Which of the following is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations?
A. Proprietary or for-profit
B. Not for-profit
C. Government-supported
D. Individual healthcare
D. INDIVIDUAL HEALTHCARE is NOT one of the classifications of healthcare organizations.
Which of the following is NOT a risk issue for healthcare?
A. Drugs are used and stored in the facility
B. Mostly female staff
C. High percentage of technical and professional staff
D. Publicly accessible and many doors must remain open
C. HIGH PERCENTAGE OF TECHNICAL AND PROFESSIONAL STAFF is NOT a risk issue for healthcare.
Which of the following is usually at the top of the organizational chart?
A. Board of directors
B. Department leaders
C. Assistant Administrators
D. Vice Presidents
A. BOARD OF DIRECTORS is usually at the top of the organizational chart.
Which of the following statements best describes employees?
A. Medical staff contracted by the facility
B. All staff directly employed by the facility
C. Volunteers who donate their time
D. Contracted persons
B. ALL STAFF EMPLOYED DIRECTLY BY THE FACILITY best describes employees.
Security uses senior management’s endorsement to build what kind of a program?
A. Strong and effective
B. A program that works in a small part of the facility
C. Generally effective
D. Strong and simple
A. Security uses senior management’s endorsement to build a STRONG AND EFFECTIVE program.
How should friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments be treated?
A. Discouraged
B. Encouraged
C. Encouraged, but monitored
D. Encouraged, but security staff educated about ethics and avoiding favoritism
D. Friendships and inter-personal relationships between security officers and staff members from other departments should be ENCOURAGED, BUT SECURITY STAFF EDUCATED ABOUT ETHICS AND AVOIDING FAVORITISM.
Which of the following allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization?
A. Crime analysis
B. Risk assessment
C. Benchmarking
D. Evaluation surveys
C. BENCHMARKING allows a department to assess its cost-effectiveness within an organization.
What must the primary overriding concern of any security department be?
A. Its image
B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility.
C. The goals and mission of the entity employing the security services
D. Cost-effectiveness
B. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility must the primary overriding concern of any security department .
Which of the following are skills a security professional should have and use at all times?
A. Good observation skills
B. Good communications skills
C. Tolerance
D. All of the Above
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE: A security professional should have and use GOOD OBSERVATION SKILLS, GOOD COMMUNICATIONS SKILLS AND TOLERANCE at all times.
Why are vendors potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility?
A. Vendors often have access to sensitive areas yet staff of the healthcare organization may know very little about vendors’ backgrounds
B. Vendors typically drive large vehicles that can conceal large amounts of stolen property or contraband.
C. Competing vendors may clash at a facility
D. Vendors may be bringing in high-demand products that could be targeted for theft.
A. Vendors are potentially a high security risk to a healthcare facility because VENDORS OFTEN HAVE ACCESS TO SENSITIVE AREAS YET STAFF OF THE HEALTHCARE ORGANIZATION MAY KNOW VERY LITTLE ABOUT VENDORS’ BACKGROUNDS.
In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, who determines which individuals are part of the patient’s family?
A. Patient’s parents or legal guardians
B. Nursing staff
C. Attending physician
D. The patient, provided he or she is developmentally mature and competent to do so.
D. In the patient- and family-centered care philosophy, THE PATIENT, determines which individuals are part of the patient’s family, PROVIDED HE OR SHE IS DEVELOPMENTALLY MATURE AND COMPETENT TO DO SO.
Which of the following is NOT an example of an external customer?
A. Patients
B. Vendors
C. Employees
D. Regulatory agencies
C. EMPLOYEES is not an example of an external customer.
Which of the following does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public?
A. Clean uniform
B. Wearing the uniform shirt outside of the trousers
C. Well-cared for uniform
D. Shined footwear
B. WEARING THE UNIFORM SHIRT OUTSIDE OF THE TROUSERS does NOT help the security uniform communicate an appropriate message to the public.
Which of the following is NOT an example of undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer?
A. Bad attitude
B. Dishonesty
C. Impoliteness
D. Confidence
D. CONFIDENCE is NOT an example of an undesirable behavior and demeanor in a security officer.
What is the relationship between employees and management sometimes called?
A. Employee relations
B. Confidentiality
C. Family Interaction
D. Tense conversation
A. The relationship between employees and management is sometimes called EMPLOYEE RELATIONS.
Which of the following may union members NOT do during picketing?
A. Carry signs
B. Protest management decisions
C. Block entrances to the facility
D. Congregate outside the facility
C. Union members may not BLOCK ENTRANCES TO THE FACILITY during picketing.
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about customers’ perceptions of their experience?
A. Interaction is subject to personal interpretation
B. Interaction can only be perceived by the words stated
C. Interaction is affected by body language
D. Interaction is affected by all of your actions
B. INTERACTION CAN ONLY BE PERCEIVED BY THE WORDS STATED is NOT a true statement about customer’s perception of their experience..
Which of the following is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service?
A. More job satisfaction
B. Less stress and hassle
C. Trying to impress your supervisor
D. More job success
C. TRYING TO IMPRESS YOUR SUPERVISOR is NOT one of the three powerful, personal reasons to provide great customer service.
Which of the following describes the main objective of good customer service?
A. To make the customer walk away with a positive feeling
B. To help the customer see that someone tried, even
though the customer’s wants were not met
C. To make the customer think that no one cares about the concern raised by the customer
D. To help the customer walk away with a neutral feeling
A. The main objective of good customer service is TO MAKE THE CUSTOMER WALK AWAY WITH A POSITIVE FEELING [about the encounter].
Which of the following is the definition of a customer?
A. External paying customer
B. Internal customer
C. Non-paying external customer
D. Anyone with whom you interact
D. A customer is defined as ANYONE WITH WHOM YOU INTERACT.
Which of the following is NOT a common technique to use when providing good customer service?
A. Acknowledge the customer’s needs
B. Use inappropriate body language
C. Provide alternatives
D. Say thank you
B. USING INAPPROPRIATE BODY LANGUAGE is NOT a common technique to use when providing good customer service.
Which of the following is NOT a true statement?
A. Team building encourages employee involvement in planning, problem solving, and decision making within the organization.
B. Team building promotes a better understanding of decisions.
C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes
D. Active participation on teams can engage employees
C. Team building rarely contributes to support for ownership of decisions, processes, and changes is NOT a true statement.
Which of the following is NOT an ongoing, or functional, work team?
A. A project team
B. A natural team
C. A management team
D. A process improvement team
A. A PROJECT TEAM is NOT an ongoing, or functional, work team?
To be successful, teams need which of the following?
A. Access to resources
B. Clearly defined boundaries
C. Access to people who know
D. Clearly defined purposes and goals
E. All of the above
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE, To be successful teams need access to resources, clearly defined boundaries, access to people who know and clearly defined purposes and goals.
Which of the following is NOT a stage of team development?
A. Forming
B. Ending
C. Norming
D. Storming
B.ENDING is Not a state of team development.
Failure of teams can usually be attributed to what?
A. No clearly defined purpose or goals
B. Lack of employee buy-in to team building
C. Employees conditioned to value individual achievement
D. Any of the above
A. Failure of teams can usually be attributed to NO CLEARLY DEFINED PURPOSE OR GOALS.
Which of the following is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol?
A. Getting to know the community
B. Establishing positive relationships and partnerships
C. Improving communications
D. Using the security vehicle to go offsite
D. USING THE SECURITY VEHICLE TO GO OFFSITE is NOT an opportunity derived from patrol.
Which is the most common patrol approach?
A. Inconspicuous
B. Routine
C. Conspicuous
D. Foot
C. CONSPICUOUS is most common patrol approach.
Which of the following are the three key elements of a good patrol?
A. Hearing, documentation, and memory
B. Observation, perception and memory
C. Perception, memory, and documentation
D. Time, memory and perception
B. OBSERVATION, PERCEPTION, AND MEMORY are the three key elements of a good patrol.
What type of patrol covers all areas equally with high visibility?
A. Selective
B. Directed
C. Vehicle
D. Routine
D. ROUTINE is the type of patrol that covers all areas equally with high visibility.
Which of the following is an example of something you should do while patrolling?
A. Let employees know you are in the area
B. Get careless
C. Be a hero unnecessarily
D. Get separated from your equipment
A. LETTING EMPLOYEES KNOW THAT YOU ARE IN THE AREA is an example of something you should do while patrolling.
Security Officers must interact in a professional manner with which group of people?
