Pga 3.0 level 2 exam questions and answers
Pga 3.0 level 2 exam questions
Pga 3.0 level 2 exam pdf
What department is considered the core business unit?
golf operation
From a functional perspective, a vendor is what kind of resource?
financial resource
What must exist for a facility to have a positive culture?
resources
What would a typical organizational chart of a golf operation show?
staff roles & the relationships between them
What is the most likely determinant of the complexity of a facility’s organizational chart?
size of facility and number of resources
Staff is considered a tangible resource?
true
What intangible resource is key to enabling and facilitating peak performance?
culture
How can facilities foster a positive culture?
open communication and discussion
“Identify staffing needs” is ones of the staff management roles in running a golf operation
true
High-performance profiling is a tool that can be used to communicate a uniform set of facility-wide expectations for all employees
true
What should a manager consider when determining the number of employees needed to run an operation?
human resources it will take
What is the advantage of asking open-ended questions during the interview process?
lead to unbiased answers
Reduced training needs is one of the anticipated benefits of adopting new point of sale system technology
false
What is the first step in acquiring a new technology-based system?
assess facility needs
Why should employees be involved in creating and revising policies or procedures?
encourages staff to buy-in to the guidelines it sets out
Promotion is one of the four “Ps” of marketing
true
What does the American Marketing Association refer to as a name, term, sign, symbol or design, or combination of them intended to identify the goods and services of a seller?
brand
Pace of play policies are an effective means for controlling the demand curve for the use of perishable tee times
true
What does yield management allow?
allows facility to maximize the total number of rounds available each day
What term would be considered an important metric for monitoring performance against budget?
variance
What can yield management predict?
demand
What is the formula for developing a yield management report for a given period?
rounds played/potential rounds x 100 = yield%
Why is monitoring performance considered a two-part process?
metrics and staff service quality
What is the yield percentage if a facility sells 180 of 240 available tee times?
75%
Managing by walking around is the most effective when organizational protocols are observed, such as, limiting conversation to their direct reports
false
One of the main benefits of the interpersonal management approach to monitoring performance is to ensure policies and procedures are being followed
true
Visit regularly with heads of other departments is an example of managing by waking around as it applies to monitoring operations?
true
What is the main objective of behavioral management?
manage employee behaviors
What is the focus of the interpersonal management approach?
keeping track of performance and employee behavior
Service improvements should be implemented when achievement of anticipated benefits can be measured
true
When should organizations respond to variances?
ASAP, swiftly
What employee problem poses the biggest challenge for most managers?
following procedures correctly and to facility standards
What could be the cause of “overall poor service” issues?
poor systems, resources, or policies
What is an example of an operational change made in response to variances?
changing tee time system
When should management implement service improvement?
when the desired benefit can be clearly measured
The COGS can be calculated if both the turnover rate and the average inventory value are known
true
The BOMI predicts the dollar value of the inventory needed at the beginning of each month to reach monthly sales goals
true
The higher the turnover rate, the less inventory you need on hand to reach the same sales targets
true
Knowing the previous year’s sales volume is sufficient to accurately forecast sales
true
Inventory should arrive one to two months prior to the anticipation of sales
true
What is the formula for COGS for month?
BOMI + new inventory on purchase – EOMI
In an open-to-buy plan, the sales estimates and the cost of goods estimates come from what other business management tool?
historical data, trends, etc
What is the main purpose of an open-to-buy plan?
how much of a particular product to buy
What information does the COGS provide for a given period of time?
value of goods sold, stolen, lost, or destroyed
Why must golf professionals forecast BOMI levels?
can forecast their inventory levels for the year
What is likely the result of high turnover rate?
not enough inventory buying OR selling through inventory
What is a result of a low turn rate in the golf shop merchandising operation?
high quantities, high pricing, poor promotion, stale desplays
If your average inventory value is $37,000 and your annual cost of goods sold is $114,000, what is the turnover rate?
3.1
Which merchandising condition is most directly correlated with a high turn rate?
low markup or increased sales
What is the formula to determine monthly OTB dollars?
POTB – merch on order
What is the formula to determine planned OTB?
EOMI + COGS – BOMI
What is the most important consideration when evaluating the type of merchandise to purchase for your shop?
customer needs
What is necessary for developing a MAP?
open-to-buy plan
What are the two most important considerations when determining price points?
competition and economic conditions
Why should core merchandise be the first added to the MAP?
serves as foundation
What does “anticipation dating” refer to?
future date payment agreement – discount for early payment
What is one disadvantage of advanced dating?
need to carry more inventory
What is one advantage of advance dating?
sell product at no immediate cost
What is the key tool for inventory control?
merchandise classification
What does “complete date” indicate on a purchase order?
last possible date that vendor can have order delivered & accepted by purchaser before the facility can refuse order
Physical unit tracking can determine both merchandise on hand and sold
true
What are two methods of tracking real-time inventory changes during the time between physical inventory counts?
perpetual book inventory & POS
What inventory management tool serves to ensure adherence to the business plan?
POS system
Perpetual book inventory can determine both merchandise on hand and merchandise sold
true
Adopting a perpetual book inventory system replaces the need to conduct physical inventory counts
false
What is a disadvantage of high turnover?
keeping more inventory on hand
How often should a physical inventory be conducted?
monthly or quarterly
What could cause shrinkage?
damage, loss, inadequate receiving, insufficient tracking
Why is high turnover beneficial?
increased sales, fewer markdowns
What is the formula for gross margin?
final sales – cost of goods sold
COGS plus gross margin = Final Retail Price
True
If an item sells at the targeted markup, markup % and gross margin % will be the same
false
If the planned markup is 15%, what would be the price of a shirt that costs the shop $30 if the MIll River Plan is used?
$34.50
If a shirt costs $30 and the markup % for the shirt is 50%, what would be the potential gross margin return on investment?
$15.00
What is the definition of a markup?
difference between wholesale and the intended sales price
What is the price of a driver when it costs the shop $160 and the markup is 80%?
$288
Using a keystone pricing strategy, what is the retail price of a shirt that has a cost of $30?
$60
What is the suggested distance for separating floor fixtures?
3 feet
What is the value of destination areas?
provide services that members needed before they enter – highlights other areas of golf shop
Which type of fixture provides the most flexibility when floor space is limited?
wall fixtures
What is the main value of having annual special promotions?
generate interest and excitement
What is the definition of a permanent markdown?
reductions is list price
Which is a reason for a golf shop to have annual promotional events?
increase sales, move stale merch, introduce new product
What is an example of a value added service?
club fitting, grip repair, steaming shirt
What is the definition of cost of goods sold?
value of cost of goods sold, damaged, stolen, or lost during a period of time
Gross margin the difference between total sales and the COGS
true
If the wholesale price of a sand wedge is $70, the retail is $125, and final sales price is $105, what is the gross margin percentage?
50%
What is the most effective way to both value and determine the current amount of inventory in real time?
perpetual book inventory
A higher inventory turnover rate usually means a higher GMROI
true
What does gross margin return on investment (GMROI) tell us?
how much money made from every dollar invested
What does a variance report explain?
deviation from an average metric
What is the value of analyzing performance variances?
put self in position to solve problems early
What financial management tools is a possilbe resource for performance numbers used to produce a variance report?
plans or budgets
What markdown would be required to sell a poorly moving keystone item at cost?
50%
Which pair of strategies most likely would reduce shop inventories that have been increasing due to poor sales?
bundling, tournament discounts
Which staff member is responsible for pace of play?
starter
What is a disadvantage of letting faster groups play through?
further slows down original group
a yield management report shows the number of rounds played and the revenue generated by those rounds
false
Successful yield management would more likely involve target marketing of the broad customer base than of a specific player group
true
Demand-based pricing can be employed to change the demand curve for the use of perishable tee times
true
Negative augmented feedback can function as either negative reinforcement or punishment
true
Instructors should avoid giving positive feedback when using negative feedback as punishment
false
Feedback functions as negative reinforcement when it strengthens undesirable behavior
true
After executing a motor skill, a player will evaluate the skill movements by comparing the results of the performance to his or her expectations for it
true
Knowledge feedback will influence the direction of a student efforts but is unable to influence the students arousal and motivation level
false
Augmented feedback given immediately after the skill performance is considered positive reinforcement if the teacher perceives the feedback as rewarding
true
What is the defining property of feedback that functions as reinforcement?
desirable response
What function of feedback energizes and directs student behavior toward achieving a goal?
motivation
what is an example of intrinsic feedback?
drive OB after a bad feeling swing
The teacher’s role is to help the student improve his ability to do what?
correct errors and learn on his own
Augmented feedback that functions as positive or negative reinforcement can have the same result
true
Turnover formula?
COGS/average inventory
The vision, core values, and mission statement of a golf facility should be developed concurrently with establishing a facility-wide business plan that includes concrete goals with strategies for meeting them. (T/F)
True
What department is considered the core business unit of most facilities?
Golf Operations
Policies and procedures are port of which support element of the golf operation’s organization?
Systems
What is the most accurate description of the relationship between the facility’s business plan and the golf operation?
Golf Operation is very core and center of the golf business plan
What is the principal focus of golf operations? Systems Operational Manual
What combination of interaction strategies would be the first choice for promoting a positive facility-wide culture?
Involving and Supporting
From a functional perspective, a vendor is what kind of resource?
Financial
What must exist for a facility to have a positive culture?
Resources
What would a typical organizational chart of a golf operation show?
Staff roles and the relationships between them
What is the most likely determinant of the complexity of a facility’s organizational chart?
Size of facility and number of resources
What determines the complexity of a facility’s organization chart? Size of facility, number of services offered, type of facility, mission
Staff is considered a tangible facility resource? (T/F)
True
What intangible resource is key to enabling and facilitating peak performance?
Culture
How can facilities foster a positive culture of improvement?
Open communication and discussion
How can a facility foster a culture of improvement?
Evolving / Everyone on board
“Identify staffing needs” is one of the staff-management roles in running a golf operation. (T/F)
True
Job descriptions should identify the skills necessary to accomplish the tasks associated with each position. (T/F)
True
High-performance profiling is a tool that can be used to communicate a uniform set of facility-wide expectations for all employees. (T/F)
True
Self-assessments are an appropriate means for facility staff to align their personal goals with business goals. (T/F)
True
New teachers observed the lead instructor at a golf facility conduct a short game clinic. This is an example of external staff training. (T/F)
False
What should a manager consider when determining the number of employees needed to run an operation?
Human resources it will take
What should golf facilities consider doing to elevate staff performance in meeting management and customer expectations?
Create high performance profiles
What is the advantage of asking open-ended questions during the interview process? Lead to unbiased answers
What is an example of external staff training?
Employee going to the PGA Show
Reduced training needs is one of the anticipated benefits of adopting new point of sale system technology. (T/F)
False
What is the first step in acquiring a new technology-based system?
Assess facility needs
What are procedures?
Step by step instructions on how to implement policies and complete specific tasks
What are policies?
Guidelines and rules laid down by management that outline the course of action in various situations
Why should employees be involved in creating and revising policies or procedures?
Encourages staff to buy in to the guidelines it sets out
What is a management tool for defining the structure of the golf operation?
Business planning – Policies and procedures
Promotion is one of the four “Ps” of marketing? (T/F)
True
What does the American Marketing Association refer to as a name, term, sign, symbol or design, or combination of them intended to identify the goods and services of a seller?
Brand
What is an example of indirect competition to an 18-hole daily fee facility?
Fitness and tennis club
What is an example of an attraction program at a golf facility?
Clinic showing new golfers how to warm up
Social media is a method that professionals can use to communicate with potential and existing customers. (T/F)
True
Cost-benefit analysis is a way to assess a promotional strategy. (T/F)
True
What is a reliable indicator of the effectiveness of a promotional program targeting retail sales?
Increase in sales compared to prior year
How can a facility determine the viability of a promotional program?
Cost-benefit analysis, interviewing customers, written surveys
How should surveys, focus groups, and sales analyses be used to keep a facility from wasting money on ineffective promotions?
Helps understand the target market
What would be the most reliable means of predicting the likelihood a proposed promotional plan would be successful?
Knowing the target market and being aligned with business plan objectives
Managing play best practices are the same across facility types. (T/F)
False
When are private facilities exempt from the accommodation requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act?
When no public play is allowed
What is an example of facility functions that need written safety procedures to insure uniform actions of staff?
Golf car use, inclement weather, medical emergencies, alcohol consumption, handling disruptive players
Under what law are golf facilities required to provide all people with goods and services on an equal basis?
Americans with Disabilities Act
Which tee time starting system can reliably prevent players from monopolizing the best tee times?
Lottery System
Which tee time starting system compensates well for no-shows?
Walk on and play
What does USGA’s Pace Rating System help determine?
How quickly a foursome of average golfers should play a particular course on a busy day
What is a good pace-of-play guideline?
Ready golf
How can the starter positively affect the pace-of-play?
Educate, make players aware of guidelines
Which staff member is responsible for setting the pace-of-play?
Starter
What is a disadvantage of letting faster groups play through?
Slows down the original group
An effective team decision-making process requires an authoritative team leader. (T/F)
True
Effective team managers will allow their most creative people to work independently. (T/F)
False
What is a characteristic of an effective team?
Committed goals, open communication, clear rules, trust, effective leadership
As presented in the Golf Operations Course Manual, what must be present to achieve a key characteristic of effective teams?
Structure, who is involved, roles, team decision making
An effective manager could use the “one-minute manager” routine to assess performance, provide feedback, inform a staff person of new responsibilities, and keep staff on track in a short visit – many times less than a minute. (T/F)
True
What is an interactive calendar?
Upcoming events and actions that can be edited and seen by everyone
What activities might be included in a “one-minute manager” routine?
The days info, product info, policies and procedures, daily and weekly goals, recognition of good work
Tournament directors rely on the food and beverage operation to meet members’ and guests’ physical and social needs. (T/F)
True
What is a benefit of having a caddie program at a club?
Helps maintain course, cut down on cart traffic
Practice facilities should be designed so golfers will face what direction?
North or East, away from the sun most of the day
What is the most important interdepartmental relationship for the golf operations department?
Golf course maintenance
A yield management report shows the number of rounds played and the revenue generated by those rounds. (T/F)
False
Successful yield management would more likely involve target marketing of the broad customer base than of a specific player group. (T/F)
True
Demand-based pricing can be employed to change the demand curve for the use of perishable tee times. (T/F)
True
Pace-of-play policies are an effective means for controlling the demand curve for the use of perishable tee times. (T/F)
True
Yield management is a process that allows a facility to maximize the total number of rounds available each day. (T/F)
True
What can yield management predict?
Demand
What does successful yield management produce?
Maximize the total number of rounds available each day
What is the formula for developing a yield management report for a given period?
Rounds Played / Potential Rounds X 100 = Yield %
Why is monitoring performance considered a two-part process?
Metrics and staff service quality
What is the yield percentage if a facility sells 180 of 240 available tee times?
75%
Managing by walking around is most effective when organizational protocols are observed, such as, limiting conversation to their direct reports. (T/F)
False
Managing by walking around gives employees the opportunity to air grievances. (T/F)
True
One of the main benefits of the interpersonal management approach to monitoring performance is to ensure policies and procedures are being followed. (T/F)
True
What is an effective means of monitoring performance while “managing by walking around”?
Observing, listening, and testing performance on an ongoing basis
What approach to management is described by observing and following up on both positive and negative employee performance?
Behavioral Management
What is the main objective of behavioral management?
Manage employee behaviors
What is the focus of the interpersonal management approach?
Keeping track of performance and employee behavior
Service improvements should be implemented when achievement of anticipated benefits can be measured. (T/F)
True
What could be the cause of “Overall poor service” issues?
Poor systems, resources, or policies
What is an example of an operational change made in response to variances?
Changing tee time systems
When should management implement service improvements?
