HESI Comprehensive Exam 1 Questions and
Answers 2023 (Verified Answers)
1.Which item can be used as an indicator of the quality of the diagnostic xray beam ANS Kilovoltage peak (kVp)
2.Which condition represents the most likely indication for an
anteroposterior (AP) chest projection with the patient in the left lateral
decubitis position ANS – Effusion of the left lung
3.Which action is best taught to the patient using the communication
tech- nique of demonstration ANS The correct positioning for a
particular projection
4.Where is edge enhancement post processing most helpful in digital
radiog- raphy ANS Low contrast studies
5.Which is the most likely cause of a histogram error ANS Selection of an
incorrect exam from the look-up table
6.During preparation for a surgical procedure, an unopened sterile package
becomes damp from an accidental spill of saline. Which response is most
appropriate ANS Consider the package contaminated and replace it with
a sterile item.
7.Which is the most appropriate guideline to follow when
radiographing patients in their late adult years ANS Speak slowly and
in a low tone of voice
8.What is the term for the adjustment of image brightness, regardless
of exposure received ANS Rescaling
9.How does an increase in nose affect the quality of a digital image ANS
Contrast is decreased
10.A patient in the radiology department suddenly develops a nosebleed.
The radiographer instruct the patient to lean forward and pinch the
affected nostril against the midline nasal cartilage, but the bleeding does
not stop. What should the radiographer do next ANS Apply a moist
compress
11.Which position should a patient be placed in immediately following
a seizure ANS Lateral recumbent
12.How can magnification of the heart be reduced when performing a
chest x-ray ANS Using 72 in SID
13.Which accurately describes the radiation dose absorbed by bone
mar- row ANS The dose will be less than the entrance skin exposure
14.What is the function of a rectifier ANS Convert alternating current to
pulsating direct current
15.How often should lead aprons be evaluated to determine if crack or
holes are present ANS Annually
- A lateral L5/S1 lumbosacral junction is performed with the CR
directed 2 inches anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and 1 1/2 inches
inferior to the
iliac crest. Which statement describes this method ANS The central ray will
be well anterior to the L5/S1 junction
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HESI Comprehensive Exam 1 Questions
and Answers 2023 (Verified Answers)
1.A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure
during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the
client to receive that is at least likely to exacerbate asthma ANS Metoprolol
tartrate (Lopres- sor)
Best antihypertensive med for asthmatics. Beta2 blocking agent — alsoa cardiose- lective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction.
2.A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months
tells the nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication
because his blood pressure has been normal for the past 3 months. Which
instruction should the nurse provide ANS Ask the healthcare provider
about tapering the drug dose over the next week.
HCP discontinued drug BUT measures to prevent rebound cardiacexcitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over 1 or 2 weeks,should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension,and ventricular dysrhythmias.
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3.A client who is taking clonidine ( Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness.
Which additional assessment should the nurse make ANS How long has
the client been taking the medication?
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine
and with continued use becomes less intense, so the length of time the
client has been on the medication provides information to direct
additional instruction.
4.The nurse is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to aclient who is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse toexplain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best forthe nurse to provide ANS Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgeryAtropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the
automaticity of the sinoatrial node and prevent a dangerous
reduction in heart rate during surgical anesthesia.
5.An 80-year old client is given morphine sulfate for post-op pain. Whichcon- comitant med should the nurse question that poses a potentialdevelopment of urinary retention in this geriatric client ANS Tricyclicantidepressants
Drugs with anticholinergic properties can exacerbate urinary retention
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associated with opioids in the older client.
- A client with osteoarthritis is given a new script for a NSAID. The clientasks the nurse, “How is this med different from the acetaminophen I havebeen
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taking?” Which information about the therapeutic action of NSAIDs should
the nurse provide ANS Provide anti-inflammatory response
NSAIDs relieve pain associated with osteoarthritis and differs from
acetaminophen(a non-narcotic & antipyretic). Also potentially
hepatotoxic.
