NASM CNC Final Exam with 100% Correct Answers 2023

NASM CNC Final Exam with 100%
Correct Answers 2023
When working with a client who has been complaining of low back pain that has been
getting worse, what is the most appropriate recommendation?
A. Refer her to a certified personal trainer.
B. Tell her to use a heating pad when the pain gets bad.
C. Refer her to a chiropractor.
D. Recommend use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications. – Correct
answer-C. Refer her to a chiropractor.
With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work?
A. Elite clients competing in a national Ironman
B. Clients who want testing for vitamin deficiency
C. Clients with inconsistent weight loss and gain
D. Clients trying an elimination diet to identify food sensitivities – Correct answer-C.
Clients with inconsistent weight loss and gain
According to the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach, which is an example of an
appropriate resource for determining daily caloric intake?
A. ADA calculations based on age, gender, and activity level
B. Body type and cultural preferences
C. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
D. The Nutrition Coach cannot assist with daily caloric intake. – Correct answer-C.
Dietary Guidelines for Americans
During a regular meeting, a client is complaining of irregular gastrointestinal issues,
ranging from diarrhea to constipation. What is the best course of action?
A. Closely monitor his situation and re-evaluate during the next meeting.
B. Evaluate his prescription medications to look for similar side effects.
C. Advise him to eat more vegetables and drink more water.
D. Advise him to make an appointment with his personal physician. – Correct answer-D.
Advise him to make an appointment with his personal physician.
A new client has just moved into the area. She states that she occasionally suffers from
anxiety and panic attacks and needs to renew her prescription medications. To which
healthcare professional should she be referred?
A. Podiatrist

B. Physiologist
C. Physiotherapist
D. Psychiatrist – Correct answer-D. Psychiatrist
One of the roles of a Nutrition Coach is to help facilitate weight loss. Which of the
following would be most appropriate to recommend for the overweight client?
A. Limit carbohydrates to 35% of the diet.
B. Give up bread and avoid gluten.
C. Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program.
D. Drink a protein shake instead of eating lunch. – Correct answer-C. Refer to a certified
personal trainer for a resistance training program.
Where should client files be kept to ensure client confidentiality?
A. In an electronic version only
B. With the client
C. In the manager’s office
D. In a locked and secure location – Correct answer-D. In a locked and secure location
A Nutrition Coach has been working with an overweight client for 6 weeks. During the
most recent weight-in, they discover that she has lost 27 pounds. What is the best
course of action for the Nutrition Coach?
A. Congratulate her for a job well done.
B. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits.
C. Add an additional 300-500 calories to her daily intake.
D. Suggest she limit her exercise to twice per week. – Correct answer-B. Informally
question her about common eating disorder traits/habits.
According to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, what is the minimum number of
positive answers which might indicate an eating disorder?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5 – Correct answer-B. 2
A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted
on her Health History Questionnaire that she has never been able to maintain
permanent weight loss and confides that she has made herself throw up after eating
large meals. What is the best course of action?
A. Refer her to a clinical psychologist.
B. Tell her she has bulimia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.

C. Tell her she may have anorexia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder
Specialist.
D. Move forward with the client sessions but monitor her closely for any more selfinduced vomiting. – Correct answer-A. Refer her to a clinical psychologist
With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work?
A. Overweight client who wants to train for a 10K
B. Client who wants nutrition therapy for cancer prevention
C. Pre-pubescent teenager who is overweight
D. Client who wants accountability during a 9-week extreme calorie-restricted diet –
Correct answer-A. Overweight client who wants to train for a 10K
Which of the following can a Nutrition Coach provide?
A. Nutritional advice and behavioral modification
B. Nutritional advice and behavioral counseling
C. Nutritional advice and behavioral prognosis
D. Nutritional advice and behavioral prescriptions – Correct answer-A. Nutritional advice
and behavioral modification
To ensure the client is retaining any shared information, it is important that the content
presented is perceived to be important and what other quality?
A. Easy to understand
B. Based on prior experience
C. Delivered slowly
D. Reviewed several times – Correct answer-B. Based on prior experience
Any research article on diet and nutrition should be scrutinized for which of the
following?
A. Reliability and validity
B. References and values
C. Resources and volume
D. Recall and verbiage – Correct answer-A. Reliability and validity
To ensure the client is retaining any shared information, it is important that the content
presented is highly relevant and what other quality?
A. Pertinent
B. Practical
C. Brief
D. Visual – Correct answer-B. Practical
Which statement best describes the healthcare continuum?

A. The health status of a client from sickness to wellness
B. The many disciplines that make up the healthcare system
C. The number of physician specialists that are in the healthcare system
D. The type of alternative health practices that are legitimately recognized – Correct
answer-B. The many disciplines that make up the healthcare system
A new client is 6-weeks post-partum. She states that she has very little energy and feels
sadness most of the time. What is the most appropriate course of action?
A. Call 911.
B. Contact her spouse to discuss options.
C. Refer her to a clinical psychiatrist.
D. Closely monitor her situation. – Correct answer-C. Refer her to a clinical psychiatrist.
Which statement is within the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach?
A. Design a 5-day meal plan for a healthy client.
B. Recommend the client discuss supplement usage and dosing with their pharmacist
or physician.
C. Recommend a diet that contains up to 50% protein.
D. Provide general advice on a 3-day detox plan. – Correct answer-B. Recommend the
client discuss supplement usage and dosing with their pharmacist or physician.
Common assessments performed by a Nutrition Coach include height, weight, body
composition, and what other test?
A. Blood pressure
B. Anthropometric measurements
C. Hydrostatic weighing
D. SCOFF test – Correct answer-B. Anthropometric measurements
Where might a Nutrition Coach find reputable information on recent dietary guidelines?
A. Popular magazines
B. Government-funded agencies
C. Private, for-profit supplement companies
D. Celebrity blogs – Correct answer-B. Government-funded agencies
Clients often confide in the Nutrition Coach. Which client conversation would be
grounds for a referral to a licensed healthcare professional?
A. Slow weight loss of 1/2 pound per week (0.22 kg)
B. Late-night ice cream binging
C. Chronic fatigue
D. Occasional sleeplessness – Correct answer-C. Chronic fatigue

When working with a client who has been complaining of low back pain that has been getting worse, what is the most appropriate recommendation?

A. Refer her to a certified personal trainer.
B. Tell her to use a heating pad when the pain gets bad.
C. Refer her to a chiropractor.
D. Recommend use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications.
C. Refer her to a chiropractor.

With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work?

A. Elite clients competing in a national Ironman
B. Clients who want testing for vitamin deficiency
C. Clients with inconsistent weight loss and gain
D. Clients trying an elimination diet to identify food sensitivities
C. Clients with inconsistent weight loss and gain

According to the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach, which is an example of an appropriate resource for determining daily caloric intake?

A. ADA calculations based on age, gender, and activity level
B. Body type and cultural preferences
C. Dietary Guidelines for Americans
D. The Nutrition Coach cannot assist with daily caloric intake.
C. Dietary Guidelines for Americans

During a regular meeting, a client is complaining of irregular gastrointestinal issues, ranging from diarrhea to constipation. What is the best course of action?

A. Closely monitor his situation and re-evaluate during the next meeting.
B. Evaluate his prescription medications to look for similar side effects.
C. Advise him to eat more vegetables and drink more water.
D. Advise him to make an appointment with his personal physician.
D. Advise him to make an appointment with his personal physician.

A new client has just moved into the area. She states that she occasionally suffers from anxiety and panic attacks and needs to renew her prescription medications. To which healthcare professional should she be referred?

A. Podiatrist
B. Physiologist
C. Physiotherapist
D. Psychiatrist
D. Psychiatrist

One of the roles of a Nutrition Coach is to help facilitate weight loss. Which of the following would be most appropriate to recommend for the overweight client?

A. Limit carbohydrates to 35% of the diet.
B. Give up bread and avoid gluten.
C. Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program.
D. Drink a protein shake instead of eating lunch.
C. Refer to a certified personal trainer for a resistance training program.

Where should client files be kept to ensure client confidentiality?

A. In an electronic version only
B. With the client
C. In the manager’s office
D. In a locked and secure location
D. In a locked and secure location

A Nutrition Coach has been working with an overweight client for 6 weeks. During the most recent weight-in, they discover that she has lost 27 pounds. What is the best course of action for the Nutrition Coach?

A. Congratulate her for a job well done.
B. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits.
C. Add an additional 300-500 calories to her daily intake.
D. Suggest she limit her exercise to twice per week.
B. Informally question her about common eating disorder traits/habits.

According to the SCOFF eating disorder assessment, what is the minimum number of positive answers which might indicate an eating disorder?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
B. 2

A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has never been able to maintain permanent weight loss and confides that she has made herself throw up after eating large meals. What is the best course of action?

A. Refer her to a clinical psychologist.
B. Tell her she has bulimia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.
C. Tell her she may have anorexia and refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.
D. Move forward with the client sessions but monitor her closely for any more self-induced vomiting.
A. Refer her to a clinical psychologist

With which client would it be most appropriate for the Nutrition Coach to work?

A. Overweight client who wants to train for a 10K
B. Client who wants nutrition therapy for cancer prevention
C. Pre-pubescent teenager who is overweight
D. Client who wants accountability during a 9-week extreme calorie-restricted diet
A. Overweight client who wants to train for a 10K

Which of the following can a Nutrition Coach provide?

A. Nutritional advice and behavioral modification
B. Nutritional advice and behavioral counseling
C. Nutritional advice and behavioral prognosis
D. Nutritional advice and behavioral prescriptions
A. Nutritional advice and behavioral modification

To ensure the client is retaining any shared information, it is important that the content presented is perceived to be important and what other quality?

A. Easy to understand
B. Based on prior experience
C. Delivered slowly
D. Reviewed several times
B. Based on prior experience

Any research article on diet and nutrition should be scrutinized for which of the following?

A. Reliability and validity
B. References and values
C. Resources and volume
D. Recall and verbiage
A. Reliability and validity

To ensure the client is retaining any shared information, it is important that the content presented is highly relevant and what other quality?

A. Pertinent
B. Practical
C. Brief
D. Visual
B. Practical

Which statement best describes the healthcare continuum?

A new client is 6-weeks post-partum. She states that she has very little energy and feels sadness most of the time. What is the most appropriate course of action?

A. Call 911.
B. Contact her spouse to discuss options.
C. Refer her to a clinical psychiatrist.
D. Closely monitor her situation.
C. Refer her to a clinical psychiatrist.

Which statement is within the scope of practice for a Nutrition Coach?

A. Design a 5-day meal plan for a healthy client.
B. Recommend the client discuss supplement usage and dosing with their pharmacist or physician.
C. Recommend a diet that contains up to 50% protein.
D. Provide general advice on a 3-day detox plan.
B. Recommend the client discuss supplement usage and dosing with their pharmacist or physician.

Common assessments performed by a Nutrition Coach include height, weight, body composition, and what other test?

A. Blood pressure
B. Anthropometric measurements
C. Hydrostatic weighing
D. SCOFF test
B. Anthropometric measurements

Where might a Nutrition Coach find reputable information on recent dietary guidelines?

A. Popular magazines
B. Government-funded agencies
C. Private, for-profit supplement companies
D. Celebrity blogs
B. Government-funded agencies

Clients often confide in the Nutrition Coach. Which client conversation would be grounds for a referral to a licensed healthcare professional?

A. Slow weight loss of 1/2 pound per week (0.22 kg)
B. Late-night ice cream binging
C. Chronic fatigue
D. Occasional sleeplessness
C. Chronic fatigue

A client confides that she is taking laxatives to help her lose weight. What is the best course of action?

A. Refer her to a Registered Dietitian.
B. Tell her to eat more fiber as that will help.
C. Refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.
D. Tell her that regular use of laxatives are bad for her digestive tract.
C. Refer her to a Certified Eating Disorder Specialist.

It is not uncommon for clients to confide in the Nutrition Coach. Which client conversation would be grounds for a referral to a licensed healthcare professional?