When the desired benefit can be clearly measured
How does the facility’s overall vision and core values help the retail manager?
Solidify vision and core values that support vision
For which purpose are the facility’s core values and vision going to be most useful to the retail manager?
Guide the creation of all other aspects
What should increase in the retail operation to add value?
Quality and customer service
The end of month inventory target for May is the same as the COGS for June. (T/F)
False
The cost of good sold can be calculated if both the turnover rate and the average inventory value are known. (T/F)
True
The BOMI predicts the dollar value of the inventory needed at the beginning of each month to reach monthly sales goals. (T/F)
True
The higher the turnover rate, the more inventory you need on hand to reach the same sales targets. (T/F)
False
Knowing the previous year’s sales volume is sufficient to accurately forecast sales. (T/F)
True
Inventory should arrive one to two months prior to the anticipation of sales. (T/F)
True
The golf professional has projected $310,000 in annual merchandise sales, $205,000 for the cost of goods sold, and a turnover rate of 2.5. What is the average inventory level at cost?
$82,000
What is the formula for Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)?
BOMI + New Inventory on Purchase = EOMI
In an open-to-buy plan, the sales estimates and the cost of goods estimates come from what other business management tool?
Historical data, trends, etc.
What is the main purpose of an open-to-buy plan?
How much of a particular product to buy
What information does the cost of goods sold (COGS) provide for a given period of time?
Value of goods sold, stolen, lost, or destroyed
Why must golf professionals forecast beginning of month inventory (BOMI) levels?
Can forecast their inventory levels for the year
What is the likely result of a high turnover rate?
Not enough inventory buying or selling through inventory
What is a result of low turn rate in the golf shop merchandising operation?
High quantities, high pricing, poor promotion, or stale displays
If your average inventory value is $37,000 and your annual cost of goods sold is $114,000, what is the turnover rate?
3.1
Which merchandising condition is most directly correlated with a high turn rate?
Low markup or increased sales
Given the following information, what was the turnover rate for the year? Sales $196,000 Cost of Goods Sold $140,000 Average Inventory $56,000 Glove Sales $24,000 Ball Sales
$36,000 Men’s Shirt Sales $54,000 Rounds $20,000 2.5
Some OTB funds should be reserved for unforeseen opportunities. (T/F)True
Based on the information below, what is the open-to-buy amount for July? JULY AUGUST Sales $17,000 $12,500 COGS $12,000 $9,000 BOMI $50,000 $41,000
$12,000
What is the formula to determine OTB dollars?
POTB – Merchandise on order
In an open-to-buy budget, how is the average inventory defined?
Average amount of merchandise (in cost dollars) the facility must have on hand throughout the year to meet annual sales goals
What is the formula for calculating planned OTB?
EOMI + COGS – BOMI
What does an open-to-buy reserve provide?
10-25% for other opportunities and unplanned purchases
Merchandise that the competition carries is a factor to be considered in the merchandise assortment plan. (T/F)
True
What is the most important consideration when evaluating the type of merchandise to purchase for your shop?
Customer needs
What is necessary for developing a MAP?
Open-to-buy plan
What are the two most important considerations when determining price points?
Competition and economic conditions
Why should core merchandise stock be the first merchandise added to the MAP?
Serves as foundation
What does “anticipation dating” refer to?
Future date payment arrangement – discount for early payment
What is one disadvantage of advance dating?
Need to carry more inventory
What is one advantage of advance dating?
Sell product at no immediate cost
What is the turnover formula?
COGS / Average inventory
What is the key tool for inventory control?
Merchandise classification
What does “complete date” indicate on a purchase order?
Last possible date that vendor can have order delivered
What inventory management tool serves to ensure adherence to the business plan?
POS System
Physical unit tracking can determine both merchandise on hand and merchandise sold. (T/F)
True
What are the two methods of tracking real-time inventory changes during the time between physical inventory counts?
Perpectual book inventory and POS
Perpetual book inventory can determine both merchandise on hand and merchandise sold. (T/F)
True
Adopting a perpetual book inventory system replaces the need to conduct physical inventory counts. (T/F)
False
What is a disadvantage of high turnover?
Keeping more inventory on hand
How often should a physical inventory count be conducted?
Monthly or quarterly
What could cause shrinkage?
Damage, loss, inadequate receiving, insufficient tracking
Why is high turnover beneficial?
Increased sales, fewer markdowns
End of Month Inventory (EOMI) minus COGS equals Gross Margin. (T/F)
False
Cost of Goods Sold plus Gross Margin equal Final Retail Sales Price. (T/F)
True
If an item sells at the targeted markup, markup percentage and gross margin percentage will be the same. (T/F)
False
Given the following information, what is the gross margin in dollars? BOMI $2,700 Sales $20,000 COGS $16,000 EOMI $24,500
$4,000
If the planned markup is 15%, what would be the price of a shirt that costs the shop $30 if the Mill River Plan is used?
$34.50
If a shirt costs $30 and the markup percentage for the shirt is 50%, what would be the potential gross margin return on investment?
$15
What is the percent markup if the cost of an item is $75 and it sells for $120?
60%
What is the definition of markup?
Difference between wholesale and intended sales price
What is the price of a driver when it costs the shop $160 and the markup is 80%?
$288
A golf shop has allocated 13% of its $325,000 retail sales forecast to woods. Based on a 70% COGS, what was the estimated cost of the woods?
$29,575
Using a keystone pricing strategy, what is the retail price of a shirt that has a cost of $30?
$60
A retail shop used a cost plus 75% pricing strategy in the shoe department. The manager is planning a 25% off retail promotional sale for a new model of golf shoe. If the shoe costs the shop $80, what will be the promotional price?
$105
A discount of 20% was taken on a $15 event cap due to a logo placement error. What is the actual markup percentage if the cost of each cap was $8?
50%
What is the suggested distance for separating floor fixtures?
3 feet
What is the primary purpose of a rectangular display rack?
Display large quantities of hanging merchandise in a wide variety of colors and sizes
Describe the primary purpose of a promotional table?
Ideal for large quantities of markdown merchandise or special promotions; usually a single style
Which type of fixture gives the most presentation flexibility when floor space is extremely limited?
Wall fixtures
Markdown sales could be considered promotional events. (T/F)
True
What is the main value of having annual special promotions?
Generate interest and excitement
What is the definition of a permanent markdown?
Reduction in list price
Which is a reason, cited in the Merchandising and Inventory Management Course Manual, for a golf shop to have annual or special promotional events?
Increased sales, move stale merchandise, introduce new product
What should be emphasized to close the sale?
Remind customer of services and benefits; up sell if possible – create multiple purchases
What planning document outlines merchandising objectives for events scheduled throughout the year?
Master calendar
What is the definition of “cost of goods sold”?
Value of cost of goods sold, damaged, stolen, or lost during a period of time
Gross margin is the difference between the retail price and the cost of goods sold. (T/F)
False
What is the most effective way to both value and determine the current amount of inventory in real time?
Perpetual book inventory
A higher inventory turnover rate usually means a lower GMROI. (T/F)
False
What does Gross Margin Return on Investment (GMROI) tell us?
How much money made from every dollar invested
What does a variance report explain?
Deviation from an average metric
What is the value of analyzing performance variances?
Put self in position to solve problems early
What financial management tool is a possible resource for performance numbers used to produce a variance report?
Plans or budgets
What markdown would be required to sell a poorly moving keystone item at cost?
50%
Which pair of strategies most likely would reduce shop inventories that have been increase due to poor sales?
Bundling and tournament discounts
What is the lower part of a grass leaf called?
Sheath
It is necessary to supplement natural rainfall in most climates within the Continental United States. (T/F)
True
What does a pH measurement represent?
Acidity and alkalinity of the soil
What is the ideal pH range for most turfgrasses?
6-6.5
What does a pH measurement of 3 indicate?
Acidic
Hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the three primary nutrients necessary for plant growth. (T/F)
False
What does light provide in the process of photosynthesis?
Energy to produce carbohydrates
Due to the high level of traffic they receive, fairways are usually planted with fescues. (T/F)
False
Grasses with stolons or rhizomes are best for filling divots. (T/F)
True
Bermuda grass will go dormant and turn brown below 50 degrees F. (T/F)
True
Warm season grasses will die out in temperatures much below 50 degrees F. (T/F)
False
Clay soils tend to be alkaline. (T/F)
False
What is the overriding selection criterion used by designers and superintendents when considering all the turfgrass options around their course?
Best match for the physical characteristics and geographic location on the course
Why might ryegrass be used on a course located in Florida?
Overseed bermuda greens when dormant in the winter
Why might a fairway be planted with perennial ryegrass?
Recovers quickly, can repair divots
Which grass species is commonly used for overseeding dormant warm-season grasses?
Perennial ryegrass
Why might Kentucky Blue grass be used for fairways instead of Creeping Bent grass?
Lower maintenance
The loss of adequate air supply to the root zone is most commonly caused by poor irrigation practices. (T/F)
False
Topdressing is a way to immediately improve the soil texture. (T/F)
False
Topdressing restores the spaces in the soil by recreating passageways that facilitate the flow of water, nutrients, and air to the plant. (T/F)
False
Overseeding is used to provide a green playing surface during winter months. (T/F)
True
Why is aeration usually performed in the Spring?
Grass is not under temperature stress / recovers quicker
Superintendents may retain some thatch to moderate the effects of summer heat. (T/F)
True
Effective disease control requires the routine application of fungicides. (T/F)
False
Fungicides are applied only after visible evidence of disease presence is noted. (T/F)
False
Fungicides are most effective when applied as a preventative to disease development. (T/F)
True
Which maintenance practice can cause thatch to accumulate?
Over-application of nitrogen fertilizer; excess irrigation
What is an indication of a subsurface insect problem?
Presence of animals; turfgrass damage
What is primarily responsible for the continual reduction in the use of chemicals around golf courses?
Sustainability
What is the cause of most pathogenic turfgrass diseases?
Fungi
Why would fungicides be applied before visible evidence of a disease is noticed?
To prevent a disease from starting
Achieving and documenting compliance with government regulation of pesticide use, application, and storage is the responsibility of the Chemical Technician. (T/F)
False
Who is responsible for achieving and documenting continued compliance with government regulations regarding pesticide use, application, and storage?
Superintendent
What job title best describes the person responsible for reading, understanding, and keeping current with material safety data sheets?
Chemical technician
What needs to be in place to prevent conflicts between scheduled maintenance and golf events?
Master calendar
What is the best method for reaching a satisfactory action when conflicts occur between the Superintendent and the Golf Professional?
Have one common goal – A fair, challenging, enjoyable and safe experience for golfers
According to the Turfgrass Management Manual, what needs to be in place in order to develop mutual understanding between the head professional and the course superintendent?
Good communication
The Superintendent has scheduled the Fall aerification. What is the primary responsibility of the Head Professional when aeration is scheduled?
Add to master calendar and prepare answers
What responsibility is imposed on the golf professional when the superintendent finalizes the fall aerification dates?
Prepare standard answers and info for complaints or questions
What is key to cultivating a mutual understanding and resolving differences between the course superintendent and the golf professional?
Good communication
It is the golf professional’s role to inform golfers about matters relating to the condition of the golf course. (T/F)
True
What must head professionals do to support their efforts to keep customers informed, educated, and understanding of course management events and issues?
Face to face communication; info posted
According to the Turfgrass Management Manual, the need for course renovation is usually a consequence of inadequate course maintenance over time. (T/F)
False
More than 30% of all golf courses in the US are using water from municipal water systems. (T/F)
False
What is the proper role for the golf professional during a golf course renovation?
Inform, educate, and listen
What have golf course superintendents been doing recently to improve environmental management practices?
Practicing sustainability
What is the most influential factor in the effort by the golf industry to put sustainability design concept into effect?
Benefits of the golf courses
What golf-industry assumption about what it takes to operate a successful course must change for USGA president Jim Hyler’s concept of “brown becoming the new green” to become reality?
Misguided perception that courses need to be lush, green, and perfect to be good
According to the USGA, what does “browning becoming the new green” imply?
Playability should replace aesthetics as primary condition
What is the correct order of the golf course design and development process?
Analysis, design, development, grow-in, maintenance
Who does the head golf professional work with most closely throughout the golf course design process?
Owners and members
Who implements the course maintenance procedures?
Superintendent and staff
Who supervises the grow-in phase of the design and development process?
Superintendent
Who supervises the design phase of the design and construction process?
Core team / architect
What is the recommended green size in the Turfgrass Management Manual?
5000-8000 square feet
At what phase should the course superintendent be brought into the design and construction process?
Design phase
What is the minimum number of acres needed for just the playing area of a modern 18-hole golf course?
175 acres
At what stage of the golf course planning process is the availability of utilities considered?
Analysis phase
Negative augmented feedback can function as either negative reinforcement or punishment. (T/F)
True
Instructors should avoid giving positive feedback when using negative feedback as punishment. (T/F)
False
Feedback functions as negative reinforcement when it strengthens undesirable behavior. (T/F)
False
After executing a motor skill, a player will evaluate the skill movements by comparing the result of the performance to his or her expectations for the performance. (T/F)
True
Knowledge feedback will influence the direction of a student’s effort but is unable to influence the student’s arousal and motivation level. (T/F)
False
Augmented feedback given immediately after skill performance is considered positive reinforcement if the teacher or coach perceives the feedback as rewarding. (T/F)
True
What function of feedback energizes ad directs student behavior toward achieving a goal?
Motivation
What is the defining property of feedback that functions as reinforcement?
Desirable response
What is an example of intrinsic feedback serving as negative reinforcement?
Student feels the dissatisfaction of seeing a ball go OB and feels body movement didn’t go as planned
A teacher watches a student leave a ten-foot putt short and then informs her that the putt needed to be hit with more speed. What type of feedback is this an example of?
Augmented feedback
The teacher’s role is to help the student improve his own ability to do what?
Correct errors and learn on their own
A teacher shows frustration when a student performs a skill incorrectly. To avoid this response in the future, the student focuses on correcting the skill movement. What is this an example of?
Augmented feedback as negative reinforcement
Augmented feedback that functions as positive or negative reinforcement can have the same result. (T/F)
True
Augmented feedback used as punishment is most effective when the desired change is personal. (T/F)
False
A good reason for delivering only non-error augmented feedback is so the student will become more aware of cause and effect relationships within the swing. (T/F)
False
Beginners typically benefit more from video feedback than advanced players. (T/F)
False
A student reading her spin rate data from a launch monitor is an example of what type of augmented feedback?
Quantitative augmented feedback
What is the effect of giving augmented feedback less frequently while learning takes place?
Encourages more engagement in learning process
What knowledge of performance feedback would likely benefit an advanced player with extensive golf experience?
Verbal feedback and kinematics
What is an example of knowledge of performance feedback?
Verbal, video, kinematics
What is an example of a statement that is considered knowledge of results feedback?
Outcome of skill performance, how far a shot went from the intended target
When delivering feedback, when would a greater degree of precision be beneficial?
Later stages of learning a movement
Inexperienced instructors tend to make changes to lesson activities more quickly than experienced instructors. (T/F)
False
What do skillful instructors carefully consider when concluding a lesson?
Keep enthusiasm, valuable ideas, and improved skills
Which student predisposition must a teacher overcome to develop an interactive lesson climate?
Student scared to give the wrong answer
What should the teacher leave the student with when closing a lesson?
Enthusiasm, good feelings, valuable ideas, improved skills
What strategy should an instructor use to engage the student at the beginning of the lesson?
