) as measured via the distal port of a pulmonary artery or Swan-Ganz catheter (with the balloon inflated) is:

Excessive probe movement

Which of the following would most likely cause a misleading or incorrect pulse oximetry reading?

30 cm H2O

For a patient receiving positive-pressure ventilation, you should strive to keep the alveolar (plateau) airway pressure below which of the following?

suction the airway

A patient is being ventilated in the volume-control mode when suddenly the high pressure alarm begins to sound. Which of the following actions would likely correct this problem?

a restrictive disorder

A patient’s bedside spirometry results are as follows: FVC decreased, FEV1 normal, FEV1% increased. What is the most likely problem?

7.4 L/min

Bedside spirometry performed on a patient reveals the following: Respiratory rate = 21, Tidal volume = 350 mL, Dead space = 155 mL, Vital capacity = 1.0 L. Based on this data, what is the patient’s minute ventilation?

obtain the patient’s current prescription vials from the family

A patient presents to the emergency room with a depressed level of consciousness and is severely agitated. Which of the following approaches can be used to obtain their medication history?

use an oxygen-conserving device

An ambulatory home oxygen therapy patient complains that her portable liquid system running at 2 L/min doesn’t last long enough for her to visit with her grandchildren. Which of the following would you recommend to overcome this limitation?

combined hypercapnic/hypoxemic respiratory failure

A patient with a 9-year history of chronic bronchitis and an acute pneumonia exhibits the following ABG results on room air:
pH = 7.21, PCO2 = 64 torr, HCO3 = 25 mEq/L, PO2 = 39 torr, P(A-a)O2 = 41 torr
Which of the following best describes this patient’s condition?

assure a stable/fixed FIO2

What is the primary reason for selecting a high flow nasal cannula system for a patient?

restrictive

A pneumothorax in the clinical setting is classified as which of the following primary disorders?

ventilation/perfusion scans

For patients with suspected pulmonary thromboembolism whose ordinary X-rays are negative, which of the following procedures can best help establish the diagnosis?

decreased vascular markings

Which of the following would you expect to find on the AP chest radiograph of a patient suffering from advanced stages of pulmonary emphysema?

tissue biopsy via fiberoptic bronchoscopy

Based on your patient’s smoking history and their physical exam, you immediately suspect them of having bronchogenic carcinoma. You would recommend which of the following tests to confirm or rule-out this diagnosis?

increase the high rate alarm to 30-35

In order to initiate weaning, you change the patient from volume control A/C ventilation to pressure support. After 30 minutes on pressure support, the high respiratory rate alarm sounds, with the patient breathing at a rate of 25 to 30 per minute. What change should you make to the ventilator settings?

20-25%

Ventilatory support may be indicated when the pulmonary R-L shunt fraction (Qs/Qt) rises above what level?

decreased end-diastolic volume

A patient in intensive care unit develops a supraventricular tachycardia at a rate of 162/min. Which of the following effects would this have on cardiac function?

improvement of the air flow

A patient with asthma is in acute respiratory distress and presents to the emergency room with diminished breath sounds. After bronchodilator therapy, auscultation of the chest reveals rhonchi and wheezing. This change suggests which of the following?

Signs

Things you can see or measure

symptoms

Subjective information (The patient must tell you)

Pack years

Packs per day multiplied by the number of years.

Advanced directives are?

documents that provide instructions incase the patient is unable to. These instructions should be notarized and copies given to the family and physician.

If a patient has a DNI order you can still?

Provide non invasive ventilation ( BiPAP)

A durable power of attorney allows?

A person to make decisions for the patient.

What is normal urine output?

40mL per hour or 1 Liter per day.

Where does sensible water loss occur?

Through the urine or vomiting, Diarrhea.

Where does insensible water loss occur?

Through the skin or exhalation.

What is normal Central venous pressure?

2 to 6 mmHg

What should you recommend for patients with an elevated CVP?

Diuretics

What should you recommend for a patient with a low CVP?

Fluids.

The abbreviation ADL stands for?

Activities of daily living.

What is Orthopnea?

Difficulty breathing while laying flat. Often seen in CHF patients.

What is general malaise?

A generalized run down feeling, nauseas, weak, fatigued, headache. Think electrolyte imbalance.

What does Dysphagia mean?

Difficulty swallowing.

Why does peripheral edema most commonly occur?

edema is most likely caused by CHF or renal failure.

What is Acites?

Acites is fluid in the abdomen. Typically caused by liver failure.

What causes clubbing of the fingers?

Chronic hypoxemia.

How fast should color return to a finger during a capillary refill test?

Blood should return in less than 3 seconds.

What is Diaphoresis?

A state of profuse sweating.

What is Jaundice?

A yellowish appearance of the skin caused by increased bilirubin in the blood and tissue.

What is Erythema?

Redness of the skin due from capillary congestion, inflammation, or infection.

Cyanosis is caused by?

Reduced oxyhemoglobin.

How much oxyhemoglobin loss is required to cause cyanosis?

5 Grams.

Barrel chest is caused by?

Air trapping in the lungs for long periods of time.

Cheyne stokes respirations

gradually increasing then decreasing rate and depth with periods of apnea.

Biot’s respirations

Increased rate and depth with irregular periods of apnea. Each breath has the same depth.

Kussmauls respirations

Fast and Deep

The normal muscles of ventilation are?

The Diaphragm and external intercostals.

Retractions and nasal flaring mean?

An obstructed airway.

What is macroglossia?

an enlarged tongue.

What is the most common cause of tachycardia?

Hypoxemia.

How much change in heart rate signifies an adverse reaction.

A change of 20bpm indicates an adverse reaction.

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A pulse or blood pressure that varies during respiration.

What is tactile fremitus?

Vibrations that can be felt on the chest wall. Such as rhonchi, pleural rubbing, vocal.

What is crepitus?

Bubbles of air under the skin that can be palpated (Subcutaneous emphysema)

A resonant chest percussion is ?

Normal sound

A flat or dull sound during chest percussion indicates?

Fluid or solid.

A tympanic or hyperresonant sound during chest percussion indicates?

Air in the pleural space.

Vesicular breath sounds are?

Normal breath sounds

Adventitious breath sounds are?

Abnormal breath sounds.

If you hear a murmur you should recommend?

An echocardiogram

Hypertension indicates?

Hypoxemia.

Hypotension indicates?

Hypovolemia, CHF

In a normal XRAY the right hemidiaphragm should be?

Slightly higher than the left.

Over exposed xrays will look?

Dark

Underxposed xrays will look?

White.

What is a lateral decubitus xray?

Having a patient lay on their side for the xray. Helps evaluate fluid or pleural effusions.

An ET tube should be positioned how many centimeters above the carina?

2 to 6 centimeters above the carina. Or at the level of the aortic arch or notch.

A lateral neck xray will help determine?

Croup or Epiglottitis.

A steepling on an xray indicates?

Croup or subglottic swelling.

A thumb print on an xray indicates?

Epiglottitis. The thumb print is caused by supraglottic swelling or swelling of the glottis.

A butterfly pattern or batwing pattern on a xray indicates?

Pulmonary edema.

Ground glass on an xray indicates ?

ARDS

Blunting of the costophrenic angles on an xray indicate?

Pleural effusions or fluid, atelectasis.

Air bronchograms on an xray are often seen in what conditions?

Atelectasis, Pneumonia, ARDS.

CT scans should be used to find?

Tumors or pulmonary emboli…. Not pneumonia.

Pneumonia can be seen with what kind of imaging?

An X ray.

Normal Intracranial pressure value is?

5 to 10 mmHg

How does hyperventilating a patient decrease ICP?

Hyperventilation causes vasoconstriction, temporarily decreases ICP.

Normal Red blood cell count?

5 mill/mm3

Normal Hemoglobin?

12- 16 g/100 mL blood.

Normal Hematocrit is?

40-50%

What is polycythemia?

An increase in hemoglobin, hematocrit, and RBC.

Normal White blood cell range?

5 to 10 thousand per mm3

Increase white blood cell count is called? and is indicative of?

Leukocytosis. Indicative of a bacterial infection.

A decrease in White blood cell count is called? and is indicative of?

Leukopenia. Indicative of a viral infection.

The two types of neutrophils are?

Bands and segs

Band neutrophils are?

Immature cells, they increase with a bacterial infection.

Band neutrophils increase during a?

bacterial infection.

Segs neutrophils are?

Mature neutrophils.

An increase of Eosinophils are often seen with?

Asthma patients or allergic reactions.

Kidney failure can be evaluated with what tests?

Creatinine and Blood Urea Nitrogen, (BUN)

Yellow sputum is indicative of?

Bacterial infection, It has white blood cells in it.

Green sputum is indicative of?

Gram negative bacteria (pseudomonas)

What type of test is used to evaluate TB?

Acid fast staining.

Normal clotting time is?

up to six minutes.

Normal Troponin levels are?

Less than 0.1 ng/ mL

Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP) is associated with?

Helps determine if the patient’s symptoms are the result of CHF or COPD.

BUN Levels

Greater than 300 pg/mL indicate mild heart failure
Greater than 600 indicate moderate
greater than 900 indicate severe

Normal sodium levels are?

135-145 mEq/L

Normal Potassium levels are?

3.5-4.5 mEq/L

Normal Chloride levels are?

80-100 mEq/L

What does a sputum culture identify?

The type of bacteria present.

What does sputum sensitivity identify?

the type of antibiotics that will kill the bacteria.

What are mucoid secretions?

White/ gray commonly from chronic bronchitis.

What causes yellow secretions?

Yellow is caused by the presence if Eosinophils, or bacterial infection.

What causes green secretions?

Caused by stagnant sputum, gram negative bacteria. Pseudomonas, bronchiectasis

Pink frothy sputum is most likely from?

pulmonary edema.

Normal platelet count is ?

150,000-400,000/mm3

Normal prothrombin time is ?

12-15 seconds.

What is hematuria?

Blood in the urine, associated with kidney damage.

Depressed or inverted T waves indicate?

Myocardial ischemia.

Elevated S-T segment indicates?

Myocardial injury.

Significant Q waves indicate?

Myocardial infarction.

Definition of ischemia?

Reduced blood flow to the tissue.

Normal end tidal CO2 is ?

30 torr.

Normal COHb levels are?

0-1 %

COHb levels of a smoker are?

2-12 %

COHb poisoning levels are?

>20%

What instruments can be used to measure COHb levels?

CO-oximeter, Multi-wavelength spectrophotometer, Hemoximeter.

Transcutaneous monitors are heated to around?

43-45 degrees Celsius.

Hemodynamics refer to?

Circulation and perfusion

Common vasodilators for the treatment of hypertension are?

ACE inhibitors (Lisinopril, perindopril)
Direct vasodilators (Nitroprusside, hydralazine)

Normal pulmonary artery pressure is?

25/8 mmHg

Normal CVP pressure is?

2-6 mmHg

Normal right ventricle pressure is?

25/0mmHg

Normal capillary pressure is?

20mmHg
10mmHg as it leaves the capillary bed and enters venous.

Normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is?

About 8mmHg

The Mitral (Bicuspid) valve is located?

The left heart.

The Tricuspid valve is located?

The right heart.

Mean arterial pressure forumla

MAP = (2x diastolic) + systolic / 3

Normal cardiac output is?

4-8 L/ min.

Normal systemic vascular resistance is?

< 20 mmHg/L/min or
1600 Dynes

Normal pulmonary vascular resistance is?

<2.5 mmHg/L/min or
200 Dynes

Acronym for obstructive lung diseases

CBABE
Cystic fibrosis
Bronchitis
Asthma
Bronchiectasis
Emphysema

To drain AIR from the pleural space, where should the needle or chest tube be placed?

In the 2nd or 3rd intercostal space
Mid-clavicular.

To drain FLUID from the pleural space, where should you insert the chest tube?

In the 4th or 5th intercostal space
Mid- Axillary.

Thoracentesis means to?

Drain fluid from the pleural space.

The normal Arterial-venous oxygen content difference is?

4-5 percent volume.

What is the formula for Arterial- venous oxygen content difference?

C(a-v)O2
CaO2-CvO2

What does shunting mean?

perfusion without ventilation.

As arterial-venous oxygen content difference goes up in percent, cardiac output does what?

Cardiac output goes down.

A normal A-a gradient on 100% is what torr?

25-65 torr

An A-a gradient of 66-300 means?

The patient has a V/Q mismatch

An A-a gradient of greater than 300 means?

The patient has a shunting problem.

Normal air to oxygen ration on 40% is?

3:1
Three parts air one part oxygen
The factor is 4…. 3+1 = 4

PATIENT ASSESSMENT:
All the following could cause capnography to go from 3 6 to 30 EXCEPT:
A. Endotracheal tube positioned in the right mainstream bronchus
B. Hyperventilation
C. pulmonary emboli
D. Hypovolemia

Endotracheal tube positioned in right mainstem bronchus is a problem but the co2 reading would not change, so

ANSWER is A.

What is the target Vt for individual on mechanical ventilation

6-8 ml/kg (of ideal body weight) This is new strategy as of January 2015

Is the following Static OR Dynamic Compliance:
Means flow throughout the respiratory system has stopped and all ventilatory muscle activity is absent. _______ conditions can be imposed with an inspiratory pause when a patient is sedated and mechanically ventilated.

Static Compliance

Is the following Static OR Dynamic Compliance:
Flow at airway opening is zero. Mechanics are evaluated under ______ conditions, when non-intubated patient breathes spontaneously.