A. Daily panic attacks
B. Stress-eating from recent divorce
C. Occasional constipation
D. Self-proclaimed “sugar addict”
A. Daily panic attacks

A client has several relatives who have recently been diagnosed with cancer. She has been reading many books about natural health and is interested in taking herbal supplements that will help prevent cancer. What is the best course of action?

A. Visit a health food store together.
B. Refer her to a pharmacist or her physician.
C. Tell her to save her money and stay away from herbal remedies.
D. Tell her to follow the guidelines of the books she read.
B. Refer her to a pharmacist or her physician.

A Nutrition Coach is sitting down with a new client for her initial evaluation. She noted on her Health History Questionnaire that she has diabetes and she has trouble keeping her blood glucose controlled. What is the best course of action?

A. Advise her to cut back on her simple carbohydrates at each meal.
B. Inform her that when she loses 10% of her body weight, her blood glucose will be easier to manage.
C. Refer her to a Registered Dietitian.
D. Refer her to a Certified Diabetes Educator.
D. Refer her to a Certified Diabetes Educator.

Scientists perform a diet study in which they assign half the people to a continuous dieting group and the other half to an intermittent fasting group. Which term best describes this study design?

A. Observational
B. Crossover
C. Parallel
D. Factorial
C. Parallel

Which of the following is an example of descriptive research?

A. Cohort study
B. Survey
C. Randomized controlled trial
D. Meta-analysis
B. Survey

Scientists perform a study comparing 1000 women with breast cancer to 1000 women without breast cancer. They gather information on the women’s diets and look to see if the women diagnosed with breast cancer had more fat in their diet compared to the women who did not get cancer. Which term best describes this study?

A. Cross-sectional study
B. Case-control study
C. Cohort study
D. Survey
B. Case-control study

Which term best describes formulation of a hypothesis, collecting data to test the hypothesis, and changing or discarding the hypothesis when the data does not support it?

A. Evidence-based practice
B. Primary research
C. Science
D. Scientific method
D. Scientific method

Fructose has been shown in studies to have adverse effects on blood triglycerides when consumed in excess of calorie needs. However, moderate doses of fructose have been shown to have no effect. Which of the following items best describes the conclusion that should be drawn from this data?

A. There is no reason to ever restrict fructose intake.
B. Fructose should be limited in the diet as much as possible.
C. Fructose intake poses no risk to triglycerides when consumed within energy needs, but caution is warranted if calorie intake is high.
D. There is insufficient evidence to draw conclusions as to the impact of fructose intake on triglycerides.
C. Fructose intake poses no risk to triglycerides when consumed within energy needs, but caution is warranted if calorie intake is high.

Which term refers to a proposed explanation for a set of observations?
A. Randomized controlled trial
B. Theory
C. Hypothesis
D. Prediction
C. Hypothesis

Scientists perform a study tracking 10,000 people over a 10-year period. They look at their sugar intake at the beginning of the study and then see who develops diabetes over the study duration. Which term best describes this study?

A. Survey
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Case-control study
D. Cohort study
D. Cohort study

Scientists gather 20 studies looking at the relationship between protein intake and lean body mass, and then they statistically analyze them together as a group. What type of study is this?

A. Narrative review
B. Observational research
C. Randomized controlled trials
D. Meta-analysis
D. Meta-analysis

Scientists randomly assign subjects to a low or high carbohydrate group and then look at changes in body weight over 3 months. Which item represents the independent variable in this study?

A. Length of study (3 months)
B. Body weight
C. Diet type
D. Subjects
C. Diet type

A scientist proposes that sugar is inherently fattening, independent of its calorie content. If that proposal is true, then that would mean that high-sugar diets should increase fat gain independent of their calorie content. What term describes this potential consequence?

A. Theory
B. Hypothesis
C. Prediction
D. Conclusion
C. Prediction

Which observational study design allows scientists to hypothesize a potential causal association?

A. Case study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Case-control study
D. Cohort study
D. Cohort study

Which of the following represents a critical evaluation of a study by other scientists?

A. Systematic review
B. Peer review
C. Narrative review
D. Scientific method
B. Peer review

The Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System (BRFSS) involves collecting health-related information via telephone interview across the United States. Which term best describes this research?

A. Case study
B. Case-control study
C. Cohort study
D. Survey
D. Survey

Which term refers to the ability to get similar results when something is measured under the same conditions?

A. Test-retest reliability
B. Generalizability
C. Validity
D. External validity
A. Test-retest reliability

Scientists find that a protein supplement increases lean mass in the elderly. However, they caution that the results may not apply to other populations, like younger people. What term best describes what the scientists are referring to?

A. Selection bias
B. Reliability
C. External validity
D. Test-retest reliability
C. External validity

Which item represents a high quality, non-peer reviewed source of information?

A. Narrative Review
B. Systematic Review
C. Academic Textbook
D. Position Stand
C. Academic Textbook

Which term refers to a hypothesis or set of hypotheses for which a large body of high quality evidence has been accumulated?

A. Randomized controlled trial
B. Prediction
C. Scientific method
D. Theory
D. Theory

Scientists randomly assign subjects to a low or high carbohydrate group and then look at changes in body weight over 3 months. Which item represents the independent variable in this study?

A. Length of study (3 months)
B. Body weight
C. Subjects
D. Diet type
D. Diet type

Scientists perform a study looking at the effects of caffeine on vertical jump performance. On one day, they give all the subjects caffeine followed by vertical jump tests. Two weeks later, they give all the subjects a placebo followed by the same vertical jump tests. Which term best describes this study design?

A. Factorial
B. Crossover
C. Parallel
D. Observational
B. Crossover

Which term encompasses the weight of the scientific evidence, field observations, and individual client needs?

A. Primary research
B. Science
C. Scientific method
D. Evidence-based practice
D. Evidence-based practice

Which of the following represents the lowest level of evidence?

Observational research
Non-peer reviewed media
Peer reviewed editorials and expert opinion
Randomized controlled trials
Non-peer reviewed media

Which of the following represents a strength of observational studies?

A. Can establish cause and effect
B. Can determine mechanisms for effects
C. Large subject numbers
D. High degree of control
C. Large subject numbers

Which term describes the phenomena when a group does not represent the population a scientist is intending to study?

A. Uncontrolled variable
B. Generalizability
C. Selection bias
D. Recall bias
C. Selection bias

A. External validity
B. Selection bias
C. Test-retest reliability
D. Reliability
A. External validity

Seven studies show Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B. Three studies show no difference. Assuming all the studies are equivalent in quality, which item best describes this situation?

A. The weight of the evidence suggests Diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than Diet B, but more data is needed.
B. There are insufficient studies to conclude that Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B.
C. It is unknown whether Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B.
D. The weight of the evidence suggests that Diet A and B are equivalent in their ability to lower cholesterol.
A. The weight of the evidence suggests Diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than Diet B, but more data is needed.

Scientists gather 20 studies looking at the relationship between protein intake and lean body mass, and then they statistically analyze them together as a group. What type of study is this?

A. Narrative review
B. Meta-analysis
C. Randomized controlled trials
D. Observational research
B. Meta-analysis

A scientist proposes that sugar is inherently fattening, and performs a study comparing a high-sugar diet to a low-sugar diet with equal calories. He finds that fat gain was the same between the diets. Which term describes how this study effects the initial proposal?

A. Falsification
B. Scientific method
C. Prediction
D. Validity
A. Falsification

A scientist observes that people tend to perform better in a weight training session after consuming a pre-workout supplement. The scientist proposes that the caffeine in the supplement is increasing arousal, leading to increased performance. Which term best describes this scientist’s proposal?

A. Prediction
B. Hypothesis
C. Theory
D. Conclusion
B. Hypothesis

Scientists take 5000 people and have them fill out questionnaires on their dairy intake. They then compare cancer rates between people with high intakes and low intakes. What type of study is this?
A. Observational
B. Randomized controlled trial
C. Meta-analysis
D. Anecdotal
A. Observational

Which statement best describes science?

A. It is the use of evidence to construct explanations and predictions of natural phenomena.
B. It is the use of anecdotes to explain observations.
C. It is the process of collecting data that confirms a hypothesis while discarding data that refutes it.
D. It is the collection of ideas that are not subject to falsification.
A. It is the use of evidence to construct explanations and predictions of natural phenomena.

Studies show that Diet A causes more weight loss than Diet B. A client is able to better adhere to Diet B than Diet A. Which item represents the best option for this client?

A. Diet A
B. Diet B
C. Alternate between Diet A and B
D.Start with Diet A, then gradually transition to Diet B
B. Diet B

A ___________ is where scientists gather all research on a topic and evaluate it based on predefined criteria and rules.

A. Meta-analysis
B. Peer review
C. Systematic review
D. Prediction
C. Systematic review

What is a statistical analysis of RCTs?

A. Hypothesis
B. Meta-analysis
C. Systematic review
D. Survey
B. Meta-analysis

In a ________________________ scientists divide people into two or more groups in a random fashion. The scientists keep everything the same between the groups except for one variable.

A. Survey
B. Meta-analysis
C. Systematic review
D. Randomized control trial (RCT)
D. Randomized control trial (RCT)

What is it called when scientists observe people in their free-living environment, collect data on them, and look for relationships between variable?

A. Expert opinion
B. Observational research
C. Randomized control trial
D. Meta-analysis
B. Observational research

What type of true experimental design consists of researchers tracking two or more independent groups in parallel with each other?

A. Factorial Design
B. Non-randomized Control Group
C. Parallel Design
D. Crossover Design
C. Parallel Design

What type of true experimental design consists of researchers testing the impact of two or more variables simultaneously, rather than isolating a single variable?

A. Parallel Design
B. Crossover Design
C. Factorial Design
D. Time-series
C. Factorial Design

What type of true experimental design consists of the same groups of subjects assigned to both the treatment and control groups. Each subject acts as his/her own control.

A. Factorial Design
B. Crossover Design
C. Parallel Design
D. Non-randomized control group
B. Crossover Design

A. Falsification
B. Prediction
C. Scientific method
D. Validity
A. Falsification

Which term describes a variable in an experiment for which a scientist takes no steps to account for?

A. Validity
B. Dependent variable
C. Independent variable
D. Uncontrolled variable
D. Uncontrolled variable

Which term refers to a hypothesis or set of hypotheses for which a large body of high quality evidence has been accumulated?
A. Scientific method
B. Randomized controlled trial
C. Theory
D. Prediction
C. Theory

“I tried this diet and lost 30 lbs.” What type of evidence is this?
A. Observational research
B. Anecdote
C. Randomized controlled trial
D. Expert opinion
B. Anecdote

Which term describes the phenomena when a group does not represent the population a scientist is intending to study?

A. Selection bias
B. Recall bias
C. Uncontrolled variable
D. Generalizability
A. Selection bias

A scientist hypothesizes that a supplement will improve fat loss by suppressing appetite. Which item represents a prediction generated by this hypothesis?

A. Subjects will eat a similar amount of food after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it.
B. Subjects will eat less after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it.
C. Subjects will lose fat after taking the supplement with no change in the amount of food consumed.
D. Subjects taking the supplement will lose a similar amount of fat as subjects who do not take it.
B. Subjects will eat less after taking the supplement compared to when they do not take it.

Seven studies show Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B. Three studies show no difference. Assuming all the studies are equivalent in quality, which item best describes this situation?

A. There are insufficient studies to conclude that Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B.
B. The weight of the evidence suggests that Diet A and B are equivalent in their ability to lower cholesterol.
C. It is unknown whether Diet A lowers cholesterol more than Diet B.
D. The weight of the evidence suggests Diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than Diet B, but more data is needed.
D. The weight of the evidence suggests Diet A is more effective for lowering cholesterol than Diet B, but more data is needed.

Which of the following is best defined as the quality or state of being fed or gratified to or beyond capacity?

A. Satiety
B. Hunger
C. Stressed
D. Complete
A. Satiety

Intellectual wellness implies which of the following?

A. Constant learning
B. High IQ
C. Superior knowledge
D. Lack of knowledge
A. Constant learning

Which of the following is a tip for a health-supporting diet?