Instructional goals and how to achieve them; overview of lesson
Instructors should operate on the assumption that their students with modest talent will experience greater frustration than others who are naturally athletic. (T/F)
False
One of the measures of a learning aid’s validity is the extent to which it does what the manufacturer represents it does. (T/F)
True
For practice to be effective, students must hit golf balls. (T/F)
False
The “hit the tee” drill can be effective in creating clubhead speed. (T/F)
True
According to the course manual, the duration of a practice session for juniors should be at least one hour. (T/F)
False
The more time taken between shots, the more massed the practice. (T/F)
False
Prescribing practice should be a part of every lesson. (T/F)
True
When developing new skills, one long practice session is better than more frequent, shorter practice sessions. (T/F)
False
Immediately before a round generally is not a good time to practice. (T/F)
True
Generally speaking, what time is better than the others for working on a problem shot?
Longer practice periods, not limited
Under what circumstance would “best-ball” be a good practice technique?
Build positive feelings
Which drill is the most effective for influencing centeredness of contact? Toe up to toe up drill
What drill would be most helpful for a person who is having trouble squaring the clubface at impact?
Toe up to toe up drill
What should be included in every golf lesson?
Practice and demonstration how and what to practice
What example would make the practice and playing environments similar?
Competitive, realistic situations, practice to targets
What common drill helps the student develop a feel for clubhead speed?
L to L drill
As an example, what is designed to test a player’s consistency and patience?
Worst ball; scramble
A potential problem with multi camera systems is overwhelming the student with too much information. (T/F)
True
Technology determines why the ball is going where it is going. (T/F)
False
The overuse of technology on the lesson tee seems to affect the advanced player more than the beginning player. (T/F)
False
The angle of approach when hitting an iron in an indoor simulator should be the same as hitting an iron on a golf course. (T/F)
False
The golfer is directed to which stage of learning when receiving too much technological information?
Cognitive
According to the course manual, what percentage of players have been professionally fit for their putter?
5%
What factor should the professional not use in their determination on how much technological information be delivered to the student?
Playing level, personality
Which technology may be beneficial if video shows the student has poor dynamic balance?
Pressure plate
A good teacher has many methods of teaching, but a great teacher has one method. (T/F)
False
A high swing arc tends to partner with less lateral body movement. (T/F)
False
An open-faced grip tends to partner with which release patterns through impact?
Livelier arms and hands release at impact
A closed-face grip tends to partner with which release patterns through impact?
Rotating body and less arm and hand release
Expert teachers that are satisfied with their knowledge and methodology have little need to pursue new information that makes them more effective. (T/F)
False
In the club behind the cup drill, the goal is either to make the putt or hit a shaft placed 36 inches behind the cup. (T/F)
False
The eyes closed putting drill is designed to help a student improve directional control. (T/F)
False
The one-foot interval ladder drill has the player starting eight feet away from the cup and progressively moving one foot closer as each putt is holed. (T/F)
False
When chipping, which drill can help a golfer create the appropriate amount of extension through impact?
Hold the finish drill
What is the purpose of positioning a tee to the outside and inside of the ball, perpendicular to the target line, and slightly wider than the clubhead?
Squaring the face at impact
When using the extended club drill in chipping practice, if the extension hits the player’s side, this is an indication of which swing errors?
Too much wrist action
What pitching drills helps to minimize lateral body motion?
Feet together drill
What drill can be used to determine the correct ball position for a greenside bunker shot?
Line drill
Upper crossed syndrome is a probable result of working on the computer for extended periods of time. (T/F)
True
According to the course manual, only a player with a long torso rotation can generate power and speed? (T/F)
False
A tilted hip position causes a restricted torso rotation toward the lower hip. (T/F)
False
Upper and lower crossed syndromes can create reciprocal inhibitions. (T/F)
True
A left dominant stance would cause right-handed golfers’ difficulty in loading their right side at the top of the backswing. (T/F)
True
What is the function of the skeletal system?
Support structure for the body, gives shape, allows movement, protects organs
What are the two compartmental classifications of the skeleton?
Axial and appendicular
What comprises the axial skeleton?
head, trunk, 86 bones and 6 parts
Upper crossed syndrome can be easily identified in an individual who has what physical feature?
Rounded shoulders, head out
What is the probable golf swing result of rounded shoulders and a forward head position?
Over the top
What is the probable in-swing result at impact for a player who shows an anterior lower back tilt?
Restricted torso rotation / change in spine angle
What is one means of correcting an upper cross syndrome?
Lengthen front, strengthen back
What swing problem is associated with a right-leg dominant stance?
Over the top / standing up
What can a forward head position with rounded shoulders at address cause?
Narrow swing, hands too close to body, shank
Which is an indication of an anterior tilt in the pelvis?
Pelvis is rotated forward, spine curves, lower back arched
What is the purpose of taking a physical inventory?
To identify problems and enable golf professionals to respond in a timely manner
Because of research evidence that is available, it is recommended that teachers use distributed practice when the student motivation to learn is high. (T/F)
False
What is presented in the manual as a preferred means to effective practice?
Shorter, more frequent sessions
What is the intrinsic benefit of transfer practice?
Experience pressure of performing skill in a playing context
What valuable characteristic is shared by both intrinsic and augmented feedback?
Can provide relevant or irrelevant info about a golf skill
What is one way teachers can positively influence student motivation to practice?
Set goals, variety, competition, fun, etc.
What can students demonstrate as a result of transfer practice?
Better performance under pressure
A teaching aid is a physical or mental exercise that is practiced to improve golf skill learning. (T/F)
False
Imagining practice with an in-swing training aid is an example of using an external cue. (T/F)
False
An internal cue allows the student’s motor system to perform more naturally than an external cue. (T/F)
False
Massed practice is a possible cause of a performance plateau. (T/F)
True
A performance plateau indicates that the student is no longer learning. (T/F)
False
Training aids should be evaluated on how well they help the teacher communicate a concept. (T/F)
False
Teaching aids should be evaluated on how well they help the teacher communicate a concept. (T/F)
True
What is an example of an external cue?
Visualizing hitting a fade when the student tends to hit a hook
What is the basis for the distinction between massed and distributed practice?
Amount of time taken between shots
What is most important when evaluating the effectiveness of a learning aid?
Valid, reliable, durable, easy to use, cost-effective
How does the facility’s overall vision and core values help the retail manager?
“In practice, the retail operation must have a clear understanding of its constituents and market in order to establish a solid vision and set of values. The overall facility profile can help solidify the retail operation’s vision and establish core values that support the vision. Once completed, the vision and core values guide the creation of all other aspects of the retail operation business plan.”
For which purpose are the facility’s core values and vision going to be most useful to the retail manager?
match its desired customer base
What should increase in the retail operation to add value?
When making decisions regarding an exceptional golf experience, customers may look at factors such as value and the quality of the experience. Value is defined as providing an experience that exceeds the price paid. The most determining factor in creating an experience that exceeds customers’ value is the level of customer service. The successful retailer enhances the facility’s image and value with a “Customer First” culture that demands excellent customer service from the staff while building positive relationships with customers.
For what month is the End of Month Inventory target for May the same as the BOMI?
June
The cost of goods sold can be calculated if what other figures are known?
Equation: Beginning of Month Inventory (BOMI) + New Inventory Purchased – End of Month Inventory (EOMI) at Cost = Cost of Goods Sold (COGS) in dollars. Other figures needed are turnover rate and average inventory.
What predicts the dollar value of the inventory needed at the start of each month to reach monthly sales goals?
OTB (open-to-buy)
How much inventory do you need on hand to reach the same sales targets if the turnover rate is higher than the same period last year?
“A high turn rate means that less inventory must be on hand to reach sales target, but inventory must be replaced more often.”
In addition to the previous year’s sales volume, what additional information is needed to accurately forecast sales?
When forecasting future sales, it is necessary to analyze the previous sales volumes and determine trends or patterns found in this historical data. It may be ideal to develop charts and graphs to demonstrate the sales volumes from previous years.
How far in advance should Inventory arrive prior to the anticipation of sales?
“Inventory levels should be built up one or two months prior to strong forcasted sales, not in the month where the strong sales are expected.”
The Golf Professional has projected $310,000 in annual merchandise sales, $205,000 for cost of goods sold, and a turnover rate of 2
$102,500
What is the formula for Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)?
Beginning of the month inv. Cost + New Inv. Purchased – End of Month Inv. At cost – Cost of goods sold in dollars.
In an open-to-buy plan, the sales estimates and the cost of goods estimates come from what other business management tool?
Operating Budget
What is the main purpose of an open-to-buy plan?
The main purpose is to help the merchiander have the correct level of merchisdise support the clubs sales.
What information does the cost of goods sold (COGS) provide for a given period?
The value of the goods that were sold and lost or damaged at cost.
Why must golf professionals forecast beginning of month inventory (BOMI)?
To have a count for the availble merchanidise that ready to be sold and to avoid over buying and having too much merchanidise.
What is the likely result of a turnover rate that is too high?
A high turn rate means that less inventory must be on hand to reach sales targets, but the inventory must be replaced more often. One turn consists of using cash to purchase a product, selling that product, and reinvesting the cash to replace the sold product.
What is a result of a low turn rate in the golf shop merchandising operation?
A low turn rate may require more markdowns to clear out stale merchandise. This cycle causes rising COGS and a reduction of gross margin.Therefore, it is necessary for the merchandiser to accurately determine the turn rates for each product line. Keep in mind that having a turn rate that is too high may cause the shop to run out of a product, but one that is too low means markdowns may be needed to move product out of the shop
If your average inventory value is $37,000 and your annual cost of goods sold is $114,000, what is the turnover rate?
The turnover rate was at 3.081= COGS ($114,000)/ AI ( $37,000)
Which merchandising condition is most directly correlated with a high turnover rate?
Low inventory is most directly correlated with a high turnover rate.
Given the following information, what was the turnover rate for the year? Sales $196,000, Cost of goods sold $140,000, Average Inventory $ 56,000, Glove sales $24,000, Ball sales $ 36,000, Men’s shirt sales $ 54,000, Rounds 20,000
The turnover rate is 2.5
Should OTB funds should be reserved for unforeseen opportunities?
Yes, the extra funds can be used for unforseen opportunities.
What is the formula for calculating planned OTB dollars?
End of month inventory + Forecasted COGS – Beginning of month inventory
What does an open-to-buy reserve provide?
It provides the oppurtinty to make unplanned purchases.
1.What happens to customer expectations over time when they are consistently met?
They become part of the requirements and, eventually, the Core Products and Services as new requirements and expectations emerge. These new requirements and expectations eventually become part of an updated Core Products and Services.
2.What is the primary product of the golf business according to the Customer Relations Manual?
The PGA Experience
3.What single variable has research shown to be most closely associated with long term financial performance?
The Core Products/Services that the club continues to deliver is associated with long-term financial performance.
4.What is occurring when the customer evaluates the qualify of a facility’s products and services?
Moments of truth.
5.When does an interactive moment of truth occur for the customer?
They involve direct contact between the customer and a staff member.
6.What is occurring when a customer’s bag has been incorrectly tagged at the bag drop?
A task related failure
7.According to the Customer Relations Manual, what must accompany good interpersonal skills to achieve high quality relations with your members and customers?
They require clear procedures and actionable skills to be developed for routine day-to-day situations.
8.An upset customer is concerned about the lack of action to speed up play. He seeks out the golf professional to express his displeasure. What needs to be in place for the golf professional to resolve the situation?
Golf professionals must ensure positive procedures are in place and that staff members are trained in the Interpersonal Skills required to keep customers happy.
9.What is a clear policy on how to handle customers who arrive late for a tee time?
There should be procedures designed to avoid or resolve situations that may lead to negative customer experiences. A clear policy should include that the customer loses their spot on the tee sheet and is bumped down to a new time.
- The Head Professional is explaining the club’s “no starting from the 10th tee” policy to a foursome that has attempted to do so. He explains the reasoning for the policy and politely extends an invitation to place them as the next group off#1 tee. What concept of customer relations interactions is illustrated in this scenario?
The directing strategy
12.What do all customer interactions involve in addition to relationships?
The task relationship is what the service provider and the customer are trying to accomplish. The task and the relationship work in a cycle together.
13.What are the key requirements for good customer relations?
Resources, Staffing, and Systems are the key requirements for good customer relations.
14.What factor affects the value of any resource?
The Quality of the resource
- Running out of scorecards indicates a breakdown of what key requirement for good customer relations?
Resources. - What is defined as the means available to support staff in completing a task?
Resources - Detailed policies and procedures lie at the heart of which one of the three elements necessary to support the delivery of superior customer service?
Systems - The Head Professional made the following observations at the staging area for a shotgun event: Area was fully staffed. Necessary supplies were available. Cars were missing towels, scorecards, and divot sand. A breakdown in what key customer relations requirement would most likely account for this situation?
Resources and Systems because of lack of supplies and improper staff practices.
19.What interaction strategy is appropriate when one is clear about what needs to be done and the other person accepts the organizational role assignments?
Directing Strategy
20.What distinguishes the four interaction strategies from each other?
the amount of control of the actions and initiative from others
- “Modifying your ideas to include other’s contributions” is more likely to be part of which strategy?
The Involving strategy
22.The successful use of what strategy characteristically involves encouraging others to find a solution and then helping them to understand your role in implementing it?
Supporting Strategy
23.What is the most appropriate strategy to use when a volunteer has begun to come up with his own ideas after the two of you have worked together for a while?
The supporting strategy
- Which interaction strategy allows others to see the value of adopting your solution?
Convincing strategy
25.A new member of your club insists on a tee time that is not available. Which interaction strategy would be most appropriate in resolving the situation?
The directing strategy
26.When a manager builds a solution to accommodate the needs or concerns of another person, they are most likely employing which interaction strategy?
Convincing strategy
27.What strategy would be most appropriate in situations where one has a solution that may meet the needs of others who are in a position to accept or reject it on its merits?
Convincing strategy
- Others are seeking guidance from the person who has a solution to their concerns is an appropriate situation for using which strategy?
The Directing Strategy is appropriate. This is best when dealing with customers that may have limited knowledge or experience about how to proceed. - What strategy is a good choice for keeping a group discussion on topic?
For keeping a group discussion on topic The Directing Strategy can be used. - Providing clear and specific directions and then modifying them as needed to gain the cooperation of others is a good way to implement which strategy?
This is a good way to implement the Directing strategy.
Offering to suggest some options would be an example of employing which strategy with a member who has arrived ten minutes after his tee time on a fully booked day?
Convincing Strategy.
In what situations would a staff member most likely rely on the “supporting” strategy?
Involving Strategy
When would one most likely rely on the “convincing” strategy?
The involving strategy is appropriate for situations where the employee is not in a position to lead others to a solution and the employee does not directly supervise or control the behaviors related to the outcome.
A co-worker is having difficulty setting up a merchandise display
This is most appropriate in situations when others have the potential or ability to resolve concerns themselves, but are either unable to clearly sort out their thoughts or are hindered by negative emotions.
A member complains about how the club guest policy affects his adult children
This is often used when the golf professional or employee is trying to provide goods or services to customers.
A golfer arrives ten minutes after his assigned tee time on a booked solid day
The Supporting Strategy and Directing Strategy.
Last year a special membership committee suggested that a new parking and bag drop procedure be adopted as club policy
The Supporting Strategy
When a manager modifies an idea to include other people’s contributions, they are most likely employing what interaction strategy?
Stating what is to be done and what standards apply in clear and unambiguous terms- “Attention, all registered tournament participants. If your last name starts with A through L, report to the table on the left. Everyone else, report to the table on the right.”
A customer arrives late for his assigned tee time on a solidly booked day
The Involving Strategy
- A member complains about how the guest policy affects his adult children. The head professional knows that the policy is unpopular with many members. What strategy might he use effectively in this situation?
The Convincing Strategy - Drawing others out and getting them to actively express their ideas, feelings, and points of view best describes which interpersonal skill?
The Involving Strategy. Actively seeking ideas and suggestions from others, and supporting their contributions. - Helping others to look at a situation from a fresh perspective to see new possibilities describes which interpersonal skill?