7.A client with cancer has a history of alcohol abuse and is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. Which organ function is most important for
the nurse to monitor ANS Liver
Acetaminophen & alcohol both metabolized in the liver. Pt at risk of
hepatotoxicity & potentially fatal liver damage.
8.The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a BP of 110/76 prior to
administering a scheduled does of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial
flutter. Which action should the nurse implement ANS Administer the dose as prescribed.
Verapamil slows SA nodal automaticity, delays AV nodal conduction,
slowing ven- tricular rate & treats atrial flutter. HR is above 60 and BP
is WNL.
9.A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes
mellitus and influenza. Which categories of illness should the nurse
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HESI Comprehensive Exam 1 Study Guide
2023 (Verified Answers)
1.Anti-hypertensive for a client with asthma: Metoprolol tartrate
(lopressor) car- dioselective beta 2 blocking agent.
2.Client taking propranolol for 18 months is d/c’d. Nursing instructions:
taper down the drug over the next week.
rebound cardiac excitation.
3.taking clonidine reports drowsiness. What additional assessment.: how
long has the client been taking the medication.
side effects become less intense over time.
4.administering atropine for surgery. what rationale: decrease risk for
bradycar- dia.
increase the automaticity of SA node.
- 80-year-old client given morphine sulfate.
which concurrent medication have potential for urinary retention.:
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TCAs. anticholinergic = potentiate urinary retention.
6.Client with OA has new NSAID rx. different from acetaminophen:
provide anti-inflammatory response.
7.ETHO abuse and acetaminphen = organ fx:
liver. both are detoxed in the liver.
8.HR 92 and BP 110/76. Giver verapamil for AFib.: give dose,
9.Type II DM and influenza: one chronic and one acute.
10.Post C section , why breastfeed?: stimulate ctx of uterus, to prevent
uterine hemmorrhage.
11.Severe PPD admitted inpatient psych: supervise guided visits.
bonding, but safe.
12.16-year-old fractured bone. HCP explains surgery, what action is implemented for valid informed consent.: obtain permission of the custodial
parents for the surgery
13.Client says, I can’t walk” what action is implemented first?: ID the
problem.
14.Nursing Dx of imbalanced nutrition, less than. short term goal: eat 50%
of six small meals each day by the end of one week.
15.Male client leaving AMA, requests chart.: The chart is the property
3 /
of the hospital, can make a copy.
16.priority in planning a schedule for nursing activities: medication
admin. based on time-sensitive schedule.
17.planning and providing direct car to a group of clients over a 24
hour period.: primary nursing.
model of delivery of care where a nurse is planning care for clients
around the clock.
18.UAPs are arguing: deal with the issues not the
personalities. concrete, non emotional
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HESI Comprehensive Practice Exam 1 Questions
and Answers 2023 (Verified Answers)
1.A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure
during a clinic visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the
client to receive that is least likely to exacerbate asthma ANS The best
antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor)(C), a beta2 blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely
to cause bronchoconstriction. Pindolol
(A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase
asthmatic symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking
agent and an effective an- tihypertensive agent used in managing
angina, it can increase a client’s risk for bronchoconstriction due to
its nonselective beta blocker action. Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs, causing bronchoconstriction, and is
not indicated in clients with asthma and other obstructive
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pulmonary disorders.
2.A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months
tells the nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication
because his blood pressure has been normal for the past three months.
Which instruc- tion should the nurse provide ANS Although the healthcare
provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent rebound
cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to
two weeks (C), should be recommended to prevent rebound
tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt
cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate
tachycardia and rebound hypertension, so gradual weaning should be
recommended. (D) is not indicated.
3.A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness.
Which additional assessment should the nurse make ANS How long has
the client been taking the medication?
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine
and with continued use becomes less intense, so the length of time the
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client has been on the medication (A) provides information to direct
additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
4.The nurse is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to aclient who is scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse toexplain the reason for the prescribed medication. What response is best forthe nurse to provide ANS Decrease the risk of bradycardia duringsurgery.