A. Include lots of processed meats in your diet.
B. Follow a diet that is highly rigid and controlled.
C. Follow a diet that is low in saturated fat.
D. Eat foods that are highly palatable.
C. Follow a diet that is low in saturated fat.

Which of the following is true in regards to obesity-related conditions?

A. They are the least likely cause of premature death.
B. They are not associated with preventable disease.
C. They are a problem, but don’t cause disease.
D. They are one of the leading preventable causes of death.
D. They are one of the leading preventable causes of death.

Which of the following best describes chronic diseases?

A. They are of short duration.
B. They are of long duration.
C. They are infectious and transmitted through the air.
D. They are isolated to cardiovascular conditions.
B. They are of long duration.

To which of the following terms can ‘non-communicable disease (NCD) also refer?

A. Transient diseases
B. Infectious diseases
C. Chronic diseases
D. Curable diseases
C. Chronic diseases

Changing seasons have which of the following?

A. Little impact on food choices
B. Importance only in developing cultures
C. Limited applicaion in western society
D. A significant impact on food choices
D. A significant impact on food choices

Which of the following is best defined as a high degree of body fat, or excess body fat, with a BMI greater than 30?

A. Obesity
B. Overweight
C. Sickness
D. Underweight
A. Obesity

How does basal metabolic rate change with age?

A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Does not change
D. Changes little
A. Decreases

Dietary habits associated with a lower incidence of cancer rates include which of the following?

A. Eating foods low in antioxidants
B. Eating high glycemic index foods
C. Eating foods high in antioxidants
D. Decreasing dietary calcium intake
C. Eating foods high in antioxidants

Non-communicable diseases are which of the following?

A. Cureable with traditional medicines
B. A premature death sentence
C. Transmitted via saliva
D. The first leading cause of death
D. The first leading cause of death

The best approach to eating for a population’s diversity and differences includes which of the following?

A. A one-size fits all plan
B. A flexible approach
C. Rigid and inflexible dietary guidelines
D. Ketogenic or Paleolithic diets
B. A flexible approach

An important factor impacting satiety includes which of the following?

A. Season
B. Affordability
C. Palatability
D. Location
C. Palatability

What foods elicit faster satiety-signal responses?

A. Fats and simple sugars
B. Processed foods and soda
C. Complex carbohydrates and proteins
D. Water and simple sugars
C. Complex carbohydrates and proteins

Non-communicable diseases are also known as which of the following?

A. Infectious diseases
B. Chronic diseases
C. Palliative diseases
D. Genetic diseases
B. Chronic diseases

Which organ produces and releases insulin?

A. Kidney
B. Thyroid
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
D. Pancreas

What foods tend to have a higher thermic response than others?

A. High-protein foods
B. Low-fat foods
C. Low-protein foods
D. High-carbohydrate foods
A. High-protein foods

Which of the following is best described as the energy consumed for fuel to support and maintain normal body functions like temperature regulation?

A. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF)
B. Thermic effect of activity (TEA)
C. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
D. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
C. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

Energy utilized for immediate work is known as which of the following?

A. Potential
B. Kinetic
C. Electrical
D. Nuclear
B. Kinetic

What is the process of generating energy from the food we eat?

A. Catabolism
B. Anabolism
C. Metabolism
D. Hemopoiesis
C. Metabolism

During the first few seconds of exercise, regardless of intensity, what system is primarily utilized?

A. Anaerobic glycolysis
B. Aerobic glycolysis
C. Krebs Cycle
D. ATP-PC system
D. ATP-PC system

What is the end-result of inadequate rest?

A. Reduced RMR
B. Increased RMR
C. Reduced TEA
D. Increased TEF
A. Reduced RMR

Between 1969/1971 and 1999/2001, global food consumption per person has risen by how much?

A. Approximately 2,000 kcal per person per day
B. Approximately 1,000 kcal per person per day
C. Approximately 400 kcal per person per day
D. Approximately 150 kcal per person per day
C. Approximately 400 kcal per person per day

Which hormone is referred to as the hunger hormone because it stimulates appetite, increases food intake, and promotes fat storage?

A. Leptin
B. Ghrelin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. NPY Neuropeptide Y
B. Ghrelin

Most cells utilize which of the following as their primary source of energy during intense activity?

A. Amino acids
B. Glucose
C. Protein
D. Fat
B. Glucose

he storage form of glucose is know as which of the following?

A. Ketone bodies
B. Triglyceride
C. Glycerol
D. Glycogen
D. Glycogen

A deficiency in which hormone is associated with an increased fat mass (central adiposity in particular), reduced insulin sensitivity, and impaired glucose tolerance?

A. Cortisol
B. Estrogen
C. Testosterone
D. Adrenaline
C. Testosterone

Worldwide, activity levels (including occupational work, home/domestic work, leisure and exercise, and physical activity) are doing which of the following?

A. Increasing
B. Staying the same
C. Remaining undocumented
D. Declining
D. Declining

ATP consists of an adenosine molecule bonded to how many phosphate groups?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
C. Three

Resting metabolic rate, or RMR, declines by what percentage per decade for men?

A. 1 to 2%
B. 5 to 6%
C. 8 to 10%
D. >10%
A. 1 to 2%

Energy expended during walking at work, typing, walking to and from meetings, and fidgeting is referred to as which of the following?

A. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF)
B. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
C. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
D. Thermic effect of activity (TEA)
B. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

The process of generating energy (in the form of ATP) from nutrients we consume in our diet is referred to as which of the following?

A. Energy metabolism
B. Energy restriction
C. Energy requirement
D. Energy adaptation
A. Energy metabolism

Which of the following is best defined as the energy accounted for during digestion and processing of food?

A. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF)
B. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
C. Thermic effect of activity (TEA)
D. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
A. Thermic effect of feeding (TEF)

The first law of thermodynamics is also referred to as which of the following?

A. The law of facilitation of energy
B. The law of estimation of energy
C. The law of probability of energy
D. The law of conservation of energy
D. The law of conservation of energy

To which of the following is one metabolic equivalent (MET) equal?

A. 3.5 ml O2/kg/min
B. 10 ml O2/kg/min
C. 15 ml O2/kg/min
D. 30 ml O2/kg/min
A. 3.5 ml O2/kg/min

A metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from non-carbohydrate carbon substrates such as lactate, glycerol, and glucogenic amino acids is referred to as which of the following?

A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glucagon
C. Gluconeogensis
D. Glycolysis
C. Gluconeogensis

Which hormone, produced by adipose cells, decreases appetite when released?

A. Ghrelin
B. Leptin
C. Cholecystokinin
D. NPY Neuropeptide Y
B. Leptin

Which of the following is best defined as the energy accounted for during everyday activities?

A. Non-energy burning thermogenesis (NEBT)
B. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
C. Resting energy activity thermogenesis (REAT)
D. Near resting energy thermogenesis (NRET)
B. Non-exercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)

The basic energy need of an average human being is approximately how many Calories?

A. 1500
B. 2000
C. 2500
D. 3000
B. 2000

Calories (energy) in versus calories (energy) out is an example of what principle?

A. The first law of thermodynamics
B. The second law of thermodynamics
C. The third law of thermodynamics
D. The fourth law of thermodynamics
A. The first law of thermodynamics

Which category includes glucose (sugar), starches, and non-digestible cellulose?

A. Proteins
B. Fats
C. Carbohydrates
D. Triglycerides
C. Carbohydrates

What are shorter sleep cycles associated with?

A. Weight loss
B. Atrophy
C. Protein synthesis
D. Weight gain
D. Weight gain

Which principle describes how all energy taken into the body is accounted for; energy is either utilized directly, stored, or transformed to kinetic energy or heat?

A. The first law of thermodynamics
B. The second law of thermodynamics
C. The third law of thermodynamics
D. The fourth law of thermodynamics
A. The first law of thermodynamics

Which of the following is the best prescription for daily protein intake for an older, sedentary individual?

A. 0.6 g/kg body weight
B. 0.8 g/kg body weight
C. 1.3 g/kg body weight
D. 2.2 g/kg body weight
C. 1.3 g/kg body weight

An existing client has been doing very well with meeting daily dietary recommendations with a three-meal per day eating pattern and they have met their goal to reach a healthy body weight with increased muscle tone. They express they would like to now pursue a new goal of a doing a physique competition within the next 12 months. Should the Nutrition Coach recommend they eat more or less frequently to help them meet their goals?

A. A Nutrition Coach should recommend they eat less frequent meals because it is not possible to get the low body fat necessary for such a competition eating 3 or more meals per day.
B. A Nutrition Coach should recommend they eat more-frequent meals because they can more frequently stimulate muscle growth.
C. A Nutrition Coach should recommend they continue eating 3 meals per day because protein timing is not important whatsoever.
D. A Nutrition Coach does not need to make any recommendations because the goal is not that extreme.
B. A Nutrition Coach should recommend they eat more-frequent meals because they can more frequently stimulate muscle growth.

What are complementary protein sources?

A. All protein-containing foods
B. Meat and vegetables
C. Any combination of plant-based foods
D. 2 foods with incomplete proteins that, when eaten together, supply all the necessary essential amino acids
D. 2 foods with incomplete proteins that, when eaten together, supply all the necessary essential amino acids

How do protein and amino acids influence body pH?

A. They are only acidic and decrease body pH.
B. They are only basic and increase body pH.
C. They act as buffers to maintain neutral pH.
D. They do nothing to influence body pH.
C. They act as buffers to maintain neutral pH.

To meet body composition goals, is it prudent for the client to meet the prescribed protein intake by choosing protein-based foods that also cause them to exceed prescribed fat intake?

A. No. It is inadvisable to overconsume other nutrients to meet protein needs.
B. Yes, if the goal is to gain weight. No, if the goal is weight maintenance or loss.
C. Yes, because protein is the most important of the macronutrients.
D. Yes, as long as it is not coming from saturated fat.
A. No. It is inadvisable to overconsume other nutrients to meet protein needs.

Which is most likely to impact longevity?

A. Protein restriction will inhibit longevity.
B. Calorie restriction may inhibit longevity.
C. Protein restriction will enhance longevity.
D. Calorie restriction may enhance longevity.
D. Calorie restriction may enhance longevity.

In general, what sources are complete proteins?

A. All foods containing at least 10g of protein
B. Plant-based products
C. Animal-based products
D. Foods labeled “high protein”
C. Animal-based products

What are enzymes?

A. Protein-based structures which transport other compounds between cells
B. Protein-based structures which catalyze chemical reactions
C. Protein-based structures which transmit electrical signals throughout the nervous system
D. Protein-based structures which primarily eliminate pathogens
B. Protein-based structures which catalyze chemical reactions

Does the Dietary Guidelines for Americans adjust RDAs according to a person’s activity level?

A. No, they are only based on protein sensitivity.
B. Yes, the recommendations are adjusted based on activity level, weight, height, and goal.
C. No, they are only based on body size.
D. Yes, they are adjusted based on activity level alone.
C. No, they are only based on body size.

A new client insists on maintaining their vegan lifestyle. How should the Nutrition Coach advise their protein source selection?

A. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a variety of grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes
B. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume eggs and nonfat dairy.
C. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a whey protein supplement.
D. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a casein protein supplement.
A. A Nutrition Coach should advise the client to consume a variety of grains, nuts, seeds, and legumes

Protein is involved in forming which of the following?

A. Triglycerides
B. Bones
C. Adipose tissue
D. Electrolytes
B. Bones

What is dehydration synthesis?

A. Muscle protein synthesis occurring during a dehydrated state
B. When proteins help to regulate fluid balance by drawing water out of tissues into the blood stream
C. Consuming protein without a beverage
D. Removal of 2 hydrogens and 1 oxygen from 2 different molecules when the 2 molecules are joined together
D. Removal of 2 hydrogens and 1 oxygen from 2 different molecules when the 2 molecules are joined together

Can post-workout protein consumption increase muscle glycogen synthesis?