A. Patients
B. Visitors
C. Employees
D. Physicians
E. All of the above
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: Security Officers must interact in a professional manner with PATIENTS, VISITORS, EMPLOYEES, and PHYSICIANS.
Which trait or skill is NOT desirable for a security officer to possess?
A. Strong communications skills
B. Compassion
C. Ability to speak loudly
D. Ability to express care and understanding.
C. The ABILITY TO SPEAK LOUDLY is NOT a desirable trait or skill for a security officer to possess.
In which way is a security officer likely to interact with a patient?
A. Picking up or returning a patients valuables
B. Investigating lost or stolen property
C. Providing directions
D. Helping resolve domestic disputes occurring at the facility
E. All of the above
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: A security officer is likely to interact with a patient PICKING UP OR RETURNING A PATIENT’S VALUABLES, INVESTIGATING LOST OR STOLEN PROPERTY, PROVIDING DIRECTIONS, and HELPING RESOLVE DOMESTIC DISPUTES OCCURRING AT THE FACILITY.
Which is the most common location where missing patients are found?
A. Hiding under their bed
B. In the cafeteria or near an entrance
C. In the gift shop
D. Looking for the morgue
B. IN THE CAFETERIA OR NEAR AN ENTRANCE is the most common location where missing patients are found.
Which of the following should a security officer NOT do when interacting with a visitor?
A. Be aware of the visitor’s emotional state
B. Use sarcasm
C. Treat the visitor with respect
D. Show empathy
B. A security officer should NOT USE SARCASM when interacting with a visitor.
Which accreditation body mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment?
A. The Joint Commission (TJC)
B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
C. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
D. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE)
A. The accreditation body that mandates the provision of a secure healthcare environment is THE JOINT COMMISSION.
Generally a security officer does what during a robbery?
A. Confronts the criminal
B. Observes and reports
C. Enters the area with the police
D. Leaves the area unattended
B. Generally, a security officer OBSERVES AND REPORTS during a robbery.
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest?
A. Relative short life
B. Expense
C. Discomfort and restrictiveness
D. Avoiding or minimizing injury
D. AVOIDING OR MINIMIZING INJURY is NOT a disadvantage of a protective vest.
Which of the following items is NOT security equipment?
A. Flashlight
B. Portable radio
C. Handcuffs
D. CPR pocket mask
D. CPR POCKET MASK is NOT security equipment.
Which of the following does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person?
A. Must be reasonable
B. Must be prudent
C. Must be able to inflict pain
D. Must be defensible
C. MUST BE ABLE TO INFLICT PAIN does NOT apply when an officer has decided to use force for self-defense or to defend another person.
Which of the following is a professional attribute?
A. Image
B. Posture
C. Attitude
D. Initiative
E. All of the above
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE: IMAGE, POSTUIRE, ATTITUDE, AND INITIATIVE are all professional attributes.
The self-disciplined officer does NOT do which of the following?
A. Take an interest in the job
B. Look for ways to improve safety
C. Call a routine duty a waste of time
D. Look for ways to improve recommended procedures
C. The self-disciplined officer does NOT CALL A ROUTINE DUTY A WASTE OF TIME.
Non-verbal communication accounts for what percentage of communication?
A. 57 percent
B. 49 percent
C. 89 percent
D. 94 percent
D. Non-verbal communication accounts for 94 percent of communication.
Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security?
A. International Association for Healthcare Safety and Security (IAHSS)
B. National Fire Protection Agency (NFPA)
C. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
D. Department of Public Health (DPH)
A. INTERNATIONAL ASSOCIATION FOR HEALTHCAE SAFETY AND SECURITY (IAHSS) developed a code of ethics for healthcare security.
Which of the following is NOT an IAHSS training course?
A. Basic certification for healthcare security officer
B. Advanced certification for healthcare security officer
C. Supervisory certification for healthcare security personnel
D. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
D. CARDIOPULMINARY RESUSCITATION (CPR) is NOT an IAHSS training course.
When speaking with a patient, visitor, or staff member, you should always be mindful of what characteristics of your speech?
A. Timing, velocity, and character
B. Tenor, vibration, and cannon
C. Tone, volume, and cadence
D. Tempo, variation, and candor
C. When speaking with a patient, visitor, or staff member, you should always be mindful of these characteristics of speech: TONE, VOLUME AND CADENCE.
What is the key factor in tactical deployment?
A. Availability of other officers
B. Waiting for supervisor
C. Control of distance
D. Time
C. CONTROL OF DISTANCE is the key factor in tactical deployment.
During a contact, what is the general recommended distance between you and the individual?
A. 2 to 4 feet
B. 4 to 6 feet
C. 6 to 10 feet
D. 10 feet or more
B. During contact, 4 to 6 feet is the general recommended distance between you and the individual.
What is the primary goal in using tactical evaluation?
A. To determine where to approach a subject
B. To determine the legality of intervening between two people who are fighting
C. To determine if the design of a waiting room is conducive to security needs
D. To determine the level of threat
D. TO DETERMINE THE LEVEL OF THREAT is the primary goal in using tactical evaluation.
What is the force continuum?
A. The force applied by an officer to a subject to meeting the continuing escalation of force
B. The force that officers use on non-compliant persons
C. A form used to report on incidents involving the use of force
D. None of the above
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
What is the overall goal in using any physical intervention?
A. To cause pain to a subject refusing your directions
B. To pursue, seek compliance, or impeded a subject
C. To stop people running from you
D. To show fellow staff members you are effective at your job
B. The overall goal in using any physical intervention is TO PURSUE, SEEK COMPLIANCE OR IMPEDE A SUBJECT.
All investigations seek answers to how many fundamental questions?
A. Eight
B. Three
C. Six
D. Four
C. All investigations seek answers to SIX fundamental questions: WHO, WHAT, WHEN, WHERE, HOW, and WHY
Which of the following is NOT one of the security officer’s cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview?
A. Impartiality
B. Impatience
C. Sensitivity
D. Confidentiality
B. IMPATIENCE is NOT one of the security officer’s cardinal responsibilities regarding conducting an interview.
Which of the following types of questions should NOT be used in an interview?
A. Leading
B. Open ended
C. Includes an opinion
D. Specific
A. LEADING questions should NOT be used in an interview.
Which governing body’s legal statute governs whether an interview may be tape-recorded?
A. Federal
B. City
C. Town
D. State
D. The STATE legal statute governs whether an interview may be taped-recorded.
Which of the following is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation>
A. Event has been resolved
B. All leads have been exhausted
C. The property was recovered
D. The situation was corrected
B. ALL LEADS HAVE BEEN EXHAUSTED is NOT a reason that management would close an investigation.
A good report writer has a balanced blend of which of these?
A. Awareness, skills, know-how
B. Opinions, skills, knowledge
C. Outlook, skills, knowledge
D. Attitude, skills, knowledge
D. A good report writer has a balanced blend of ATTITUDE, SKILLS, and KNOWLEDGE.
Which of the following is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing?
A. Gather information
B. Record information
C. Write the report
D. Examine the report
D. EXAMINE THE REPORT is NOT one of the basic steps in report writing.
Gather the information
Record the information
Organize the information
Write the report
EVALUATE the report
Which of the following is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents?
A. Security incident report
B. Supplemental security report
C. Investigation security report
D. Auto accident report
C. INVESTIGATION SECURITY REPORT is NOT one of the most common forms used by security officers in reporting incidents.
When should reports be written?
A. By the end of the week
B. By the end of the shift
C. By the end of the month
D. By the end of the next day
B. Reports should be written BY THE END OF THE SHIFT.
A security officer should carry a note book for all of the following reasons except which one?
A. To write down all of the facts for an incident report
B. To keep a list of emergency telephone numbers
C. To note safety hazards
D. To keep track of food orders.
D. TO KEEP TRACK OF FOOD ORDERS
Which of the following does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities?
A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
D. The Joint Commission (TJC)
B. IAHSS does NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities.
Which agency provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence?
A. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
B. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
D. The Joint Commission (TJC
C. OSHA provides guidelines on preventing workplace violence.
The general rule for keeping records is how long?
A. At least five to seven years
B. Permanently
C. At least ten years
D. At least three to five years
A. The general rule for keeping records is AT LEAST FIVE TO SEVEN YEARS.
Which external groups should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report?