Dynamic Compliance

A balloon tipped flow directed catheter is positioned in the pulmonary artery with the balloon deflated. Which of the following pressures will be measured by the proximal lumen:
a. Cvp
b. Pap
c. Pwp
d. Map

ANSWER is A. Cvp = deflated/proximal lumen

Pap = deflated/distal
Pwp = inflated/wedged

All of the following will affect the accuracy of a capnography EXCEPT
a. Long sampling line
b. Low sampling flow
c. Condensation in the tubing
d. Use of desiccant

Gas will pass through and out of a long sampling line before reaching analyzer so, low sampling flow will not give you enough information for a good reading, and condensation as a rule is always a problem especially in analyzers. Dessicant removes moisture from the gas, which is a good thing, so
ANSWER is D

A 1000 g neonate (normal baby is 3000 g) is stable in nicu. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist use to monitor the neonates overall cardiopulmonary status.
a. TcPCO2 and TcPO2 monitor
b. Arterial blood gas analysis Q4
c. SpO2 monitor
d. Capillary gas analysis Q8

Since the baby is stable, go less invasive, also go continuous monitoring (not 4 hour or 8 hour), Transcutaneous (Tc) continuous monitoring of CO2 and O2 is the best. Answer is A

A unilateral wheeze would most likely indicate which of the following.
a. Asthma
b. Atelectasis
c. Foreign body aspiration
d. Epiglottitis

You wouldn’t have asthma on just one side (unilateral), atelectasis would cause diminished breath sounds, with epiglottitis you would get stridor, since you are only hearing wheezing on one side, you are hearing it on the side where you aspirated something,
so ANSWER is C

All of the following would be associated with the presence of a pneumothorax EXCEPT
a. Tracheal deviation
b. Dull percussion
c. Absent breath sounds
d. Respiratory distress

With pneumothorax you would hear a high pitch hyperresonnance, breath sounds would be absent, and respiratory distress could be present. Dull percussion would NOT be present,

so ANSWER is B.

What should you recommend FIRST for a patient with multifocal pvc’s
a. Administration of lidocaine
b. Administration of 100% oxygen
c. Administration of atropine
d. Administration of epinephrine

Multiple pvc’s coming from multiple locations (multifocal) is a real problem and you should administer oxygen FIRST, so ANSWER is B. lidocaine will help reduce irritability of heart and help with pvc’s but would not be first option, atropine is used for bradycardia and cardiac irregularities but not pvc’s, epinephrine is emergency drug not for pvc’s but more for pulseless ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrilation where heart is not responding .

What is the normal range for the mean pulmonary artery pressure in an adult
a. 2-6 mm Hg
b. 4-12 mmHg
c. 9-18 mmHg
d. 21-28 mmHg

Mean pulmonary artery pressure in an adult should be in the teens

so best ANSWER is C

A patient in the emergency dept has frothy secretions, moist crackles, and tachypnea. The patient has marked dyspnea and a history of heart disease. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend.
1.suction immediately
2.administer 100% oxygen
3.place in Fowlers position
4.administer furosemide

This is an emergency, they are having heart problems, dyspnea, frothy secretions indicating severe pulmonary edema, etc. so 100% oxygen immediately, having the patient in the Fowlers position (an upright position) will help pull fluid down away from the lungs, furosemide is a lasix (loop diuretic) which gets rid of excess fluid. You do NOT suction someone with frothy secretions and heart problems, this just delays appropriate therapy. So ANSWER is 2,3,4

Fine crepitant crackles are most commonly associated with which of the following conditions.
a. Bronchiectasis
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Pneumonia
d. Croup

Crackles are associated with fluid so a, b, and c would be good answers, but “fine crepitant” crackles indicates fluid entering alveoli (pulmonary edema) which is most often caused by heart failure so the best ANSWER is B. (with croup you would hear more of a stridor sound).

A patient is found in full cardiopulmonary arrest. CPR is started and the patient is orally intubated with an EtCO2 monitor attached. Which of the following EtCO2 patterns would the respiratory therapist expect to observe on the monitor?
a. Initially high, then falling
b. Initially low, then rising
c. Initially high, stays high
d. Initially low, stays low

Full cardiac arrest will cause the CO2 in the lungs to slowly dissipate out because no blood is flowing, then during CPR when you get blood flowing, the CO2 should slowly rise back up;
so ANSWER is B

If the blood pressure obtained from the arterial line is higher than the blood pressure obtained from a sphygmomanometer (cuff pressure). Based upon this information, the respiratory therapist should conclude that.
a. Non-compliant tubing is being used
b. Transducer is placed too low
c. Patient was lying flat during the measurement of the arterial line pressure
d. Transducer dome contained air bubbles

Arterial line BP and cuff pressure should be the same, so there is a problem. Non-compliant tubing is a good thing because it’s a stiff tubing, if transducer is placed too high (above the heart), the flood will have to go uphill and you will get a lower pressure; transducer dome contained air bubbles would give you erratic readings but not a higher reading, but if the transducer is placed too low (below heart), the blood is flowing downhill & will give a higher pressure reading, so ANSWER is B

A 2-year old child enters the emergency room. The mother states that the child was playing with friends and developed violent coughing and unilateral wheezing. Physical examination reveals a hyperresonant percussion note on the left and resonant percussion on the right. Inspiratory and expiratory chest films indicate air trapping with no foreign bodies “noted.” The respiratory therapist should suspect the child has.
a.pneumothorax
b.orthopnea
c.aspirated a foreign object
d.tachyphylaxis

Unilateral wheezing indicates aspirated object and fact that the child was playing with friends causes you to believe the child inhaled a small toy or something, hyperresonant percussion indicates air trapping, so you are thinking foreign object but x-ray says no foreign bodies “noted.” Just because it says “noted” does not mean something is not there, it just means it could not be seen on the xray, also if the child had swallowed a small plastic toy, “plastic” does not show up on xrays (radiolucent). The ANSWER is C

A patient is admitted to the ICU complaining of nausea and chest pain. A nasogastric tube has been inserted to help relieve the nausea. The patient was started on Lasix and nitroglycerin. Which of the following should be monitored to closely identify side effects at this time.
a. Cardiac enzymes
b. Serum electrolytes
c. Arterial blood gases
d. Digitalis levels

Since the patient received Lasix and nasogastric tube, they are losing fluids, and a side effect of fluid loss is a decrease in electrolytes, so ANSWER is B (there isn’t enough evidence of heart attack to justify cardiac enzymes, also they are used to confirm a heart attack).

Which of the following will determine aortic pulse pressure.
a. systolic + systolic + diastolic/3
b. diastolic + pulse pressure/3
c. systolic pressure – diastolic pressure
d. stroke volume x heart rate x 10.

Aortic pulse pressure is just the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure, so ANSWER is C

A 32-week gestational age infant is receiving mechanical ventilation for hyaline membrane disease. The patient required a chest tube for a persistent pneumothorax. Two days later the chest radiograph reveals bilateral radiolucency, midline mediastinum, and the right hemidiaphragm slightly elevated. This would indicate
A. atelectasis.
B. bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
C. fluid overload.
D. resolution of a pneumothorax.

bilateral means both sides, radiolucency refers to dark, midline mediastinum is right where is should be, the right hemidiaphragm slightly elevated is normal; so this actually indicates everything is normal. With atelectasis we would see patchy infiltrates, loss of volume, with bronchopulmonary dysplasia it would look similar to ARDS, with fluid overload you would see pattern similar to butterfly or batwing similar to pulmonary edema, so the best

ANSWER is D and the pneumothorax has resolved.

A chest X-ray shows increased retro-sternal air, flat hemidiaphram, decreased movement, and no vascular markings on the right side. These signs would be most likely associated with:
A. pneumothorax
B. pleural effusion
C. pneumonia
D. flail chest

The flat hemidiaphram indicates pneumothorax, so the ANSWER is A.

What is the normal range for the pulmonary artery systolic pressure in an adult?
A. 2-6 mm Hg
B. 4-12 mm Hg
C. 9-18 mm Hg
D. 21-28 mm Hg

The normal pressure is 25 mm Hg, so the ANSWER is D 21-28 mm Hg

While assessing a patient’s breath sounds the respiratory therapist notes that when the patient is instructed to say the letter “E”, it comes through the stethescope sounding like “aaaahhh”. This change in the sound is associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Pleuritic inflammation
B. Pneumonia
C. Bronchospasm
D. Epiglotitis

The sound aaaaahhhhh is egotheny and is associated with consolidation in the lung, so the ANSWER is B pneumonia. Pleural inflammation would be a crackling crunching sound, bronchospasm would sound like wheezing, and epiglottitis would be stridor.

An 1800 g neonate in the NICU is being monitored with a TcPO2 electrode. The TcPO2 electrode is reading 42 torr with the temperature set at 38oC. The PO2 from an umbilical artery sample is 72 torr. Which of the following would best explain the difference in these readings?
A. There was an error in the arterial blood gas results.
B. The TcPO2 electrode needs to be repositioned.
C. The TcPO2 electrode temperature setting is too low.
D. The TcPO2 electrode has been dislodged.

TcPO2 should be set at 43-45 C so the electrode is not hot enough to make the device work. There is not enough profusion with the electrode so you need to raise the temperature on the electrode, so the ANSWER is C, TcPO2 electrode temperature setting is too low.

A multiple trauma victim with internal hemorrhage is being monitored via pulse oximetry. Which of the following conditions would affect the accuracy of her SpO2 readings?
A. hypotension
B. hyperoxia
C. hypocarbia
D. hyperthermia

Since the SpO2 measures the color of the blood and the ability to shine a light through the blood, the only answer that would affect the accuracy of the SpO2 reading would be ANSWER A hypotension because hypotension causes less profusion (needed for the SpO2 reading)

A patient with COPD has been admitted for possible pneumonia. The patient is producing moderate amounts of thick yellow sputum and breath sounds are decreased in the right middle lobe. Sputum culture indicates a staphylococcal infection. Which of the following therapies should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. chest physical therapy
B. antibiotic therapy
C. incentive spirometry
D. IPPB

The priority in this case is the infection and only the antibiotic treatment can get rid of the infection, so the ANSWER is B, Antibiotic treatment.

A premature baby is receiving an FIO2 of .40 and CPAP at 5 cmH2O. As the respiratory therapist increases the CPAP to 7 cmH2O, the baby’s respiratory rate increases to 58 per minute and the TcPCO2 reading increases with a stable SpO2 monitor reading. The respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following?
A. Discontinue the CPAP
B. Draw an arterial blood gas sample
C. Increase the CPAP to 10 cmH2O
D. Place the baby in an oxyhood at an FIO2 0.45

Drawing an ABG would give us more information and since this is not an emergency that is the best ANSWER B, arterial blood gas.

A 44-year-old woman has just undergone a cholecystectomy. Over the last 48 hours the patient has the following laboratory findings:
K+: 3 mEq/L
Na+: 115 mEq/L
Cl-: 80 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
Urine output: 60 mL/hour
BP: 125/95 mm Hg
Based upon this information the respiratory therapist would conclude
A. the patient is hyperkalemic
B. the patient requires decreased fluid intake
C. the patient is polycythemic
D. the patient has a metabolic alkalosis

Hyperkalemic is high potassium, polycythemic has extra red blood cells, and we do not have Hb measurement, metabolic alkalosis is associated with low potassium but the bicarb is normal (and it would be high with low potassium), the urine output is high so the best ANSWER is B, patient requires reduced fluid intake.

A 55-year-old patient is admitted to CCU with chest pain. While assembling an oxygen mask, the respiratory therapist notes the following ECG pattern: Ventricular fibrillation
The patient is now unconscious, unresponsive and has no palpable pulse. The therapist’s first response should be to:
A. administer oxygen by non-rebreather mask.
B. deliver a pre-cordial thump.
C. recommend intravenous amiodarone.
D. perform synchronized cardioversion.

Since you are actually witnessing a ventricular fibrillation, the very first thing you can do is try to get their heart started again by doing ANSWER B, deliver a pre-cordial thump which is a good thump right in the center of their sternum.

The respiratory therapist notices a dampened waveform on a pulmonary arterial line. The therapist’s first action should be to
A. attempt to draw blood from the line.
B. check the transducer dome for air bubbles.
C. flush the catheter with heparin solution.
D. check the position of the transducer.

Dampened wave form is when you aren’t getting a nice sharp reading, you should get a clear systolic and diastolic pattern; the most common cause is a blood clot, flushing the catheter with heparin might push the blood clot into the lung at this point (not a good idea), another common cause of a dampened wave form is air bubbles in the transducer dome, so the ANSWER is B.

A patient in the intensive care unit is suffering left heart failure. Which of the following drugs will increase the strength of contraction and improve cardiac output?
A. digitalis
B. atropine
C. isuprel
D. lidocaine

Atropine is used for bradycardia and increases output but not strength, Isuprel treats bradycardia and output but not strength, Lidocaine reduces irritability of heart, but Digitalis is a cardiac glycoside that increases cardiac output and strengthens cardiac contraction, so ANSWER is A

The results of a patient’s chest radiograph reveal the presence of a left basilar free fluid accumulation with a meniscus formation. Physical examination of the chest indicates a dull percussion note on the left and trachea shifted to the right. These results are consistent with which of the following conditions?
A. Pleural effusion on the left
B. Basilar pneumonia of the left lung
C. Atelectasis of the left lung
D. Pneumothorax in the left lung

Miniscus formation means accumulation is curling and going up the side, dull percussion can be solid or fluid filled (not just consolidation), since its pushing to the right it has to be a problem outside the lung, so the ANSWER is A.