5.An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain.
Which concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in this geriatric client ANS Drugs
with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C),
can exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in the older
client. Although tricyclic an- tidepressants and antihistamines with
opioids can exacerbate urinary retention, the concurrent use of (A and
B) with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory
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agents (D) can increase the risk for bleeding, but do not increase
urinary retention with opioids (D).
6.A client with osteoarthritis is given a new prescription for a nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drug (NSAID). The client asks the nurse, “How is this
medica- tion different from the acetaminophen I have been taking?” Which
information about the therapeutic action of NSAIDs should the nurse
provide ANS Provide antiinflammatory response.
7.A client with cancer has a history of alcohol abuse and is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain. Which organ function is most important for the
nurse to monitor ANS Acetaminophen and alcohol are both metabolized
in the liver. This places the client at risk for hepatotoxicity, so
monitoring liver (A) function is the most important assessment because
the combination of acetaminophen and alcohol, even in moderate
amounts, can cause potentially fatal liver damage. Other non-narcotic
analgesics, such as n onsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), are
more likely to promote adverse renal effects (B). Acetaminophen does
not place the client at risk for toxic reactions related to (C or D).
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HESI Comprehensive Exit Exam 1 Questions
and Answers 2023 (Verified Answers)
- The nurse is monitoring neurological vital signs for a male client who
lost consciousness after falling and hitting his head. Which assessment
finding is the earliest and most sensitive indication of altered cerebral
function?
a. Unequal pupils.
b. Loss of central reflexes.
c. Inability to open the eyes.
d. Change in level of consciousness ANS D
(Neurological vital signs include serial assessments of TPR, blood
pressure, and components of the Glasgow coma scale (GCS), which
includes verbal, muscu- loskeletal, and pupillary responses. A change in
the client’s level of consciousness, as indicated by responses to
commands during the GCS, is the first and the most sensitive sign of
change in cerebral function. The other assessment data choices are latesigns of altered cerebral function.) - A nurse is planning to teach self-care measures to a female client about
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prevention of yeast infections. Which instructions should the nurse
provide?
a. Use a douche preparation no more than once a month.
b. Increase daily intake of fiber and leafy green vegetables.
c. Select nylon underwear that is loose-fitting, white, and comfortable.
d. Avoid tight-fitting clothing and do not use bubble-bath or bath salts ANS D(A common genital tract infection in females is candidiasis, which is an
overgrowth of the normal vaginal flora of Candida albicans that thrives
in an environment that is warm and moist and is perpetuated by tightfitting clothing, underwear, or pantyhose made of nonabsorbent
materials. The client should wear clothing that is loose fitting and
absorbent, such as cotton underwear, and avoid using bubble-bath or
bath salts which further irritate sensitive genital tissue. Douching is not
recommended because it can irritate vaginal tissue, alter pH, and
contribute to fungal growth. While increasing dietary fiber intake
encourages healthy, nutritional guidelines, it is not the focus of the
teaching. Cotton, not nylon undergarments, provide absorbancy and
reduce moisture in the perineal area.)
- A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit.What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
a. Place an isolation cart in the hallway.
b. Fit the client with a respirator mask.
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c. Don a clean gown for client care.
d. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room ANS D
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(Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions,
so the client should be assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room.
Although isolation gowns and isolation carts should be implemented for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air
flow from the room is minimized when the client has TB. The respirator
mask should be implemented when the client leaves the isolation
environment.)
- The nurse is planning to conduct nutritional assessments and dietteaching to clients at a family health clinic. Which individual has the greatestnutritional and energy demands?
a. A pregnant woman.
b. A teenager beginning puberty.
c. A 3-month-old infant.
d. A school-aged child ANS A
A pregnant woman’s metabolic demands are 20 to 24% more than the
basic meta- bolic rate. The other clients require only 15 to 20% more
than the basic metabolic rate. - What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care
of a group of clients over a 24-hour period?
a.Team nursing.
b. Primary nursing.
c. Case management.