The Convincing Strategy.
47.Opening channels of communication to minimize misperceptions that can develop between people describes what interpersonal skill?
Giving and inviting specific feedback
48.In the Customer Relations Manual, being a good listener is defined as which interpersonal skill?
Showing Understanding
49.Responding to others in such a way that you convey a genuine understanding of their point of view defines what interpersonal skill?
Showing Understanding conveys a genuine understanding of the other persons point of view.
50.What are the interpersonal skills presented in the Customer Relations Manual?
Stating Your Purpose Clearly, Providing a Compelling Rationale, Encouraging Open Expression, Showing Understanding, Giving and Inviting Specific Feedback, Reframing Difficult Situations, Acting With Integrity.
51.What are the seven interpersonal skills?
Stating Your Purpose Clearly, Providing a Compelling Rationale, Encouraging Open Expression, Showing Understanding, Giving and Inviting Specific Feedback, Reframing Difficult Situations, Acting With Integrity.
52.How might one best implement the interpersonal skill of “encouraging open expression?”
A good time to implement the interpersonal skill of Encouraging Open Expression would be during a group clinic to allow each golfer to explain how they are interpreting the lesson. This can allow others to gain a better understanding of what is trying to be taught.
53.During contract negotiations between a landscaping contractor and her golf facility, the head professional was able to successfully communicate her role and intent in asking for a meeting. Identify the interpersonal skill utilized in this situation?
stating your purpose clearly
54.What is the interpersonal skill defined as “communicating the benefits of pursuing a particular course of action?”
Providing a compelling rationale
55.What interpersonal skill lies at the heart of all the others?
Acting with integrity
56.Telling others how their behavior affected you is an example of what interpersonal skill?
Giving and Inviting Specific Feedback
57.What interpersonal skill should be used when you need to build trust and purpose?
Acting With Integrity
59.What interpersonal skill typically requires you to list important criteria that need to be addressed if the problem is to be satisfactorily resolved?
Reframing Difficult Situations requires you to list all important criteria to be able to come to a satisfactory resolution.
60.What interpersonal skills is most readily supported in the greet phase of the positive engagement process?
Showing Understanding is the most readily supportive interpersonal skill supported in the greet phase.
61.Which interpersonal skill is most appropriate to use first when you find yourself in a repeating cycle of arguments and counter arguments with a customer?
Showing understanding is most appropriate to use first when you find yourself in a repeating cycle of arguments and counter arguments with a customer.
62.A customer is upset when he discovers his tee time reservation has been lost.
Reframing difficult situations
63.To help others understand your intent, which interpersonal skill would you employ?
State your purpose clearly
64.Reframing difficult situations allows one to accomplish what result?
Helps all parties look at a challenging situation from a fresh perspective in order to find common ground and new possibilities.
65.When you want to know what someone thinks about your actions it would be useful to rely on what interpersonal skill?
When you want to know what someone thinks about your actions it would be useful to rely on the giving and inverting specific feedback skill.
66.Assume an employee has said that you do not understand why he is using the selling techniques he demonstrated. How would you use the skill of “giving and inviting specific feedback” in this situation?
I would restate what the customer said to get his side of the story then I would restate my side.
67.A customer tells the head professional that he can purchase the same club from a discount shop for $25 less. The head professional responds, “We strive to offer our products at a fair price supported by outstanding service and expertise.” Which interpersonal skill did the head professional exhibit with this response?
Act with intergrity interpersonal skill.
68.Which interpersonal skill is being used in the following statement? ‘While I would like to put more course marshals on the fairways to help solve the pace of play concern, we don’t have the budget and have not been able to attract enough qualified volunteers.”
Stating your purpose clearly is the interpersonal skill being used.
69.What is the reason behind the interpersonal skill involved when the head professional asks his assistant, ‘What is your opinion on limiting tournaments to active members?”
So they both can see different sides to an argument and therefore educate each other
70.A customer tells the head professional that he can get the same set of clubs for $45 less at a discount store. After acknowledging the customer’s concerns, he said, “l want to keep you as a satisfied customer, so why don’t we take a minute to go over the kinds of services we are able to offer through our pro shop.” Which interpersonal skill did the head professional use in her follow-up response?
Reframing difficult situations
71.”So, what you are saying is that the changes we made in the last lesson are working really well,” is an example of which interpersonal skill?
Encouraging open expression is the interpersonal skill.
72.Opening channels of communication to reduce misperceptions that can arise between people defines which interpersonal skill?
Giving and inviting specific feedback
73.”How do you feel about expanding our marketing efforts” is an example of which interpersonal skill?
Encouraging open expression
74.Telling others how their behavior affected you is an example of what interpersonal skill?
Giving and inviting specific feedback.
75.What is the purpose of “providing a compelling rationale?”
The purpose of this is to pursue a preferred course of action using a logical rationale.
I I. What is the result of the task-relationship connection when golf professionals attend to the relationship and have a sufficient task focus?
When golf professionals attend to the relationship and have a sufficient task focus, they build a solid foundation for effective customer relations with almost any customer. They are more likely to create goodwill with others, along with understanding, agreement, enthusiastic participation, and genuine satisfaction.
What are the five “Ps” of marketing?
Price, Product, Place, Promotion and Purpose
What type of “moment of truth” is building a brand at a facility?
Local fitness and tennis clubs
What is an example of indirect competition to an 18-hole daily fee facility?
Local fitness and tennis clubs
Which type of marketing strategy includes letters to the editor, television appearances, speaking engagements, and special needs programs?
Public Relations/ Publicity
What is an example of an attraction program at a golf facility?
Free, short teaching, demonstration, or information clinics
What is one advantage beginning players gain from forming friendships during the learning process?
They are more likley to stick with the game
What is a method that professionals can use to communicate with potential and existing customers?
Social Networking Sites
What is a quantitative way to assess a promotional strategy?
To measure the success of efforts designed to raise revenues, a facility can track increases in dollar sales and number of purchases and compare them against those of the same period the previous year.
What is a reliable indicator of the effectiveness of a promotional program targeting retail sales?
Another way to gauge the success of a promotional effort is to perform a cost/benefit analysis. For a direct-mail advertising campaign, for instance, this can be done by dividing the total sales resulting from customer responses by the total cost of preparing and distributing the advertising materials. This allows the facility to determine the cost-per-sale and response rate for the promotion.
How can a facility determine the viability of a promotional program?
The facility can determine the viability of a promotional strategey by using past date from past events to forecast the amount of particpation and income the will be returned
What is true when promotional dollars are tied directly to business plan
Two common methods for determining a promotional budget are: 1) establishing a dollar amount as a percentage of revenues and 2) building a budget based on established business objectives. The second method requires that the facility tie promotional dollars directly to the objectives outlined in the business plan. To do this properly, the facility must determine the type of promotional efforts required to accomplish each objective, determine the cost of each effort, and then allocate funds across media outlets over time. The sample promotional plan, presented later in this section, provides a simple example of a plan for achieving particular promotional objectives.
How should surveys, focus groups, and sales analyses be used to keep a facility from wasting money on ineffective promotions?
Knowing the target market helps decide how, where, and when to promote the facility, and keeps the facility from wasting money on ineffective efforts.
What question should be asked to obtain reliable information for evaluating the effectiveness of a targeted promotional strategy?
Is the facility trying to reach the general golfing public, or a specific group, like juniors, women, or seniors? Do they want to reach large corporations or associations in the community for tournament business? What about convention business or other non-local golfers, like vacationing golfers?
How would a facility determine the expense per sale that could be attributed to a targeted promotional strategy?
To measure the success of efforts designed to raise revenues, a facility can track increases in dollar sales and number of purchases and compare them against those of the same period the previous year. Many golf professionals use coded discount coupons in their advertisements and promotional pieces to help track inquiries and purchases. During big events, it can be useful to ask customers how they learned about the event.
What would be the most reliable means of predicting the likelihood a proposed promotional plan would be successful?
The most reliable means of predicting a promotional strategy to be succesful would be to survey the membership or players at the beginning of the season to ensure that what the club has in store is what the clientele enjoys participating in. Another way to gauge the success of a promotional effort is to perform a cost/benefit analysis. For a direct-mail advertising campaign, for instance, this can be done by dividing the total sales resulting from customer responses by the total cost of preparing and distributing the advertising materials. This allows the facility to determine the cost-per-sale and response rate for the promotion.
Why must a particular facility’s clientele and needs be examined in order to effectively manage play?
To successfully manage play, systems must be in place to ensure that the playing experience meets or exceeds the customers’ expectations, making their rounds efficient and fun. If there is a streamlined tee time reservation system and golfers can successfully complete an 18-hole round of golf in four hours or less, it will likely add up to a positive experience—one they will tell their friends and family about.
How can a facility elevate the on-course experience of all players when beginners are part of the play mix?
It is important to establish written guidelines on course availability, so all golfers feel that the facility is being fair about meeting different customers’ particular needs. Having these policies and associated procedures in written form provides clarity on these points and makes it easier to communicate them to staff and players
When are private facilities exempt from the accommodation requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act?
when they are not allowing public play like tournaments or golf outings
What is an example of facility functions that need written safety procedures to insure uniform actions of staff?
alerting players, stopping play, evactuating the course are a few examples
How should the head professional respond to threatening weather?
Advise golfers to get off the glf course and have procedures in place as to how to handle golfers once off the course.
Under what law are golf facilities required to provide all people with goods and services on an equal basis?
Title III of the federal americans with disablities
Which tee time starting system can reliably prevent players from monopolizing the best tee times?
lottery system
Which tee time starting system compensates well for no-shows?
Walk On an Play
What is a major advantage of an internal online reservation system?
It keeps all reservaion transactions and recors in-house and can be entirely un by course employees
What should be addressed in a facility’s reservation policy?
who can make reservations, how fair in advance in time, which days, what times are available for first-come first-serve play, and golf car rental policy
Why are on-course and phone-based reservation systems still significant even though Internet-based tee time systems are becoming more prevalent?
“Although internet-based tee time reservation systems are becoming an increasingly prevalent avenue for booking tee times and managing yield, on-course and phone-based reservation systems should not be neglected. These traditional systems, when operated smoothly, continue to play a significant role in the customer’s relationship with a facility. Getting players to visit the actual course is obviously crucial, and thus the reservation and starting systems need to be streamlined, straightforward, and user friendly”.
What criterion should management consider when determining the correct tee time interval?
facility type, service mission, and course difficulty
What does the USGA’s Pace Rating System help determine?
how quickly a foursome of average golfers should play a particular course on a busy day
What would be a design characteristic that would assist in speeding up pace-of- play?
Making greens even, flat, smaller, and open in front. Make fairway landing zones wider.
What course design feature would best support yield expectations related to play?
The placement of water hazards and bunkers.
What is a good pace-of-play guideline?
It is dependant on the course with most falling in between 3:30-4:40
How can the starter positively affect the pace-of-play?
The starter can explain the pace of play expectations before the round.
What quality is most desirable in a person tasked with managing pace of play?
Takes the initiative to approach slow groups.
As a general rule, what should course assistants encourage players to do on the golf course as it relates to pace of play?
Keep up with the group ahead
Which staff member is responsible for setting the pace-of-play?
Starters/Greeters
What is a disadvantage of letting faster groups play through?
It only relocates the bottleneck
Do moments of truth end when the final hole of a group’s round is completed?
No, after the round shapes their experience still.
In order to be fully effective, what should a team consider when assigned a task?
Effective teams often make decisions related to important problems by arriving at a consensus through a participative process.
What does an effective team decision-making process require?
The team needs to be committed to their goals, they need to communicate openly, have clearly defined roles, have a sense of belonging and trust, make decisions by consensus, resolve conflicts, and have effective leadership
What will effective team managers allow their most creative people to do?
When creative, team spirited employees are on a team, the manager loves it. This is because it allows for the entire team to become for cohesive and will allow communication to be more fluid.
What is a characteristic of an effective team?
Characteristics of an effective team include being committed to goals, communicating openly, having clearly defined roles, having a sense of belonging and trust, making decisions by concensus, resolving conflicts, and having effective leadership.
Identify an element in the consensus-based decision-making process
The leader wiil sit down with their team and talk about what needs to happen, as well as what team members need to know and understand about the broader facility situation, if necessary.
What is one benefit of the team approach?
One of the big benefits of teamwork is that it forsters a positve faciity culture, which can be one of a facility’s foremost assets.
What could an effective manager use to assess performance, provide feedback, inform a staff person of new responsibilities, and keep staff on track in a very short visit?
An effective manager could use a “one minute manager” routine to gather several important attributes of the operation.
What is an interactive calendar?
An interactive calendar allows employees and managers to see upcoming events and action items, as well as write or type in additional info or questions.
What activities might be included in a “one-minute manager” routine?
Activities that would be included in a “one-minute manager” routine would include what is going on at the club that day, daily and weekly goals, policies and procedures, and recognition of good work.
What coordination tool is being applied when a golf instructor helps a student by fitting him for a set of clubs to be purchased at the facility?
Cross-operations marketing
Which departments do instruction and player development have the most opportunity to engage in mutually beneficial coordination and support?
To help the player feel more comfortable around the facility and know how to book tee times and other things like that.
What do Tournament directors rely on to meet members’ and guests’ physical and social needs?
Tournament directors have to rely on good working relationship with the golf course superintendent, the head golf professional, the food and beverage.
What business practice is being employed when a facility holds an external tournament that uses the golf course, the practice facility, and the restaurant?
The business practice that is being employed external focus and marketing stratagies. Many golf facilities are capable of doing business external to the game of golf itself, running a restaurant, a merchandising operation, a practice facility, and sometimes hosting public and private social events, including company picnics, banquets, charity events, and even wedding receptions.
What is an example of an external event?
An event that is a private that can hosted at facility like a charity event that may not be a golf related event.
Practice facilities should be designed so golfers will face what direction?
The facility should be configured so golfers do not have to face the sun during the majority of the day. Rather, tees should aim north or east, in order to keep the sun out of customers’ eyes.
What is a benefit of having a caddie program at a club?
Caddies add to the overall playing experience by spotting balls, cleaning clubs, helping read greens, offering course management advice, and more, which can result in more enjoyable rounds and even lower scores. Caddie programs introduce many young people to golf, generating future players and building loyalty for the game and the industry.
What government act has significant application to the terms of caddie employment?
Fair Labor Standards Act
What should a comprehensive caddie-training program include?
Orientation, Indoctrination, From Tee-to-Green, On the green
What is the most important interdepartmental relationship for the golf operations department?
The most important interdepartmental relationship at a golf facility that helps support an exceptional golfing experience is the one between the golf operation and golf course maintenance.
the vision Core Values and mission statement of a golf facility should be developed concurrently with establishing a facility wide business plan that concludes concrete goals and strategies for meeting them.
True
Proper business planning and operations alignment directs that sufficient resources be identified before strategies for achieving business objectives are developed.
False
What department is considered the core unit of most facilities?
The Golf operation
What is one of the descriptive/directional elements of the facility’s business that need to be in place before the golf operation is defined?
facility type, geographic locale, customer base, business objectives and goals, strategies
Policies and procedures are part of which support element of the golf operations organization?
Systems
What is the most accurate description of the relationship between the facility’s business plan and the golf operation?
Alignment – the golf operation must correspond with the facility’s business plan.
What is the principal focus of golf operations?
providing high-quality playing experiences and customer service in line with the core values, vision and mission of the organization
Stakeholders, owners, and boards are positioned at the bottom of a traditional organization chart (T/F)
False
From a functional perspective, a vendor is what kind of resource?
Financial resource, they can extend credit and work out arrangements that are quite valuable for a Golf Operation
What combination of interaction strategies would be the first choice for promoting a positive facility-wide culture?
Involving and Supporting
What must exist for a facility to have a positive culture?