The respiratory therapist has been paged to the ICU to assist in the treatment of a 98 kg (215 lb) man. The patient is pale, diaphoretic, and suddenly loses consciousness. No palpable pulse or blood pressure is measured. The ECG monitor displays the following sinus bradycardia with a rate of 45): The respiratory therapist should:
A. confirm the ECG in another lead.
B. begin chest compressions.
C. perform cardioversion.
D. perform defibrillation.

ECG is showing sinus bradycardia with a rate of 45, all this leads up to begin chest compressions, so ANSWER is B. Do not perform cardioversion or defribulation because there is no arrhythmia so we don’t want to mess with anything electrical in the heart, just want to help it out mechanically.

The respiratory therapist is assessing a patient’s vital signs and notes that the pulse feels weak and thready. This would most likely be associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Hypervolemia
B. Shock
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Increased systemic vascular resistance

A weak and thread pulse can be associated with conditions that decrease the blood pressure like shock or hypovalemia, so the ANSWER is B shock.

A patient who recently underwent a total abdominal hysterectomy is complaining of chills and purulent sputum. Breath sounds reveal coarse rales and rhonchi. The results of the CBC indicate a WBC count of 19,000. The most likely diagnosis is that the patient has developed:
A. atelectasis
B. pneumonia
C. hemothorax
D. bacterial infection

Bacterial infections cause purulent sputum which is increased WBC’s; viral infections do not. It might be pneumonia, but we do not know without more information, so the best answer is D bacterial infection,

After injecting a small amount of air into the balloon of a pulmonary artery catheter, the respiratory therapist sees a small amplitude change with the mean pressure reading 2 points below the PA end-diastolic pressure. Based upon this information, the therapist should conclude that
A. there is pressure dampening.
B. the transducer is placed too high.
C. there is an obstruction in the catheter.
D. this is a normal wedge tracing.

A small amplitude change is normal and the mean pressure reading 2 points below the pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure is also normal, so the ANSWER is D.

A 32-week gestational age infant is receiving mechanical ventilation for hyaline membrane disease. The respiratory therapist suspects that a pneumothorax has developed and performs transillumination, which reveals a brightly illuminated left thorax. The respiratory therapist’s FIRST action should be to
A. insert a chest tube and connect to a pleural suction system.
B. perform a fiberoptic bronchoscopy.
C. obtain a STAT chest film.
D. suction the infant.

Since a pneumothorax was suspected, illumination was done and revealed a “brightly illuminated left thorax” (a halo effect would be normal). A brightly illuminated thorax indicates there is definitely too much air or a pneumothorax in the left lung. Whenever there is a pneumothorax, you don’t need more information, you need to insert a chest tube and connect to a pleural suction system, so the ANSWER is A.

A patient with a history of myasthenia gravis has just been admitted for increased muscle weakness. The respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following diagnostic tests to monitor the patient’s drug therapy?
A. polysomnography
B. electroencephalography
C. tensilon challenge test
D. methacholine challenge test

Polysomnography is a sleep study, Electroencephalography is an EEG brain test, Methacholine Challenge Test is a pulmonary function test used to check the reactivity of a patients airways, it will induce bronchospasm; Tensilon Challenge Test is specifically for Myasthenia Gravis, it helps them breath right away but only lasts a few minutes, so the ANSWER is D.

While assessing a patient’s breath sounds the respiratory therapist notes that when the patient says “ninety-nine”, it sounds very loud through the stethescope. This would be associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Pneumonia
C. Pleural effusion
D. Epiglottitis

99 is a sound that produces vibrations in the lung, if 99 sounds very loud through the stethoscope you know consolidation is present, so the ANSWER is B. Pleural effusion you don’t usually hear anything.

A 47-year-old patient admitted for sepsis has a CaO2 value of 12.5 vol%. The patient does not appear cyanotic. Which of the following would be the most important to further evaluate the patient’s oxygenation status?
A. PaO2
B. SaO2
C. Hb
D. PAO2

CaO2 IS best measurement of oxy delivered to the tissues, normal is 18-20%, this patient’s is 12.5% which is low so patient is suffering from anemia (not enough oxy rich hemoglobin). So ANSWER is C.

The tip of a catheter used to measure the wedge pressure should be positioned in the:
A. superior vena cava
B. right atrium
C. pulmonary artery
D. pulmonary vein

Tip of catheter used to measure the wedge pressure should be positioned in the… Answer C pulmonary artery

A 64-year-old patient is being resuscitated for full cardiopulmonary arrest. After several unsuccessful attempts, the patient is orally intubated with a size 7.0 mm endotracheal tube. The physician is unable to establish a peripheral or central intravenous line. The ECG monitor now shows the following rhythm (sinus rhythm with regular positive p-wave, bradycardia). The respiratory therapist should recommend administration of:
A. lidocaine by small volume nebulizer.
B. atropine through the endotracheal tube.
C. epinephrine by intra-cardiac injection.
D. amiodarone by intraosseous injection.

Graph shows sinus rhythm with regular positive p-wave, bradycardia (slow heart rate, heart beat more than 5 boxes wide is bradycardia; boxes less than 3 wide is tachycardia). Since no IV can be inserted, we will administer drugs through endotracheal tube…. but what drug…lidocaine would be for gag reflex or coughing, epinephrine very powerful used for emergencies, for flat line, amiodarone might be used for ventricular disrythmias, pvc’s; atropine is for Bradycardia so ANSWER is Atropine.

A patient involved in a motor vehicle accident has sustained a long bone fracture and remains in traction. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain, and becomes tachypneic and tachycardiac. To determine the cause of the problem the respiratory therapist should recommend
A. administering 100% oxygen.
B. a V/Q scan.
C. streptokinase.
D. a STAT chest x-ray.

long bone fracture combined with patient just lying around makes them very susceptible for pulmonary emboli; so which of these 4 would best find pulmonary emboli. A V/Q scan will show areas of ventilation and profusion and pulmonary emboli could cause area of deadspace, so ANSWER is B (streptokinase is an effective clot buster, STAT chest x-ray would be helpful but not be the best for diagnosing emboli).

The respiratory therapist is called to the emergency department to evaluate a patient who was brought in via an ambulance due to a motor vehicle accident. The patient is cold and clammy with a blood pressure of 82/46 mm Hg. The ECG monitor shows sinus tachycardia with occasional PVC. Which of the following should the therapist evaluate at this time?
A. Serum electrolytes
B. Cardiac enzymes
C. Hb and Hct levels
D. 12 lead ECG

Patient seems to be experiencing shock, serum electrolytes would be a good choice, cardiac enzymes would be good but very expensive, 12 lead ECG is another good test but more appropriate if we were mainly concerned with the heart; Hb and Hct most closely corresponds to shock because you know the patient was in an accident and probably had a lot of blood loss, so ANSWER is C Hb and Hct

Viral infections cause WBC to (INCREASE OR DECREASE)
Bacterial infections cause WBC to (INCREASE OR DECREASE)

Viral WBC Decrease
Bacterial WBC Increase

Which of the following drugs should the respiratory therapist recommend to lower a patient’s blood pressure as well as decrease his ventricular afterload?
A. Norepinephrine
B. Propranolol
C. Procainamide
D. Sodium nitroprusside

Norepinephrine will increase blood pressure and afterload; Propranolol will slow the heart down but doesn’t do anything for the afterload; Procainamide is an antirhythmic agent; Sodium Nitroprusside is a vasodilator, which will reduce blood pressure and decrease the afterload.

A pleural friction rub is associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT
A. pneumonia.
B. tuberculosis.
C. pleurisy.
D. pulmonary edema.

Pulmonary edema has a lot of excess fluid in the lung so there would be no friction rub, so ANSWER is D pulmonary edema

A 40-year-old patient who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day has a carboxyhemoglobin level of 6.4%. These results are most consistent with
A. Severe COPD
B. History of dyspnea on exertion
C. Need for supplemental oxygen
D. Expected level for this patient

Nothing about COPD will give you a carboxyhemoglobin level of 6.4%; 6.4% is a typical level for a heavy smoker so ANSWER is D, Expected level for this patient.

The following data has been obtained from a 28-week gestational age infant who was born premature:
Color: Cyanotic
Chest x-ray: Cardiac enlargement
Chest Sounds: Systolic murmur
Respiratory rate: 55 Br/min.
SpO2: 80%
Which of the following diagnostic tests should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. Pre- and post-ductal blood gas studies
B. L/S ratio
C. New Ballard Score
D. Capillary blood gas

L/S ratio is done prior to birth to measure ability to produce surfactant; Ballard Score measures gestational age, Capillary blood gas is not going to determine the heart problems we are seeing, so ANSWER is A, Pre and Post-ductal blood gas studies;

AIRWAY CARE:
A nasopharyngeal airway is indicated for which of the following patients?
A. unconscious patient with a closed head injury
B. conscious patient with an ineffective cough
C. alert patient who is expectorating a large amount of secretions
D. uncooperative patient

Nasopharyngeal airway is not for unconscious or uncooperative patients. Patients conscious and expectorating large amounts of secretions on their own does not indicate need for nasopharyngeal airway. So, ANSWER is B, conscious patient with an ineffective cough is the answer and best use of this airway.

A 43-week gestational age infant has just been delivered and is stained with meconium. The physician has asked that the baby be intubated and suctioned immediately. The respiratory therapist should recommend intubating the baby with which of the following size endotracheal tubes?
A. 2.0 mm
B. 2.5 mm
C. 3.0 mm
D. 4.0 mm

This baby is post-term (by 3 weeks) so the baby probably weighs about 3,000 grams at full term so you can go a full-size airway at 3.0mm ANSWER is C, 3.0 mm. You wouldn’t use a 4.0mm until the baby is about 1 year old.

A patient being mechanically ventilated requires endotracheal suctioning. The patient is on high levels of PEEP therapy and has periods of hypotension. The respiratory therapist hyperoxygenates the patient before beginning the procedure. As the therapist disconnects the patient from the ventilator circuit, the following pattern is seen on the ECG monitor:
Which of the following could be the cause of this patient’s ECG pattern? Bradycardia rythm
A. loss of PEEP
B. inadequate hyperoxygenation time
C. vagus nerve stimulation
D. normal response to suctioning

Answer is A, Loss of PEEP

Which of the following describes the proper technique when using a stylet?
A. The distal end should be recessed at least 1 cm from the tip of the endotracheal tube
B. The distal end should be positioned at the level of the beveled end
C. The distal end should be proximal to the “Murphy’s Eye”
D. The distal end should be positioned proximal to the cuff

ANSWER is A, the distal end should be recessed at least 1 cm from the tip of the endotracheal tube (or just past the Murphy’s Eye which is approximately 2 cm from the tip of the tube)

A patient is diagnosed with a necrotizing pulmonary fistula in the right lung. The physician has requested that the right lung be ventilated at a pressure 10 cmH2O lower than the left lung. The respiratory therapist should recommend providing this type of ventilation via a:
A. Transtracheal catheter device
B. Double-lumen endobronchial tube
C. Cricothyroidotomy
D. 14 gauge endotracheal catheter

The physician wants independent lung ventilation (you would need two ventilators to do this); and with a double-lumen endobronchial tube, one lumen will go to the right lung and one would go to the left, so the ANSWER is B.

A patient has been intubated in order to receive volume control ventilation. To inflate the endotracheal tube cuff, the respiratory therapist should add air to the cuff
A. until no leak is heard during inspiration.
B. and then remove it until a slight leak is heard at peak inspiration.
C. to establish a pressure of 20 mmHg.
D. to establish a pressure of 40 cmH2O.

We don’t want a minimal leak because that would let secretions get past; you don’t want too low pressure and don’t want too much pressure, so ANSWER is C, to establish a pressure of 20 mm Hg

A 16-year-old male patient involved in a motorcycle accident presents to the ER with massive maxillary and nasal trauma. Which of the following devices would be most appropriate for maintaining the patient’s airway?
A. nasal endotracheal tube
B. fenestrated tracheostomy tube
C. oral pharyngeal airway
D. oral endotracheal tube

Patient with massive maxillary and nasal trauma would be difficult to intubate; you might need to bypass the face completely, so ANSWER is B, fenestrated tracheostomy tube (could be fenestrated or not fenestrated, either would work).

What is the function of the one-way valve on a mouth-to-valve mask resuscitation device?
A. Increase the delivered FIO2
B. Prevent the patient from exhaling back
C. Prevent the patient from breathing room air
D. Control the flow of gas to the patient

A mouth-to-valve mask resuscitation device eliminates direct contact with the patient as in mouth-to-mouth resuscitation. The one-way valve on this device prevents the patient from exhaling back, so the ANSWER is B.

A 57-year-old post-op patient is receiving volume control ventilation. The respiratory therapist is having difficulty removing secretions when suctioning. The patient weighs 85 kg (187 lb), is orally intubated with a size 9.0 mm ID endotracheal tube, the vacuum level is set at 90 mm Hg and the suction catheter being used is a size 14 Fr. The therapist should
A. switch to a larger catheter size.
B. increase the vacuum level.
C. switch to a Coude catheter.
D. instill normal saline prior to suctioning.