A. Yes, it enhances glycogen synthesis on its own.
B. No, it never enhances glycogen synthesis.
C. Yes, when consumed with carbohydrates.
D. No, eating fats with carbs helps recover glycogen the best after a workout.
C. Yes, when consumed with carbohydrates.

Which of the following is the best protocol for fat loss while maintaining muscle mass?

A. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training
B. A high-calorie, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training
C. A calorie-restricted, low-protein (0.4-0.8 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training
D. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & cardiovascular training
A. A calorie-restricted, high-protein (1.8-2.2 g/kg body weight) diet & resistance training

In what form are proteins primarily absorbed?

A. Single amino acids
B. Dipeptides
C. Tripeptides
D. Intact proteins
A. Single amino acids

For an individual engaged in light aerobic exercise 2-3 days per week, what would be the most optimal protein prescription?

A. 0.8 g/kg body weight
B. 1.4 g/kg body weight
C. 2.0 g/kg body weight
D. 3.0 g/kg body weight
B. 1.4 g/kg body weight

What is an ideal daily protein distribution?

A. The most protein is consumed at the beginning of the day.
B. The most protein is consumed in the middle of the day.
C. The most protein is consumed at the end of the day.
D. Each meal contains an equal amount of protein.
D. Each meal contains an equal amount of protein.

Ketogenic amino acids may become which 2 molecules that can be used to produce ATP?

A. Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate
B. Glucose and fructose
C. Acetyl-CoA and glucose
D. Acetyl-CoA and pyruvate
A. Acetyl-CoA and acetoacetate

Is post-workout protein consumption more important for novice or experienced weightlifters?

A. Novice
B. Experienced
C. Both novice and experienced
D. Post-workout protein is not important for anyone.
B. Experienced

Is it ever okay for a sedentary person to eat a high protein diet?

A. Yes, but only a moderately high protein diet up to 1.6 g/kg body weight.
B. Yes, but only a little over the RDA, up to 1.2 g/kg body weight.
C. Yes, there is usually no issue with a sedentary person consuming a diet high in protein up to 2.2 g/kg body weight.
D. No, a sedentary person should never consume a high protein diet.
C. Yes, there is usually no issue with a sedentary person consuming a diet high in protein up to 2.2 g/kg body weight.

For an individual engaged in vigorous resistance training 5-6 days per week, what would be the most optimal protein prescription?

A. 0.4 g/kg body weight
B. 0.8 g/kg body weight
C. 2.0 g/kg body weight
D. 5 g/kg body weight
C. 2.0 g/kg body weight

If a new client reveals they have kidney disease, what should the Nutrition Coach do?

A. Recommend replacing red meat with poultry or fish.
B. Work with their registered dietitian or medical doctor for dietary guidance.
C. Put them on a low protein diet.
D. Put them on a high protein diet.
B. Work with their registered dietitian or medical doctor for dietary guidance.

What are the essential amino acids?

A. Histidine, lysine, methionine, proline, tyrosine, tryptophan, leucine, isoleucine, valine
B. Histidine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, aspartic acid, glutamic acid, serine
C. Histidine, lysine, methionine, proline, aspartic acid, carnosine, leucine, isoleucine, valine
D. Histidine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, leucine, isoleucine, valine
D. Histidine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, leucine, isoleucine, valine

Which of the following may be the most optimal protein distribution pattern for a 70kg client with a goal to build muscle?

A. 4 meals, each with 21g protein
B. 4 meals, each with 15g protein
C. 3 meals, each with 28g protein
D. 2 meals with 42g protein
A. 4 meals, each with 21g protein

Which health benefit is attributed to soluble fiber?

A. Reduced risk for cardiovascular disease by accelerating atherosclerosis
B. Reduced risk for cardiovascular disease by binding to cholesterol particles
C. Decreased absorption of foods because it speeds movement through the small intestine
D. Protection against diabetes because it facilitates blood sugar spikes
B. Reduced risk for cardiovascular disease by binding to cholesterol particles

During exercise, stored molecules of carbohydrates are broken down to glucose to serve as a fuel. What term defines the breakdown of stored glycogen?

A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glycogenesis
C. Glycolysis
D. Gluconeogenesis
A. Glycogenolysis

What term is defined as the combined effect of both a carbohydrate’s glycemic index (GI) score and the amount of that carbohydrate consumed?

A. Glycemic index
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Glycemic load
D. Hypoglycemia
C. Glycemic load

What glycemic score ranks a carbohydrate food as a medium GI food?

A. GI score between 25 and 39
B. GI score between 40 and 50
C. GI score between 56 and 69
D. GI score between 70 and 80
C. GI score between 56 and 69

What disease associated with large intakes of fructose in inactive people has recently gained more attention as a health concern?

A. Non-alcoholic liver disease
B. Cirrhosis
C. Hyperinsulinemia
D. Hypertriglyceridemia
A. Non-alcoholic liver disease

Which sugar units are combined to form a glycogen molecule?

A. Fructose
B. Sucrose
C. Maltose
D. Glucose
D. Glucose

What glycemic score ranks a carbohydrate food as a high GI food?

A. GI score under 55
B. GI score between 35 and 55
C. GI score over 69
D. GI score between 56 and 69
C. GI score over 69

What is the recommended amount of added sugar suggested by the American Heart Association for American adult women?

A. A limit of 4 added teaspoons
B. A limit of 6 added teaspoons
C. A limit of 9 added teaspoons
D. A limit of 11 added teaspoons
B. A limit of 6 added teaspoons

What is the second priority for ingested carbohydrates in the human body once immediate fuel needs have been met?

A. Use as a fuel for endocrine glands.
B. Elevate glucagon levels in the blood.
C. Replenish depleted glycogen stores in the liver and muscles.
D. Enhance fat-burning ability.
C. Replenish depleted glycogen stores in the liver and muscles.

What is the molecular structure for glucose?
A. C6H12O6
B. H2O
C. CO2
D. C12H22O11
A. C6H12O6

How much glycogen can the adult liver store?

A. 15 grams per Kg
B. 25 grams per Kg
C. 50 grams per Kg
D. 100 grams per Kg
C. 50 grams per Kg

The United States consumes more sugar than any other country in the world. From the options provided, what food category represents the largest source of sugar intake in the U.S. diet?

A. Dairy
B. Beverages
C. Snacks and sweets
D. Fruit
B. Beverages

Which two monosaccharides combine to make lactose?

A. Glucose and galactose
B. Glucose and maltose
C. Glucose and fructose
D. Glucose and glucose
A. Glucose and galactose

Which complex carbohydrate chain contains straight-chain structures?

A. Amylopectin
B. Insoluble fiber
C. Soluble fiber
D. Amylose
D. Amylose

What are the current estimated daily intakes of fiber for men and women in the U.S.?

A. 8 grams for men; 5 grams for women
B. 12 grams for men; 10 grams for women
C. 18 grams for men; 15 grams for women
D. 25 grams for men; 19 grams for women
C. 18 grams for men; 15 grams for women

According to the Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPI), how many calories from added sugar are recommended for men on a daily basis?

A. A limit of 100 calories
B. A limit of 150 calories
C. A limit of 200 calories
D. A limit of 250 calories
B. A limit of 150 calories

What is the current daily fiber intake recommendation for women in the U.S.?

A. 15 grams of fiber daily
B. 20 grams of fiber daily
C. 28 grams of fiber daily
D. 30 grams of fiber daily
C. 28 grams of fiber daily

What factor can raise a food’s GI score?

A. Ingesting food in a liquid state
B. Cooking and reheating a complex carbohydrate
C. The presence of fiber in the food
D. The presence of fat in the food
A. Ingesting food in a liquid state

Which statement reflects a factual truth regarding high fructose corn syrup (HFCS)?

A. HFCS has been positively connected to elevated levels of obesity versus cane sugar.
B. HFCS has nearly double the amount of calories per serving compared to organic cane sugar.
C. HFCS leads to a greater risk of obesity, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes compared to cane sugar.
D. HFCS is preferred over cane sugar by most food companies because it is cheaper to manufacture and has a longer shelf life.
D. HFCS is preferred over cane sugar by most food companies because it is cheaper to manufacture and has a longer shelf life.

Which sugar units are combined to form a glycogen molecule?

A. Fructose
B. Sucrose
C. Glucose
D. Maltose
C. Glucose

Which sweetener is not considered a mono- or disaccharide and is extracted from chicory root?

A. Dextrose
B. Inulin
C. High-fructose corn syrup
D. Lactose
B. Inulin

The acidic chyme leaving the stomach must be neutralized before any digestion can occur in the small intestine. What compound neutralizes this chyme?

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Chymotrypsin
C. Pepsinogen
D. Potassium citrate
A. Sodium bicarbonate

What is the current daily fiber intake recommendation for men in the U.S.?

A. 10 grams of fiber daily
B. 18 grams of fiber daily
C. 25 grams of fiber daily
D. 35 grams of fiber daily
D. 35 grams of fiber daily

Which of the following combine to make maltose?

A. Glucose and lactose
B. Glucose and glucose
C. Glucose and fructose
D. Glucose and galactose
B. Glucose and glucose

From the options provided, which carbohydrate food has the lowest glycemic index (GI) score?

A. Hummus
B. Orange juice
C. White bread
D. Hard candy
A. Hummus

Because of the catabolic nature of exercise, insulin release is largely suppressed during an exercise bout. How does glucose, consumed during a workout, then enter the cell?

A. The body relies upon insulin mediated glucose uptake.
B. The body relies upon epinephrine mediated glucose uptake.
C. The body relies upon non-insulin mediated glucose uptake.
D. The body relies upon norepinephrine mediated glucose uptake.
C. The body relies upon non-insulin mediated glucose uptake.

Which polysaccharide is digested fastest?

A. Amylopectin
B. Amylose
C. Insoluble fiber
D. Soluble fiber
A. Amylopectin

What is the current RDA for carbohydrates for adults?

A. 45 grams
B. 75 grams
C. 130 grams
D. 200 grams
C. 130 grams

What glycemic score ranks a carbohydrate food as a low GI food?

A. GI score under 55
B. GI score between 60-65
C. Gi score between 70-75
D. GI score over 75
A. GI score under 55

What is the vein that transports blood from the spleen, stomach, pancreas, and the intestinal tract to the liver?

A. Inferior vena cava
B. Hepatic portal vein
C. Axillary vein
D. Subclavian vein
B. Hepatic portal vein

When would the body undergo the process of gluconeogenesis?

A. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids.
B. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like calcium.
C. During periods in which ketones levels become depleted, the body can produce glucose from other carbohydrate sources like glycogen.
D. During periods in which ketones levels become depleted, the body can produce glucose from other carbohydrate sources like fructose.
A. During periods of inadequate carbohydrate intake, the body can produce glucose from certain non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids.

Which two monosaccharides combine to make sucrose?

A. Glucose and glucose
B. Glucose and dextrose
C. Glucose and galactose
D. Glucose and fructose
D. Glucose and fructose

What are both chylomicrons and very-low-density lipoproteins responsible for transporting in the bloodstream?

A. Ketone bodies
B. Triglycerides
C. Water-soluble vitamins
D. Amino acids
B. Triglycerides

Where are fat-soluble vitamins stored in the body?

A. Liver and adipose tissue
B. Muscle tissue
C. Small and large intestine
D. Brain tissue
A. Liver and adipose tissue

What is the definition of hydrophilic?

A. Likely to repel or not mix with water.
B. Imbalance of free radicals and antioxidants.
C. Forcing hydrogen into vegetable oil to create a saturated fat.
D. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water.
D. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water.

Bile is an example of which of the following?

A. An enzyme
B. A micelle
C. An emulsifier
D. A phospholipid
C. An emulsifier

What is an example of saturated fat?

A. Olive oil
B. Palm oil
C. Almonds
D. Salmon
B. Palm oil

What is the role of lipoprotein lipase?

A. It is the enzyme that reassembles fatty acids into triglycerides.
B. It is the enzyme within a person’s saliva that initially breaks down food.
C. It is the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol for the cell to use.
D. It is the enzyme that reassembles fatty acids into chylomicrons.
C. It is the enzyme that breaks down triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol for the cell to use.