Communication and openness to change
What would a typical organizational chart of a golf operation show?
Basic responsibilities and the relationships between an operation’s functional areas.
In what way is time related to other resources?
It must be reasonably accounted for and allocated appropriately, and is tied to every other resource.
What is the most likely determinant of the complexity of a facility’s organization chart?
The size of the facility, the number of services offered to customers , and the type of facility and its mission.
What are examples of financial resources?
Facility reserves, outside sources of investment, vendors, banks, the physical property, membership,
Staff is considered a tangible facility resource? (T/F)
True
What intangible resource is key to enabling and facilitating peak performance?
culture
How can a facility foster a culture of improvement?
encourage open discussion and input , provide tools to positively impact operation
“Identify staffing needs” is one of the staff-management roles in running a golf operation. (T/F)
True
Job descriptions should identify the skills necessary to accomplish the tasks associated with each position. (T/F)
True
High-performance profiling is a tool that can be used to communicate a uniform set of facility-wide expectations for all employees
True
interviewing current employees is the first step in determining current training needs.
Look at job descriptions and high-performance profiles and checking whether everyone is trained in job-specific skills
Self assessments are an appropriate means for facility staff to align their personal goals with business goals.
True
Self assessments are most useful during the hiring process.
during the evaluation phase
New teachers observed the lead instructor at a golf facility conduct a short game clinic. This is an example of external staff training. (T/F)
False
What are tasks associated with the “plan for succession” staff-management role managers have in running a golf operation?
Implement cross-training, shared functions/responsibilities, ensure several staff can perform key operational tasks, articulate career paths within the facility’s business
What should a manager consider when determining the number of employees needed to run an operation?
the human resources it will take to achieve their business objectives, and seasonal fluctuations in business.
What should golf facilities consider doing to elevate staff performance in meeting management and customer expectations?
create high performance profiles
What is the advantage of asking open ended questions during the interview process?
it avoids signaling the right answer
What is an example of external staff training?
Vendor product training, trips to other facilities, workshops, PGA seminars
Reduced training needs is one of the anticipated benefits of adopting new point-of-sale system technology.
False- improved efficiency, improved customer service
What is the first step in acquiring a new technology-based system?
Assess facility needs
What are policies?
Guidelines and rules that outline a definite course of action in various situations.
What are procedures?
a logical set of step-by-step instructions on how to implement policies and complete specific tasks.
Shift-change cash control is a procedure used to deter employee theft.
True
Why should employees be involved in creating and revising policies or procedures?
morale boost, can assess the realism of policy/procedure expectations with feedback
What is a management tool for defining the structure of the golf operation?
Organization chart
Promotion is one of the 4 “Ps” of marketing
True
Building a brand is a “Moment of truth” opportunity.
False. The brand is the sum of the product’s culture, product or service delivery, and customer perceptions and expectations for a specific type of benefit or experience.
What does the American Marketing Assocation refer to as a name, term, sign, symbol or design, or combination of them intended to identify the goods and services of a seller?
Brand
What is an example of indirect competition to an 18-hole daily fee facility?
Local fitness and tennis clubs
Tried and true practices adopted by other successful facilities should be the starting point for developing new promotional programs.
False
Selling yourself, selling the facility, and selling the game of golf are the three principal layers of what type of marketing?
Internal
Which type of marketing strategy includes letters to the editor, television appearances, speaking engagements, and special needs programs?
Public Relations (External)
What is an example of an attraction program at a golf facility?
A Half Hour clinic showing new golfers how to properly warm up
What is one advantage beginning players gain forming friendships during the learning process?
More likely to stick with the game, socialization
Social media is a method that professionals can use to communicate with potential and existing customers
True
Cost-benefit analysis is a way to assess a promotional strategy
True
What is a reliable indicator of the effectiveness of a promotional program targeting retail sales?
Increases in dollar sales versus the prior year
How can a facility determine the viability of a promotional program?
Cost/Benefit analysis, interviewing customers, written surveys
What is true when promotional dollars are tied directly to business plan objectives?
easier to identify the target audience, decide on promotional vehicles, and establish a budget
How should surveys, focus groups, and sales analyses be used to keep a facility from wasting money on ineffective promotions?
Helps understand the target market
What question should be asked in order to obtain reliable information for evaluating the effectiveness of a targeted promotional strategy?
Was the right audience targeted? Were certain communication vehicles more effective than others? Were the promotional messages clear to customers?
How would a facility determine the expense per sale that could be attributed to a targeted promotional strategy?
Cost-Benefit Analysis
What would be the most reliable means of predicting the likelihood a proposed promotional plan would be successful?
Knowing the target market and being aligned with business plan objectives
Managing play best practices are the same across facility types
False
It is illegal for courses that receive any public funds to require a dress code
False
As yield management evolve with internet tee time systems and point of sale systems, traditional phone-based systems will become obsoltete
False
When are private facilities exempt from the accommodation requirements of the ADA?
If they do not allow any public play
What is an example of facility functions that need written safety procedures to insure uniform actions of staff?
golf car policies
According to the USGA Rules of Golf, what type of accommodation may be made through the adoption of local rules?
protection of the course, identifying obstructions
How should the head professional respond to threatening weather?
Alert players, stop play and evacuate the course if necessary
Under what law are golf facilities required to provide all people with goods and services on an equal basis?
Americans with Disabilities Act
What tee time starting system can reliably prevent players from monopolizing the best tee times?
Lottery system
Which tee time starting system compensates well for no-shows?
Walk on and Play
What is a major advantage of an internal online reservation system>?
Keeps all reservation and transactions in-house, avoid paying a middleman
Ancillary service accomodations should be addressed in a facility’s resrvation policies.
True
Why are on-course and phone based reservation systems still significant even though Internet-based tee time systems are becoming more prevalent?
They play a significant role in the customer’s relationship with the facility
What criterion should management consider when determining the correct tee time interval?
facility type, service mission, and the course difficulty
What does the USGA’s Pace Rating System help determine?
how quickly a foursome of average golfers should play a particular course on a busy day
What would be a design characteristic that would assist in speeding up pace-of-play
Wider fairways, limit number of hazards
What course design feature would best support yield expectations related to play?
Multiple tees for different ability levels, practice area easily accessible to first tee,
What is a good pace of play guideline?
Always be ready, check in with starter well in advance, etc
How can the starter positively impact pace of play?
Greet players, consolidate players into foursomes whenever possible
What quality is most desirable in a person tasked with managing pace of play?
Strong communicators
As a general rule. course assistants should encourage players to pay more attention to keeping ahead of the ground behind them than keeping up with the group in front of them
False
Which staff member is responsible for setting the pace-of-play?
Starter
What is a disadvantage of letting faster groups play through?
The slow group gets left behind and the bottleneck is relocated.
Moments of Truth begin front he first contact with the facility and finish when the final hole of their round is coompleted.
False
To be fully effective, teams must have the time-limited authority to place team goals ahead of facility goals when dealing with the assigned task before it
False
An effective team decision making process requires an authoritative team leader.
True
Effective team managers will allow their most creative people to work independently
False
What is a characteristic of an effective team?
Commited to Goals, Communciate Openly, Have Clearly Defined Roles,Have A Sense of Belonging and Trust, Make Decisions by Consensus, Resolve Conflicts, Have Effective Leadership
As presented in the Manual, what must be present to achieve a key characteristic of effective teams?
Cohesiveness
Identify an element in the consensus-based decision-making process?
Work together to modify or shape ideas
Mobilizing the creativity and innovation to solve problems is one benefit of the team approach?
True
An effective manager could use the “one-minute manager” routine to assess performance, provide feedback, inform a staff person of new responsibilities, and keep staff on track in a very short visit.- many times less than a minute
True
What is an interactive calendar?
Paper or electronic, allows employees and managers to see upcoming events and action items, as well as write or type in additional information or questions.
What activities might be included in a “one minute manager” routine?
Check in with individual employees Assess performance Provide feedback Inform of special responsibilities Keep individual employees on track and remind them of tasks that require coordination with other employees, golf operations areas or other departments.
What coordination tool is being applied when a golf instructor helps a student by fitting him for a set of clubs to be purchased at the facility?
Cross-operations marketing
Which departments do instruction and player development have the most opportunity to engage in mutually beneficial coordination and support?
Merchandising and Practice Facilities
Tournament directors rely on F&B to meet members’ and guests’ physical and social needs (T/F)
True
What business practice is being employed when a facility holds an external tournament that uses the golf course, the practice facility, and the restaurant?
coordination and collaboration
What is an example of an external event?
Charity outing
Practice facilities should be designed so golfers will face what direction?
North or East, Away from the sun
WHat is a benefit of having a caddie program at a club?
Help maintain the course, add to plying experience, introduce young people in to the game,
What government act has significant application to the terms of caddie employment?
Fair Labor Standards Act
What should a comprehensive caddie-training program include?
Orientation, indoctrination, tee to green, on the green
What is the most important interdepartmental relationship for the golf operations department?
Golf course maintenance
A yield management report shows the number of rounds played and the revenue generated by those rounds.
True
Successful yield management would more likely involve target marketing of the broad customer base than of a specific player group.
False
Yield analysis is primarily used to identify non-peak times.
true
A variance in a facility’s operational budget should be interpreted as an undesirable financial situation for the organization
true
Demand-based pricing can be employed to change the demand curver for the use of perishable tee times
True
Pace of play policies are an effective means for controlling the demand curve for the use of perishable tee times.
True
Reducing green fees to obtain increased sales in other departments is a valid yield management objective.
True
Yield management is a process that allows a facility to maximize the total number of rounds available each day.
True
Successful yield management can produce dissatisfied customers
True
What term would be considered an important metric for monitoring performance against budget?
Variance
What is the economic focus of yield management?
Increased demand to maximize revenue
What can yield management predict?
Amount of rounds that can be sold
What is the formula for developing a yield management report for a given period?
Number of rounds Played/Potential Rounds x 100 =% yield
Conducting yield analyses aimed at optimal tee time utilizations is most important at what type of facility?
Public facilities
What is the most relevant metric for tracking financial performance?
Rounds
Why is monitoring performance considered a two-part process?
Accomplishment of planned objectives and goals, operational quality (staff service delivery)
Who should be kept appraised of the facility’s financial performance?
Management and employees
What is a yield percentage if a facility sells 180/240 available tee times?
75%
Managing by walking around gives employees the opportunity to air grievances.
True
Managing by walking around is most effective when organizational protocols are observed, such as, limiting conversation to their direct reports
False
Managers who use the “managing by walking around” technique should avoid establishing informal relationships with employees of other departments.
False
Managing by example is the essense of behavioral management
True
One of the main benefits of the interpersonal management approach to monitoring performance is to ensure policies and procedures are being followed.
True
Is it regularly with heads of other departments is an example of “managing by walking around” as it applies to monitoring operations?
False (Staff Briefings)
What is an effective means of monitoring performance while “managing by walking around”?
covering wide array of topics, not making big decisions, asking or persuading others informally, not giving orders
What approach to management is described by “observing and following up on both positive and negative employee performance”?
Behavioral Management
What is the main focus of behavioral management?
Managing employee behaviors
What is the focus of the interpersonal management approach?
ensure that policies and procedures are being followed for desired level of customer service
Revising training requirements is a realistic response to negative variances.
True
Service improvements should be implemented when achievement of anticipated benefits can be measured.
True
The response challenge for managers confronting issues of poor service is to discover who actually did what and when?
False
When should organizations respond to variances?
Swiftly
What employee problem poses the biggest challenge for most managers?
Getting employees to follow procedures correctly
Putter sales below projected sales is a variance?
True
What could be the cause of “overall poor service” issues?
Unrealistic policies and procedures, poor operational systems, insufficient training
What is an example of an operational change made in response to variances?
delaying orders, adjustments in pricing, discounts, outsourcing tee time booking, staff training, cutting down labor
The head professional has been receiving customer complaints about employee inconsistency in applying facility policies. What is likely to be the most productive repsonse?
Gather data and address operational issues,
When should management implement service improvements
change can generate the desired benefit and be measured
How does the facility’s overall vision and core values help retain the manager?
Solidify vision and core values that support vision
For which purpose are the facility’s core values and vision going to be most useful to the retail manager?
guide the creation of all other aspects
What should increase in the retail operation to add value?
quality; customer service
The End of Month Inventory target for May is the same as the COGS for June.
false
The cost of goods sold can be calculated if both the turnover rate and the average inventory value are known
true
The BOMI predicts the dollar value of the inventory needed at the beginning of each month to reach monthly sales goals
true
The higher the turnover rate, the more inventory you need on hand to reach the same sales targets.
false; higher to less inventory
Knowing the previous year’s sales volume is sufficient to accurately forecast sale
false
Inventory should arrive one to two months prior to the anticipation of sales
true
The golf professional has projected $310,000 in annual merchandise sales, $205,000 for cost of goods sold, and a turnover rate of 2.5. What is the average inventory level at cost?
205,000/2.5=$82k
What is the formula for Cost of Goods Sold (COGS)
cost sold/total sales
In an open to buy plan, the sales estimates and the cost of goods estimates comes from what other business management tool?
historical data
What is the main purpose of an open to buy plan
identifies how much to purchase
What information does the cost of goods sold (COGS) provide for a given period of time?
sold, stolen, lost destroyed
Why must golf professionals forecast beginning of month inventory (BOMI) levels?
tells BOMI it’s also used for forecasting
What is the likely result of a high turnover rate?
increased sales, fewer markdown, new trend setter, lower expense, higher employee morale, higher return investment
What is a result of a low turnover rate in the golf shop merchandising operation?
staff items, big markdowns, low profits, high expense
If your average inventory value is $37,000, and your annual cost of goods sold is $114,000, what is the turnover rate?
114,000/37,000=3.08
Which merchandising condition is most directly correlated with a high turn rate?
less inventory
Given the following information, what was the turnover rate for the year? Sales- $196,000COGS- $140,000Ave Inventory- $56,000Glove Sales- $24,000Men’s Shirt sales- $54,000Rounds- 20,000
140,000/56,000=2.5
Some OTB funds should be reserved for unforeseen opportunities
true
Based on the information below, what is the open-to-buy amount for july? July- August Sales $17,000 $12,500COGS $12,000 $9,000BOMI $50,000 $41,000
50,000+12,000-50,000=12,000
What is the formula to determine monthly OTB dollars?
planned OTB at cost – merchandise on order=actual OTB at cost
In an open-to-buy budget, how is average inventory defined?
average amount of merchandise (in cost dollars) the facility must have on hand throughout the year to meet annual sales goals
What is the formula for calculating planned OTB?
(EOMI + COGS – BOMI)=Planned OTB at cost
What does an open-to-buy reserve provide?
10%-25% for other opportunities/unplanned purchases
Merchandise that the competition carries is a factor to be considered in the merchandise assortment plan.
true
What is the most important consideration when evaluating the type of merchandise to purchase for your shop?
core merchandise stock
Which merchandising standard would be most appropriate when choosing clothing for a high-end resort?
logo products
What is necessary for developing a MAP?
review cost needs, product preferences, price points; research prior year’s sales; research current market trends; select an appropriate merchandise mix
When choosing a merchandise mix, which set of considerations is the most important?
core merchandise stock
What are the two most important considerations when determining price points?
values added services (ex. logo appeal, personal touch, club fitting, return policies) and external factors (ex. local competition and economic conditions)
Why should core merchandise stock be the first merchandise added to the MAP?
serves as the inventory’s foundation and meets all necessary sales criteria
What is an important factor when identifying the amount of merchandise to order?
accurate stick projections with each line can be based on many factors, but should consider customer profiles, past sales, and projected rounds
What category of merchandise is intended to entice customers to make gift purchases?
fringe products-consistent with facility’s image and goals, but targeted towards atypical customers or intended to entice regular customers into making impulse buys, gifts, or novelty purchases.