Difficulty removing secretions when suctioning. The airway is large enough at 9.0 mm. For the catheter size, cut airway size in half and multiply by three, this would be 13.5 and they are using 14, so catheter is good size; normal vacuum level for adult is 100 to 120 mm Hg, so ANSWER is B, increase vacuum level. (Coude catheter curves to the left at the end so if you had a problem with the left lung you could use this)

A respiratory therapist is in the cafeteria when an adult visitor begins to choke. The therapist has administered 7 subdiaphragmatic thrusts without clearing the patient’s airway, although the patient remains conscious. The therapist should
A. administer 5 back blows.
B. continue subdiaphragmatic thrusts.
C. attempt to ventilate.
D. check for presence of a pulse.

Back blows are only appropriate with infants, so ANSWER is B, continue subdiaphragmatic thrusts. Clearing airway is #1 priority, you can’t do anything else until this is done or the patient will die anyway!

Question is missing – see answer

Question 6 of 15 – Missing inlet valve would be most likely cause (air won’t go to the patient it will go out the side of the bag where the missing inlet valve is).

A patient is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation with 100% oxygen. While suctioning the patient, the respiratory therapist observes the following ECG pattern (Sinus Rhythm w Multi-Focal PVCs) on the monitor .
The therapist should:
A. decrease the suction time per pass.
B. increase the oxygenation time.
C. use a smaller suction catheter.
D. decrease the suction pressure.

Monitor shows sinus rhythm with multi-focal pvc’s (related to oxygenation), hypoxemia, BEST thing to do is ANSWER A, always decrease the suction time per pass.

While performing orotracheal intubation for a patient in respiratory arrest, the respiratory therapist notices that the stylet has advanced from its original position. The respiratory therapist should
A. continue with the intubation procedure.
B. stop the procedure, manually ventilate the patient, and reposition the stylet.
C. retract the stylet immediately.
D. remove the stylet and continue with the procedure.

Retract stylet immediately…this answer just stops. But ANSWER B, stop procedure, manually ventilate the patient, and reposition the sytlet is the best “complete” answer.

Which of the following is the best method to minimize damage to the tracheal wall caused by an endotracheal tube cuff?
A. Measuring the volume used to inflate the cuff
B. Palpating the inflation of the pilot balloon
C. Utilizing a cuff pressure manometer
D. Using minimal occluding volume to seal the airway

Using minimal occluding volume to seal the airway is an older standard (may be used in practice but not for this test), so, ANSWER is C, Utilizing a cuff pressure manometer.

THERAPEUTIC PROCEDURES:
A patient is on a continuous flow CPAP system. The respiratory therapist notes that the pressure drops to zero during inspiration. The therapist should:
A. Initiate mechanical ventilation
B. Change to an IPAP/EPAP system
C. Increase the flow
D. Decrease the threshold resistor

Anytime there is a loss of pressure it is due to 1) a leak, or 2) not enough flow, so look for one of these answers; so the ANSWER is C, increase the flow.

A chronic hypercapnic patient enters the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath. The patient is coughing up inspissated, pale, yellow secretions. Which of the following would you recommend at this time?
A. Sputum culture and sensitivity
B. Oxygen at 2 LPM via nasal cannula
C. A-P and lateral chest x-ray
D. Arterial blood gases

This is a COPD patient (chronic hypercapnic). Since all four answers are good, look at the one you should do first, so ANSWER is B, oxygen at 2 lpm nasal cannula.

A patient with known reversible airway disease takes two puffs of albuterol from his metered-dose inhaler. The respiratory therapist measures the patient’s peak flow following the administration of the medication and determines that the peak flow has increased only minimally. The therapist should
A. add a spacer to the metered-dose inhaler.
B. change the medication to levalbuterol
C. administer the medication by small volume nebulizer.
D. contact the physician concerning the care of this patient.

ANSWER is A, add a spacer to the metered-dose inhaler. This will give you a better result with the metered-dose inhaler and since the question does “not” say the med was administered with the spacer in place, you can assume it was not since this option is one of the answers.

An H cylinder of oxygen has 1200 psi remaining in the tank. How long will it take to decrease to 200 psi if the flow is 5 LPM?
A. 1 hour
B. 10 hours
C. 60 hours
D. 600 hours

An “H” cylinder has 1200 psi minus 200 psi = how long to use 1000 psi at 5 lpm. Take 1000 x 3.14 (tank factor) = 3000 liters / 5 lpm = 600 min. / 60 min. = 10 hours, so ANSWER is B, 10 hours

While receiving postural drainage and percussion to her right lower lobe, a 44-year-old patient suddenly vomits and aspirates. The respiratory therapist should immediately
A. place the patient in Fowlers position.
B. encourage the patient to take deep breaths.
C. suction the patient.
D. administer acetylcysteine by SVN.

placing patient in Fowlers position is good… but not until you have cleared away the vomit so they do not aspirate anything further, so ANSWER is C, suction the patient.

An air flowmeter and an oxygen flowmeter are being used to deliver 40% oxygen to a patient via a non-rebreathing mask. A total flow of 12 LPM is required to prevent the non-rebreathing bag from deflating. How many liters of air and how many liters of oxygen should the therapist use?
A. 2 LPM air, 6 LPM oxygen
B. 4 LPM air, 8 LPM oxygen
C. 6 LPM air, 6 LPM oxygen
D. 9 LPM air, 3 LPM oxygen

air flowmeter and oxygen flowmeter must equal 12 lpm, with 40% oxygen, so air must be 60%; this is a ratio of 3 to 1 (this is a common ratio), so ANSWER is D 9 lpm air, 3 lpm oxygen (which is 3 to 1)

A 26-week gestational age infant requires intensive monitoring and care in the NICU. Which device would be most appropriate for maintaining a neutral thermal environment for this infant?
A. radiant warmer
B. isolette
C. croupette
D. bassinet

Both the isolette and the radiant warmer can be neutral thermal environments. The key to this question, making one better than the other, is access to the patient since this baby requires continuous monitoring. Supposedly, the radiant warmer provides better access to the baby than the isolette.

Which of the following formulas will calculate the number of hours an E cylinder will provide oxygen to a patient?
A. tank pressure (PSI) x 0.3 / flowrate (LPM)
B. flowrate (LPM) x 0.3 / tank pressure (PSI)
C. [tank pressure (PSI) x 0.3 / flowrate (LPM)] / 60
D. [flowrate (LPM) x 0.3 / tank pressure (PSI)] / 60

Question 2 of 15 – psi x 0.3 / flowrate / 60 (to give you the hours)

A 26-year-old patient with shortness of breath is admitted to the emergency room. The patient states that he was running in Central Park with a friend and could not catch his breath. Bedside assessment reveals the following data:
Pulse: 120
Respirations: 25 br/min
Color: pale
SpO2: 89% on room air
Breath sounds: slightly diminished on the right
The respiratory therapist should:
A. request a STAT chest x-ray.
B. administer 100% oxygen.
C. insert a large bore needle into the 2nd intercostal space on the right side in the midclavicular line.
D. insert a chest tube into the 2nd intercostal space on the right side in the midclavicular line.

Request a STAT x-ray is good but the patient currently has shortness of breath and is uncomfortable, so what would you do FIRST, ANSWER is B, administer 100% oxygen

A patient is receiving CPAP therapy and the pressure is fluctuating between +5 and -8 cmH2O. What should the therapist do to stabilize the CPAP therapy?
A. increase the flowrate
B. decrease the pressure
C. check for system leaks
D. check for sticking valves

Because the flow was 5+ and 8-, you don’t check for leak, you want to maintain a positive pressure on both inspiration and expiration, so you should increase the flowrate to meet patient demand and maintain a positive pressure on both inspiration and expiration, so ANSWER is A increase flowrate.

Which of the following supply pressures would be appropriate for an air/oxygen proportioner?
A. 30 psi
B. 50 psi
C. 100 psi
D. 760 psi

appropriate pressure at which a blender should operate (air/oxygen proportioner), just about all respiratory care equipment operates at 50 psi and the minimum would be 40 psi, so ANSWER is B, 50 psi.

A patient is receiving IPPB by mouthpiece. The therapist notes that the machine fails to cycle into the expiratory phase. The respiratory therapist should
A. increase the flow.
B. decrease the sensitivity.
C. adjust the apnea timer.
D. increase the pressure.

IPPB machines are pressure cycled and have to reach a preset pressure to turn off inspiration and go into the expiratory phase. Two reasons a machine would not reach a preset pressure, 1) there is a leak, 2) not enough flow, so ANSWER is A, increase the flow. Decreasing sensitivity only controls the machine turning on; and don’t increase pressure because the machine would have to reach an even higher preset pressure to go into the expiratory phase.

What total flow is delivered to a patient if the air entrainment mask is set at 35% oxygen and the flowmeter is set at 6 L/min?
A. 20 – 25 L/min
B. 30 – 35 L/min
C. 40 – 45 L/min
D. 50 – 55 L/min

Question 12 of 15 – Need I:E ratio of 35% X 6 L/min

While performing routine ventilator parameter checks on a patient on a microprocessor ventilator with a wick humidification system, the respiratory therapist notices there is very little condensation in the tubing. The most likely explanation is that the
A. temperature probe is placed distal to the wye adapter.
B. room temperature is lower than normal.
C. heating element is not functioning properly.
D. water level is just slightly above the refill line.

Question is asking why is there very little condensation in the tubing of a ventilator that uses a wick system? ANSWER is C, heating element is not functioning properly.

Question A 34-week gestation age infant has just been delivered. The one and five minute apgar scores are 4 and 6. The physician has written an order for 40% humidified oxygen. Which of the following would be the most appropriate device?
A. an incubator set at 40% oxygen
B. a radient warmer set at 40%
C. a oxygen hood set at 40%
D. a high humidity oxygen tent set at 40%

Infant requires 40% oxygen with humidity. The best way to do this is a oxygen hood set at 40% and hooked to a humidifier. Incubator would not keep the oxy at 40%, it could fluctuate.

A patient will be away from their room for two hours while undergoing a special procedure in the radiology department. They will be using a full E cylinder. What is the maximum flow that the therapist could use without running out of oxygen?
A. 2 LPM
B. 5 LPM
C. 8 LPM
D. 10 LPM

A full E cylinder is 2200 psi x cylinder factor is 0.3 = 660 / 120 min. = 5.5 LPM

Which of the following devices would provide adequate humidity with minimal condensation in the ventilator tubing?
A. heated cascade humidifier
B. heated wick humidifier
C. heat moisture exchanger
D. ultrasonic nebulizer

Heated cascade humidifier causes moisture in the tubing, heated wick humidifier also causes moisture in the tubing, ultrasonic nebulizer probably gives you the most moisture in the tubing, so the ANSWER is C, heat moisture exchanger (HME). This device traps moisture from exhaled gas in the device and uses it to humidify the next breath; this is indicated for short term use (transportation, weaning off ventilator) because does not give you 100% moisture.

A 24-year-old post-operative male patient is receiving intermittent positive pressure therapy at 20 cm H2O. The patient complains that the machine is cycling off too soon. The patient’s post-operative spontaneous vital capacity is 3.5 L. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. Increase the pressure to 25 cm H2O
B. Discontinue therapy, encourage deep breathing and coughing frequently on his own
C. Switch to a volume incentive spirometry device
D. Recommend decreasing the flow

The key is that the patient’s post-operative spontaneous vital capacity is 3.5L, which shows he can take a pretty good deep breath on his own, so the simplest, easiest ANSWER is B, discontinue therapy, encourage deep breathing and coughing frequently on his own. If they can do it on their own, that’s the best therapy of all.

What total flow is delivered to a patient if the nebulizer is set to 40% oxygen and the flowmeter is set at 9 L/min?
A. 15 – 20 L/min
B. 25 – 30 L/min
C. 35 – 40 L/min
D. 45 – 50 L/min

Flow Rate = FiO2 of 40% is a ratio of 3:1. 3+1 = 4. 4 x 9 L/min = 35-40 L/min ANSWER C

Air to Oxygen Ratios:
30% oxygen
35% oxygen
40% oxygen

30% oxy = 8:1
35% oxy= 5:1
40% oxy = 3:1

The respiratory therapist notices that a mask CPAP system is unable to maintain the desired level of pressure. Which of the following might be causing the level to not be maintained?
1. Sticking valve in the system
2. Loose fitting mask
3. Faulty humidifier connection
4. Leak around the airway cuff

Sticking valve could stick open (lose pressure) or stick closed (increase pressure); loose fitting mask would cause a leak and lose pressure, faulty humidifier connection is also a leak; leak around the airway cuff is NOT appropriate with CPAP mask (it does not exist).

GENERAL PATIENT CARE:
Which of the following are true statements concerning an automated medication dispensing system?
1. Maintains accurate information about when medication was dispensed.
2. Allows multiple practitioners to access patient medication.
3. Assists with management of medication inventory.
A. 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

ALL three are good so D is the answer.

In order to assist a patient with his efforts to quit smoking, the respiratory therapist could recommend
Varenicline Naloxone Bupropion HCI
A. Yes No Yes
B. No No No
C. Yes Yes Yes
D. No Yes No

Answer is A. Varenicline is chantex which is help reduce erge of smoking. Naloxone is narcan which is used to flip the effects of narcotics. Bupropion HCI is a anti-depressant so would help while trying to quit smoking.

The ICU director wishes to implement a protocol to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) for patients requiring mechanical ventilation. The respiratory therapist should recommend that the protocol include
A. placing the patient in the prone position.
B. changing the ventilator circuit each day.
C. utilizing a closed-suction catheter system.
D. intubating the patient with a Carlens tube.