A client asks a Nutrition Coach about taking omega-3 supplements. What is the BEST response to tell the client?

A. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, it may be more beneficial to eat fatty fish.
B. Omega-3 supplements should be avoided because they raise triglyceride levels.
C. Omega-3 supplements should be avoided because they raise LDL cholesterol.
D. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, omega-6 supplements are more beneficial for heart health.
A. There may be benefits to taking omega-3 supplements, however, it may be more beneficial to eat fatty fish.

Why is it easy for the average person to meet the adequate intake for omega-6 fatty acids?

A. Food sources, such as apples, bananas, and pears, are readily available.
B. Food sources, such as corn chips and microwave popcorn, are readily available.
C. Food sources, such as flaxseed oil, chia seeds, and flaxseeds, are readily available.
D. Food sources, such as salmon, herring, and crab, are readily available.
B. Food sources, such as corn chips and microwave popcorn, are readily available.

What is the age group that should avoid consuming reduced fat milks?

A. Children under the age of 2 years
B. Perimenopausal women with osteoporosis
C. Any person who is considered underweight
D. Seniors over the age of 65
A. Children under the age of 2 years

What is eicosatetraenoic acid (EPA)?

A. An omega-6 fatty acid found in nuts and seeds.
B. A thin, soft, pliable layer that acts as a lining around a cell.
C. An enzyme released by the stomach to aid in digestion of fat.
D. An omega-3 fatty acid found in the oil of cold-water fish.
D. An omega-3 fatty acid found in the oil of cold-water fish.

What is an example of trans fat?

A. Butter
B. Coconut oil
C. Vegetable shortening
D. Lard
C. Vegetable shortening

What enzyme is responsible for breaking down the triglycerides in the mouth?

A. Lipoprotein lipase
B. Lingual lipase
C. Gastric lipase
D. Pancreatic lipase
B. Lingual lipase

What is the definition of hydrophobic?

A. Likely to repel or not mix with water.
B. Likely to mix with water, or have an affinity for water.
C. Imbalance of free radicals and antioxidants.
D. Forcing hydrogen into vegetable oil to create a saturated fat.
A. Likely to repel or not mix with water.

Joe is on a 3500 kcals per day eating plan. Based on the AMDR guidelines, what is the BEST range of calories for fat intake for him?

A. 350-650 kcals
B. 700-1225 kcals
C. 1250-1350 kcals
D. 1400-1525 kcals
B. 700-1225 kcals

What is a good source of alpha-linoleic acids (ALA)?

A. Salmon
B. Mackerel
C. Crab
D. Walnuts
D. Walnuts

A client tells his Nutrition Coach he is on a 2,100 kcal/day diet. If he is trying to consume 30% of his calories from fat, how many grams of fat should he be consuming?
A. 70 grams of fat
B. 156 grams of fat
C. 163 grams of fat
D. 367 grams of fat
A. 70 grams of fat

What is the adequate intake (AI) for omega-3 fatty acid for men and women?

A. 1.6 grams per day (men) and 1.1 grams per day (women)
B. 3.6 grams per day (men) and 3.1 grams per day (women)
C. 5.6 grams per day (men) and 5.1 grams per day (women)
D. 7.6 grams per day (men) and 7.1 grams per day (women)
A. 1.6 grams per day (men) and 1.1 grams per day (women)

What is a chylomicron?

A. An enzyme that delivers HDL cholesterol to the cells
B. An endothelium cell that delivers LDL cholesterol to the liver
C. A lipoprotein that delivers triglycerides to the cells
D. A lipoprotein that delivers amino acids to the cells
C. A lipoprotein that delivers triglycerides to the cells

What is the function of low-density lipoproteins?

A. Transportation of enzymes to the pancreas.
B. Transportation of bile to the gall bladder.
C. Transportation of cholesterol to the duodenum.
D. Transportation of cholesterol to cells of the body.
D. Transportation of cholesterol to cells of the body.

A client asks a Nutrition Coach about the benefits of medium-chain triglyceride (MCT) supplementation in weight loss. What is the BEST response?

A. Medium-chain triglycerides should be consumed in a supplement form for maximal absorption.
B. MCT supplements are a health risk for anyone experiencing dementia.
C. While there has been research linking MCT supplementation with weight loss, this should not replace dietary and lifestyle interventions.
D. MCT supplements are a health risk for anyone with osteopenia or osteoporosis.
C. While there has been research linking MCT supplementation with weight loss, this should not replace dietary and lifestyle interventions.

What is the BEST information to share with a client about coconut oil intake?

A. Coconut oil is superior for heart heath compared to polyunsaturated fatty acids.
B. Coconut oil probably has a neutral effect on heart health.
C. There is evidence that coconut oil significantly decreases LDL cholesterol.
D. There is evidence that medium-chain triglycerides found in coconut oil raises the risk of diabetes.
B. Coconut oil probably has a neutral effect on heart health.

What is a good source of DHA?

A. Flaxseed oil
B. Walnuts
C. Chia seeds
D. Salmon
D. Salmon

A client visits a Nutrition Coach for the first time and tells the coach she is consuming 20% of her calories from dietary fat and 15% of her calories from saturated fat. What advice should the nutrition coach give the client?

A. Recommend the client decrease saturated fat to less than 10 – 11% of total calorie intake.
B. Recommend the client consume more dietary fat to evoke ketosis.
C. Recommend the client decrease total fat to less than 10% of total calorie intake.
D. Recommend the client consume more saturated fat to improve LDL cholesterol levels.
A. Recommend the client decrease saturated fat to less than 10 – 11% of total calorie intake.

What is the function of a micelle?

A. Facilitation of the digestion of fatty acids in the stomach.
B. Facilitation of the absorption of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins.
C. Protection of the structural integrity of fatty acids from gastric juice.
D. Transportation of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins to the gallbladder.
B. Facilitation of the absorption of monoglycerides, free fatty acids, and fat-soluble vitamins.

What is the key role of phospholipids?

A. They carry cholesterol from the liver to the cells.
B. They carry excess cholesterol away from the cells to the liver where it is turned into bile or excreted.
C. They are the main component of the cell’s membrane and protect the inside of the cell.
D. They are cells specialized in the storage of fat that makes up adipose tissue.
C. They are the main component of the cell’s membrane and protect the inside of the cell.

What is a good source of monounsaturated fatty acids?

A. Coconut oil
B. Canola oil
C. Flaxseed oil
D. Soybean oil
B. Canola oil

What is defined as a combination of fat and protein that transports cholesterol and other lipids to and from various tissues through the blood?

A. Lipoprotein
B. Amino acid
C. Enzyme
D. Triglyceride
A. Lipoprotein

What is the function of high-density lipoproteins (HDL)?

A. To deliver glycogen to the liverls
B. To deliver cholesterol to the liver
C. To deliver amino acids to the cells
D. To deliver water-soluble vitamins to the cells
B. To deliver cholesterol to the liver

What is a valid health reason for recommending a variety of protein sources such as nuts and seeds?

A. They are low in fat.
B. They are high LDL cholesterol.
C. They are high in essential fatty acids.
D. They are low in unsaturated fats.
C. They are high in essential fatty acids.

What is true of Bulletproof® coffee?

A. It can increase daily caloric intake up to 1,000 calories.
B. It significantly reduces LDL cholesterol.
C. It is proven harmful for people with epilepsy.
D. It has a low saturated fat content level.
A. It can increase daily caloric intake up to 1,000 calories.

What is the definition of saturated fat?

A. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have two or more double bonds between carbon atoms.
B. Saturated fats are fatty acids that cannot be synthesized in the body, or not in adequate amounts.
C. Saturated fat is fatty acid that is manufactured when hydrogen is added to liquid vegetable oil.
D. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have maximum number of hydrogen molecules and contain only a single bond between the carbon atoms.
D. Saturated fats are fatty acids that have maximum number of hydrogen molecules and contain only a single bond between the carbon atoms.

Triglycerides are transported to adipose (fat) cells and go through beta-oxidation. What are the byproducts of beta-oxidation?

A. Glycerol and free fatty acids
B. Acetyl-CoA and free fatty acids
C. Ketone bodies and glucose
D. Glucose and glycogen
A. Glycerol and free fatty acids

What is the leading contributor to preventable death?

a. Heart disease
b. Diabetes
c. Obesity
d. Breast cancer
a. Heart disease

The first law of thermodynamics is also referred to as which of the following?

a. The law of estimation of energy
b. The law of probability of energy
c. The law of conservation of energy
d. The law of facilitation of energy
c. The law of conservation of energy

What percent of daily energy expenditure is accounted for by the process of consuming food?

a. 0.05
b. 0.5
c. 0.1
d. 0.25
c. 0.1

How much alcohol is recommended for pregnant females and individuals planning on driving?

a. 2 standard drinks
b. Zero alcohol
c. 1 standard drink
d. 3 standard drinks
b. Zero alcohol

What acute effect does drinking alcohol have on the heart?

Select one:
a. Decreases right ventricle contractility and increases heart rate
b. Does not effect the heart
c. Decreases left ventricle contractility and increases heart rate
d. Increases left ventricle contractility and decreases heart rate
c. Decreases left ventricle contractility and increases heart rate

Why are females more susceptible to the effects of alcohol?

Select one:
a. They have less body water than males, so alcohol is more concentrated in the tissues it enters.
b. Females eat less food, so ethanol is absorbed faster than in males.
c. Females prefer to drink wine and spirits, which are high in alcohol content.
d. Ethanol metabolism by the liver in females is less effective than males.
a. They have less body water than males, so alcohol is more concentrated in the tissues it enters.

Approximately how much ethanol is metabolized per hour?

a. 14 grams
b. 7 grams
c. 10 grams
d. 2 grams
b. 7 grams

Vitamin C deficiencies occur in what percentage of the population of the United States?

Select one:
a. 0.22
b. 0.03
c. 0.07
d. 0.1
c. 0.07

Hyponatremia (low-sodium concentration in the blood) sets in when sodium falls below what concentration?
Select one:
a. 164 millimolar
b. 68 millimolar
c. 135 millimolar
d. 203 millimolar
c. 135 millimolar

What is the intracellular-to-extracellular ratio of potassium?
Select one:
a. 50 to 1
b. 30 to 1
c. 10 to 1
d. 40 to 1
b. 30 to 1

What percent of the body is made of calcium?
Select one:
a. 6-7%
b. 9-10%
c. 14-15%
d. 1-2%
d. 1-2%

A client weighs 70 kg and is training to complete a marathon in a time of about 4 h. The client’s sweat losses are expected to equal around 4 liters (about 6% of body mass). Which fluid intake goal would be most appropriate?
Select one:
a. Drink 1 liter of fluid during the race.
b. Drink 2 liters of fluid during the race.
c. Drink 6 liters of fluid during the race.
d. Drink 4 liters of fluid during the race.
b. Drink 2 liters of fluid during the race.

For clients engaged in prolonged endurance events who know what their sweat losses will be, which is the most appropriate advice to give in regards to developing a competition hydration strategy?
Select one:
a. Do not drink in excess of sweat losses and limit body mass loss to < 3-4%.
b. Replace 150% of sweat losses with fluid intake during the competition.
c. Try to match fluid intake during competition to sweat loss volume.
d. Drink 250 mL of fluid every 15 minutes.
a. Do not drink in excess of sweat losses and limit body mass loss to < 3-4%.