A. Insurance companies
B. Corporate attorney
C. Law enforcement
D. Newspapers
D. NEWSPAPERS should NOT be provided a copy of a security incident report.
Which of these departments in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports?
A. Administration
B. Human resources
C. Public relations
D. Nutrition services
D. The NUTRITION SERVICES department in the healthcare organization does NOT commonly use security reports.
Which of the following is an example of a tort committed by a security officer that may result in civil litigation and liability?
A. Excessive use of force
B. False arrest
C. Malicious prosecution
D. All of the above
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
A warrant is issued by whom?
A. A law enforcement officer
B. A judicial officer
C. A prosecutor
D. A defense attorney
B. A warrant is issued by A JUDICIAL OFFICER.
What is a misdemeanor?
A. A crime punishable by imprisonment for more than a year.
B. A violation of the municipal code
C. Any Offense other than a felony
D. A violation of the state’s penal code
B. A misdemeanor is ANY OFFENSE OTHER THAN A FELONY.
In criminal law how must guilt be determined?
A. Beyond a reasonable doubt
B. By the preponderance of evidence
C. By that degree of proof which is more probable than not
D. By the prosecutor
A. In criminal law guilt must be determined BEYOND A REASONABLE DOUBT.
In any trial, who is the trier of law?
A. The prosecutor
B. The defense attorney
C. The judge
D. The jury
C. In any trial, THE JUDGE is the trier of law.
Which of the following do the initials CPTED stand for?
A. Crime prevention through environmental design.
B. Crime prevention through experimental design
C. Campus prevention through environmental design
D. Critical performance through environmental design
A. The initials CPTED stand for CRIME PREVENTION THROUGH ENVIRONMENTAL DESIGN.
Which of the following should be protected by bollards?
A. Sidewalks
B. Curbs
C. Hydrants
D. Trees
C. HYDRANTS should be protected by bollards.
Define ADA.
A. Americans with Discounts Act
B. Americans with Disabilities Act
C. American without Discomfort Act
D. Americans with Disabilities Action
B. ADA is defined as AMERICANS WITH DISABILITIES ACT.
What is the definition of crowd control?
A. Techniques used to manage lawful public assemblies
B. Allowing First Amendment activities
C. Allowing demonstrations
D. Techniques used to address unlawful public assemblies
D. Crowd control is defined as TECHNIQUES USED TO ADDRESS UNLAWFUL PUBLIC ASSEMBLIES
Which of the following is NOT true about video surveillance?
A. Video surveillance should be recorded at all times
B. Video surveillance should be functional at all times
C. Dummy cameras are accepted methods of surveillance
D. Video surveillance should be monitored if possible
C. DUMMY CAMERAS ARE ACCEPTED METHODS OF SURVEILLANCE is NOT true about video surveillance.
The average length of a patient stay in an acute-care hospital is how long?
A. 25 to 30 days
B. 3 to 6 days
C. 10 to 12 days
D. 15 to 20 days
B. The average length of a patient stay in an acute-care hospital is 3 TO 6 DAYS.
Which type of unit takes a patient who no longer requires specific medical treatment on an inpatient basis but cannot be returned home?
A. Transition unit
B. Intensive care unit
C. Medical-surgical unit
D. Step-down unit
A. TRANSITION UNIT takes a patient who no longer requires specific medical treatment on an inpatient basis but cannot be returned home.
The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) is a division of which of the following?
A. The Joint Commission
B. OSHA
C. US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)
d. long-term ACUTE CARE (ltac)
C. CMS is a division of HHS.
Which of the following are credentialed to admit patients to the hospital?
A. Interns
B. Attending physicians
C. Hospitalists
D. Residents
B. ATTENDING PHYSICIANS are credentialed to admit patients to the hospital.
Who is the patient’s advocate during a hospital stay?
A. Physician
B. Social Services
C. Admitting clerk
D. Nurse
D. The NURSE is the patient’s advocate during a hospital stay.
Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the business office?
A. Registration
B. Environmental Services
C. Cashier
D. Accounts Receivable
B. ENVIRONMENTAL SERVICES is NOT a typical function of the business office.
The act of a patient using someone else’s information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called what?
A. Medication-seeking patient
B. Suspicious activity
C. Identification hijacking
D. Medical identity theft
D. The act of a patient using someone else’s information to fraudulently obtain medical services is called MEDICAL IDENTITY THEFT.
Access to patient information is limited to those who “need to know” by which of the following?
A. FBI
B. OSHA
C. HIPPA
D. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS)
C. Access to patient information is limited to those who “need to know” by HEALTH INSURANCE PORTABILITY AND ACCOUNTABILITY ACT (HIPPA)
True or false: Escorts for valuables and cash should be at the same time each day and should follow the same route to the facility.
A. True
B. False
B. FALSE
Escorts for valuables and cash SHOULD NOT be at the same time each day and SHOULD NOT follow the same route to the facility.
Which of the following is NOT a function security provides for the business office/financial services area?
A. Patrol
B. Customer relations
C. Refunding payment
D. Investigations
C. REFUNDING PAYMENT is NOT a function security provides for the business office/financial services area.
Which of the following defines over-the-counter medications?
A. Anything that one can inject, inhale or absorb into the body that is designed to improve a condition.
B. Remedies or cures
C. Do not require a prescription and are generally displayed on the consumer side of the pharmacy counter
D. Controlled substances
C. Medications that DO NOT REQUIRE A PRESCRIPTION AND ARE GENERALLY DISPLAYED ON THE CONSUMER SIDE OF THE PHARMACY COUNTER defines over-the-counter medications.
Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances?
A. Heroin, marijuana, methaqualone
B. Morphine, cocaine, methadone
C. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
D. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
B. MORPHINE, COCAINE and METHADONE are examples of schedule II substances.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a drug diversion method?
A. Fraudulent prescription
B. Falsify a patient’s chart
C. Keep unused drugs after surgery
D. Obtain a prescription from your physician
D. OBTAIN A PRESCRIPTION FROM YOUR PHYSICIAN is NOT an example of a drug diversion.
In which year was the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) enacted?
A. 1970
B. 1972
C. 1968
D. 1984
A. 1970 is the year the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) was enacted.
Which of the following staff may enter the compounding area in a pharmacy?
A. Housekeeping aide
B. Licensed pharmacist
C. Pharmacy secretary
D. Pharmacy technician
B. The compounding area (where drugs are stored and prepared) may only be entered by, or in the presence of, A LICENSED PHARMACIST.
Which of these conditions make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients?
A. Age and ethnicity
B. Reputation of the healthcare organization
C. Short wait periods
D. Drug and alcohol impairment
D. DRUG AND ALCOHOL IMPAIRMENT make it difficult to work effectively with behavioral patients.
The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted how often?
A. Every two years
B. Every six months
C. Every year
D. Monthly
C. The Joint Commission requires that risk assessments be conducted EVERY YEAR.
Which of the following is NOT a type of mental health unit?
A. Closed caption
B. Open
C. Closed
D. Outpatient
A. CLOSED CAPTION is NOT a type of mental health unit.
Which of the following is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit?
A. During meal delivery and consumption
B. Voluntary hospitalization
C. During transportation of the patient
D. Involuntary hospitalization
B. VOLUNTARY HOSPITALIZATION is NOT a time of heightened risk in an emergency department or behavioral patient care unit.
Which factor can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient?
A. Short wait times
B. Calm atmosphere
C. Food selection
D. Attire
C. FOOD SELECTION can contribute to behavior escalation in a patient.
Which of the following is true of behavioral patients in emergency departments?
A. Often have longer lengths of stays due to placement issues.
B. Must be managed with both situational control and empathy.
C. Are often placed in retrofitted areas.
D. All of the above.
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Which of the following does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or behavioral patient care unit?
A. 24/7 coverage
B. Supplementation by police
C. As-needed coverage
D. Security has no role in these areas
D. SECURITY HAS NO ROLE IN THESE AREAS does NOT describe how security can staff the emergency department or behavioral patient care unit.
Why are departments and units that care for infant and pediatric patients of special concern to security officers?
A. They are where the most crime happens in a hospital
B. Children are kidnapped from hospitals almost every day
C. In addition to the heartbreak the family experiences, an abduction brings a swarm of reporters, bad publicity, and law enforcement agencies to the facility
D. Infant and pediatric units are the busiest units in every hospital
C. Departments and units that care for infant and pediatric patients are of special concern to security officers because IN ADDITION TO THE HEARTBREAK THE FAMILY EXPERIENCES, AN ABDUCTION BRINGS A SWARM OF REPORTERS, BAD PUBLICITY, AND LAW ENFORCEMENT AGENCIES TO THE FACILITY.