What is a disadvantage of over-reliance on a single member?
no variety, limited products, stock shortages, not competitive, boring
What type of billing plan defines merchandise received in the fall with payment due in April?
seasonal dating or spring dating
What is often included as part of an advance dating arrangement?
opportunity to sell at no immediate cost, better cash flow and cash interest, reduce back orders, in demand products
What does “anticipating dating” refer to?
in which the organization/vendor agree on a future due date for payment, but the organization receives a discount for early payment
What is one disadvantage of advance dating?
higher inventory, large space and costs; more OTB $
What is one advantage of advance dating?
opportunity to sell at no immediate cost, better cash flow and cash interest, reduce back orders, guarantee of having in-demand products
What is the overriding criterion for selecting retail vendors?
background, reputation, reliability, assortment and pricing, services, perks, and consignment opts
Why must merchandizers understand and support the goals and objectives of their vendors?
mutual relationships- more likely to achieve long-term stability and service from vendors…often lead to discounts, more competitive pricing for goods, exclusive opportunities, and other benefits
The purchase order can serve as a reminder to subtract the appropriate amount from your OTB budget for a particular classification.
TRUE
A high turnover rate can result in lower insurance costs
TRUE
A point of sale system is the key inventory control tool for identifying merchandise on order
FALSE
Operational efficiencies increase when a management has the flexibility to use discretion when following backroom policies and procedures
FALSE
What is the key tool for inventory control?
Purchase Order (PO)
What does “complete date” indicate on a purchase order?
Last possible date that the vendor can have order delivered to and accepted.
What inventory management tool serves to ensure adherence to the business plan?
Enforcing a clear and efficient PO system is necessary to ensure accuracy and adherence to business plans.
What is the benefit of receiving and checking inventory?
To ensure common issues do not occur: missing merchandise, incorrect pricing, over-shipped
Physical unit tracking can determine both merchandise on hand and merchandise sold.
TRUE
What are the two methods of tracking real-time inventory changes during the time between physical inventory counts?
Dollar & units.Tracking by dollar amounts helps keep the facility’s inventory investment in balance with sales. While unit control systems help determine the performance of individual items or styles.
Perpetual book inventory can determine both merchandise on hand and merchandise sold.
TRUE
A physical inventory counts all goods for sale, including the value of refillable goods (like range balls), minus employee sales.
FALSE
Adopting a perpetual book inventory system replaces the need to conduct physical inventory counts
FALSE
Annual physical inventory counts are the most effective way to identify inventory problems
FALSE. Monthly
What is a disadvantage of high turnover
To identify problems and enable pros to respond in a timely manner.
A point of sale system allows merchandisers to track the age of merchandise in stock.
TRUE
How often should a physical inventory count be conducted?
Monthly or quarterly
What could cause shrinkage?
Occurs for various reasons – internal or external theft, human error, damage loss, inadequate receiving or sales, procedures and insufficient accounting and tracking practices.
Why is high turnover beneficial?
Increased sales, fewer markdowns, ability to capitalize on new trends, higher employee morale
Why is it important to conduct physical inventory counts?
To double check items on hand.
Which term represents the method of tracking real-time inventory changes between routine inventory counts?
Perpetual book inventory using POS
End of Month Inventory (EOMI) minus COGS equals Gross margin
FALSE. Final Retail Price – COGS – Gross Margin in $s
Cost of Goods Sold plus Gross Margin equals Final Retail Sales Price.
TRUE
If an item sells at the targeted markup, markup percentage and gross margin percentage will be the same
TRUE
If the planned mark-up is 15%, what would be the price of a shirt that costs the shop $30 if the Mil River Plan is used?
30 x 0.15 = $4.50 + $30 = $34.50
If a shirt cots $30 and the mark-up percentage for the shirt is 50%, what would be the potential gross margin return on investment?
30 x 0.50 = 15 + 30 = $4545 – 30 = 15
What is the definition of mark-up?
The difference between wholesale price of an item and intended sales price.
What is the percent mark-up if the cost of an item is $75 and it sells for $120?
120 – 75 = 4545 / 75 = 0.60 –> 60%
What is the price of a driver when it costs the shop $160 and the mark-up is 80%?
160 x 0.80 = 128128 + 160 = $288
Using the cost plus markup approach, what was the markup rate of a shirt that cost the shop $20 and is selling for $37.50?
37.50 – 20 = 17.5017.50 / 20 = 0.875 –> 87.5%
A golf shop has allocated 13% of its 325,000 retail sales forecast to woods. Based on 70% COGS, what was the estimated cost of the woods?
0.13 x 325,000 = 4225042250 x 0.70 = 29575
Using a keystone pricing strategy, what is the retail price of a shirt that has a cost of $30?
$60 Keystone pricing = doubling the items cost
A retail shop uses a cost put 75% pricing strategy in its shoe department. The manager is planning a 25%-off retail promotional sale for a new model of golf shoe. If the shoes costs the shop $80, what will the promotional price be?
80 x 0.75 = 6060 + 80 = 140140 x 0.25 = 35140 – 35 = $105
Competitive pricing means charging the same as your competitors.
FALSE
What is the best course of action for USA flag caps that remain in stock on July 10th
Promotion / Markdowns
A cendor hives a 30% discount on the cost of a shirt style that did not sell. What retail price will the shop manager assign to the shirt if the original cost from the vendor was $45 and his pricing strategy is to keystone and add $5?
90 x 0.30 = 2790 – 27 = 6363 + 5 = $68
A discount of 20% was taken on a $15 event cap due to a logo placement error. What is the actual markup percentage if the cost of each cap was $8?
15 x 0.20 = 315 -3 = 128 x 0.5 = 48 + 2 = 1050%
A presentation of the same color of golf shirts ranging in intensity from the palest to the deepest shade is employing the monochromatic color scheme.
TRUE
The T-fixture is designed to show large quantities of hanging merchandise in a single style
FALSE
The rectangular rack is designed to show large quantities of hanging merchandise in a single style.
FALSE. Wide variety of colors and styles
Fluorescent lamps will provide the best accent lighting in a golf shop.
FALSE
According to the Merchandising and Inventory Management course, every sign in a golf shop should be displayed in a sign holder.
TRUE
Wall fixtures offer the least display flexibility
FALSE
Destination areas are positioned to take advantage of high traffic corridors.
TRUE
The floor layout design of sales-oriented planogram will provide direct access to the point of sale area from the high-value destination areas within the retail environment.
TRUE
What is the value of establishing “destination areas” in your golf shop?
Brose other departments on the way to their destination
What is the most important consideration when allocating floor space?
allocating prime areas to high selling areas
What is the suggested distance for separating floor fixtures?
At least 3 feet of space to avoid accessibility issues and clutter
What kind of color scheme consists of two colors opposite each other on the color wheel?
Complementary color scheme
What is the primary purpose of a rectangular display rack?
Useful for displaying large quantities of hanging merchandise
What color scheme is represented by a four-way display consisting of white, black, and grey pants?
Neutral color scheme
Conventional floor fixtures include such items as cabinets and armoire
FALSE
Describe the primary purpose of a promotional table.
Ideal for large quantity of markdown merchandise or special promotions.
Which type of fixture gives the most presentation flexibility when floor space is extremely limited?
Rectangular racks
What is the recommended standard for displaying folded shirts?
Smallest sizes on top, stack by color and style, pulled to front of shelf.
What is the recommended standard for displaying hanging merchandise?
Left to Right, grouped by color then size, face inward, small to large
What color scheme is being used when golf shirts have been arranged in a light to dark display?
Monchromatic
Markdown sales could be considered promotional event
TRUE
What is the main value of having annual special promotions?
Increase value, internal marketing, customer loyalty
What is the definition of permanent markdown?
Reductions in a product’s list price, usually indicated on merchandise tags
Which is a reason, cited in the Merchandising and Inventory Management Course Manual, for a golf shop to have annual or special promotional events?
More revenue and excitement, increase interest and customer base
What is an example of a value-added strategy to stimulate sales?
Club fitting or repairs
What should be emphasized to close the sale?
Upselling – create multiple purchases
What planning document outlines merchandising objectives for events scheduled throughout the year?
Master Calendar
What advertising method is considered internal marketing?
Staff members related marketing
What is the definition of “cost of goods sold”?
The value at cost of the merchandise sold to customers, stolen, lost or destroyed
The COGS for the merchandise operation have risen consistently over the past 3 months. Sales reports indicate that gross margin objectives have been met for sold items. What would the shop manager want to investigate as a potential cause of the COGS-percentage increase
Too many markdowns
Gross margin is the difference between the retail price and the cost of goods sold
TRUE
What is the most effective way to both value and determine the current amount of inventory in real time?
Physical count
A higher inventory turnover rate usually means a lower GMRO
TRUE
What does Gross Margin Return on Investment (GMROI) tell us?
Indicates how much money the operation makes per dollar invested in inventory
The “adjustment” is the different between what was planned and what happened.
TRUE
What does a variance report explain?
Highlights items significantly over or under budget.
What is the value of analyzing performance variances?
The plan Implementing and monitoring plans New internal and external factors
What financial management tools is a possible resource for performance numbers used to produce a variance report?
Turn rate, OTB, MAP, COGS, Gross margin %
A point of sale discount is one form of “permanent markdown
FALSE
What markdown would be required to see a poorly moving keystone item at cost?
Clearance and liquidations
What pair of strategies most likely would reduce shop inventories that have been increasing due to poor sales?
Overstock markdowns
What are examples of inventory exit strategies?
Online liquidation and trade-in opportunities Outlets Returns and consignment agreements Cooperation with other facilities
Where is the turfgrass growing point located?
Near the base of the plant, where the blade and sheath meet
Why can grass plants be repeatedly mowed and still grow back?
Because unlike other plants, the growth region is subapical (below the tip)
Where does new growth of a grass plant occur?
Below the tip, at the crown
Which are parts of a grass plant’s shoot?
The parts of the plant above the ground (stem, leaves, flowers, seed heads)
What is a rhizome?
stems that grow sideways below ground
What is a stolon?
a stem that grows above the ground
What is the lower part of a grass leaf called?
sheath
Soil ph is a measure expressing the water retention coefficient of a soil sample.
False, its a measurement of the acidity and alkalinity of the soil.
Heavy clay soil has the advantage of resisting compaction problems in heavy traffic areas
False – heavy clay soils present more of a compaction problem
Respiration describes how plants convert food into energy
True
It is necessary to supplement natural rainfall in most climates within the continental United States
True. water supplied by nature is insufficient for golf course turfgrass
What determines how well nutrients and water are retained in the soil?
the composition and texture of the soil, includ9ng
Under which conditions are nutrients less accessible to turfgrass plants?
sandy soil- allows water and nutrients to easily penetrate and pass through too quickly, too acidic or too alkiline
Why would the superintendent be adding lime to the fairways?
To reduce acidity and raise the soil pH
What does a pH measurement represent?
the relative acidity and alkalinity of the soil
What can be added to alkaline soil to promote healthy turf growth?
Sulfur
What is the ideal pH range for most turfgrasses?
6-6.5
What does a soil pH measurement of 3 indicate?
the soil is acidic
What is the consequence of having soil that is too acidic or too alkaline?
it tends to keep nutrients from the plant
Nutrient availability to turfgrass plants is optimal when the soil is 5.5 or below.
False, between 5.5 and 7.5
The water retention properties of loam depend on the amount of organic matter it contains.
False, the organic matter circulates nutrients through the soil. The composition of sand, silt and clay determines the water retention properties
Hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the three primary nutrients necessary for plant growth.
False, carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, from air and water, plus nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. (6 macronutrients)
Short mowing causes shallow root systems
True
What is a predictable consequence of adding sand to clay soils?
reduced compaction, reduced pH
What type of soil has the best retention properties of nutrients needed by plants?
Loam
What does light provide in the process of photosynthesis?
energy to produce carbohydrates
what determines if soils have a good balance between drainage and water retention?
Soil texture
What will turfgrass plants most likely die of if planted in dense clay soil under extremely wet conditions?
Suffocation
Describe the characteristics of clay soils?
hold nutrients and water better than sandy soils, but can be too dense and retain too much water and not enough oxygen
Provide an example where compaction is most likely to be a problem.
Clay based soil on a course with heavy traffic
Packaged golf course turfgrass fertilizers contain what combinations of macro nutrients?
nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
Due to the high level of traffic they receive, fairways are usually planted with fescues.
False, bentgrass or bluegrass
The fescues are cool season grasses
True
Grasses with stolons or rhizomes are best for filling divots
True. grasses with stolons or rhizomes will spread, produce new plants, which will aid in filling in divots and pitch marks.
Facilities with large crews and high maintenance budgets will select different grasses than those with more modest staffing budgets
True
Bermuda grass will go dormant and turn brown below 50°F
True
Warm season grasses will die out in temperatures much below 50 degrees
False, they go dormant and turn brown
Clay soils tend to be alkaline.
False, clay soils tend to be acidic
Golf courses located in the transition zone of the United States can use either or both warm and cool season grasses.
True
Mowing height is almost always the only difference between the grass in the rough and the grass in the fairway
False
What is the overriding selection criteria used by designers and superintendents when considering all the turf grass options around their course?
They select grass types that best match the physical characteristics and geographic location of the course.
What is the most important agronomic consideration when selecting the types of turfgrasses to be used on a golf course?
Grass types match the physical characteristics and geographic location of the course.
Why might ryegrass be used on a course located in Florida?
To overseed Bermuda greens when they go dormant in the winter
Why might a fairway be planted with perennial ryegrass?
Germinates and recovers quickly, could repair divots
Why is perennial rye grass paired with other grass species in divot repair mixes?
Because it germinates quickly
Which grass species is commonly used for over seeding dormant warm-season grasses?
Perennial rye grass
Why might annual ryegrass be selected to overseed?
Because it establishes quickly and can provide color to Bermuda greens when they go dormant
Why might Kentucky bluegrass be used for fairways instead of creeping bentgrass?
Lower maintenance
What is the difference between a species and a cultivar?
A cultivar is cultivated specifically for use on golf courses
What do you call a soil that has large particles and and allows water and essential nutrients to leach through?
Sandy soil
What are important characteristics in selecting turfgrasses for a new golf facility?
Resistance to pests or diseases, climate, budget/maintenance crew, traffic
The loss of adequate air supply to the root zone is most commonly caused by poor irrigation practices.
False
The type of soil is a major consideration in deciding how frequently to move tee-markers.
True
Topdressing is a way to immediately improve the soil texture.
False
Topdressing is used to provide potassium, phosphorous, and nitrogen to turgrass.
False
Increasing the sand content of the soil offsets consequences of high traffic on putting surfaces.
True
High traffic sandy greens require less frequent aeration.
True
Superintendents use daily syringing to offset the consequences of short mowing heights and high traffic.
False
Overseeding is used to provide a green playing surface during winter months.
True
A routine watering schedule can be followed once the necessary frequency and quantity have been determined.
False
Human oversight of automated irrigation systems is necessary for accurate management of course water requirements.
True
Soil compaction and poor drainage create a turfgrass environment that is susceptible to invasion by weeds.
True
Superintendents may retain some thatch to moderate the effects of summer heat.
True
Thatch is one component of a balance environment that ensure healthy turfgrass
True
Healthy turfgrass dominates a given area leaving little or no room for weeds.
True
Integrated pest management control chemicals (pesticides) are used to combat insects, weeds, disease, fungi, and vertebrate animals.
True
Brown patch is a turfgrass disease.
True
Pythium blight will chinch bugs.
False
Fungicides are applied only after visible evidence of disease presence is noted.
False
According to the course superintendents job description outlined by the Golf Course Superintendents Association of America, superintendents manage the entrances roads, grounds surrounding the course, and parking lots owned or operated by the facility.