What is the body’s primary pathway of heat dissipation during exercise in the heat?
Select one:
a. Increasing the flow of blood volume to the skin’s surface
b. Increasing venous blood volume return to the heart by decreasing blood flow to the digestive system
c. Evaporation of sweat loss from the skin
d. Generation of convective forces through movement
c. Evaporation of sweat loss from the skin

Urine specific gravity is best assessed with which tool?
Select one:
a. Scale
b. pH meter
c. Osmometer
d. Refractometer
d. Refractometer

What is the fuel source for cells in the body?
Select one:
a. Adenosine triphosphate
b. Amino acids
c. Pancreatic amylase
d. Palmitic acid
a. Adenosine triphosphate

What does resistance exercise stimulate to increase the size of muscles, known as muscle hypertrophy?
Select one:
a. Muscle protein synthesis
b. Glycolysis
c. Metabolism
d. ATP production
a. Muscle protein synthesis

What type of nourishment should an athlete consume during an endurance event lasting over 60 minutes?
Select one:
a. Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels)
b. Solid foods low on the glycemic index
c. High-fiber carbohydrates
d. Foods high in fat content
a. Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels)

What type of nourishment should an athlete consume during an endurance event lasting under 60 minutes?
Select one:
a. High-fiber carbohydrates
b. Solid foods low on the glycemic index
c. Transportable carbohydrates (soft gels)
d. Water or electrolyte replacement drink
d. Water or electrolyte replacement drink

How can creatine help a client who wants to add size and strength?
Select one:
a. It can decrease the body’s production of ATP.
b. It can help increase aerobic capacity.
c. It can increase the rate of lypolysis
d. It can increase training workloads and muscular adaptations.
d. It can increase training workloads and muscular adaptations.

Higher protein intakes are associated with which of the following?
Select one:
a. Impaired kidney function
b. Improved resistance training outcomes in trained individuals only
c. Improved resistance training outcomes
d. Elevated blood pressure
c. Improved resistance training outcomes

Which term refers to skin tingling, a reported side effect from beta alanine use?
Select one:
a. Paresthesia
b. Anesthesia
c. Thermogenesis
d. Glycogenolysis
a. Paresthesia

Which of the following is the main way that the media influences eating behaviors?
Select one:
a. Companies are allowed to promise results without any evidence to back up claims.
b. Advertisements often tell people what they should be consuming.
c. The media has a priority of demonstrating a strong anti-fat bias.
d. It has an overall strong influence over what people see as “normal” and these images can be misleading.
d. It has an overall strong influence over what people see as “normal” and these images can be misleading.

Which of the following is one of the symptoms a medical professional will look for with anorexia nervosa?
Select one:
a. A lack of self-control
b. Frequent purging
c. Restriction of calories
d. Eating large amounts of food without guilt
c. Restriction of calories

Which of the following terms is defined as the ability to control impulses?
Select one:
a. Self-efficacy
b. Willpower
c. Personal effort
d. Gratification
b. Willpower

Which of the following is one of the symptoms a medical professional will look for with bulimia nervosa?
Select one:
a. Having a sense of calm following a binge
b. Avoiding mirrors
c. A BMI greater than 30 kg/m2
d. Binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors
d. Binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors

Which of the following is the best approach to dealing with program setbacks?
Select one:
a. Identify small successes to provide encouragement to move forward.
b. Identify key mistakes so the client knows what to change.
c. Provide praise and encouragement regardless of behavior.
d. Be stern and direct to keep the client focused.
a. Identify small successes to provide encouragement to move forward.

What best describes nonverbal communication?
Select one:
a. The emotional or perceived meaning of a word
b. The process of understanding what another person is feeling and experiencing
c. The act of mindfully hearing and comprehending the meaning of words
d. The exchange of information through wordless cues
d. The exchange of information through wordless cues

Which of the following is one primary goal of using supportive words?
Select one:
a. Decrease emotional response
b. Minimize ambiguity
c. Create purpose
d. Build efficacy
d. Build efficacy

Which of the following represents the importance of mirroring as a nonverbal communication technique?
Select one:
a. Allows coach to influence client perceptions
b. Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences
c. Allows coach to demonstrate authority
d. Allows coach set example for goal behavior
b. Allows coach to pick up on cultural differences

How many Motivational Interviewing strategies are there?
Select one:
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 7
a. 5

What can help a client define the best version of themselves?
Select one:
a. Values
b. Goals
c. Change talk
d. Attitudes
a. Values

A client improves their self-efficacy by successfully food prepping. Which of the following are they are using to improve their self-efficacy?
Select one:
a. Verbal persuasion
b. Physiological states
c. Vicarious experience
d. Performance accomplishments
d. Performance accomplishments

With which of the following does motivational interviewing start?
Select one:
a. A 24-hour dietary recall
b. Rolling with resistance
c. Collaboration
d. Giving the client advice
c. Collaboration

Which of the following is increased by self-determined goals that enhance commitment?
Select one:
a. Extrinsic motivation
b. Intelligence
c. Intrinsic motivation
d. Self-awareness
c. Intrinsic motivation

What are goals in relation to one’s own level of performance or behavior?
Select one:
a. Outcome goals
b. Subjective goals
c. Performance goals
d. Do your best goals
c. Performance goals

Which two types of goals appear to be the most effective?
Select one:
a. Process and performance goals
b. Long-term and outcome goals
c. Outcome and subjective goals
d. Subjective and do your best goals
a. Process and performance goals

What goals are focused on helping individuals to reach their performance goal?
Select one:
a. Do your best goals
b. Process goals
c. Subjective goals
d. Outcome goals
b. Process goals

When assessing body composition, a 2-compartment model divides the body into which two categories?
Select one:
a. Fat mass and bone mass
b. Fat mass and water content
c. Body mass and residual mass
d. Fat mass and fat-free mass
d. Fat mass and fat-free mass

Of the following methods, which estimate body composition based on the 3-dimensional volume of the body?
Select one:
a. Circumferences and skinfolds
b. Air displacement plethysmography and underwater weighing
c. Ultrasound and dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
d. Bioelectrical impedance analysis and bioimpedance spectroscopy
b. Air displacement plethysmography and underwater weighing

The average daily nutrient intake level estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals in a particular life stage and gender group is known as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)
b. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA)
c. Tolerable Upper Limit (UL)
d. Adequate Intake (AI)
a. Estimated Average Requirement (EAR)

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend emphasizing the consumption of certain food groups in the general population. What is one of these food groups?
Select one:
a. Full-fat dairy
b. Whole grains
c. Sodium
d. Raw sugar
b. Whole grains

Which of the following nutrients does not have a % Daily Value listed on the Nutrition Facts label?
Select one:
a. Added Sugars
b. Dietary Fiber
c. Protein
d. Carbohydrate
c. Protein

What is an appropriate visual approximation for fat at a meal for an average adult female who requires approximately 1500-1800 calories per day?
Select one:
a. Two cupped-palm portions
b. One mobile phone-sized portion
c. One thumb-sized portion
d. Two fist-sized portions
c. One thumb-sized portion

What is an appropriate visual approximation for starch at a meal for an average adult male who requires approximately 2200-2800 calories per day?
Select one:
a. One finger-sized portion
b. Two finger-sized portions
c. One cupped palm-size portion
d. Two cupped palm-size portions
d. Two cupped palm-size portions

If a food label in the EU and UK mentions a dietary ingredient in the product name or on the primary display panel, what must be included in the Ingredients List in addition to the name of the dietary ingredient?
Select one:
a. The source of the dietary ingredient
b. The volume of the dietary ingredient in the product
c. The percentage (%) by weight of the dietary ingredient in the product
d. The ratio of the dietary ingredient to the total number of ingredients in the product
c. The percentage (%) by weight of the dietary ingredient in the product

What is one tool that consumers can create and use to navigate and streamline their grocery shopping?
Select one:
a. A recipe
b. An activity tracker
c. A food log
d. A grocery list
d. A grocery list

Which of the following might be the best snack option for a client to select from a vending machine?
Select one:
a. A muffin
b. A package of cookies
c. cheese stick or Greek yogurt
d. A candy bar
c. cheese stick or Greek yogurt

A client expresses that he is planning on meal prepping and is going to cook enough chicken to last him for the whole week ahead. What might a Nutrition Coach suggest for food safety reasons?
Select one:
a. Suggest that he only cook enough chicken for one day’s worth of meals to avoid risk of food poisoning.
b. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for one or two days in the refrigerator.
c. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for three to four days in the refrigerator.
d. Suggest that he only cook enough for five days worth of meals to avoid risk of food poisoning.
c. Suggest that he freeze some portions since cooked chicken only lasts for three to four days in the refrigerator.

Which of the following appetizers would be the healthiest option for a client to select?
Select one:
a. Spinach and artichoke dip
b. Shrimp cocktail
c. Mozzarella sticks
d. Fried chicken tenders
b. Shrimp cocktail

What is the second important step that clients should consider in preparation for meal prep?
Select one:
a. Deciding what ingredients to buy for meal prep
b. Buying and storing food for meal prep
c. Budgeting and scheduling time for meal prep
d. Deciding how much food to buy for the week ahead
c. Budgeting and scheduling time for meal prep

What is described as a feeding pattern in which an individual alternates between a day of fasting (up to about 500 kcal) and a day of “feeding” (typically ad libitum dieting)?
Select one:
a. Calorie shifting
b. Cyclical fasting
c. Alternate day fasting
d. Calorie cycling
c. Alternate day fasting

What is a primary benefit of using a low-energy diet or a very low-energy diet?
Select one:
a. Weight loss will occur at a much faster rate than many other diets.
b. It will lead to greater maintenance of muscle mass compared to other diets.
c. The hunger hormone ghrelin is suppressed the most on these diets.
d. It will lead to increased bone mineral density and vitamin D absorption.
a. Weight loss will occur at a much faster rate than many other diets.

Which food group is avoided on a paleo diet?
Select one:
a. Grains
b. Nuts
c. Citrus fruit
d. Seeds
Feedback
a. Grains

According to global estimates, what is the prevalence of gluten-related disorders?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. 0.05
d. 0.25
c. 0.05

Vegans will likely have lower muscle stores of what compound when compared to non-vegans?
Select one:
a. Glycogen
b. Creatine
c. Triglycerides
d. Beta-alanine
b. Creatine

The link between nonnutritive sweeteners and obesity in observational research can be explained by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Publication bias
b. Reverse causality
c. Direct causality
d. Statistical manipulation
b. Reverse causality

Celiac disease is best described as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Food sensitivity
b. Gluten intolerance
c. Allergic reaction
d. Autoimmune condition
d. Autoimmune condition

Which of the following is produced in the lowest quantity during fructose metabolism?
Select one:
a. Fatty acids
b. Glucose
c. Lactate
d. Glycogen
Feedback
a. Fatty acids

Wheat allergy is best described as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Autoimmune condition
b. Allergic reaction
c. Food sensitivity
d. Gluten intolerance
b. Allergic reaction

Which item represents a method for re-establishing an energy deficit after a plateau?
Select one:
a. Increase meal frequency.
b. Choose foods with similar calories but more volume.
c. Choose foods with similar volume but fewer calories.
d. Increase protein intake to boost metabolism.
c. Choose foods with similar volume but fewer calories.

A client is looking to change nutritional habits and start a diet consisting of high protein and plenty of fruits and vegetables. Which item represents the best way to initially go about this?
Select one:
a. Educate the client on the benefits of high protein and high fruit and vegetable intakes.
b. Provide the client with a general guide to high protein/low energy-density diets.
c. Rely on the person’s initial high motivation to help start the diet.
d. Establish a specific plan for the diet and how to follow through with it.
d. Establish a specific plan for the diet and how to follow through with it.