Why is it important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical profile of an abductor?
A. So they can help law enforcement put out a description
B. To design the facility’s security to make it as hard as possible for the typical abductor to kidnap a child
C. To convince the facility to hire more security
D. So they can use the information to talk to security departments in other healthcare facilities.
B. It is important for security and clinical staff to understand the typical profile of an abductor TO DESIGN THE FACILITY’S SECURITY TO MAKE IT AS HARD AS POSSIBLE FOR THE TYPICAL ABDUCTOR TO KIDNAP A CHILD.
Which of the following is a role of the National Center for Missing and Exploited Children (NCMEC)?
A. Provide things that healthcare organizations can do to “harden the target”
B. Develop a profile of the typical kidnapper
C. Provide suggested training for nursing, security and other personnel
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Who needs to be trained about the facility’s system for protecting children from abduction?
A. Mothers, husbands, significant others, and family
B. Nursing on affected units
C. Security
D. All facility employees
E. All of the above
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE
When an infant abduction is suspected, what should security’s first response be?
A. Rust to the affected unit and interview the parent
B. Call the NCMEC
C. Grab the department’s camera and take pictures of everyone who exits the emergency department
D. Immediately go to the property exits — doors, garages, etc. — stop each person walking or driving out who has anything a baby could be in
D. When an infant abduction is suspected, security’s first response should be to IMMEDIATELY GO TO THE PROPERTY EXITS AND STOP EACH PERSON WALKING OR DRIVING OUT WHO HAS ANYTHING A BABY COULD BE IN.
What should facility employees do when they hear an announcement of a child abduction?
A. Leave their offices, go out the closes door and assemble in the street
B. Go to their assigned areas (door, stairs, elevator, etc.), look for anyone with any item that could be hiding the child, and stop and question them
C. Call the security office and volunteer to help if needed
D. Stay inside their offices and out of the way
B. When they hear an announcement of a child abduction facility employees should GO TO THEIR ASSIGNED AREAS, LOOK FOR ANYONE WITH ANY ITEM THAT COULD BE HIDING THE CHILD, AND STOP AND QUESTION THEM.
Which of the following is a medical record?
A. Information about physical health
B. Information about family relationships
C. Information about sexual behavior
D. Information about substance abuse
E. All of the above
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Why is it important that a medical record be kept secure and confidential?
A. If released, it may influence a person’s ability to obtain credit, gain admission to education institutions, and gain employment
B. If released, the spouse may divorce the patient
C. If released, the physician may refuse to treat the
patient
D. It is not important and may be released to anyone.
A. IF RELEASED, IT MAY INFLUENCE A PERSON’S ABILITY TO OBTAIN CREDIT, GAIN ADMISSION TO EDUCATION INSTITUTIONS, AND GAIN EMPLOYMENT
Which statement best describes the ways to secure the medical records department?
A. Keep the doors locked
B. Require all medical records to be signed out
C. Only allow physicians to access the department
D. Use on of the following access control systems:
- Lock and Key
- Combination locks
- Badge readers with access cards
- Biometrics
D. USE ONE OF THE FOLLOWING ACCESS CONTROL SYSTEMS:: - Lock and Key
- Combination locks
- Badge readers with access cards
- Biometrics
What patient information can be given to the security officer by a clinician?
A. Clinicians are never allowed to release any patient information to anyone.
B. Only patient information of interest to the security officer
C. Only patient information that is critical to the performance of the security officer’s duties
D. None of the above.
C. ONLY PATIENT INFORMATION THAT IS CRITICAL TO THE PERFORMANCE OF THE SECURITY OFFICER’S DUTIES can be given to the security officer by a clinician.
Which of the following is a HIPPA violation?
A. You observe a victim being brought into the emergency department suffering from a gunshot wound. You hear medical staff comments about the victim’s condition. You tell the paramedic from the ambulance about the victim’s condition.
B. You are on duty signing in visitors at the hospital. You have a patient census for reference. You leave to direct a visitor and leave the patient census in plain view for passers-by.
C. You have finished your shift and throw the old patient census in the trash.
D. All of the above
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
A security threat to the facility usually involves which sources?
A. Internal and external
B. Organized Groups
C. Only internal
D. Only external
A. A security threat to the facility usually involves INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL sources.
Which of the following is a security issue for employees of support or ancillary services?
A. Well staffed during the day
B. Isolated at night
C. Mix of certified and non-certified employees
D. Located in the center of the facility
B. ISOLATED AT NIGHT is a security issue for employees of support and ancillary services.
Theft of film for its silver content is a risk for which department?
A. Plan services
B. Housekeeping
C. Radiology
D. Laboratory
C. Theft of film for its silver content is a risk for the RADIOLOGY department.
Employees of which department are found all over the facility and often unlock all doors to the department they are working in at the time?
A. Radiology
B. Materials management
C. Bio-medical engineering
D. Housekeeping
D. HOUSEKEEPING employees are found all over the facility and often unlock all doors to the department they are working in at the time.
The security department is considered which type of department?
A. Support
B. Clinical
C. Direct patient care
B. Service
A. The security department is considered a SUPPORT department.
Which of the following defines vulnerability?
A. The act of being physically wounded
B. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage
C. Possibility of loss
D. The act of being attacked
B. Vulnerability is defined as SOMETHING WITH THE POTENTIAL TO BE PHYSICALLY WOUNDED OR OPEN TO ATTACK OR DAMAGE.
Which of the following is NOT an important risk measurement tool?
A. Security inspections and surveys
B. Security patrol and incident reports
C. Law enforcement crime statistic reports and analyses
D. Irregular patrols by untrained personnel
D. IRREGULAR PATROLS BY UNTRAINED PERSONNEL is NOT an important risk measurement tool.
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance?
A. Call for medical, security backup, or local police assistance, if required
B. Observe or identify the person(s) causing the disturbance, and provide area and crowd control
C. Step up to the people without backup
D. Notify your supervisor other appropriate facility personnel per policy
C. STEP UP TO THE PEOPLE WITHOUT BACKUP is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance.
Which agency issued guidelines for workplace violence?
A. The Joint Commission
B. OSHA
C. NFPA
D. American society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE)
B. OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH ADMINISTRATION (OSHA) issued guidelines for workplace violence.
Which of the following defines property risks?
A. Lawsuits brought about by action or inaction, including negligent security or safety hazards
B. Loss of staff due to perception of an unsafe environment
C. The healthcare organization’s inability to perform on or many of its normal functions, leading to the inability to generate income
D. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment and supplies
D. Property Risks is defined as DAMAGE, THEFT, OR VANDALISM TO BUILDINGS, EQUIPMENT AND SUPPLIES.
Which of the following describes the outer zone in the theory of protection?
A. Generally, the boundary of the property
B. Footprint of the actual structure
C. Inside the structure
D. Footprint of the inside of the structure
A. GENERALLY, THE BOUNDARY OF THE PROPERTY describes the outer zone in the theory of protection.
Which of the following is NOT a common physical barrier?
A. Walls
B. Fencing
C. Chains
D. Lighting
D. LIGHTING is NOT a common physical barrier.
Which of the following describes the basic functions of lock sets?
A. Manual, office, classroom, storage and passage
B. Classroom, electronic, storage, privacy and passage
C. Office, classroom, storage, privacy and passage
D. Keyless, office, storage, privacy and passage
C. OFFICE, CLASSROOM, STORAGE, PRIVACY AND PASSAGE describes the basic functions of lock sets.
What three components make up the Access Control Triad?
A. Identification systems, staff education and training, and badging
B. Identification systems, staff education and training, and physical security safeguards
C. Staff education and training, video surveillance, and physical security safeguards
D. Identification systems, proprietary logo usage, and staff education and training
B. The three components making up the Access Control Triad are IDENTIFICATION SYSTEMS, STAFF EDUCATION AND TRAINING AND PHYSICAL SECURITY SAFEGUARDS.
Which of the following greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system?
A. Signage
B. Magnetic locks
C. Magnetic swipe cards
D. Fences
A. SIGNAGE greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system.
What is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms?