Answer is C. Prone position is good which is what I picked but not the nest answer. The most important is making sure the suction catherter is enclosed.

A 75-year-old patient with COPD is receiving oxygen at home by nasal cannula with a bubble humidifier. How should the respiratory therapist instruct the patient to clean his humidifier?
A. Place it on the top shelf of the dishwasher.
B. Soak it in an acetic acid solution for 20 minutes and rinse with water.
C. Rinse it with distilled water and allow to air dry.
D. Soak it in an alkaline glutaraldehyde solution for 30 minutes and rinse with water.

Answer is B. Dishwasher would ruin it by the heat. Answer d would sterilize it but to expensive and not practical for home setting.

In order to monitor compliance of hospital employees in a smoking cessation program, the respiratory therapist should monitor the employees’
A. PaO2.
B. FECO.
C. PETCO2.
D. FENO.

Answer is B. FEC0 is high means they have been smoking shows the carbon monoxide levels. It’s the exhaled c0 levels.

A patient complains of shortness of breath while receiving oxygen via transtracheal catheter. Her pulse oximeter reading has decreased from 92% to 85%. The respiratory therapist should first
A. increase the flow to the catheter.
B. flush the catheter with saline.
C. administer metaproterenol via small volume nebulizer.
D. replace the transtracheal catheter with a nasal cannula.

Answer is B. Mucus plugging is a big problem. It’s a common problem . C is a bronchodilator theres no need for one right now. And D would be a good second choice. But first try to clear the catheter we already have in place.

A patient is being discharged from the hospital. The physician has ordered portable oxygen therapy at home. The patient has been instructed to use the oxygen at 1-2 L/min during the day and PRN at night. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. E cylinders
B. Concentrator
C. Liquid system
D. Molecular sieve

Answer is C. E cylinders are portable but don’t last last for regular use. Concentrator must be plugged in so not portable. Liquid system is going to last long and is very portable. Molecular sieve is a concentrator so obviously they are both wrong.

An oxygen conservation cannula would be most appropriate for which of the following patients?
A. A patient with pneumonia requiring low flow oxygen.
B. A patient with emphysema who is experiencing increased shortness of breath.
C. A patient with a severe exacerbation of asthma.
D. A patient with pulmonary fibrosis requiring long term oxygen therapy.

Answer is D. conservation cannula is for long term patient can turn down the flow but get the same oxygen percent. D is the right answer because it point out LONG TERM OXYGEN THERAPY.

SPECIAL PROCEDURES:
A patient suffering from decompression sickness requires hyperbaric oxygen therapy. The respiratory therapist should initiate therapy at
A. 2 ATA.
B. 4 ATA.
C. 6 ATA.
D. 8 ATA.

Answer is A. ATA is Absolute this machine can go from 2-6 but you want to start the patient off at the lowest.

A patient is breathing a mixture of 70% He / 30% O2 via non-rebreather mask. The oxygen flowmeter indicates a flow of 12 L/min. What is the actual flow of gas to the mask?
A. 12 L/min
B. 16 L/min
C. 19 L/min
D. 22 L/min

Answer is C. flow 12 x 1.6 =19.2 so round off 19 is closest. 1.6 is the factor for He at 70%

Which of the following is a potential side effect of inhaled nitric oxide therapy?
A. Systemic hypotension
B. Formation of nitrous oxide
C. Oxygen toxicity
D. Methemoglobinemia

Answer is D. Nitric oxide is for pulmonary hypertension. Nitric oxide can alterate hemoglobin which is why D is the best answer.

While assisting a pulmonologist performing thoracentesis on a 58-year-old man, the respiratory therapist observes that the pleural fluid is clear with a light straw color. This fluid would best be described as
A. exudate.
B. transudate.
C. purulent.
D. serosanguineous

Answer is B. exudate is blood puss. Purulent is fluid with puss. Serosanguineous is sero fluid and blood.

The following pneumogram is obtained (this patient is showing signs of obstructive sleep apnea) while a 47-year-old woman undergoes polysomnography:
The respiratory therapist should recommend that the patient receive:
A. doxapram.
B. oxygen therapy.
C. non-invasive ventilation.
D. nasal CPAP.

Answer is D. this patient is showing signs of obstructive sleep apnea because there is no air flow but the thoracic is showing.

If there is no chest rise abdomen then it would be central sleep apnea but since it is obstructive sleep apnea CPAP is your best choice.

In preparing to perform a cardiopulmonary stress test on a 60-year-old man, the respiratory therapist must determine the target heart rate range for the patient. What is the patient’s maximum heart rate?
A. 130 beats/minute
B. 160 beats/minute
C. 190 beats/minute
D. 220 beats/minute

heart rate is 220, minus patients age so…
220-60. So answer is B.

Following indirect calorimetry, a 66-year-old patient’s RQ is calculated to be 1.01. What food group is being primarily metabolized by this patient?
A. Proteins
B. Fats
C. Carbohydrates
D. Amnio acids

Protein 0.82, fats generate RQ 0.71, Carbohydrates RQ the highest at about 1.0,Amnio Acids RQ is similar to proteins since it’s a protein block.

A 28-week gestational age neonate is experiencing frequent apneic episodes with bradycardia. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. An FIO2 of 0.40 via oxyhood
B. Suctioning the neonate during apnea episode
C. Administering beclomethasone
D. Administering theophylline

Answer is D. Beclomethasone is a steroid given to mother before birth to get more surfactant for the child so wouldn’t help with stimulating the baby to breath. Theophylline is a respiratory stimulant so would help the baby with apnea.

While performing a routine ventilator check on a patient in the ICU, the respiratory therapist notes that the patient’s cardiac monitor shows ventricular tachycardia at a rate of 165. The therapist determines the presence of a carotid pulse, although the patient is hypotensive and unresponsive. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. prepare for defibrillation
B. administer a precordial thump
C. prepare for synchronized cardioversion
D. administer 1mg/kg of lidocaine

Answer is C.
defribrillation is for pulseless tachycardia. Precordial thump is a punch also needs to be pulsless. Synchronized cardioversion low watted shock non lethal and used with patients with a pulse. Lidocaine is for PVCs.

A 2 kg (4.4 lb) neonate requires transportation to a tertiary care center for cardiac surgery. The infant has a heart rate of 140 and a BP of 60/30.The neonate is intubated with a size 2.5 mm uncuffed endotracheal tube and ventilation is being assisted manually at a rate of 40/min. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. postpone the transport until the neonate has spontaneous respirations
B. prepare for the transport immediately
C. delay the transport and stabilize the patient
D. wait 24 hours and then reassess the patient

Answer is B.

PULMONARY DIAGNOSTIC TESTING;
A respiratory therapist is performing spirometry on a patient with chronic bronchitis. Which of the following equipment would the respiratory therapist need?
A. ergometer
B. water seal spirometer
C. pneumogram
D. turbine pneumotachometer

Ergometer measures strength, water seal spirometer measures volume, pneumogram measures respiratory movements, like in a sleep study; turbine pneumotachometer is an air speed meter so it measures flow, so ANSWER is B water seal spirometer. It is not most convenient device but would be most accurate in this case.

A patient has come to the pulmonary function lab for pre-op testing. The patient performs a maximum inspiration followed by a maximum forceful expiration. This procedure would measure:
A. RV
B. FRC
C. TLC
D. FVC

The hint is “forceful” ANSWER is D, FVC

A respiratory therapist is performing spirometry on a patient with chronic bronchitis. Which of the following equipment would produce an unreliable measurement?
A. body plethysmograph
B. water seal spirometer
C. wright respirometer
D. pressure differential pneumotachometer

A body plethysmograph (body ox) measures missing volumes (FRC, RV,TLC); water seal spirometer is most accurate to test chronic bronchitis; wright respirometer (turbine spirometer) measures air speed and is LEAST accurate, so ANSWER is C, wright respirometer; pressure differential pneumotachometer measures air speed but is electronic and more accurate than the wright respirometer.

A patient complaining of dyspnea has the following arterial blood gas results:
pH: 7.36
PaCO2: 56 torr
PaO2: 49 torr
HCO3-: 34 mEq/L
SaO2: 80%
FIO2: .21
These results are best described as:
A. acute respiratory acidosis
B. acute metabolic alkalosis
C. chronic respiratory acidosis
D. chronic metabolic alkalosis

To know whether it is “acute” or “chronic”… If the pH or bicarb is “compensating” it is said to be “Chronic”, so the ANSWER is C, chronic respiratory acidosis.

A patient in the intensive care unit has the following blood gas results:
Arterial
pH: 7.42
PaCO2: 39 torr
PaO2: 90 torr
SaO2: 97%
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BE: +1 mEq/L
Hb: 14 g/dL
Venous
pH: 7.39
PvCO2: 46 torr
PvO2: 50 torr
SvO2: 80 %
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BE: +1 mEq/L
What should the respiratory therapist report as the patient’s C(a-v)O2?
A. 1.8 vol%
B. 3.3 vol%
C. 5.2 vol%
D. 7.3 vol%

Shortcut for figuring patients C(a-v)O2

Take the difference between SaO2 – SvO2 x 2 = 34, then place decimal between 3.4, so ANSWER is B 3.3 vol%

A patient in the intensive care unit has the following data obtained:
pH: 7.41
PaCO2: 40 torr
PaO2: 235 torr
SaO2: 99%
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BE: +1 mEq/L

FIO2: 1.0
VD/VT: 0.35
Hb: 15 g/dL
RER: 0.8
PB: 747
What should the respiratory therapist report as the P(A-a)O2?
A. 210 torr
B. 415 torr
C. 535 torr
D. 620 torr

This is common called the A-a gradient. P(A-a)O2, ANSWER is B, 415 torr.

A patient is being ventilated with a Servo 300 ventilator in the intensive care unit. The following data is obtained:
Mode: SIMV
Mandatory rate: 12 b/min
Total rate: 12 b/min
VE: 8.6 L
FIO2: 0.60
PIP: 31 cm H2O
PEEP: 10 cm H2O

pH: 7.41
PaCO2: 40 torr
PaO2: 95 torr
SaO2: 96%
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BE: +1 mEq/L
A-aDO2: 300 torr
C(a-v)O2: 3.6 vol%
What should the therapist report as the QS/QT?
A. 15%
B. 18%
C. 20%
D. 25%

QS/QT is the shunt (5% is normal)

Shortcut – Start with 5%, add another 5% for each 100 of A-a gradient, so 5% + 15% = 20, so the ANSWER is C, 20%

The FRC (functional residual capacity) is measured on a patient using the helium dilution technique and the result is 3.0 liters. The same patient is then tested in a body box and the result is 4.5 liters. Which of the following would account for the difference?
A. The patient has significant non-ventilated lung volume
B. There was a leak during the helium dilution procedure
C. The patient did not perform the maneuver properly
D. Hysteresis is present

Question is asking why is there a difference in the FRC between helium test and body box test. A body box is more accurate, it measures ALL gases in the chest. Helium will not measure any “trapped” gases. So, the difference must be the trapped gases, so the ANSWER is A, the patient has significant non-ventilated lung volume (which is a fancy name for trapped gases).

What is the PAO2 for a patient breathing 30% oxygen at sea level?
A. 100 – 105 torr
B. 120 – 140 torr
C. 155 – 170 torr
D. 210 – 220 torr

PAO2 of patient breathing 30% oxygen – ANSWER is C, 155 – 170 torr

PAO2 Shortcut take FiO2 x 7 – 50 = 160 (30% x 7 = 210 – 50 = 160)

Prior to performing spirometry on a pre-op patient, the respiratory therapist calibrates the spirometer using a 3.0 L super syringe. The three volumes achieved are: 2.80 L, 2.80 L, 2.79 L. Based upon the information obtained the therapist should conclude that the
1. spirometer is precise.
2. spirometer is accurate.
3. super syringe was advanced too slowly.
4. spirometer may have a leak.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only

When you use a 3.0 L syringe it should come out within .1, so 2.80, 2.79 are too low. Spirometer is “precise” means “consistent” it does not mean accurate of perfect. Spriometer is accurate means average (the average of the 3 numbers should come out to 3.0). Spirometer has a leak is why when you blow 3.0 L, you only get volumes of 2.80, 2.80 and 2.79, so ANSWER is B 1 and 4

A patient is observed to have an increased respiratory rate and depth of breathing. Their breath has a fruit-like aroma. This would most likely be associated with:
A. head trauma
B. metabolic acidosis
C. drug overdose
D. chronic obstructive lung disease

A patient breathing deep and fast is Kushmals breathing (body trying to push out CO2 to get rid of metabolic acidosis). The fruit-like breath is also associated with the metabolic acidosis, so ANSWER is B, metabolic acidosis.

A patient is on a ventilator and is in the process of being weaned. What is the best way to continuously monitor the minute ventilation?
A. Chest transducers
B. Thermistors
C. Water seal spirometer
D. Pneumotachometer

Best way to continuously monitor minute ventilation. Chest transducers measure effort to breathe; thermistor is a temperature probe that will measure effort; water seal spirometer is very accurate in measuring volumes but it can’t continuously measure minute ventilation because it will run out of room; Pneumotachometer will measure flow passing through it for as long as you want, so ANSWER is D, Pneumotachometer.