Setting a “red light number” in terms of weight regain as a trigger for action can be useful for maintaining long-term weight loss. This is best categorized under which maintenance-associated factor?
Select one:
a. Coping capacity
b. Self-monitoring
c. Overcoming situational barriers
d. Self-efficacy
b. Self-monitoring

Which item represents a reason for poor long-term weight maintenance statistics?
Select one:
a. Lack of discipline
b. Increased availability of high-carbohydrate foods
c. Impaired satiety signals
d. Lack of willpower
c. Impaired satiety signals

A client’s previous diet involved a list of “good” or “bad” foods. Which characteristic of successful long-term weight maintenance would be useful for this client?
Select one:
a. Flexible dietary control
b. Intuitive eating
c. Managing cravings
d. Self-efficacy
a. Flexible dietary control

Peter consumes a modest fat intake of 30% of total calories. Peter is sticking with a 2,500-calorie diet to help lose some weight. How many calories should he consume from fat each day?
Select one:
a. 650 calories
b. 950 calories
c. 850 calories
d. 750 calories
d. 750 calories

Based on the most recent evidence, what is the upper range of protein intake that maximizes muscle growth?
Select one:
a. 3.6-4.2 g/kg/day
b. 0.5-0.8 g/kg/day
c. 1.6-2.2 g/kg/day
d. 0.2-0.4 g/kg/day
c. 1.6-2.2 g/kg/day

What are the guidelines for carbohydrate intake for strength or power athletes?
Select one:
a. 3-4 g/kg/day
b. about 12 g/kg/day
c. 5-6 g/kg/day
d. 1-2 g/kg/day
c. 5-6 g/kg/day

Peter, the 40-year-old business executive, needs to determine how many grams of protein to eat each day. He weighs 100 kg. His protein intake has been set at 1.6 g/kg. How much protein should he eat per day?
Select one:
a. 60 grams
b. 160 grams
c. 260 grams
d. 360 grams
b. 160 grams

A new client likes to consume large amounts of alcohol on a regular basis but he has a weight-loss health goal. What should the Nutrition Coach advise him in regard to his energy intake?

A. Focus on getting the right balance of macronutrients before worrying about alcohol.
B. Increase exercise frequency to account for the excess energy provided by alcohol.
C. Reduce energy intake by limiting alcohol consumption.
D. Reduce the intake of other macronutrients to accommodate energy from alcohol.
C. Reduce energy intake by limiting alcohol consumption.

For males, high levels of ethanol consumption are closely associated with what?

A. Excess belly fat
B. Improved muscle mass
C. High lean-body mass
D. Low body mass index
A. Excess belly fat

According to the USAUDIT-C, harmful alcohol consumption is indicated by scoring above which of the following thresholds?

A. 3 for males and 2 for females
B. 4 for males and 3 for females
C. 7 for males and 5 for females
D. 8 for males and 6 for females
C. 7 for males and 5 for females

Based on research, which group of college athletes is more likely to regularly consume alcohol at hazardous levels?

A. Intercollegiate athletes
B. Intramural/club athletes
C. Athletes from individual sports
D. All athletes are equally likely to consume hazardous levels of alcohol.
B. Intramural/club athletes

Based on the U.S. style eating pattern, how much energy should come from discretionary sources?

A. 5%
B. 8%
C. 14%
D. 18%
C. 14%

An alcohol-related reduction in which hormone can lead to muscle loss?

A. Estrogen
B. Insulin
C. Cortisol
D. Testosterone
D. Testosterone

Alcoholics often suffer from structural and functional damage to their brain as a result of a deficiency in which vitamin?

A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Niacin
D. Vitamin C
A. Thiamine

Why is breath alcohol level used as a measure of intoxication?

A. Because a small amount of ethanol stays in the mouth after being consumed
B. Because the end products of alcohol metabolism are excreted in the breath and can be measured by a breathalyzer
C. Because small amounts of ethanol are excreted in the breath
D. Because ethanol in the blood flowing to the mouth and head is excreted through the tissue inside the mouth
C. Because small amounts of ethanol are excreted in the breath

What effect can regular consumption of high levels of alcohol have on an individual’s health?

A. Brings about positive health benefits
B. Has no effect on health
C. Improves the health of males more than females
D. Increases the risk of a large number of diseases
D. Increases the risk of a large number of diseases

What are the likely effects of consuming alcohol prior to going to sleep?

A. Decreased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion
B. No change to sleep patterns or hormone secretion
C. Increase in REM sleep and increase in growth hormone secretion
D. Increased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion
D. Increased non-REM sleep and decreased growth hormone secretion

What is ethanol’s function in the body?

A. It has no function; it is a toxin.
B. It provides energy, like the other macronutrients.
C. It provides important vitamins and minerals.
D. It improves cognitive function and acts as a stimulant.
A. It has no function; it is a toxin.

What effect can reduced pyruvate from alcohol metabolism have if liver glycogen is low?

A. Fatty acid accumulation
B. Fatty liver disease
C. Severe hypoglycemia
D. Cancer of the liver
C. Severe hypoglycemia

Flushing of the skin after consuming alcohol is typically associated with which deficiency?

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase deficiency
B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency
C. Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency
D. Acetyl-CoA synthetase deficiency
B. Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase deficiency

Ethanol is ultimately metabolized to produce ATP and what other substances?

A. Acetyl-CoA and NADH
B. Oxygen and water
C. Carbon dioxide and water
D. Pyruvate and hydrogen peroxide
C. Carbon dioxide and water

Which product of ethanol metabolism disrupts fatty acid oxidation in peripheral tissues?

A. Acetate
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. NADH
D. Acetaldehyde
A. Acetate

According to the Dietary Guidelines for Americans, how many standard drinks per day are recommended for females to ensure that alcohol consumption is moderate?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
A. One

What enzyme, that is responsible for the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide, indirectly contributes to ethanol metabolism?

A. Protease
B. Catalase
C. Creatine kinase
D. Salivary amylase
B. Catalase

After exercise, when should alcohol be consumed?

A. Alcohol should never be consumed after exercise.
B. Alcohol should only be consumed after resistance exercise.
C. An individual should wait at least four hours after exercise to consume alcohol.
D. Alcohol can be consumed after rehydrating and consuming carbohydrates and protein.
D. Alcohol can be consumed after rehydrating and consuming carbohydrates and protein.

How is high-risk drinking categorized for males?

A. 2 or more standard drinks per day or 10 or more drinks per week
B. 4 or more standard drinks per day or 8 or more drinks per week
C. 5 or more standard drinks per day or 15 or more drinks per week
D. 8 or more standard drinks per day or 18 or more drinks per week
C. 5 or more standard drinks per day or 15 or more drinks per week

What is a limitation of the Mifflin St Jeor equation for estimating resting metabolism?
Select one:
a. It does not account for a person’s age.
b. It does not account for a person’s body composition.
c. It does not account for a person’s height.
d. It does not account for a person’s gender.
b. It does not account for a person’s body composition.

Which equation includes measures of body composition for estimating resting metabolic rate?
Select one:
a. Mifflin St. Jeor
b. Katch-McArdle
c. Stratton-Willis
d. Harris-Benedict
b. Katch-McArdle

What is the most important aspect of data analysis?
Select one:
a. It uses 80% quantitative and 20% qualitative measures, respectively.
b. It uses 20% quantitative and 50% qualitative measures, respectively.
c. It should be simple and focused on the most important aspects.
d. It uses a simple linear regression model.
c. It should be simple and focused on the most important aspects.

A client’s weight loss progress is very slow. The client is reporting a low calorie intake of 1200 per day. Their Nutrition Coach decides to increase the client’s calorie intake to give the person a diet break. Suddenly, the client starts to lose weight again. Which of the following best describes why this happened?
Select one:
a. The client was in “starvation mode” and boosting calorie intake got the client out of it.
b. The client had a more attainable calorie intake and was better able to adhere to the diet.
c. The client felt more energetic on the higher calorie intake and became more active.
d. The increase in calorie intake boosted metabolism.
b. The client had a more attainable calorie intake and was better able to adhere to the diet.

Which item best represents a psychological barrier to dietary adherence?
Select one:
a. No decrease in hunger during overfeeding
b. Tenacity of eating habits
c. Abundance of hyperpalatable, energy-dense foods
d. Strong increase in hunger in response to a calorie deficit
b. Tenacity of eating habits

Modest deficits, flexible dieting approaches, and avoiding dichotomous thinking around food and diets all represent which technique for improving adherence?
Select one:
a. Education
b. Rigid restraint
c. Managing feelings of deprivation
d. Self-monitoring
c. Managing feelings of deprivation

A client has just started a weight loss program and is trying a low-carb diet. There has not been any weight loss for the first 3 weeks of the diet. Which item represents the best approach to managing this situation?
Select one:
a. Wait another week to see if it’s a true plateau.
b. Decrease calorie intake further.
c. Change the dietary strategy, as early adherence predicts long-term adherence.
d. Increase physical activity.
c. Change the dietary strategy, as early adherence predicts long-term adherence.

Which item represents the likely outcome of a lapse in dietary adherence?
Select one:
a. Increase in energy expenditure
b. Decrease in energy intake
c. Decrease in energy expenditure
d. Increase in energy intake
d. Increase in energy intake

What is an example of a direct risk of GMO consumption?
Select one:
a. Increased use of pesticides on GMO crops
b. Reduced spoilage of produce
c. Increased intake of vitamin A (beta-carotene)
d. Expression of allergenic proteins
d. Expression of allergenic proteins

Non-celiac gluten sensitivity is best described as which of the following?
Select one:
a. Allergic reaction
b. Food sensitivity
c. Autoimmune condition
d. Gluten intolerance
b. Food sensitivity

High-fructose corn syrup usually contains what percentage of fructose?
Select one:
a. 55-65%
b. 65-75%
c. 45-55%
d. 75-85%
a. 55-65%

Switching from conventional to organic produce significantly reduces biomarkers of pesticide exposure in as little as how many days?
Select one:
a. 1-3 days
b. 13-15 days
c. 5-7 days
d. 9-11 days
c. 5-7 days

What does MyPlate recommend to eat less of?
Select one:
a. Saturated fat, sodium, and added sugars
b. Carbohydrates, gluten, and cholesterol
c. Genetically modified organism (GMO)
d. Omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids
a. Saturated fat, sodium, and added sugars

A ketogenic diet typically requires carbohydrate intake to be restricted to less than how many grams per day?
Select one:
a. < 50 g
b. < 200 g
c. < 5 g
d. < 500 g
a. < 50 g

What is the recommended total daily fat intake on a low-fat diet (LFD)?
Select one:
a. >40% of total calories
b. 10-15% of total calories
c. <5% of total calories
d. 20-35% of total calories
d. 20-35% of total calories

Which diet has the strongest and most extensive amount of peer-reviewed literature supporting its benefit for long-term health?
Select one:
a. Ketogenic diet
b. Mediterranean diet
c. Paleo diet
d. 5:2 diet
b. Mediterranean diet

Which of these foods would be the best source of calcium for a vegan client?
Select one:
a. Leafy green vegetables
b. Cow’s milk
c. Citrus fruit
d. Wheat
a. Leafy green vegetables

When dining out, certain key words on a menu can indicate how a dish has been prepared. In general, which preparation methods tend to be the healthiest (i.e. prepared with minimal added fat)?
Select one:
a. Dishes that are oven-baked, pan-fried, stir-fried, and grilled
b. Dishes that are grilled, braised, sautéed, or roasted
c. Dishes that are steamed, simmered, sautéed, and baked
d. Dishes that are poached, steamed, roasted, or broiled (without added fat)
d. Dishes that are poached, steamed, roasted, or broiled (without added fat)

When dining out, what is one useful strategy that consumers can employ prior to going to a restaurant in order to determine some healthy food choices?
Select one:
a. Avoid eating excessively ahead of time.
b. Eat ahead of time.
c. Look up the menu ahead of time.
d. Call ahead to ask for the daily specials.
c. Look up the menu ahead of time.

What is a mistake that can add excess calories that consumers may make when ordering salad for a meal?
Select one:
a. They add too many vegetables and grains.
b. They add too much protein.
c. They request dressing on the side.
d. They add too many high calorie items such as cheese, nuts, seeds, and dried fruit.
d. They add too many high calorie items such as cheese, nuts, seeds, and dried fruit.

B. J. Fogg’s behavior model argues for the idea of “designing for behaviors that lead to an outcome” versus designing for an outcome itself. What does this mean?
Select one:
a. Make large-scale changes to achieve the outcome.
b. Change all existing behaviors immediately to achieve the desired outcome.
c. Over-haul old habits to obtain the desired outcome.
d. Make small, healthy changes that eventually bring about the desired outcome.
Feedback
d. Make small, healthy changes that eventually bring about the desired outcome.
Feedback

Which of the following strategies might the Nutrition Coach recommend to a client who says that he finds himself snacking constantly at his desk at work?
Select one:
a. Remove snacks from his desk and immediate work area, and store them in the office kitchen.
b. Store snacks in his drawer versus on his immediate desk area.
c. Plan his meals for the day ahead of time.
d. Avoid bringing any snacks to work.
a. Remove snacks from his desk and immediate work area, and store them in the office kitchen.