A. A needs assessment
B. The type of weapon
C. Which state your facility is in
D. How large a staff in the security force
A. A NEEDS ASSESSMENT is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms.
What is the most important piece of equipment a security officer carries?
A. Handcuffs
B. Baton
C. Two-way radio
D. Keys
C. The TWO-WAY RADIO is the most important piece of equipment a security officer carries.
What two things should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used?
A. Helmets and preventative maintenance
B. Preventative maintenance program and shift-by-shift inspections
C. Supervisor inspections and helmets
D. Battery maintenance and inspections
B. PREVENTATIVE MAINTENANCE PROGRAM AND SHIFT-BY-SHIFT INSPECTIONS should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used.
Which of the following is the traditional style of uniform?
A. Business casual
B. Polo Shirt and slacks
C. Suits
D. Military or police
D. MILITARY OR POLICE is the traditional style of uniform.
Which agency governs radio transmissions?
A. FCC
B. TJC
C. EPA
D. IAHSS
A. The FCC governs radio transmissions.
Which is the most common source of identity theft from healthcare facilities?
A. Computer records
B. Unattended purses and wallets
C. Discarded paperwork
D. Hearing the information and copying it
B. UNATTENDED PURSES AND WALLETS are the most common source of identity theft from healthcare facilities.
Which of the following is NOT a common type of identity theft?
A. Theft of personal information
B. Social Engineering
C. Cyber crime
D. False identity
D. FALSE IDENTITY is NOT a common type of identity theft.
Which of the following describes when the criminal uses the victim’s personal information to create or open new financial accounts in the victim’s name?
A. Account hijacking
B. Credit card fraud
C. Database hacking
D. Computer viruses
A. ACCOUNT HIJACKING describes when the criminal uses the victim’s personal information to create or open new financial accounts in the victim’s name.
What is the best way to deter identity theft?
A. Duplicate information sources
B. No photocopying of information
C. Preventative education
D. Not using credit cards
C. PREVENTATIVE EDUCATION is the best way to deter identity theft.
Medical identity theft, in which a criminal uses another’s identity to receive medical treatment can result in what?
A. Medical costs charged to the identity theft victim, who did not receive the treatment
B. Potential insurance issues for the person whose personal information was used
C. A potentially dangerous situation by creation of a “stealth” patient with conflicting information
D. All of the above
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
When incidents expand, authority for performance of these functions may need to be delegated: Operations, Planning, Logistics, Finance/Administration. What are the personnel who perform these four management functions called?
A. Deputy Staff
B. Director Staff
C. Command Staff
D. General Staff
D. GENERAL STAFF = Operations, Planning, Logistics and Finance/Administration
Depending on the size and type of the incident or event, the Incident Commander may need to designate personnel to provide information, safety and liaison services for the entire organization. What are these people called?
A. Deputy Staff
B. Director Staff
C. Command Staff
D. General Staff
C. COMMAND STAFF = Information, Safety and Liaison
Which position is the only one always staffed in Incident Command System applications?
A. Operations Section Chief
B. Incident Commander
C. Information Officer
D. Branch Director
B. The INCIDENT COMMANDER is the only position always staffed in Incident Command System applications.
In an Incident Command System, which General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization and directs all tactical resources?
A. Finance/Administration
B. Logistics
C. Operations
D. Planning
C. On the General Staff in the Incident Command System, OPERATIONS conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization and directs all tactical resources.
In an Incident Command System, which Command Staff position is the conduit for all information to internal and external stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event?
A. Information Officer
B. Liaison Officer
C. Resource Officer
D. Safety Officer
A. On the Command Staff in the Incident Command System the INFORMATION OFFICER is the conduit for all information to internal and external stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event.
Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System?
A. Assuring the safety of responders and others
B. Assuring achievement of tactical objectives
C. Assuring efficient use of resources
D. Assuring constant communications between agencies
D. ASSURING CONSTANT COMMUNICATIONS BETWEEN AGENCIES is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System.
Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Incident Command System?
A. Common Terminology
B. Rigid, fixed use of personnel
C. Span of control abilities
D. Unity of Command
B. RIGID, FIXED USE OF PERSONNEL is NOT a basic feature of the Incident Command System.
The Job Action Sheet, of Job description, is the key to the Incident Command System’s scalability and ease of use. Which of the following does the Job Action Sheet NOT tell responding personnel?
A. What they are going to do
B. When they are going to do it
C. Who they will report to after they have done it
D. How long they are expected to maintain their function
D. The Job Action Sheet does NOT tell responding personnel HOW LONG THEY ARE EXPECTED TO MAINTAIN THEIR FUNCTION.
There are several external organizations that healthcare institutions collaborate with to maintain a safe environment. What is the common mission among them?
A. Provide training to healthcare employees
B. Continuously promote, improve and assure health and safety
C. Conduct a proactive risk assessment twice a year
D. Regulate MRI safety
B. The common mission among TJC, OSHA and CDC is to CONTINUOUSLY PROMOTE, IMPROVE AND ASSURE HEALTH AND SAFETY.
Identify the objective of the Safety Management program.
A. To improve organizational performance
B. To minimize accidents and injuries
C. To reduce or control costs for Workers’ Compensation
D. To assist in compliance documentation
E. All of the above
E. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Standard precautions are a set of precautions called for by the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention to minimize the risk of infection. Which of the following is NOT covered under standard precautions?
A. Blood and body fluids
B. Secretions
C. Non-intact skin
D. Mucous membranes
E. Sweat
E. SWEAT is NOT covered under standard precautions.
What is the most important concept to remember in MRI safety?
A. The magnet is always on. It is never off. It is always a magnet
B. The MRI uses radio frequencies
C. Security should never enter Zone I
D. A controlled quench can be performed by the technologist.
A. THE MAGNET IS ALWAYS ON. IT IS NEVER OFF. IT IS ALWAYS A MAGNET is the most important concept to remember in MRI safety.
What does the acronym ROARR stand for?
A. Remember, Observe, Act, Record, and React
B. Report, observe, anticipate, react or recommend
C. Retreat, order, alert, remember or record
D. None of the above
A. The acronym ROARR stands for: REPORT, OBSERVE, ANTICIPATE, REACT OR RECOMMEND.
Report what you Observed –
Anticipate impact on the facility
React to the situation, or
Recommend a solution
The fourth stage of fire – after the incipient stage, smoldering stage and flame stage – is what?
A. Heat stage
B. Extinguished stage
C. Burning stage
D. Fuel stage
A. HEAT is the fourth stage of fire – after the incipient stage, smoldering stage and flame stage.
Fire creates heat through many methods. Which of these is NOT a method by which fire spreads?
A. Radiation
B. Osmosis
C. Conduction
D. Convection
B. OSMOSIS is NOT a method by which fire spreads.
What does the acronym NFPA stand for?
A. National Federation of Protective Agencies
B. Northern Fire and Police Association
C. National Fire Protection Agency
D. None of the above
C. The acronym NFPA stands for NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION AGENCY.
A class B fire extinguisher is use to fight what kind of fire?
A. Flammable liquid fire
B. Paper fire
C. Electrical Fire
D. Wood Fire
A. A class B fire extinguisher is used to fight a FLAMMABLE LIQUID FIRE.
PASS is an acronym that describes what process?
A. How to activate a fire alarm
B How to respond to a fire
C. How to evacuate a building
D. How to use a fire extinguisher
D. PASS is an acronym that describes HOW TO USE A FIRE EXTINGUISHER. PULL, AIM, SQUEEZE, SWEEP
Which of the following is NOT a reason terrorists use suicide bombers?
A. Lack of an outfitted army
B. Final way to have their views heard
C. Most successful way of inflicting damage
D. Affects the least people
D. AFFECTS THE LEAST PEOPLE is NOT a reason terrorists use suicide bombers.
Which of the following prohibits the unlawful us of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government?
A. US Code of Federal Regulations
B. OSHA
C. TJC
D. USDHS
A. US CODE OF FEDERAL REGULATIONS prohibits the unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government.
Where can terrorism occur in the world?
A. Only in the Middle East
B. Only Third World countries
C. Anywhere in the world
D. Only in the US
C. Terrorism can occur ANYWHERE IN THE WORLD.
Which of the following is NOT one of the seven signs of terrorism?
A. Surveillance
B. Communication
C. Suspicious questioning
D. Acquiring supplies and assets
B. COMMUNICATION is NOT one of the seven signs of terrorism.
Which is the best method to control a bomb threat?