The best way to check the accuracy of an air/oxygen proportioner is by using:
A. polarographic electrode analyzer
B. precision geisler tube analyzer
C. infrared absorption analyzer
D. teflon membrane analyzer

ANSWER is A, polarographic electrode analyzer

Which of the following would equal the vital capacity (VC)?
A. VT + IRV
B. ERV + RV
C. IRV + VT + ERV
D. IRV + VT + ERV + RV

Question 13 of 15 – What equals vital capacity (look at Kevin’s chart)

A patient involved in a motor vehicle accident has sustained a long bone fracture and remains in traction. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain, and becomes tachypneic and tachycardiac. After administering 100% oxygen, the therapist should recommend
A. a barium swallow.
B. a CT of the chest.
C. starting heparin therapy.
D. starting lasix.

Long bone fractures combined with lying around is a recipe for pulmonary embolism. So now lets confirm this. If a VQ scan was there it would be the best answer after 100% oxygen. Since I don’t see the answers I’m looking for, eliminate what you would NOT do. CT scan will be too focused (need to see profusion, etc.), starting Lasix is a diuretic to get rid of excess fluids, but

ANSWER C, starting heparin therapy would be appropriate to dissolve or break up the suspected embolism.

A patient’s PvO2 has decreased from 30 torr to 20 torr. This is indicative of a/an:
A. Decreased SVR
B. Increased cardiac index
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Decreased PVR

PvO2 decreased. Venous decreases and increases are directly associated with cardiac output. Cardiac index goes up and down with cardiac output so it would not increase; Decreased PVR is talking about pulmonary resistance. ANSWER is C, decreased cardiac output.

A physician asks the respiratory therapist to measure a patient’s ability to cough and clear secretions from his airway. Which of the following would the therapist utilize to evaluate the patient?
A. wright respirometer
B. flutter valve
C. aneroid manometer
D. spacer

Wright respirator measures volume; flutter valve is used for bronchial hygiene therapy;

“aneroid” manometer is another way to say “pressure” manometer so would measure patients ability to cough (generate “pressure”) and thus clear secretions, so ANSWER is C, aneroid manometer.

A 62-year-old female has the following arterial blood gas results on room air:
pH: 7.37
PaCO2: 38 torr
PaO2: 60 torr
The co-oximeter is currently down for repair at this time. The physician has asked you to estimate the SaO2. You would estimate the SaO2 to be which of the following?
A. 75%
B. 80%
C. 85%
D. 90%

To estimate the SaO2;

PaO2 + 30 =SaO2

The following pulmanary function measurements have been determined for a 42-year-old male patient with asthma:
VC: 5.1 L.
FRC: 2.4 L.
ERV: 1.4 L.
VT: 0.5 L.
IRV: 3.2 L.
What should the therapist report as the total lung capacity (TLC)?
A. 5.6 L
B. 6.1 L
C. 7.6 L
D. 8.3 L

Calculating TLC (all 4 volumes added together) use Kevin’s chart

MECHANICAL VENTILATION:
During a routine ventilator parameter check on a patient, you notice the low pressure alarm is being briefly activated prior to each breath. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. the patient is fighting the ventilator
B. the flow rate is set too fast
C. the alarm delay is set too short
D. the peak pressure limit is set too high

C, the alarm delay is set too short; If patient was fighting ventilator you would get a high pressure alarm not a low pressure alarm; if the flow rate is set too fast you would peak at a higher pressure and get a high pressure alarm; If the peak pressure limit is set too high the patient can build up higher and higher pressures without the alarm going off and that could be dangerous.

A spontaneously breathing 76-year-old patient who weighs 60 kg (132 lb) is on an FIO2 of 0.45 via a trach collar. He has had a change in his tidal volume from 600 mL to 300 mL and his respiratory rate went from 12 /min to 24 /min. Which of the following changed due to the change in the tidal volume and rate?
A. Minute ventilation
B. Alveolar ventilation
C. Anatomical deadspace
D. Mechanical deadspace

B, Alveolar ventilation (ventilation going to alveolis that includes deadspace); Minute ventilation is defined as RR x tidal volume; Alveolar ventilation is defined as (Vt – deadspace) X RR

A 5′ 10″, 80 kg (176 lbs) male patient with multiple trauma from a motorcycle accident has developed ARDS and is being ventilated at the following settings:
Mode: VC, SIMV
VT: 500 mL
Set Rate: 14 br/min.
FIO2: 0.60
PEEP: 12 cm H2O
Arterial blood gas results reveal:
pH: 7.35
PaO2: 72 torr
PaCO2: 44 torr
SpO2: 93%
The patient is conscious and pulling on the IV lines and ventilator tubing. At this time, the respiratory therapist should recommend
A. changing to assist/control mode.
B. restraining the patient.
C. increasing the set rate to 16 br/min.
D. sedating the patient.

D, Sedate the patient (if nothing in their blood gas is causing their behavior and they are just agitated, just sedate them to calm them down); Changing to assist/control mode won’t do anyting about patients agitation; Restraining patient won’t help agitation and might cause them to become more violent; Increasing the set rate to 16/br min. won’t do anything and this isn’t a good time to change settings.

Question 9 of 15 – A 60-year-old male patient weighs 80 kg (176 lb) and is on a volume-cycled ventilator at a set VT of 800 mL, a peak pressure reading of 65 cm H2O, exhaled VT measured at 760 mL, peak inspiratory flowrate is 60 L/min., a plateau pressure reading of 58 cm H2O and a PEEP of 5 cm H2O. Which of the following is most likely occurring at this time?
A. Dynamic compliance is decreasing
B. Static compliance is increasing
C. Airway resistance is increasing
D. Thoracic compliance is increasing

A, Dynamic compliance is decreasing

(You have increasing pressure therefore you would have decreasing compliance; The other answers are decreasing compliance answers.

An infant on a high frequency jet ventilator (rate of 150 b/m) has the following arterial blood gases:
pH: 7.30
PaO2: 60 torr
PaCO2: 50 torr
HCO3-: 21 mEq/L
Which of the following changes would best help to improve these results?
A. Increase the inspiratory time
B. Increase the drive pressure
C. Increase the frequency to 190 br/min
D. Increase the FIO2

Question 12 of 15 – By looking at PaCO2 you can see that the patient is not being properly ventilated (and the PaO2 is a little low due to this also). All are good answers but the
“best” is ANSWER B, Increase the drive pressure to deliver more volume and blow off more CO2. Think of this as any other machine (PEEP, etc.) and what would you do if the patient was not being properly ventilated? Forget that this is a baby on a fancy named machine… you would increase the pressure, so increase it here.; Increasing inspiratory time

A premature neonate with respiratory distress syndrome is being mechanically ventilated with a pressure-limited, time-cycled ventilator at the following settings:
PIP: 25 cm H2O
Rate: 24/min
Flow: 7 L/min
I time: 0.6 sec.
FIO2: 0.45
PEEP: 4 cm H2O
Arterial blood gas results from an umbilical artery line are as follows:
pH: 7.29
PaCO2: 62 torr
PaO2: 68 torr
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
The therapist should now recommend:
A. Increase PEEP
B. Increase the I time
C. Increase the rate
D. Decrease PIP

You are seeing inadequate ventilation; A, increasing PEEP would help the oxygenation not ventilation;

ANSWER is C, increase the rate.

Mechanical Ventilation – B
The respiratory therapist reviews the ventilator parameter sheet for a patient receiving mechanical ventilation. The peak and plateau pressure readings are as follows:
Based upon this information, the therapist should conclude that
A. airway resistance is increasing.
B. water is building up in the tubing.
C. pulmonary compliance is decreasing.
D. minute volume is increasing.

Peak pressure = how much pressure it takes to put air into the lungs and how much it takes to push air through the tubing; Plateau pressure = only pressure it takes to put air into the lungs. The difference between these two shows airway resistance. You’ll notice by the difference between the two pressures that airway resistance is pretty much staying the same; If water was building up in tubing the airway resistance would also be increasing. You will notice on the Plateau pressure only, that it is gradually “increasing”… it is taking more pressure just to get air into the lungs, so the lungs are becoming stiffer (compliance is decreasing), so the
ANSWER C, Pulmonary compliance is decreasing.

Question 4 of 15 – A 48-year-old patient is receiving mechanical ventilation following a hernia repair. He is 6′ tall and weighs 75 kg (165 lb). Prior to initiating a spontaneous breathing trial, the respiratory therapist notes the following information:
FIO2: 0.35
SIMV mandatory rate: 6 /min.
Total rate: 14 /min.
VT: 600 mL
MIP: -26 cm H2O
Spont. VT: 400 mL
Arterial blood gas results show:
pH: 7.39
PaCO2: 42 torr
PaO2: 88 torr
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
The patient is to be placed on CPAP with an FIO2 of 0.40. Five minutes into the SBT, his respiratory rate increases to 28 /min., heart rate changes from 110 /min. to 135 /min. and blood pressure changes from 112/70 mm Hg to 140/88 mm Hg. At this time, the therapist should
A. shorten the SBT by 5 minutes.
B. continue the SBT.
C. discontinue the SBT.
D. increase the FIO2 to 0.45.

Didn’t type answer

A post-operative craniotomy patient was thrashing around while on a volume-cycled microprocessor ventilator. The physician has asked for your recommendation in the management of this patient to prevent him from harming himself and to also stabilize his ICP. Which of the following drugs would you recommend administering at this time?
A. Anectine
B. Versed
C. Valium
D. Morphine

Ideal drug would be one that sedates, relieves pain, and depresses ventilator drive. Anectine is a short acting paralyzing drug with no sedative and no pain killers; Versed is an anti-anxiety, it would sedate, but that is all; Valium sedates but does not control ventilation or kill pain. Morphine sedates, depresses ventilatory drive, and is a pain killer, so
ANSWER is D, Morphine

A 68 kg (150 lb) patient has a spontaneous tidal volume of 450 mL and is breathing at a rate of 12 breaths/min. What is their minute alveolar ventilation?
A. 1.8 L/min
B. 3.6 L/min
C. 5.4 L/min
D. 8.6 L/min

Alveolar ventilation = (Vt – deadspace) x RR = 3600 ml or 3.6 L (deadspace is = to patients weight in pounds), so
ANSWER is B, 3.6 L/min

A 6′ 2″ tall, 80 kg (176 lb) male patient with alpha 1 protease inhibitor deficiency is being mechanically ventilated at the following settings:
Mode: VC, SIMV
Set rate: 12 br/min.
Total rate: 16 br/min.
Tidal volume (set): 650 mL
Tidal volume (spontaneous): 320 mL
Peak flow: 55 L/min
FIO2: 0.30

His vital signs are stable and he is sleeping comfortably. An arterial blood gas has been drawn with the following results:

pH: 7.37
PaCO2: 51 torr
PaO2: 68 torr
HCO3-: 29 mEq/L
Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. Increase the set rate
B. Decrease the tidal volume
C. Increase the FIO2
D. Maintain current settings

Question 11 of 15 – Alpha 1 Protease Inhibitor Dieficiency is similar to COPD, so the

ANSWER is D, Maintain current settings.

A premature neonate with respiratory distress syndrome is being mechanically ventilated with a pressure-limited, time-cycled ventilator at the following settings:

PIP: 25 cm H2O
Rate: 28/min
Flow: 7 L/min
I time: 0.5 sec.
FIO2: 0.70
PEEP: 4 cm H2O

Arterial blood gas results from an umbilical artery line are as follows:

pH: 7.30
PaCO2: 59 torr
PaO2: 66 torr
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L

The therapist should now recommend:
A. Increase PEEP
B. Increase the I time
C. Decrease the rate
D. Decrease PIP

Primary problem is ventilation in this case; Increase PEEP would help oxygenation but that is not the problem; the only answer that makes sense is ANSWER B, Increase the I time

A 46-year-old female patient weighing 65 kg (143 lb) is on mechanical ventilation following a motor vehicle accident. Ventilator settings are as follows:

FIO2: 0.40
Mode: VC, SIMV
Set rate: 10 br/min.
Total rate: 16 br/min.
VT: 500 mL
Pressure support: 25 cm H2O

Arterial blood gas results are as follows:

pH: 7.51
PCO2: 29 torr
PO2: 140 torr
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L

Based upon this information, what should the respiratory therapist recommend at this time?
A. Decrease pressure support to 20 cm H2O
B. Decrease FIO2 to 0.30.
C. Place on a T-piece at 50% oxygen.
D. Decrease set rate to 8 br/min.

She is being over ventilated and over oxygenated; Look at the settings and the only thing that seems a little high is the pressure support, so the

ANSWER is A, Decrease pressure support to 20 cm H2O

A 27-week gestation age neonate with respiratory distress syndrome is receiving high frequency oscillatory ventilation at the following settings:

PIP: 20 cm H2O
Frequency: 12 Hz
I time: 30%
FIO2: 0.55
PEEP: 4 cm H2O

Blood gas results from an umbillical artery line are as follows:

pH: 7.15
PaCO2: 62 torr
PaO2: 46 torr
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L

The respiratory therapist should increase the
A. PEEP.
B. FIO2.
C. frequency.
D. amplitude.

This baby is not being ventilated or oxygenated properly. Always fix ventilation first or the oxygen won’t get where it is supposed to anyway. Amplitude means “pressure”,
so ANSWER is D, Increase Amplitude

A 56-year-old male patient who weighs 90 kg (198 lb) is receiving mechanical ventilation in the PC, SIMV mode and the following data is available:

FIO2: 1.00
Set rate: 20 /min.
Total rate: 20 /min.
PEEP: 18 cm H2O
Peak pressure: 35 cm H2O

Arterial blood gas results show:
pH: 7.35
PaCO2: 45 torr
PaO2: 43 torr
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L

It would be appropriate for the respiratory therapist to
A. increase the set rate to 25 /min.
B. switch to inverse ratio ventilation.
C. increase pressure to 40 cm H2O.
D. increase PEEP to 25 cm H2O.