A client asks if the Serving Size on a Nutrition Facts label is the recommended amount of the food that she should eat. How would a Nutrition Coach answer her?
Select one:
a. The Serving Size is a reference amount based on the amount of food that individuals are typically thought to eat at one sitting.
b. The Serving Size is a recommended amount for what individuals should eat at one sitting, but may vary from person to person.
c. The Serving Size is an accurate estimation of what individuals should be eating at one sitting.
d. The Serving Size is a standardized amount that reflects the amount of food that should be eaten by most individuals at one sitting.
a. The Serving Size is a reference amount based on the amount of food that individuals are typically thought to eat at one sitting.

he new/revised Nutrition Facts label requires the nutrient content of four micronutrients to be listed. These micronutrients are listed in which of the following groups?
Select one:
a. Potassium, Vitamin C, Vitamin D, Iron
b. Vitamin C, Calcium, Vitamin D, Iron
c. Potassium, Calcium, Iron, Vitamin C
d. Calcium, Vitamin D, Potassium, Iron
d. Calcium, Vitamin D, Potassium, Iron

Many vitamin and mineral supplements provide well over 100% of the Daily Value for those nutrients. Why is it important to review this information on a Supplement Facts label?
Select one:
a. The amount provided may or may not be appropriate for an individual, and it should be evaluated in the context of the individual’s needs, diet, health, and medical recommendation (if necessary).
b. Individuals who need supplements will always require over 100% the Daily Value, so it is important to look for larger amounts.
c. We do not absorb 100% of the nutrients in supplements, so it is important to look for products that provide well over 100% of the DV.
d. Supplements that provide less than 100% of the Daily Value are poor sources of those nutrients.
a. The amount provided may or may not be appropriate for an individual, and it should be evaluated in the context of the individual’s needs, diet, health, and medical recommendation (if necessary).

Which of the following is an appropriate visual approximation for vegetables at a meal for an average adult female who requires approximately 1500-1800 calories per day?
Select one:
a. A baseball
b. Two baseballs
c. Two tennis balls
d. A tennis ball
a. A baseball

Of the following methods, which estimate body composition based on how easily small electrical currents travel through the body?
Select one:
a. Air displacement plethysmography and underwater weighing
b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis and bioimpedance spectroscopy
c. Ultrasound and dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry
d. Circumferences and skinfolds
b. Bioelectrical impedance analysis and bioimpedance spectroscopy

Which body composition assessment method involves the estimation of the 3-dimensional volume of the body through measurement of an individual’s displacement of air while they sit in a sealed chamber?
Select one:
a. Infrared 3-dimensional scanning
b. Underwater weighing
c. Ultrasound
d. Air displacement plethysmography
d. Air displacement plethysmography

Which of the following best describes a characteristic of a 24-hour recall?
Select one:
a. It begins by making a quick list of foods and beverages consumed by the client.
b. It only needs to be performed for one day every 3 months for an accurate assessment.
c. It takes approximately 1 minute to complete.
d. It is a single-step process in which the client lists the brands of food items consumed in the last 24 hours.
a. It begins by making a quick list of foods and beverages consumed by the client.

Which body assessment method counts all weight as equal, regardless of what the weight is made of?
Select one:
a. Body Mass Index (BMI)
b. Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA)
c. Bioelectrical impedance analysis (BIA)
d. 2-compartment model
a. Body Mass Index (BMI)

What is the definition of intrinsic motivation?
Select one:
a. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not
b. Behavior that is directed by personal (internal) satisfaction such as personal enjoyment as well as striving for self-determination and competence
c. Attaining a specific standard of proficiency on a task, usually within a specified time
d. Recording and evaluating one’s own daily behaviors, usually in the form of a journal or calendar
b. Behavior that is directed by personal (internal) satisfaction such as personal enjoyment as well as striving for self-determination and competence

“I want to eat more vegetables,” is an example of which kind of goal?
Select one:
a. Subjective goal
b. Process goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Objective goal
a. Subjective goal

What is a decision balance sheet?
Select one:
a. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not
b. Recording and evaluating one’s own daily behaviors, usually in the form of a journal or calendar
c. Behavior that is directed by personal (internal) satisfaction such as personal enjoyment as well as striving for self-determination and competence
d. Attaining a specific standard of proficiency on a task, usually within a specified time
a. A technique to help people make decisions about starting a specific program or not

Jim wants to place in the top ten of a 5k race. What type of goal is this?
Select one:
a. Performance goal
b. Subjective goal
c. Outcome goal
d. Objective goal
c. Outcome goal

In which stage of change might a NutritionCoach help clients develop feasible plans for action?
Select one:
a. Precontemplation
b. Preparation
c. Contemplation
d. Termination
b. Preparation

Which of the following is a client who eats healthy food because eating food is connected to their identity is experiencing?
Select one:
a. Intrinsic motivation
b. Introjected regulation
c. Integrated regulation
d. External regulation
c. Integrated regulation

Which of the following is not a motivational interviewing strategy?
Select one:
a. Expressing accurate empathy
b. Enhancing self-efficacy
c. Identifying discrepancies
d. Creating arguments
d. Creating arguments

A coach summarizes and restates what a client has just told them by saying, “This is the third time you have made a serious effort at losing weight in the last two years. The goal is personally important to you for health reasons, but you are also worried about staying committed to the goal over the long haul.” Which of the following is the coach expressing?
Select one:
a. Listening skills
b. Change talk
c. Positive feedback
d. Accurate empathy
d. Accurate empathy

In terms of providing feedback to a client throughout a program, which of the following is the best approach?
Select one:
a. Provide consistent praise and encouragement.
b. Provide feedback to keep clients on track.
c. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy.
d. Provide consistent and thorough feedback to all clients.
c. Provide feedback based on client needs and efficacy.

Which of the following is best defined by the emotional or perceived meaning of a word?
Select one:
a. Explanation
b. Understanding
c. Connotation
d. Denotation
c. Connotation

Which of the following best describes the use of questioning in communication?
Select one:
a. Probing questioning should be primarily used to gain the most information.
b. Divergent questioning is the best tool to gain understanding of client preferences.
c. Closed-ended questioning should be avoided.
d. A variety of question types should be used to gain different information.
d. A variety of question types should be used to gain different information.

Which of the following represents ideal tone of voice as an effective nonverbal communication skill?
Select one:
a. Speaking softly when asking a difficult question
b. Raising pitch at end of sentence
c. Matching tone of client
d. Maintaining level tone across statements
d. Maintaining level tone across statements

Based on the importance of “soft skills” in professional success, into which of the following would be the best continuing education course for a Nutritional Coach to enroll?
Select one:
a. Programming for vegetarian athletes
b. Components of effective programming
c. Keys to effective communication
d. Influences on food choices
c. Keys to effective communication

Which of the following is studied in the field of psychology?
Select one:
a. The mind and behavior
b. Biological systems
c. Neurons and cells
d. Physiological pathways
a. The mind and behavior

Having a BMI less than which of the following values indicates an extreme case of anorexia nervosa?
Select one:
a. 19.0 kg/m2
b. 17.0 kg/m2
c. 15.0 kg/m2
d. 18.0 kg/m2
c. 15.0 kg/m2

How might depression affect healthy eating?
Select one:
a. Depression is known to cause both undereating and overeating in different individuals.
b. Depression is the sole cause of alcoholism.
c. Depressed individuals typically crave salty foods.
d. Depressed individuals generally do not value the benefits of healthy eating.
a. Depression is known to cause both undereating and overeating in different individuals.

Which of the following is a symptom of binge eating disorder?
Select one:
a. Intense fear of weight gain in the absence of purging
b. Frequent use of laxatives following meals and snacks
c. Having a BMI below 18.0 kg/m2 with chronic over-consumption of calories
d. Eating large amounts of food in a short period of time while feeling out of control
d. Eating large amounts of food in a short period of time while feeling out of control

A client wants to add 10 pounds of muscle. Which dietary supplement has been shown to enhance MPS with resistance training?
Select one:
a. Glutamine
b. Whey protein
c. Creatine monohydrate
d. Caffeine
b. Whey protein

All independent testing agencies provide which services?
Select one:
a. Identify ingredient forms and amounts
b. Tests for anabolic steroids
c. Effectiveness of the supplement
d. Annual audits of the supplement companies to ensure compliance to Good Manufacturing Practices
a. Identify ingredient forms and amounts

Which term refers to the synthesizing of amino acids into skeletal muscle tissue?
Select one:
a. Essential amino acids
b. Muscle protein synthesis
c. Protein balance
d. Muscle hypertrophy
b. Muscle protein synthesis

What is the daily amount of caffeine that is considered safe in healthy individuals?
Select one:
a. 800 mg/day
b. 10 mg/kg of body weight
c. 1,000 mg/day
d. 400-500 mg/day
d. 400-500 mg/day

When playing in a baseball game, what energy systems are primarily being used?
Select one:
a. Electron transport chain
b. Oxidative
c. Aerobic glycolysis
d. ATP-PC and glycolytic
d. ATP-PC and glycolytic

How much protein is suggested in a post-exercise snack for a strength athlete?
Select one:
a. 5-10g
b. 60-75g
c. 45-55g
d. 20-30g
d. 20-30g

Which nutrient is primarily responsible for building and repairing muscle tissue?
Select one:
a. Water-soluble vitamins
b. Fat-soluble vitamins
c. Protein
d. Carbohydrate
c. Protein

What energy source is preferred by the brain?
Select one:
a. Glucose
b. Triglycerides
c. Amino acids
d. Fatty acids
a. Glucose

When assessing your client’s sweat losses, a Nutrition Coach determines that their change in body mass is approximately 1.5 kg. How many liters of sweat does this equal?
Select one:
a. 1.4 liters
b. 2.0 liters
c. 1.6 liters
d. 1.5 liters
d. 1.5 liters

What is the minimum percentage of beverage fluid replacement range that should be suggested for clients who lose more than 3% of their body mass during training and train more than once over a 24-hour period?
Select one:
a. 140-150%
b. 110-120%
c. 90-100%
d. 120-130%
b. 110-120%

client has repeatedly exhibited a pre-exercise USG range between 1.014 and 1.018. How would a Nutrition Coach interpret this finding?
Select one:
a. The client is severely underconsuming fluids between training sessions.
b. The client is severely overconsuming fluids during recovery.
c. The client is doing a great job of meeting recovery fluid intake needs.
d. The client needs to drink more sport drinks.
c. The client is doing a great job of meeting recovery fluid intake needs.

Exercise associated hyponatremia is primarily caused by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Excessive fluid intake
b. Excess salt consumption
c. Not consuming adequate electrolytes
d. Not drinking enough sport beverages
a. Excessive fluid intake

What is the recommended serving amount of fruit per day based on USDA Guidelines?
Select one:
a. 1
b. 6
c. 4
d. 3
c. 4

In what process does selenium play a critical role?
Select one:
a. Carbohydrate metabolism
b. Antioxidant system
c. Fatty acid metabolism
d. Production of neurotransmitters
b. Antioxidant system

What is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) of vitamin A for adult males ( > 18 years of age)?
Select one:
a. 600 μg/day
b. 1000 μg/day
c. 400 μg/day
d. 900 μg/day
d. 900 μg/day

Deficiencies in vitamin E can lead to which of the following?
Select one:
a. Sarcopenia
b. Deafness
c. Blindness
d. Slurred speech
d. Slurred speech

Which of the following is true about the link between type-2 diabetes and diet?
Select one:
a. The link between them is very weak.
b. They have a very strong connection.
c. It is proven and no longer studied
d. It is not known.
b. They have a very strong connection.

Related Posts

Leave a Comment Cancel Reply