A. Wait for the threat to come in and see what happens
B. Call the public health department to handle
C. Relax because it is probably a hoax
D. Prepare before the threat is received
D. PREPARE BEFORE THE THREAT IS RECEIVED is the best method to control a bomb threat.
Which of the following categories is NOT part of a bomb threat plan?
A. Establishing authority
B. Search for the bomb
C. Pretension
D. Receiving the threat
C. PRETENSION is NOT part of a bomb threat plan.
What is the most common method of delivery of a bomb threat?
A. Called in to the media
B. By telephone at the facility
C. By email at the facility
D. Delivered in person to the facility
B. The most common method of delivery of a bomb threat is BY TELEPHONE AT THE FACILITY.
Which of the following is NOT a question on the Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist?
A. What does the bomb look like
B. Where is the bomb
C. What is your name
D. How old are you
D. HOW OLD ARE YOU is NOT a question on the Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist.
What is the recommended distance to evacuate in case of a bomb threat?
A. Radius of 100 to 200 feet
B. Radius of 200 to 300 feet
C. Radius of 300 to 600 feet
D. Radius of 500 to 1,000 feet
D. Radius of 500 to 1000 feet is the recommended distance to evacuate in case of a bomb threat.
Which phase of emergency management includes activities (such as training, exercises, and the acquisition of emergency equipment and supplies) that prepare the facility for an emergency.
A. Mitigation
B. Preparedness
C. Response
D. Recovery
B. PREPAREDNESS is the phase of emergency management that includes activities that prepare the facility for an emergency.
Which of these is an example of an internal event that could affect your medical center?
A. Loss of electricity
B. Major vehicle accident
C. Severe weather
D. Wild land fire
A. LOSS OF ELECTRICITY is an example of an internal event that could affect your medical center.
Which of these is NOT a community planning partner regarding the healthcare organization’s emergency program?
A. Health Department
B. Sheriff’s office
C. Local fire department
D. Local TV station
D. LOCAL TV STATION is NOT a community planning partner regarding the healthcare organization’s emergency program.
Which of these does The Joint Commission deem a critical area of the emergency management plan?
A. Communications
B. Food
C. Mortuary services
D. Decontamination
A. The Joint Commission deems COMMUNICATIONS to be a critical area of the emergency management plan.
Which of these are required in exercising the organization’s emergency management plan?
A. Monthly testing
B. Two exercises yearly
C. An exercise with actual patients
D. An exercise using a medical evacuation helicopter
B. TWO EXERCISES YEARLY are required in exercising the organization’s emergency management plan.
Which of these is an operational function of security officers during emergency situations?
A. Patient treatment
B. Crowd Control
C. Spokesperson to the media
D. Initiation of facility evacuation
B. CROWD CONTROL is an operational function of Security Officers during emergency situations.
What are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning?
A. Planning and preparation
B. Planning and response
C. Preparation and response
D. Preparation and documentation.
B. PLANNING AND RESPONSE are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning.
Which of the following is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance?
A. Availability of adequate staffing may be affected
B. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity
C. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected
D. Needed response by police and fire may be delayed
C. OUTSIDE SERVICES SUCH AS TRANSPORTATION AND DELIVERIES WILL NOT BE AFFECTED is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance.
Who should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks and streets?
A. Administration
B. Security
C. Facility personnel
D. Local law enforcement
D. LOCAL LAW ENFORCEMENT should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks and streets.
During a disturbance, which of these is a critical action to be taken by the facility?
A. Control access and validate all entering the building as necessary
B. Lock all doors so no one can leave or enter
C. Allow free access to building as if business as usual
D. Validate those entering the building only
A. During a disturbance, CONTROL ACCESS AND VALIDATE ALL ENTERING THE BUILDING AS NECESSARY is a critical action to be taken by the facility.
Which answer best describes security’s role in a workplace violence program?
A. Security is the sole department responsible for the workplace violence program
B. Security has virtually no role in the workplace violence program
C. Workplace violence programs are a partnership between security and many other healthcare disciplines
D. State and federal governments dictate the role of security in workplace violence programs
C. WORKPLACE VIOLENCE PROGRAMS ARE A PARTNERSHIP BETWEEN SECURITY AND MANY OTHER HEALTHCARE DISCIPLINES best describes security’s role in a workplace violence program.
The development of a workplace violence program should include which of these measurable indicators?
A. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers
B. Independent reviewers, opinions of elected officials, prior incidents
C. Employee surveys, environmental considerations, prior incidents
D. Employee surveys, independent reviewers, engineering input
A. The development of a workplace violence program should include these measurable indicators: EMPLOYEE SURVEYS, PRIOR INCIDENTS, AND INDEPENDENT REVIEWERS
A protection order is designed to do what?
A. Provide a legal mechanism to enforce no contact between victim and assailant
B. Begin the process of reconciliation between victim and assailant
C. Protect the physical well-being of the victim
D. All of the above
E. Both A and C
A. A protection order is designed to PROVIDE A LEGAL MECHANISM TO ENFORCE NO CONTACT BETWEEN VICTIM AND ASSAILANT.
Hostage situations have which of the following characteristics?
A. Events with no predictable chronology
B. People being held against their will
C. Release contingent on demands
D. All of the above
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
Which of the following best describe de-escalation techniques?
A. Do not provide limits
B. Do not spend time listening to the individual
C. Use listening skills and respond in a way that shows empathy
D. Both A and B
C. USE LISTENING SKILLS AND RESPOND IN A WAY THAT SHOWS EMPATHY best describe de-escalation techniques.
Which of the following is NOT a misdemeanor?
A. Simple assault
B. Trespass
C. Burglary
D. Vandalism
C. BURGLARY is NOT a misdemeanor.
What is the Constitutional foundation or grounds for most arrests and searches and seizures?
A. Probable Cause
B. Reasonable suspicion
C. Search and seizure
D. Stop and frisk
A. PROBABLE CAUSE is the Constitutional foundation or grounds for most arrests and searches and seizures.
Which of the following is the definition of an interview?
A. Questioning a party whom the officer suspects of criminal involvement
B. Questioning a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect
C. Questioning a suspect under circumstances wherein the suspect would feel under control of the officer
D. Questioning family members of a suspect
B. The definition of an interview is QUESTIONING A PARTY WHOM THE OFFICER HAS NO REASON TO BELIEVE IS A SUSPECT
Security officers face sanctions under criminal law if they violate the constitutional or civil rights of a party or engage in criminal acts. The sanctions are in which two areas?
A. Constitutional and civil rights
B. Judicial and constitutional rights
C. Civil and judicial rights
D. Civil and personal rights
A. Security officers face sanctions in two areas: CONSTITUTIONAL AND CIVIL RIGHTS
According to statistics published by the National Association of Security Companies, how many states have NO regulation for security officers?
A. 26
B. 10
C. 5
D. 8
B. TEN states have NO regulation for security officers.
Proprietary security officers operate under which authority to act?
A. Agent of the owner
B. Conservator of the peace
C. Contractual authority
D. Sworn officer of peace
A. Proprietary security officers operate as AGENT OF THE OWNER for their authority to act.
How many federal laws regulate private security?
A. 15
B. 10
C. 4
D. 0
D. There are ZERO federal laws to regulate private security.
Why are security cameras NOT allowed to be placed in a locker room?
A. Hard to install without being seen
B. No probable cause
C. Invasion of privacy
D. Must search the area first
C. INVASION OF PRIVACY explains why security cameras are NOT allowed to be placed in a locker room.
Which of the following is a physical environment consideration, as defined by The Joint Commission?
A. Staffing competency
B. Medical records
C. Life safety
D. Patient privacy
C, LIFE SAFETY is a physical environment consideration as defined by The Joint Commission.
Which standard of the OSHA directly affects healthcare?
A. Hearing protection
B. Hazard communications
C. Electrical safety
D. Fire safety
B. HAZARD COMMUNICATIONS is the standard of the OSHA that directly affects healthcare.
An MSDS is what?
A. A Material Safety Definition Sheet
B. A Material Situation Definition Sheet
C. A Material Safety Data Sheet
D. A Material System Data Sheet
C. An MSDS is a MATERIAL SAFETY DATA SHEET.
Which agency publishes the Life Safety Code?
A. OSHA
B. TJC
C. EPA
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA).