True
The course superintendent’s job responsibilities include understanding the Rules and strategies of the game of golf.
True
Achieving and documenting compliance with government regulation of pesticide use, application, and storage is the responsibility of the Chemical Technician.
False
Playing the course is a responsibility of the superintendents job.
True
Up-to-date policies and procedures are the key to developing mutual understanding, resolving differences, satisfying customers, and meeting the economic needs of the facility
False
It is the golf professional’s role to inform golfers about matters specifically relating to the condition of the golf course.
True
It is the course superintendent’s role to educate golfers about matters related to their responsibilities in keeping the course in good condition.
False
According to the course superintendent’s job description outlined by the golf course superintendents association of America, superintendents manage the entrance roads, grounds surrounding the course, and parking lots owned or operated by the facility. (t/f)
True
True
The course superintendent’s job responsibilities include understanding the rules and strategies of the game of golf.
true
Achieving and documenting compliance with government regulation of pesticide use, application, and storage is the responsibility of the chemical technician.
false-
Who is responsible for achieving and documenting continued compliance with government regulations regarding pesticide use, application, and storage?
Superintedent
Playing the course is a responsibility of the superintendent’s job.
true
What job title best describes the person responsible for reading, understanding, and keeping current with material safety data sheets?
chemical technician
Why is it important for the superintendent to play the course on a regular basis?
in order to get the customer’s perspective
What is the best way for a superintendent to see the golf course from the player’s perspective?
play the course
According to the turfgrass management manual, whose job is it to manage the greenhouse and nursery to produce and install ornament landscaping for the golf course and clubhouse properties?
horticulturist
Who has ultimate responsibility for directing the facility’s turfgrass management program in circumstances of conflicting job responsibilities?
superintendent
Who has ultimate responsibility for directing the facility’s turfgrass management program?
superintedent
Up-to-date policies and procedures are the key to developing mutual understanding, resolving differences, satisfying customers, and meeting economic needs of the facility.
false-communication
What needs to be in place to prevent conflicts between scheduled maintenance and golf events?
master calendar
What is the best method for reaching a satisfactory action when conflicts occur between the superintendent and the golf professional?
have one overriding common goal- to create a fair, reasonably challenging, enjoyable, and safe playing experience for the golfer
According to the Turfgrass management manual, what needs to be in place in order to develop mutual understanding between the head professional and the course superintendent?
good communication
The superintendent is not available on a regular basis during a long-planned renovation of several putting greens. Occasionally, members ask questions about the status of the project. What should the golf professional do to remain appropriately informed?
work closely with core team to inform customers, and inform them the progress
The superintendent has scheduled the fall aerification. What is the primary responsibility of the head golf professional when aeration is scheduled?
put them on master calendar and prepare answers
What responsibility is imposed on the golf professional when the superintendent finalizes the fall aerification dates?
prepare standard answers/info for complaints
What is key to cultivating a mutual understanding and resolving differences between the course superintendent and the golf professional?
good communication
It is the golf professional’s role to inform golfers about matters specifically relating to the condition of the golf course.
true
It is the course superintendent’s role to educate golfers about matters related to their responsibilities in keeping the course in good condition
false-golf professional’s role
According to the turfgrass management manual, what are three reasons the golf professional and the superintendent need to communicate with the customer about turfgrass management?
inform, educate, and to listen
What is the most important use of a Stimpmeter?
measure speed and superintendent to provide consistent putting surfaces
What is the best way to insure a player’s positive experience when special maintenance is required?
inform them why
What must head professionals do to support their efforts to keep customers informed, educated, and understanding of course management events, and issues?
face to face communication; alerts and calendars posted on facility bulletin boards; signage on the golf course; advisories and articles on a facility website or in a printed newsletter; email alerts or text messages
Which professional competency is necessary in order to adequately address customer questions and concerns?
good communication
According to the turfgrass management manual, the need for course renovation is usually a consequence of inadequate course maintenance over time
false-many different reasons
Cutting back and modifying parts of a mature landscape to recapturing the original aesthetic concept of the course would be inconsistent with good environmental stewardship practices.
false
A project to upgrade a drainage system is most accurately described as what?
designing for function
Responsible environmental management practice requires that a decrease in the amount of native acreage on a course be matched by a proportional decrease of managed turfgrass
False
More than 30% of all golf course in the U.S are using water from municipal water systems
False (only 8%)
Along with environmental conditions, the political realities must also be investigated in the initial design approach
True
The sustainability movement in golf is directed at reconciling the inherent conflict between economic viability and environmental stewardship
True
There is an inherent conflict between economic viability and environmental stewardship
True
Golf courses can be designed or renovated to include wildlife habitat and land preserve at no long-term economic cost to the facility
True
According to the golf course design and construction process, the time needed for trees, shrubs, and the greens to mature governs the length of time the maintenance phase will last
False (continuous monitoring)
As described in the course design and construction process, the end of the design phase occurs when the course architect finishes a full set of construction drawings
True
According the Turfgrass Management Manual, the course architect will usually manage the daily progress throughout the developmental phase of the design and construction process
False – periodically checks progress
An “extended team” is made up of specialists who are periodically involved throughout the course design and developmental process
True
Trees that were planted as a safety divider are now high enough that players’ balls can no longer clear the top branches represent having achieved functional success
False
Changing characteristics of the soil is the most practical means of addressing surface drainage problems
True
Moving a hole placement to an area that does not hold an approach is a good way to make a strategic hole more challenging to an expert player
False
As presented in the Turfgrass Manual, by definition, a “Strategic” hole includes a hazard
False
As presented in the Turfgrass Manual, a “strategic” hole is one that players can accept as a difficult hole because it is part of a challenging course
False
A “heroic” hole leaves little room for error without incurring a penalty
False (Penal)
Adding a hazard provides a visual reference point to gauge distance
True
Publicity arrangements are made during the grow-in phase of the golf course design and construction phase
False
Negative augmented feedback can function as either negative reinforcement or punishment
True
Instructors should avoid giving positive feedback when using negative feedback as punishment
False
Feedback functions as negative reinforcement when it strengthens undesirable behavior.
False
Biofeedback devices provide intrinsic feedback to the player.
False
After executing a motor skill, a player will evaluate the skill movements by comparing the results of the performance to his or her expectations for the performance.
True
Knowledge feedback will influence the direction of a student’s efforts but is unable to influence the student’s arousal and motivation level.
True
Because beginners have no established motor program, they can easily determine if they performed the skill movements as planned.
False
Augmented feedback given immediately after skill performance is considered positive reinforcement if the teacher or coach perceives the feedback as rewarding
True
What function of feedback energizes and directs student behavior toward achieving a goal?
Motivation
Strengthen the behavior the teacher wants the student to learn
What is the defining property of feedback that functions as reinforcement?
Student feels dissatisfaction of a drive going out of bound
What is an example of intrinsic feedback serving as negative reinforcement?
Increase students motivation and help correct the students skill movements
What should teachers expect their students to learn from the feedback they provide for the purpose of improving or maintaining performance?
What should students learn from instruction given to improve or maintain performance?
Increase students motivation and help correct the students skill movements.
A teacher watches a student leave a ten-foot putt short and then informs her that the putt needed to be hit with more speed. What type of feedback is this an example of?
Augmented Feedback
The teacher’s role is to help the student improve his own ability to do what?
Help the student to sharpen their skills to recognize the error and be able to fix
A teacher shows frustration when a student performs a skill incorrectly. To avoid this response in the future, the student focuses on correcting the skill movement. What is this an example of?
Augmented Feedback vs. Negative Reinforcement.
Augmented feedback that functions as positive or negative reinforcement can have the same result.
True
When a training aid is used correctly, and skill performance suffers, the concurrent KP could be directing the student’s attention away from relevant feedback
True
Augmented feedback used as punishment is most effective when the desired change is personal.
False
Research suggests that when a student has less control over the learning process, the student is more engaged
False
Knowledge of performance feedback can improve performance without learning taking place
True
A good reason for delivering only non-error augmented feedback is so the student will become more aware of cause and effect relationships within the swing.
False
Generally speaking, advanced players need less descriptive knowledge of performance feedback than beginning players.
False
Beginners typically benefit more from video feedback than advanced players.
False
When practicing, changing camera angles by only a few degrees between swings can be more harmful than if the player had not used video feedback.
True
What is the likely cause of a performance decline after a student has been using a training aid?
Incorrect use of a training aid could cause improper motor skill practice
Seeing your swing in a mirror is an example of what type of augmented feedback?
Concurrent Augmented Feedback
A student reading her spin rate data from a launch monitor is an example of what type of augmented feedback?
knowledge of Results
When is the best time to provide terminal augmented feedback?
After swing is complete to wait for a delay to allow student to react and evaluate
What is the effect of giving augmented feedback less frequently while learning takes place?
Fading Frequency Schedule
What is the effect of giving a student less frequent augmented feedback?
Encourages students to become more actively involved in the process
What is the effect of giving a student more frequent augmented feedback
Improvement
What frequency schedule method is based on research that suggests that students become more actively engaged in the learning process when they have control over it?
Self-Regulated Schedule
Which KP is recommended for students who are not sure of how to use the information to improve their golf skill learning?
Prescriptive KP
What Knowledge of Performance Feedback would likely benefit an advanced player with extensive golf experience?
Descriptive KP
What frequency schedule refers to less KR or KP being provided as learning progresses?
Fading Frequency Schedule
What is an example of Knowledge of Performance feedback?
Verbal and Kinematics
When should augmented feedback be given to a student that best receives information through hearing?
Verbal KP
What is an example of a statement that is considered Knowledge of Results feedback?
A teacher informing a student how far the iron shot landed from the target
When delivering feedback, when would a greater degree of precision would be beneficial?
In later stages of learning a motor skill
When faster student progress is needed, what feedback strategy is appropriate?
Error KP and augmented feedback
What is an example of kinematic feedback?
Distance, average speed, velocity, angulate distance, etc.
Practicing a drill, using a training aid, or testing a new method only helps if the student needs to develop golf skills
True
According to the course manual, goals on the first practice days are those least important to build the student’s confidence.
False
Acquiring a skill is indifferent to right and wrong practice.
True
Because of the research evidence that is available, it is recommended that teachers use distributed practice when the student motivation to learn is high.
False- when the motivation is low
What is presented in the manual as a preferred means to effective practice?
Skills practice and transfer practice
What is the intrinsic benefit of transfer practice?
Opportunity for students to practice under pressure experience
What valuable characteristic is shared by both intrinsic and augmented feedback
Both can provide relevant and irrelevant information related to golf performance
What is one way teachers can positively influence student motivation to practice?
Set goals, friendly competition, creating a warm environment to learn, etc.
What can students demonstrate as a result of transfer practice?
Opportunity for students to practice under pressure experience
List the six key principles of practice conditions that optimize the learning of golf skills and play.
Practice with purpose, practice the right things, practice properly, practice right amount, relevant feedback, practice when motivated
According to the course manual, what are the three ultimate purposes or goals for practicing?
Skills development or learning, skills maintenance and retention and skills application or transfer
What is practice is used for?
Developing skills and motor skills learned.
According to the course manual, as a general guideline, the duration of a practice session for adults should be about how long?
1-2 hours
A teaching aid is a physical or mental exercise that is practiced to improve golf skill learning
False this is a drill
. Training aids should help decrease student dependency on intrinsic feedback.
False
Learning aids should be evaluated on how well they help the teacher communicate a concept or improve a golf skill.
True
Imagining practice with an in-swing training aid is an example of using an external cue.
True
Low skill golfers tend to learn better when they keep their focus on external cues.
False
An internal cue allows the student’s motor system to perform more naturally than an external cue.
False
Massed practice is a possible cause of a performance plateau.
True
A performance plateau indicates that the student is no longer learning. (
False
Training aids should be evaluated on how well they help the teacher communicate a concept.
True
Teaching aids should be evaluated on how well they help the teacher communicate a concept.
True
What is the inherent reason for the limit beyond which increased practice time will result in no further student improvement
Changes in cognitive strategies, physiological factors, physical and mental factors, etc.
What is an example of an external cue?
Instructing a student to hit a fade when they always hook the ball
What is the basis for the distinction between massed and distributed practice
The time taken between shots. Massed less than 25 seconds, distributed more than 25
Under what conditions would it be appropriate to use a massed practice schedule?
When the situation is opposite of these: New skill, attention span is short, motivation is low, etc
Which is an external cue to focus on for a student whose swing has been improving?
Cues move farther away form the students movement
How should teachers encourage students to view their swing errors when practicing?
Increase difficulty and challenges
What is most important when evaluating the effectiveness of a learning aid?
Is it Valid, Reliable, Durable, easy to use and cost effective?
Research shows that a student achieves more when most of the time is spent working independently during the lesson.
False
Inexperienced instructors tend to make changes to lesson activities more quickly than experienced instructors.
False
What do experienced teachers focus on when modifying lesson activities during the lesson?
Monitor student performance more closely and attempt to maintain a appropriate level of challenges
What do skillful instructors carefully consider when concluding a lesson?
Student to keep enthusiasm, good feelings, valuable ideas and improved skills to the course or range. Close with a purposeful, meaningful experience
How do instructors infuse energy into the learning environment?
Asking questions while they learn, engage the students brains as well as their bodies.
Which student predisposition must a teacher overcome to develop an interactive lesson climate?
Students that are reluctant to speak
Which is an effective way for a teacher to maintain the flow of the lesson?
Develop an interactive lesson climate. Ask question, engage the student about the knowledge and the task at hand
For golf professionals to develop into successful teachers what needs to be developed and incorporated into their lessons?
Develop solid communications skills and dependable methods of conveying appropriate information
What should the teacher leave the student with when closing a lesson?
Open a door to future learning and more rewarding golf experiences for the student. Leave the student with a positive image of himself or herself.
What strategy should an instructor use to engage the student at the beginning of the lesson?
Open the lesson with an overview, making connections with previous learning experiences. Linking new material to previous knowledge give a stating point for the student
What is an example of a momentum blocker?
Lack of punctuality, quality of equipment, or the temperature, distract the attention from the mission of the lesson
How can instructors teach students that what they just learned is part of a bigger picture?
New skill in the lesson will be built upon the next. New learned concept needs to be practiced for better improvement.
What is one way to diminish the spontaneity and creativity that bring life to a lesson?
Too much routine
Instructors should operate on the assumption that their students with modest talent will experience greater frustration than others who are naturally athletic.
False
What type of practice is the least conducive way to keep the student’s enthusiasm when transferring a golf skill learned on the lesson tee to the golf course?
Simulators
For practice to be effective, students must hit golf balls.
False
One of the measures of a learning aid’s validity is the extent to which it does what the manufacturer represents it does.
False
The “Hit the Tee” drill can be effective in creating clubhead speed
True
Intrinsic Feedback is under direct manipulation by teachers and coaches
False
The more time taken between shots, the more massed the practice.
False
According to the course manual, the duration of a practice session for juniors should be at least one hour?
False- One hour or less
Prescribing practice should be a part of every lesson
True
When a golfer develops a new technique on the practice tee, the new skill is unlikely to fail in competitive situations.
False
When developing new skills, one long practice session is better than more frequent, shorter practice sessions.
False
Watching technique demonstration videos and practicing without hitting golf balls is an ineffective way to learn any motor skill
False
Immediately before a round generally is not a good time to practice
True
What is missing from a lesson that included a swing and physical conditioning evaluation followed by swing improvement communications?
Practice
What else should be included in a lesson plan that already has a swing diagnostic and swing improvement instruction?
Practice Assignment
Generally speaking, what time is better than the others for working on a problem shot?
After the round
Which drill is the most effective for influencing centeredness of contact?
Gradual length drill, divot drill, toe up to toe up drill, outside/inside tee drill, face tape drill
Under what circumstance would “best-ball” be a good practice technique?