Because this patient is severely hypoxic while on high levels of oxygen and high levels of PEEP, you can tell that this patient has ARDS,

so ANSWER is B, Switch to inverse ratio ventilation

Mechanical Ventilation – C
A 65 kg (150 lb) patient requires a minute alveolar ventilation of 10 L/min. Which of the following set of parameters would be most appropriate?
A. VT 600 mL, RR 16 /min, VD mech 0 mL
B. VT 650 mL, RR 18 /min, VD mech 50 mL
C. VT 700 mL, RR 20 /min, VD mech 50 mL
D. VT 900 mL, RR 12 /min, VD mech 100 Ml

Calculate minute alveolar ventilation. In this case, the patient is on a ventilator so we also have to subtract out not only the deadspace, but also the mechanical deadspace (listed in each answer) so,

ANSWER is C, VT 700 mL, RR 20/min, VC mech 50 mL (700 – 150 – 50) x 20

Need Question

Question 6 of 15 – Patients airway pressures are decreasing, lungs are improving. Since it’s the patients airway pressure that is decreasing, we should readjust the low pressure alarm, so ANSWER is B, low pressure alarm.

Following mitral valve replacement surgery, a 29-year-old female patient is combative on a volume-control ventilator in the assist/control mode. The peak pressure alarm is sounding with each breath. The nurse practitioner has a STAT call in to the cardiovascular surgeon. She asks the respiratory therapist for an immediate recommendation. Which of the following should the therapist recommend?

A. increase the peak pressure alarm limit
B. Order a STAT chest x-ray
C. Change to SIMV mode and evaluate the patient
D. Order a STAT arterial blood gas

Combative post-op patient. You need to take some action to support the patient and evaluate further. Order a STAT chest x-ray is not going to help the immediate problem and will actually delay action. Change to SIMV mode and evaluate will help correct peak pressure alarm problem by allowing the patient to breathe spontaneously in between ventilator breaths. SIMV as a rule is more comfortable for most patients,

so ANSWER is C.

Need question

Question 10 of 15 – Vt is high at 500 mL. Good range would be weight in kg x 5 through weight in kg x 10 (40 x 5 = 200, and 40 x 10 = 400, So range would be 200-400. ANSWER A, decrease tidal volume is correct

A patient is receiving mechanical ventilation at the following settings:
Mode: SIMV
Mandatory rate: 12
Total rate: 12
FIO2: 0.50
VT: 750 ml
Peak flow: 50 L/min.
PEEP: 5 cmH2O

The following volume-pressure loop is observed.

Which of the following changes should the therapist recommend?
A. Increase the PEEP
B. Change to pressure support mode
C. Decrease the VT
D. Increase the peak flow

volume/pressure loop looks like a beak (overdistention). Get rid of the beak (up and down is pressure measurement; side to side measurement is volume).

ANSWER is C, Decrease the Vt

A 28-week gestational age infant with severe respiratory distress syndrome is being mechanically ventilated in the PC, SIMV mode at the following settings:

Flow rate: 6 L/min
Set rate: 32 br/min.
PIP: 28 cmH2O
FIO2: 0.70
PEEP: 5 cm H2O
I time: 0.8 seconds

Umbilical arterial blood gas results reveal:

pH: 7.40
PCO2: 39 torr
PO2: 42 torr
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L

Based on the above information, the respiratory therapist should change the
A. I time to 1.0 second.
B. PEEP to 7 cm H2O.
C. FIO2 to 0.75.
D. PIP to 30 cm H2O.

Ventilation is good on baby, PO2 is bad (less than 60), so we have an oxygenation problem. Baby is already on high level of oxygen and they are already on PEEP therapy, but they are still shunting (they are on 70% FiO2 and still bad oxygenation with good ventilation) so inch up the PEEP (never above 8),

so ANSWER is B, PEEP to 7 cm H2O.

Need question

Question 13 of 15 – Peak Pressure – Plateau Pressure = Airway Resistance. So, we can see that the airway resistance has been increasing steadily. Most common cause are secretions, or bronchospasm though bronchospasm is not as common. Lung compliance is indicated by the Plateau pressure, which has been maintaining. ANSWER C, the patient needs suctioning.

A 70 kg (154 lb) male patient is being mechanically ventilated following a triple coronary artery bypass graft. The chest radiograph shows bilateral radiolucency. An arterial blood gas has been obtained. Ventilatory data and blood gas results are below:

Mode: SIMV
FIO2: 0.40
Mandatory rate: 8
Total rate: 16
VT: 650 mL
Spontaneous VT: 175 mL
PIP: 29 cm H2O
Plateau Pressure: 21 cm H2O
PEEP: 5 cm H2O

pH: 7.31
PaCO2: 54 torr
PaO2: 83 torr
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BE: 0 mEq/L

Which of the following should the therapist recommend?
A. Independent lung ventilation
B. Pressure control ventilation
C. Pressure support ventilation
D. Inverse ratio ventilation

Bilateral radiolucency is a normal looking lungs. PaCO2 is high and the patient is on SIMV but there is no pressure support. Pressure support supports patients spontaneous breathing,

so ANSWER is C, pressure support ventilation

Need question

Question 15 of 15 – Mean airway pressure is just average of all pressures. Most pressure occurs during i-time, so if we decrease this the mean airway pressure would fall, ANSWER A. Decreasing peak flow would increase the i-time.

Mechanical Ventilation – D:
A 58-year-old woman who weighs 65 kg (143 lb) arrives in the surgical ICU following surgical repair of an abdominal aortic neurysm. She has a 60 pack year history of cigarette smoking and is currently smoking 1 pack/day. The physician has written orders to initiate mechanical ventilation. Prior to starting mechanical ventilation for this patient, the respiratory therapist should set all of the following controls EXCEPT

A. FIO2.
B. tidal volume
C. frequency.
D. PEEP.

You would set FiO2, tidal volume, frequency (rate), and PEEP. You DO set all of these but of the four answers, you don’t necessarily need to set PEEP right away,

so ANSWER is D, PEEP

A 32-year-old victim of a motor vehicle accident (weight 80 kg, 176 lb) is on mechanical ventilation at the following settings: Tidal volume 700 mL, SIMV mandatory rate 10/min, and FIO2 0.65. As the PEEP level was increased from 17 cm H2O to 20 cm H2O, the respiratory therapist observed that the heart rate changed from 128/min to 106/min.

At this time, the therapist should recommend

A. inserting a balloon tipped flow directed catheter.
B. drawing an arterial blood gas.
C. reassessing the patient in 20 minutes.
D. decreasing the PEEP.

Heart rate has decreased, which could be good or bad but we need to know why… so we need more information,

so ANSWER is B, drawing an arterial blood gas.

Need question

Question 4 of 15 – Calculating alveolar minute volume. There is no Vt shown. To figure Vt take the minute ventilation / rr = Vt (450) To figure alveolar minute volume the formula is (Vt – deadspace x RR). So 450 – 150 x 20 = 6 L/min,
ANSWER is B, 6 L/min

A 52-year-old, 5′ 9″ tall male patient weighing 85 kg (187 lb) is being mechanically ventilated. An arterial blood gas has been obtained. Ventilatory data and blood gas results are below:

Mode: VC, A/C
FIO2: 0.40
Mandatory rate: 16 /min
Total rate: 16 /min
VT: 800 mL
PEEP: 5 cm H2O

pH: 7.47
PaCO2: 31 torr
PaO2: 87 torr
SaO2: 96%
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BE: 0 mEq/L

Which of the following changes should be recommended at this time?

A. Increase the rate to 20 /min
B. Increase the PEEP to 10 cm H2O
C. Add 200 mL of mechanical deadspace
D. Maintain current settings

This is a case of none of the answers are really correct. Adding 200 mL of mechanical deadspace would be good if it was only about 35 mL, not 200!,

So ANSWER is D, Maintain current settings.

An 1800 g neonate is receiving 30% oxygen via an oxyhood with the following arterial blood gas results obtained:
pH: 7.34
PaO2: 46 torr
PaCO2: 47 torr
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
Based upon this information, the respiratory therapist should recommend which of the following at this time?
A. Intubate and initiate mechanical ventilation with an FIO2 0.55
B. Increase the FIO2 to 0.35
C. Administer 5 cm H2O endotracheal tube CPAP with an FIO2 0.60
D. Increase the FIO2 to 0.50

Oxygenation is not good (should be in 60’s). Turning FiO2 up just 5% would not make enough of a difference since the PaO2 is way down to 46,

so ANSWER is D turn FiO2 up to .50

A 3-year-old child with cystic fibrosis is being mechanically ventilated at the following settings:
PIP: 34 cm H2O
I time: 1.0 second
Rate: 22 /min.
FIO2: 0.60
PEEP: 6 cm H2O
Mode: PC, SIMV
Arterial blood gas results show:
pH: 7.36
PaCO2: 44 torr
PaO2: 49 torr
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
The respiratory therapist should adjust the
A. PEEP to 8 cm H2O.
B. FIO2 to 0.65.
C. set rate to 24 /min.
D. PIP to 36 cm H2O.

They are extremely hypoxic and shunting (since they have bad oxygen while on FiO2 of 60%), so raising FiO2 would not help.

So ANSWER is A, Increase PEEP to 8

Question 10 of 15 – A patient is receiving mechanical ventilation at the following settings:
Mode: VC, SIMV
Mandatory rate: 12 /min
Total rate: 12 /min
FIO2: 0.50
VT: 700 mL
Peak flow: 40 L/min.
PEEP: 5 cm H2O
The following scalar graphic is observed.
Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?
A. Increase the PEEP
B. Change to pressure control mode
C. Decrease the VT
D. Increase the peak flow

Need Answer

Which of the following parameters are acceptable for weaning a patient from continuous mechanical ventilation?
1. VD/VT: 65%
2. MIP: -18 cm H2O
3. Qs/Qt: 10%
4. A-aDO2: 12 torr (21% oxygen)

A. 3 & 4 only
B. 1 & 2 only
C. 1, 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

Vd/Vt ratio should be less than 40%; MIP – 18 cm H2O should be -20; Qs/Qt ratio should be less than 20% so this is acceptable; A-aDO2 12 torr (21% oxygen) acceptable because the gradient (12) should be less than the oxygen (21).

So ANSWER is A, 3 & 4 only

A post-operative thoracotomy patient is receiving mechanical ventilation in the recovery room with a tidal volume of 750 mL, SIMV mandatory rate 8/min, FIO2 of 0.40. Arterial blood gas results show:
pH: 7.36
PaO2: 89 torr
PaCO2: 45 torr
SaO2: 95%
The patient is breathing fast and shallow. Based upon this information, the respiratory therapist should recommend
A. repeating the arterial blood gas in 30 minutes.
B. increase SIMV mandatory rate to 10/min.
C. sedating the patient.
D. paralyzing the patient with pancuronium bromide (Pavulon).

Any patient on any ventilator you must consider patient response. Blood gases are fine and don’t warrant any changes to ventilator settings. Plus this patient is in the recovery room so we want to get them off the ventilator and wake them up.

So the best ANSWER is A, check arterial blood gas in 30 min. (basically monitor the patient).

A post-operative craniotomy patient is receiving mechanical ventilation and has an increased intracranial pressure reading. The goals of mechanical ventilation for this patient include all of the following EXCEPT
A. increased PaCO2.
B. keep airway pressure to a minimum.
C. hyperoxygenate.
D. use minimum PEEP levels.

You do not want increased PaCO2 with a patient who has increased cranial pressure

A patient is receiving O2 from an E cylinder at 4 L/min through a nasal cannula. The cylinder pressure is 1900 psig. How long will the cylinder run until it is empty?

A. 47 min
B. 1.7 h
C. 2.2 h
D. 3.6 h

E cylinder = 0.28
1900×0.28/4 = 133/60 = 2.21

Answer: C. 2 hours, 21 minutes

After the Respiratory Therapist sets up a nonrebreathing mask on a patient at a flow rate of 10 L/min, the reservoir bag collapses before the patient finishes inspiring. The RT should do which of the following?

A. Change to a simple mask at a flow rate of 10 L/min
B. Remove the one-way valve from the exhalation port.
C. Place the patient on continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
D. Increase the flow rate to 15 L/min

D. Increase the flow rate to 15 L/min

A patient with carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning can best be treated with which of the following therapies?

A. Nasal Cannula at 6 L/min
B. Simple O2 mask at 10 L/min
C. CPAP and 60% O2
D. Nonrebreathing mask

D. Nonrebreathing mask

The following blood gas levels have been obtained from a patient using a 60% aerosol mask.

pH: 7.47
PaCO2: 31 mmHg
PaO2: 58 mmHg

What should the RT recommend at this time?

A. Place the patient on CPAP
B. Increase the O2 to 70%
C. Intubate and place the patient on mechanical ventilation
D. Change to a nonrebreathing mask

A. Place the patient on CPAP

Given the following data, what is the patient’s total arterial O2 content?

pH: 7.41
PaCO2: 37 mmHg
PaO2: 88 mmHg
HCO3: 26 mEq/L
SaO2: 95%
Hb: 14 g/dL

A. 12 mL/dL
B. 14 mL/dL
C. 16 mL/dL
D. 18 mL/dL

(Hb x 1.36 x SaO2) + (0.003 x PaO2)
(14 x 1.36 x 0.95) + (0.003 x 88)
18.088 + 0.264
= 18.352

Answer: D. 18 mL/dL

The respiratory therapist receives an order to set up a moderate level of O2 on a patient who arrives in the ED breathing at a rate of 35 breaths/min. Which of the following O2 delivery devices is most appropriate to use in this situation?