D. The NATIONAL FIRE PROTECTION ASSOCIATION (NFPA) publishes the Life Safety Code.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended method of building a good relationship with law enforcement?
A. Demonstrating a professional approach
B. Allowing entry into a crime scene
C. Preparing complete and accurate documentation
D. Offering assistance whenever feasible
B. ALLOWING ENTRY INTO A CRIME SCENE is NOT a recommended method of building a good relationship with law enforcement.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a way law enforcement can help healthcare security personnel?
A. Information exchange
B. Crime prevention
C. Response to requests for assistance
D. Taking over the situation when not asked
D. TAKING OVER THE SITUATION WHEN NOT ASKED is NOT an example of a way law enforcement can help healthcare security personnel.
Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff?
A. OSHA
B. EPA
C. TJC
D. NFPA
C. THE JOINT COMMISSION requires the hospital to train forensic staff.
Good working relationships are based on the following?
A. Mutual respect and an understanding of each agency’s basic function.
B. Willingness to allow others to do the job
C. The need for assistance due to low staffing
D. Policies and procedures
A. Good working relationships are based on MUTUAL RESPECT AND AN UNDERSTANDING OF EACH AGENCY’S BASIC FUNCTION.
The basic structure of a typical healthcare organization resembles a
a. Circle
b. Pentagon
c. Pyramid
d. Straight line
b. Pyramid
The most primary overriding concern of any security department should be
a. Its image
b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility
c. The goals and mission if the entity employing the security services
d. Cost-effectiveness
b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility
Which accreditation body provides standards to address Environment of Care, Emergency Management, and Life Safety in the healthcare environment?
a. The Joint Commission (TJC)
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
c. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
d. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE)
a. The Joint Commission (TJC)
According to IAHSS Hospital Crime Survey, assaults have
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. Remained the same
d. Become less violent
a. Increased
What are the two types of criminal acts?
a. Burglaries and Felonies
b. Misdemeanors and Felonies
c. Larceny and Misconduct
d. Misdemeanors and Larceny
b. Misdemeanors and Felonies
Business offices are often measured by:
a. Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs)
b. The admission process
c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days)
d. The physician survey
c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days)
Which of the following is a security issue for employees of support or ancillary services?
a. Well staffed during the day
b. Isolated at night
c. Mix of certified and non-certified employees
d. Located in the center of the facility
b. Isolated at night
Which of the following defines property risk:
a. Lawsuits brought about by action or inaction, including negligent security or safety hazards
b. Loss of staff due to perception of an unsafe environment
c. The healthcare organizations inability to perform one or many of its normal functions, leading to the inability to generate income
d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies
d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies
What three components make up the Access Control Triad?
a. Identification systems, staff education & training, badging
b. Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards
c. Staff education & training, video surveillance, physical security safeguards
d. Identification systems, proprietary logo usage, staff education & training
b. Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards
What two things should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used?
a. Helmets and preventative maintenance programs
b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections
c. Supervisor inspections and helmets
d. Battery maintenance and inspections
b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections
Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System?
a. Assuring the safety of responders and others
b. Assuring achievement of tactical objectives
c. Assuring efficient use of resources
d. Assuring constant communication between agencies
d. Assuring constant communication between agencies
Standard precautions are a set of precautions that the CDC had called for in order to minimize the risk of infection. Which of the following is NOT covered under standard precautions?
a. Blood and body fluids
b. Mucous membranes
c. Non-intact skin
d. Sweat
d. Sweat
A class B fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire?
a. Flammable liquid fire
b. Paper fire
c. Electrical fire
d. Wood fire
a. Flammable liquid fire
Which is the best method to control a bomb threat?
a. Wait for the threat to come in and see what happens
b. Call the public health department to handle
c. Relax because it is probably a hoax
d. Prepare before the threat is received
d. Prepare before the threat is received
The Joint Commission (TJC) requires how many disaster drills each year?
a. Three
b. One
c. Two
d. Six
c. Two
The measurable indications that workplace violence programs should include are:
a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers
b. Independent reviewers, opinions of elected officials, prior incidents
c. Employee surveys, environmental considerations, prior incidents
d. Employee surveys, independent reviewers, engineering input
a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers
Which of the following is NOT a misdemeanor?
a. Simple assault
b. Trespass
c. Burglary
d. Vandalism
c. Burglary
According to statistics published by the National Association of Security Companies, how many states have NO regulations for security officers?
a. Twelve
b. Ten
c. Five
d. Eight
b. Ten
Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff?
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
c. The Joint Commission (TJC)
d.National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
c. The Joint Commission (TJC)
The Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards addresses how many areas?
a. Seven
b. Six
c. Four
d. Eight
a. Seven
Which of the following is the definition of an interview?
a. Questioning a party whom the officer suspects of criminal involvement
b. Questioning a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect
c. Questioning a suspect under the circumstances wherein the suspect would feel under the control of the officer
d. Questioning family members of a suspect
b. Questioning a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect
Hostage situations have which of the following characteristics?
a. Events with no predictable chronology
b. People being held against their will
c. Release contingent upon demands
d. Each of these
d. Each of these
What are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning?
a. Planning and Preparation
b. Planning and Response
c. Preparation and Response
d. Preparation and Documentation
a. Planning and Preparation
How many room sweeps are suggested to properly conduct a bomb search?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7
a. 4
Which of the following is NOT one of the seven signs of terrorism?
a. Surveillance
b. Communication
c. Test of security
d. Acquiring supplies and assets
b. Communication
The fourth stage of a fire – after the incipient stage, smoldering stage, and the flame stage – is what?
a. Heat stage
b. Extinguished stage
c. Burning stage
d. Fuel stage
a. Heat stage
The four phases in Emergency Management are:
a. Funding, Mitigation, Recovery, Rescue
b. Preparedness, Recovery, Mitigation, Rescue
c. Recovery, Response, Mitigation, Safety
d. Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery
d. Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery
Which is the most common source of identity theft from healthcare facilities?
a. Computer records
b. Unattended purses and wallets
c. Discarded paperwork
d. Hearing the information and copying it
b. Unattended purses and wallets
Which of the following defines vulnerability?
a. The act of being physically wounded
b. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage
c. Possibility of a loss
d. The act of being attacked
b. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage
The security department is considered which type of department?
a. Support
b. Clinical
c. Direct Patient Care
d. Service
a. Support
The areas with the highest potential for hostage taking are:
a. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Pharmacy
b. ICU, PCU, Obstetrics, Administration
c. Engineering, Administration, Finance, Obstetrics
d. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Admitting
a. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Pharmacy
Which of the following do NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities?
a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
b. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
d. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
b. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
The best way to avoid loss of patient valuables is:
a. Lock them up
b. Inventory them
c. Place into a safe with double lock and key
d. Discourage from bringing valuables into the facility
d. Discourage from bringing valuables into the facility
Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security?
a. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
b. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
c. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)
d. Department of Public Health (DPH)
a. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
You cannot effectively patrol a facility unless you are:
a. Are looking good
b. Are prepared
c. Are finished eating
d. Have your radio
b. Are prepared
Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff?
a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
c. The Joint Commission (TJC)
d. National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
The Joint Commission (TJC)
Which of the following is a physical environment consideration, as defined by the Joint Commission?
a. Staffing competency
b. Medical records
c. Life safety
d. Patient privacy
c. Life safety
Security officers face sanctions under criminal law if they violate the constitutional or civil rights of a party or engage in criminal acts. The sanctions are in which two areas?
a. Constitutional and Civil Rights
b. Judicial and Constitutional Rights
c. Civil and Judicial Rights
d. Civil and Personal Rights
a. Constitutional and Civil Rights
Which answer best describes security’s role in a workplace violence program?
a. Security is the sole department responsible for the workplace violence program
b. Security has virtually no role in the workplace violence program
c. Workplace violence programs are a partnership between security and many other healthcare disciplines
d. State and federal governments dictate the role of security in workplace violence programs
c. Workplace violence programs are a partnership between security and many other healthcare disciplines
A protection order is designed to do what?
a. Provide a legal mechanism to enforce no contact between victim and assailant
b. Begin the process of reconciliation between victim and assailant
c. Protect the physical well being of the victim
d. Both A and C
d. Both A and C
Which of the following best describe de-escalation techniques:
a. Do not provide limits
b. Do not spend time listening to the individual
c. Use listening skills and respond in a way that shows empathy
d. Both A and B
c. Use listening skills and respond in a way that shows empathy
Which of the following is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance?