Build on positive feelings
What drill would be most helpful for a person who is having trouble squaring the clubface at impact?
Toe-in/ heel-in drill, toe-up to toe-up drill
What can cause incorrect interpretations of images produced by skill performance analysis tools?
If the camera angles are off
What example would make the practice and playing environments similar?
Make it competitive, create realistic situations, encourage proper habits, Practice to a target
What should be included in every golf lesson?
Meaningful conclusion
When full swing practice time is limited, what should a player should do?
Player should work on making his/her best swing with a routine. Build confidence by hitting clubs that there comfortable with.
What drill helps the student feel the motion required to change the clubhead path through impact?
Feet together drill, hit the tee drill, right foot back drill, pump drill
What common drill helps the student develop a feel for clubhead speed?
Hit the tee drill, L to L, Whoosh drill and post impact drill, Weighted Club, Donut drill and speed sensor
As an example, what is designed to test a player’s consistency and patience?
Worse Ball Scramble
A potential problem with multi camera systems is overwhelming the student with too much information
True
Technology determines why the ball is going where it is going.
False
The overuse of technology on the lesson tee seems to affect the advanced player more than the beginning player
False
The angle of approach when hitting an iron in an indoor simulator should be the same as hitting an iron on a golf course
False
Ground force can be measured using 3D Motion Analysis
False
What questions should be asked when assessing the importance of technology?
What Are the student’s weaknesses? What are the students goals?
What can be captured using 3D Motion Analysis?
THE EFFICIENCY OF MOVEMENT IN THE SWING
The golfer is directed to which stage of learning when receiving too much technological information?
COGNITIVE STAGE
According to the course manual, what percentage of players have been professionally fit for their putter?
5%
What factor should the professional not use in their determination on how much technological information be delivered to the student?
THE PLAYING LEVEL OF THE STUDENT
What factor should the professional consider when determining how much technological information should be delivered to the student?
THE PERSONALITY OF THE STUDENT
Which technology may be beneficial if video shows the student has poor dynamic balance?
PRESSURE PLATE
What can cause incorrect interpretations of images produced by Video Feedback?
CONSISTENCY OF CAMERA POSITION
A teacher’s views, beliefs, and attitudes for golf and teaching help define a teacher’s methodology.
True
A teacher’s methodology is the foundation of a systematic instructional approach.
True
A good teacher has many methods of teaching, but a great teacher has one method
FALSE
Expert teachers work on the swing while new teachers work on the results of the swing
FALSE
A high swing arc tends to partner with less lateral body movement?
FALSE
An Weaker open-faced grip tends to partner with which release patterns through impact?
works will with a livelier arms and hands release at impact
A Stronger closed-face grip tends to partner with which release patterns through impact
Works well with a rotating body and less hands and arms release
The importance of the short game typically is appreciated by both the golf instructor and the student.
FALSE
A primary goal of any teacher should be to align the student’s expectations to his or her practice and play time, and commitment level to improve.
True
The method is equally as important as the effectiveness of the assessment when determining a student’s skill level
FALSE
Expert teachers that are satisfied with their knowledge and methodology have little need to pursue new information that makes them more effective
FALSE
In the Club Behind the Cup Drill, the goal is either to make the putt or hit a shaft placed 36 inches behind the cup.
FALSE
The Eyes Closed Putting Drill is designed to help a student improve directional control
FALSE
The One-Foot Interval Ladder Drill has the player starting eight feet away from the cup and progressively moving one foot closer as each putt is holed.
FALSE
According to the survey responses from expert teachers in the course manual, what is the most common approach used when teaching the short game?
VERBAL EXPLANATION
When chipping, which drill can help a golfer create the appropriate amount of extension through impact?
HOLD THE FINISH DRILL
What is the purpose of positioning a tee to the outside and inside of the ball, perpendicular to the target line, and slightly wider than the clubhead?
MISS THE TEE DRILL – Assists student in making solid and consistent contact with the ball. (Chipping)
When using the extended club drill in chipping practice, if the extension hits the player’s side, this is an indication of which swing errors.
THE STUDENT USED TOO MUCH WRIST THROUGH IMPACT.
What pitching drills helps to minimize lateral body motion?
FEET TOGETHER DRILL
What drills can be used to determine the correct ball position for a greenside bunker shot?
Tee Drill
Reciprocal inhibitions in the shoulder region is a probable result of working on the computer for extended periods of time
False
Upper crossed syndrome is a probable result of working on the computer for extended periods of time.
True
When fixator muscles contract for joint stabilization, they inhibit agonistic muscles from functioning properly.
FALSE – They allow agonistic muscles to function properly.
According to the course manual, only a player with a long torso rotation can generate power and speed?
False
A tilted hip position causes a restricted torso rotation toward the lower hip
True
Upper and lower crossed syndromes can create reciprocal inhibitions
True
left dominant stance would cause right-handed golfers difficulty in loading their right side at the top of the backswing
True
What is the function of the skeletal system?
Support the body, protect the organs, allow for movement, provide a mineral reservoir and produce blood cells
What are the two compartmental classifications of the skeleton?
Axial and appendicular
What comprises the axial skeleton?
The torso and head
Upper crossed syndrome can be easily identified in an individual who has what physical feature?
Rounded shoulders
What is a pattern of movement in which the body works efficiently throughout most athletic movements?
Cross crawl pattern
What is a clear reason to evaluate a golfer using the Standing Pelvic tilt?
inability to maintain spine angle
What is the probable in-swing result at impact for a player who shows an anterior lower back tilt?
Change in spine angle
What is the probable in-swing result of rounded shoulders and a forward head position?
Rounded posture, overly narrow and cannot stay in posture
What is one means of correcting an upper cross syndrome?
Strengthen and lengthen tight muscles or weak muscles
What does the stretch shortening cycle do?
creates explosive movement
What is the function of the stretch shortening cycle?
The speed of movement
What swing problem is associated with a right-leg dominant stance?
Hanging back
What can a forward head position with rounded shoulders at address cause?
Over the top swing
Which is an indication of an anterior tilt in the pelvis?
Arched lower back, tight quadriceps
What is the size range for a green
5,000 to 8,000 square ft
What is the process of the design phase when constructing a golf course
- Sight Analysis
- Design
- Development
- Grow – in
- maintenance
What are the five “Ps” of marketing?
Price, Product, Place, Promotion and Purpose
What type of “moment of truth” is building a brand at a facility?
Local fitness and tennis clubs
What is an example of indirect competition to an 18-hole daily fee facility?
Local fitness and tennis clubs
Which type of marketing strategy includes letters to the editor, television appearances, speaking engagements, and special needs programs?
Public Relations/ Publicity
What is an example of an attraction program at a golf facility?
Free, short teaching, demonstration, or information clinics
What is one advantage beginning players gain from forming friendships during the learning process?
They are more likley to stick with the game
What is a method that professionals can use to communicate with potential and existing customers?
Social Networking Sites
What is a quantitative way to assess a promotional strategy?
To measure the success of efforts designed to raise revenues, a facility can track increases in dollar sales and number of purchases and compare them against those of the same period the previous year.
What is a reliable indicator of the effectiveness of a promotional program targeting retail sales?
Another way to gauge the success of a promotional effort is to perform a cost/benefit analysis. For a direct-mail advertising campaign, for instance, this can be done by dividing the total sales resulting from customer responses by the total cost of preparing and distributing the advertising materials. This allows the facility to determine the cost-per-sale and response rate for the promotion.
How can a facility determine the viability of a promotional program?
The facility can determine the viability of a promotional strategey by using past date from past events to forecast the amount of particpation and income the will be returned
What is true when promotional dollars are tied directly to business plan
Two common methods for determining a promotional budget are: 1) establishing a dollar amount as a percentage of revenues and 2) building a budget based on established business objectives. The second method requires that the facility tie promotional dollars directly to the objectives outlined in the business plan. To do this properly, the facility must determine the type of promotional efforts required to accomplish each objective, determine the cost of each effort, and then allocate funds across media outlets over time. The sample promotional plan, presented later in this section, provides a simple example of a plan for achieving particular promotional objectives.
How should surveys, focus groups, and sales analyses be used to keep a facility from wasting money on ineffective promotions?
Knowing the target market helps decide how, where, and when to promote the facility, and keeps the facility from wasting money on ineffective efforts.
What question should be asked to obtain reliable information for evaluating the effectiveness of a targeted promotional strategy?
Is the facility trying to reach the general golfing public, or a specific group, like juniors, women, or seniors? Do they want to reach large corporations or associations in the community for tournament business? What about convention business or other non-local golfers, like vacationing golfers?
How would a facility determine the expense per sale that could be attributed to a targeted promotional strategy?
To measure the success of efforts designed to raise revenues, a facility can track increases in dollar sales and number of purchases and compare them against those of the same period the previous year. Many golf professionals use coded discount coupons in their advertisements and promotional pieces to help track inquiries and purchases. During big events, it can be useful to ask customers how they learned about the event.
What would be the most reliable means of predicting the likelihood a proposed promotional plan would be successful?
The most reliable means of predicting a promotional strategy to be succesful would be to survey the membership or players at the beginning of the season to ensure that what the club has in store is what the clientele enjoys participating in. Another way to gauge the success of a promotional effort is to perform a cost/benefit analysis. For a direct-mail advertising campaign, for instance, this can be done by dividing the total sales resulting from customer responses by the total cost of preparing and distributing the advertising materials. This allows the facility to determine the cost-per-sale and response rate for the promotion.
Why must a particular facility’s clientele and needs be examined in order to effectively manage play?
To successfully manage play, systems must be in place to ensure that the playing experience meets or exceeds the customers’ expectations, making their rounds efficient and fun. If there is a streamlined tee time reservation system and golfers can successfully complete an 18-hole round of golf in four hours or less, it will likely add up to a positive experience—one they will tell their friends and family about.
How can a facility elevate the on-course experience of all players when beginners are part of the play mix?
It is important to establish written guidelines on course availability, so all golfers feel that the facility is being fair about meeting different customers’ particular needs. Having these policies and associated procedures in written form provides clarity on these points and makes it easier to communicate them to staff and players
When are private facilities exempt from the accommodation requirements of the Americans with Disabilities Act?
when they are not allowing public play like tournaments or golf outings
What is an example of facility functions that need written safety procedures to insure uniform actions of staff?
alerting players, stopping play, evactuating the course are a few examples
How should the head professional respond to threatening weather?
Advise golfers to get off the glf course and have procedures in place as to how to handle golfers once off the course.
Under what law are golf facilities required to provide all people with goods and services on an equal basis?
Title III of the federal americans with disablities
Which tee time starting system can reliably prevent players from monopolizing the best tee times?
lottery system
Which tee time starting system compensates well for no-shows?
Walk On an Play
What is a major advantage of an internal online reservation system?
It keeps all reservaion transactions and recors in-house and can be entirely un by course employees
What should be addressed in a facility’s reservation policy?
who can make reservations, how fair in advance in time, which days, what times are available for first-come first-serve play, and golf car rental policy
Why are on-course and phone-based reservation systems still significant even though Internet-based tee time systems are becoming more prevalent?
“Although internet-based tee time reservation systems are becoming an increasingly prevalent avenue for booking tee times and managing yield, on-course and phone-based reservation systems should not be neglected. These traditional systems, when operated smoothly, continue to play a significant role in the customer’s relationship with a facility. Getting players to visit the actual course is obviously crucial, and thus the reservation and starting systems need to be streamlined, straightforward, and user friendly”.
What criterion should management consider when determining the correct tee time interval?
facility type, service mission, and course difficulty
What does the USGA’s Pace Rating System help determine?
how quickly a foursome of average golfers should play a particular course on a busy day
What would be a design characteristic that would assist in speeding up pace-of- play?
Making greens even, flat, smaller, and open in front. Make fairway landing zones wider.
What course design feature would best support yield expectations related to play?
The placement of water hazards and bunkers.
What is a good pace-of-play guideline?
It is dependant on the course with most falling in between 3:30-4:40
How can the starter positively affect the pace-of-play?
The starter can explain the pace of play expectations before the round.
What quality is most desirable in a person tasked with managing pace of play?
Takes the initiative to approach slow groups.
As a general rule, what should course assistants encourage players to do on the golf course as it relates to pace of play?
Keep up with the group ahead
Which staff member is responsible for setting the pace-of-play?
Starters/Greeters
What is a disadvantage of letting faster groups play through?
It only relocates the bottleneck
Do moments of truth end when the final hole of a group’s round is completed?
No, after the round shapes their experience still.
In order to be fully effective, what should a team consider when assigned a task?
Effective teams often make decisions related to important problems by arriving at a consensus through a participative process.
What does an effective team decision-making process require?
The team needs to be committed to their goals, they need to communicate openly, have clearly defined roles, have a sense of belonging and trust, make decisions by consensus, resolve conflicts, and have effective leadership
What will effective team managers allow their most creative people to do?
When creative, team spirited employees are on a team, the manager loves it. This is because it allows for the entire team to become for cohesive and will allow communication to be more fluid.
What is a characteristic of an effective team?
Characteristics of an effective team include being committed to goals, communicating openly, having clearly defined roles, having a sense of belonging and trust, making decisions by concensus, resolving conflicts, and having effective leadership.
Identify an element in the consensus-based decision-making process
The leader wiil sit down with their team and talk about what needs to happen, as well as what team members need to know and understand about the broader facility situation, if necessary.
What is one benefit of the team approach?
One of the big benefits of teamwork is that it forsters a positve faciity culture, which can be one of a facility’s foremost assets.
What could an effective manager use to assess performance, provide feedback, inform a staff person of new responsibilities, and keep staff on track in a very short visit?
An effective manager could use a “one minute manager” routine to gather several important attributes of the operation.
What is an interactive calendar?
An interactive calendar allows employees and managers to see upcoming events and action items, as well as write or type in additional info or questions.
What activities might be included in a “one-minute manager” routine?
Activities that would be included in a “one-minute manager” routine would include what is going on at the club that day, daily and weekly goals, policies and procedures, and recognition of good work.
What coordination tool is being applied when a golf instructor helps a student by fitting him for a set of clubs to be purchased at the facility?
Cross-operations marketing
Which departments do instruction and player development have the most opportunity to engage in mutually beneficial coordination and support?
To help the player feel more comfortable around the facility and know how to book tee times and other things like that.
What do Tournament directors rely on to meet members’ and guests’ physical and social needs?
Tournament directors have to rely on good working relationship with the golf course superintendent, the head golf professional, the food and beverage.
What business practice is being employed when a facility holds an external tournament that uses the golf course, the practice facility, and the restaurant?
The business practice that is being employed external focus and marketing stratagies. Many golf facilities are capable of doing business external to the game of golf itself, running a restaurant, a merchandising operation, a practice facility, and sometimes hosting public and private social events, including company picnics, banquets, charity events, and even wedding receptions.
What is an example of an external event?
An event that is a private that can hosted at facility like a charity event that may not be a golf related event.
Practice facilities should be designed so golfers will face what direction?
The facility should be configured so golfers do not have to face the sun during the majority of the day. Rather, tees should aim north or east, in order to keep the sun out of customers’ eyes.
What is a benefit of having a caddie program at a club?
Caddies add to the overall playing experience by spotting balls, cleaning clubs, helping read greens, offering course management advice, and more, which can result in more enjoyable rounds and even lower scores. Caddie programs introduce many young people to golf, generating future players and building loyalty for the game and the industry.
What government act has significant application to the terms of caddie employment?
Fair Labor Standards Act
What should a comprehensive caddie-training program include?
Orientation, Indoctrination, From Tee-to-Green, On the green
What is the most important interdepartmental relationship for the golf operations department?
The most important interdepartmental relationship at a golf facility that helps support an exceptional golfing experience is the one between the golf operation and golf course maintenance.