A. Simple O2 mask at 10 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 4 L/min
C. NRB Mask at 15 L/min
D. Air-entrainment mask at 40% O2

D. Air-entrainment mask at 40% O2

A severe COPD patient arrives in the emergency department on a 2 L/min nasal cannula. Arterial blood gas results follow:

pH: 7.32
PaCO2: 67 mmHg
PaO2: 62 mmHg
HCO3: 38 mEq/L

Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

A. Increase the liter flow to 4 L/min
B. Maintain the current O2 level
C. Institute noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NPPV)
D. Place on a NRB mask at 12 L/min

B. Maintain the current O2 level

The physician has ordered O2 to be set up on a patient who has a spontaneous tidal volume of 500 mL and an inspiratory time of 1 second. Which of the following O2 delivery devices will deliver a flow that meets or exceeds this patient’s inspiratory flow?

A. 35% air-entrainment mask at 6 L/min
B. 60% aerosol mask at 12 L/min
C. NRB mask at 15 L/min
D. Simple O2 mask at 10 L/min

500 mL = 0.5 L
0.5/1 = 0.5 L/s (change L/s to ?/min by multiplying by 60
0.5 L x 60= 30 L/min
Select the device that delivers a flow of at least 30L/min

A. 35% air-entrainment mask at 6 L/min

A patient breathing 50% oxygen has a PaO2 of 248 torr. Which of the following should the RT recommend?

A. Discontinue O2 therapy
B. Decrease the oxygen to 30%
C. Titrate oxygen to maintain an SpO2 > 93%
D. Repeat the blood gases because the PaO2 is not possible on this FiO2.

C. Titrate oxygen to maintain an SpO2 > 93%

Explanation: A PaO2 of 250 torr is normal on 50% O2. Remember, to determine the normal PaO2 on any given O2%, multiply the O2% by 5. This is an approximation. If titrate was not a choice, then you would discontinue the oxygen.

A patient is receiving 30% oxygen via an air-entrainment mask at a flow of 5 L/min. The total flow delivered by this device is which of the following?

A. 36 L/min
B. 45 L/min
C. 54 L/min
D. 60 L/min

(*Use 21 with O2 % less than 40%)

(100- 30%)/ (30%-*21) = 70/9 = 8/1 or 8:1 ratio
8+1= 9
9×5 = 45 L/min

B. 45 L/min

Secretions tend to become thicker if the inspired air has which of the following characteristics?

A. A relative humidity of 100% at body temperature
B. 32 mg H2O per liter of gas
C. A water vapor pressure of 47 mmHg
D. 48 mg H2O per liter of gas

B. 32 mg H2O per liter of gas

A patient receiving 38 mg H2O per liter of gas from a nebulizer has a humidity deficit of which of the following?

A. 6 mg/L
B. 9 mg/L
C. 12 mg/L
D. 18 mg/L

44-38= 6

A. 6 mg/L

After connecting a nasal cannula to the humidifier outlet, you kink the tubing and hear a whistling noise coming from the humidifier. Which of the following most likely has caused this?

A. The humidifier jar is cracked
B. The capillary tube in the humidifier is disconnected
C. The humidifier has no leaks
D. The top of the humidifier is not screwed on tightly

C. The humidifier has no leaks

You notice that the patient’s secretions have become thicker and more difficult to suction since the ventilator humidifier was replaced with an HME. The RT should recommend which of the following?

A. Increase inspiratory flow
B. Decrease the temperature to the HME
C. Replace with a new HME
D. Replace the HME with a conventional heated humidifier

D. Replace the HME with a conventional heated humidifier

Which of the following are indications for cool, bland aerosol therapy?

1. A cough must be induced for sputum collection
2. Mobilization of secretions must be improved
3. Postextubation inflammation of the upper airway must be treated

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

You notice that very little mist is being produced by a nebulizer attached to an aerosol mask. Which of the following could be responsible for this?

1. The liter flow is too high
2. The nebulizer jet is clogged with lint
3. The filter on the capillary tube is obstructed

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only

An autoimmune compromised patient is to be placed on oxygen with a humidity/aerosol device. Which of the following devices is most likely to deliver contaminated water to the patient?

A. Heated cascade humidifier
B. Bubble humidifier
C. Heated wick humidifier
D. Heated jet nebulizer

D. Heated jet nebulizer

To minimize an increased airway resistance produced by high-density aerosol inhalation, the RT should recommend which of the following?

A. Administer a bronchodilator along with the aerosol
B. Instruct the patient to breathe through the nose
C. Use a heated nebulizer to deliver the aerosol
D. Perform chest physiotherapy after the aerosol treatment

A. Administer a bronchodilator along with the aerosol

The RT is asked to recommend a humidifier that will be able to provide the highest water vapor content to the patient’s airway. Which of the following humidifiers should the therapist select?

A. Pass-over
B. HME
C. Heated wick
D. Bubble

C. Heated wick

A heated humidifier is delivering 100% body humidity to a patient’s airway. What volume of water is being delivered?

A. 24 mg/L
B. 37 mg/L
C. 44 mg/L
D. 47 mg/L

C. 44 mg/L

A patient is experiencing cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. An arterial blood gas determines that the patient is in metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate lab value to assess at this time?

A. WBC
B. BUN
C. Plasma protein
D. Potassium

D. Potassium

The term used to describe a condition is which a patient has difficulty breathing while in the supine position is which of the following?

A. Orthopnea
B. Hypopnea
C. Eupnea
D. Bradypnea

A. Orthopnea

A patient enters the emergency department, and on initial examination the RT observes paradoxical chest movement. Which of the following should the therapist suspect?

A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pneumonia
C. Flail chest
D. Pleural effusion

C. Flail chest

Perfusion in the extremities may best be determined by which of the following methods?

A. Obtaining ABG studies and determining PaO2 level
B. Assessing the patients SpO2
C. Assessing capillary refill
D. Palpating a brachial pulse

C. Assessing capillary refill

While palpating the chest, the RT determines that there is decreased fremitus over the right lower lobe. This may be the result of which of the following?

1. Pneumothorax
2. Pleural effusion
3. Pneumonia

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

A chest x-ray film obtained after intubation shows that the tip of the ET tube is resting at the fourth rib. Which of the following actions should be taken?

A. The tube should be advanced 2 cm
B. The tube should be advanced until equal breath sounds are heard
C. The tube should remain at this level
D. The tube should be withdrawn 3 cm

D. The tube should be withdrawn 3 cm

The RT is reviewing the chart of a patient suspected of having congestive heart failure. This condition would best be indicated with an elevation in which of the following cardiac biomarkers?

A. Troponin
B. Myoglobin
C. Creatine kinase (CK)
D. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

BNP > 500 = CHF

D. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

A patient is suspected of suffering acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following lab values would be increased in the patient’s blood?

A. Hematocrit
B. CK-MB
C. BNP
D. Albumin

B. CK-MB

The RT notes a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/min in an adult patient’s chart. The patient’s breathing pattern is best described by which of the following?

A. Hyperventilation
B. Dyspnea
C. Hypoventilation
D. Tachypnea

D. Tachypnea

The RT is assessing a patient with severe emphysema and observes pedal edema and jugular venous distention. The therapist should note in the patient’s chart that these signs are most likely the result of:

A. Systemic hypertension
B. Hypercapnia
C. Pulmonary infection
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy

D. Right ventricular hypertrophy

A patient has just been intubated, and the CO2 detector placed on the proximal end of the ETT reads 1.5%. The RT should suspect which of the following?

A. The tube is in the trachea
B. The tube is in the right mainstem bronchus and should be withdrawn 4 cm
C. The tube is in the esophagus
D. The tube is at the level of the carina and should be withdrawn 2 cm

C. The tube is in the esophagus

Which of the following statements is true regarding the King Airway?

A. It is double-lumen tube placed in the esophagus to ventilate difficult-to-intubate patients.
B. The airway can be used only on patients at least 5 feet tall
C. The airway utilizes one cuff, which is inflated with 45-90 mL of air to block off the oropharynx
D. Because of the length of the airway, it is unlikely that the trachea can be intubated inadvertently

D. Because of the length of the airway, it is unlikely that the trachea can be intubated inadvertently

Magill forceps are used during which of the following procedures?

A. Nasotracheal intubation
B. Oral intubation
C. Tracheotomy
D. Insertion of an esophageal tracheal Combitube (ETC)

A. Nasotracheal intubation

The physician wants to begin weaning a patient from a tracheostomy tube. How can this best be accomplished?

A. Deflate the cuff every 2 hours
B. Change to a fenstrated trach tube
C. Keep the cuff inflated and remove the inner cannula
D. Change to a trach tube with a foam cuff

B. Change to a fenstrated trach tube

You are called to a patient’s room because a ventilator alarm is sounding. You hear an audible leak around the patient’s ET tube during a ventilator breath and notice the exhaled volume reading is 150 mL less than the set Vt. You check the cuff pressure and find that it is 12cm H2O. Which of the following is the appropriate action to take?

A. Maintain the current cuff pressure and increase the patient’s Vt to compensate for the leak.
B. Instill enough air to maintain a cuff pressure of 30 mm Hg.
C. Instill air into the cuff to a pressure of 20-30 cm H2O.
D. Instill enough air until only a slight audible leak is heard.

C. Instill air into the cuff to a pressure of 20-30 cm H2O.

You want to pass a suction catheter into the patient’s left lung to obtain a sputum specimen. What is the most appropriate method of accomplishing this?

A. Have the patient turn his or her head to the left
B. Have the patient turn his or her head to the right
C. Use a coude suction catheter
D. Use a catheter that is one half the internal diameter of the patient’s airway

C. Use a coude suction catheter

The RT is using a 12-French suction catheter to suction a female patient who is intubated with a 7.0-mm ET tube and is having difficulty removing the thick secretions. The suction pressure used is -120 mm Hg. Which of the following should be recommended to correct this problem?

A. Increase the suction pressure to -140 mm Hg
B. Instill 5 mL of normal saline down the ET tube
C. Change to a 14 French suction catheter
D. Change to a coude-tipped suction catheter

A. Increase the suction pressure to -140 mm Hg

The RT is called to pediatric ICU to suction a 6-year-old ventilator patient with pneumonia who is intubated with a 5.0 mm ET tube. Which of the following represents the most appropriate catheter size and suction pressure to use on this patient?

A. 8-Fr catheter, -100mm Hg
B. 10-Fr catheter, -60mm Hg
C. 8-Fr catheter, -60mm Hg
D. 10-Fr catheter, -100mm Hg

A. 8-Fr catheter, -100mm Hg

Which of the following will increase the possibility of the ET tube cuff causing tracheal mucosa damage?

1. Maintaining intracuff pressure of 38 cm H2O
2. Using minimal leak technique
3. Using a low-volume, high-pressure cuff
4. Using minimal occluding volume technique

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4

A. 1 and 3 only

An intubated patient begins exhibiting severe respiratory distress, and the RT auscultates no breath sounds and determines that there is no gas flow passing through the end of the ET tube. The high pressure alarm is sounding on the ventilator. Which of the following should the therapist do at this time?

A. Instill 5 mL of saline down the ET tube and suction
B. Extubate and manually ventilate the patient
C. Obtain an arterial blood gas
D. Recommend a stat chest x-ray

B. Extubate and manually ventilate the patient

Which of the following are complications associated with bronchoscopy?

1. Pulmonary hemorrhage
2. Pneumothorax
3. Hypoxemia

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

While assisting with a bronchoscopy, you note that the physician is having difficulty entering the trachea. This may be the result of which of the following?

A. Pneumothorax
B. Tracheomalacia
C. Laryngospasm
D. Pulmonary hemorrhage

C. Laryngospasm

After a bronchoscopy, the RT notes that it is taking more ventilator pressure to ventilate the patient’s lungs than before the procedure. This could be caused by which of the following?

1. Bronchospasm
2. Pneumothorax
3. Hypoxemia
4. Pulmonary hemorrhage

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 4 only
D. 2, 3, and 4 only

C. 1, 2, and 4 only

To aid in the evacuation of air from the pleural space, a chest tube should be inserted at what level?

A. Supraclavicular space
B. Second intercostal space anteriorly at the midclavicular level
C. Sixth intercostal space anteriorly
D. Eighth intercostal space anteriorly

B. Second intercostal space anteriorly at the midclavicular level

The RT notices on a patient’s chest tube drainage system that there is fluctuation of the water level in the water-seal chamber with each patient breath, and that air bubbles are seen only in the suction control chamber, which has a suction pressure of -20 cm H2O. The most appropriate action is which of the following?

A. Clamp the chest tube and check for leaks
B. Insert

Which of the following ventilator waveforms best enables a RT to evaluate the presence of auto-peep in a patient?

A. flow/time
B. flow/volume
C. pressure/time
D. volume/pressure

A. flow/time

The following data are obtained for a patient who is receiving VC, A/C ventilation:

Peak pressure: 30 cm H2O
Plateau pressure: 20 cm H2O
Set Vt: 800 mL
Exhaled Vt: 700 mL
PEEP: 10 cm H2O

What is the static compliance?

A. 35
B. 40
C. 27
D. 70

D. 70

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