a. Availability of adequate staffing may be affected
b. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity
c. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected
d. Needed response by police and fire may be delayed
c. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected
Who should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks or streets?
a. Administration
b. Security
c. Facility personnel
d. Local law enforcement
d. Local law enforcement
During a disturbance, which of these is a critical action to be taken by the facility?
a. Control access and validate all entering the building as necessary
b. Lock all doors so no one can leave or enter
c. Allow free access to building as if business as usual
d. Validate those entering the building only
a. Control access and validate all entering the building as necessary
Which of these is an example of an internal event that could affect your medical center?
a. Loss of electricity
b. Major vehicle accident
c. Severe weather
d. Wild land fires
a. Loss of electricity
Which of these is NOT a community planning partner regarding the healthcare organization’s emergency program?
a. Health department
b. Sheriff’s office
c. Local fire department
d. Local TV station
d. Local TV station
Which of these does The Joint Commission deem a critical area of the emergency management plan?
a. Communication
b. Food
c. Mortuary
d. Decontamination
a. Communication
Which of these are required in exercising the organization’s emergency management plan?
a. Monthly testing
b. Two exercises yearly
c. An exercise with actual patients
d. An exercise using a medical evacuation helicopter
b. Two exercises yearly
Which of these is an operational function of security officers during emergency situations?
a. Patient treatment
b. Crowd control
c. Spokesperson to the media
d. Initiation of facility evacuation
b. Crowd control
Which of the following categories is NOT part of a bomb threat plan?
a. Establishing authority
b. Searching for the bomb
c. Pretension
d. Receiving the threat
c. Pretension
What is the most common delivery of a bomb threat?
a. Called into the media
b. By phone at the facility
c. By email at the facility
d. Delivered in person to the facility
b. By phone at the facility
Which of the following is NOT a question on the Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist?
a. What does the bomb look like?
b. Where is the bomb?
c. What is your name?
d. How old are you?
d. How old are you?
What is the recommended distance to evacuate in case of a bomb threat?
a. Radius of 100 to 200 feet
b. Radius of 200 to 300 feet
c. Radius of 300 to 600 feet
d. Radius of 500 to 1000 feet
d. Radius of 500 to 1000 feet
Which of the following is NOT a reason terrorists use suicide bombers?
a. Lack of an outfitted army
b. Final way to have their views hears
c. Most successful way of inflicting damage
d. Affects the least people
d. Affects the least people
Which of the following prohibits the unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government?
a. US Code of Federal Regulations
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
c. The Joint Commission
d. US Department of Homeland Security
a. US Code of Federal Regulations
What does the acronym ROARR stand for?
a. Remember, Observe, Act, Record, React
b. Report, Observe, Anticipate, React or Recommend
c. Retreat, Order, Alert, Remember or Record
d. None of the above
b. Report, Observe, Anticipate, React or Recommend
Fire creates heat through many methods, Which of these is NOT a method by which fire spreads?
a. Radiation
b. Osmosis
c. Conduction
d. Convection
b. Osmosis
What does the acronym NFPA stand for?
a. National Federation of Protective Agencies
b. Northern Fire and Police Association
c. National Fire and Protection Agency
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
(National Fire and Protection Association)
PASS is an acronym that describes what process?
a. How to activate a fire alarm
b. How to respond to a fire
c. How to evacuate a building
d. How to use a fire extinguisher
d. How to use a fire extinguisher
(pull, aim, squeeze, sweep)
A class A fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire?
a. Flammable liquid fire
b. Ordinary combustible materials
c. Electrical fire
d. Grease fire
b. Ordinary combustible materials
(paper, wood, fabric)
A class C fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire?
a. Flammable liquid fire
b. Paper fire
c. Electrical fire
d. Wood fire
c. Electrical fire
A class D fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire?
a. Flammable liquid fire
b. Flammable metals fire
c. Electrical fire
d. Wood fire
b. Flammable metals fire
There are several external organizations that healthcare institutions collaborate with to maintain a safe environment. What is the common mission among them?
a. Provide training to healthcare employees
b. Continuously promote, improve, and assure health and safety
c. Conduct a proactive risk assessment twice a year
d. Regulate MRI safety
b. Continuously promote, improve, and assure health and safety
Identify the object of the Safety Management Program.
a. To improve organizational performance
b. To minimize accidents and injuries
c. To reduce or control costs for Workers’ Compensation
d. To assist in compliance documentation
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
When incidents expand, authority for performance of these functions may need to be delegated: Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration. What are the personnel who perform these four management functions called?
a. Deputy staff
b. Director staff
c. Command staff
d. General staff
d. General staff
Depending on the type and size of the incident or event, the Incident Commander may need to designate personnel to provide information, safety, and liaison services for the entire organization. What are these personnel called?
a. Deputy staff
b. Director staff
c. Command staff
d. General staff
c. Command staff
Which position is the only one always staffed in Incident Command System applications?
a. Operations Section Chief
b. Incident Commander
c. Information Officer
d. Branch Director
b. Incident Commander
In an Incident Command System, which General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization, and directs all tactical resources?
a. Finance/Administration
b. Logistics
c. Operations
d. Planning
c. Operations
In an Incident Command System, which Command Staff position is the conduit for information to internal and external stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event?
a. Information Officer
b. Liaison Officer
c. Resource Officer
d. Safety Officer
a. Information Officer
Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Incident Command System?
a. Common terminology
b. Rigid, fixed use of personnel
c. Span of control abilities
d. Unity of command
b. Rigid, fixed use of personnel
Which of the following is NOT a common type of identity theft?
a. Theft of personal items
b. Social engineering
c. Cyber crime
d. False identity
d. False identity
Which of the following describes when the criminal uses the victim’s personal information to create or open new financial accounts in the victim’s name?
a. Account hijacking
b. Credit card fraud
c. Database hacking
d. Computer viruses
a. Account hijacking
What is the best way to deter identity theft?
a. Duplicate information sources
b. No photocopying of information
c. Preventative education
d. Not using credit cards
c. Preventative education
What is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms?
a. A needs assessment
b. The type of weapon
c. Which state your facility is in
d. How large a staff in the security force
a. A needs assessment
Which of the following describes the outer zone in the theory of protection?
a. Generally, the boundary of the property
b. Footprint of the actual structure
c. Inside the structure
d. Footprint of the inside of the structure
a. Generally, the boundary of the property
Which of the following describes the basic functions of lock sets?
a. Manual, Office, Classroom, Storage, Passage
b. Classroom, Electronic, Storage, Privacy, Passage
c. Office, Classroom, Storage, Privacy, Passage
d. Keyless, Office, Storage, Privacy, Passage
c. Office, Classroom, Storage, Privacy, Passage
Which of the following greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system?
a. Signage
b. Magnetic locks
c. Magnetic swipe cards
d. Fences
a. Signage
Which of the following describes the middle zone in the theory of protection?
a. Generally, the boundary of the property
b. Footprint of the actual structure
c. Inside the structure
d. Footprint of the inside of the structure
b. Footprint of the actual structure
Which of the following describes the inner zone in the theory of protection?
a. Generally, the boundary of the property
b. Footprint of the actual structure
c. Footprint of the inside of the structure
d. Inside the structure that is being protected
d. Inside the structure that is being protected
Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance?
a. Call for medical, security backup, or police assistance, if required
b. Observe or identify the person(s) causing the disturbance, and provide area and crowd control
c. Step up to the person(s)
d. Notify your supervisor or appropriate facility personnel per policy
c. Step up to the person(s)
Which of the following are examples of schedule I substances?
a. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
c. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine)
d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances?
a. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
d. Tylenol, Aspirin, Xanax
d. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
Which of the following are examples of schedule III substances?
a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
Which of the following are examples of schedule IV substances?
a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
c. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
d. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
c. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
Which of the following are examples of schedule V substances?
a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
b. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine)
c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
b. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine)
Access to patient information is limited to those who “need to know” by which of the following?
a. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS)
c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Which of the following should be protected by bollards?
a. Sidewalks
b. Curbs
c. Hydrants
d. Trees
c. Hydrants
When placing a person in handcuffs:
a. Place cuffs really tight
b. Place hands behind the back
c. Place hands with palms together
d. Do not double lock them
b. Place hands behind the back