Hurst Readiness Exam 2: Questions & Answers; Well Elaborated: Latest Updated

Hurst Readiness Exam 2: Questions &
Answers
What medication should the nurse anticipate giving to a client in preterm
labor to stimulate maturation of the baby’s lungs?

  1. Magnesium sulfate
  2. Terbutaline
  3. Methotrexate
  4. Betamethasone
    (Ans- Rationale
  5. Correct:
    Betamethasone is used to stimulate maturation of the baby’s lungs in case
    preterm birth occurs. This medication is given to help prevent respiratory
    distress syndrome (RDS) by improving storage and secretion of surfactant
    that helps to keep the alveoli from collapsing.
  6. Incorrect: Magnesium sulfate is given to stop preterm labor, however, if
    delivery is imminent, then Betamethasone should be given to stimulate
    maturation of the baby’s lungs.
  7. Incorrect: Terbutaline is contraindicated in preterm labor, however, if
    delivery is imminent, then Betamethasone should be given to stimulate
    maturation of the baby’s lungs.
  8. Incorrect: Methotrexate is used to stop the growth of the embryo in
    ectopic pregnancy so that the fallopian tube can be saved. It is not an
    agent used in the management of preterm labor.
    An adult client has just returned to the nursing care unit following a
    gastroscopy. Which intervention should the nurse include on the plan of
    care?
  9. Vital sign checks every 15 min x 4
  10. Supine position for 6 hours
  11. NPO until return of gag reflex
  12. Irrigate NG tube every 2 hours
  13. Raise four side rails
    (Ans- Rationale
    1., & 3. Correct:
    Vital signs post procedure are important to monitor for any post-procedure
    complications such as bleeding or any signs of respiratory compromise. VS
    are checked frequently for the first hour post procedure. Any client who has
    a scope inserted down the throat and has received numbing medication in
    the back of the throat to depress the gag reflex should be kept NPO until
    the gag reflex returns.
  14. Incorrect: Supine position for 6 hours is contraindicated. The HOB
    should be elevated. In the event the client vomits, he/she is less likely to
    aspirate with the HOB elevated. Supine position for 6 hours is used after a
    heart catheterization.
  15. Incorrect: A client who is going for a gastroscopy procedure cannot have
    a nasal gastric tube. An NG tube would interfere with the procedure.
  16. Incorrect: Raising all side rails is a form of restraint. Have the bed in low
    locked position. Raise three side rails, and have call light within reach.
    A 70 year old client was admitted to the vascular surgery unit during the
    night shift with chronic hypertension. At 0830, the unlicensed nursing
    assistant (UAP) reports that the client’s BP is 198/94. What would be the
    best action for the charge nurse to delegate at this time?
  17. Ask the UAP to put the client back in bed immediately. 2. Tell the UAP to
    take the BP in the opposite arm in 15 minutes.
  18. Have the LPN/LVN administer the 0900 furosemide and enalapril now.
  19. Ask the LPN/LVN to assess the client for pain.
    (Ans- Rationale
  20. Correct:
    The nurse should recognize the need for measures to reduce the blood
    pressure. Administering the client’s blood pressure medicine is aimed at

correcting the problem. It is appropriate to administer the medications at
this time in relation to the time that the next dose is due.

  1. Incorrect: This is an appropriate action, but does not address the
    problem of lowering the client’s blood pressure.
  2. Incorrect: This is an appropriate action, but does not address the
    problem of lowering the client’s blood pressure.
  3. Incorrect: This is an appropriate action, but does not address the
    problem of lowering the client’s blood pressure.
    A client suffers from migraine headaches. What assessment finding would
    the nurse expect to find during a migraine attack?
  4. Unilateral, pulsating pain quality.
  5. Bilateral, pressing/tightening pain quality.
  6. Ipsilateral nasal congestion and rhinorrhea.
  7. Headache occurs after recovering from a headache treated with
    narcotics.
    (Ans- Rationale
  8. Correct:
    Migraine headaches have a pulsating pain quality, unilateral location,
    moderate or severe pain intensity, aggravated by or causing avoidance of
    routine physical activity (walking, climbing stairs). During headache at least
    one of the following accompanies the headache: nausea and/or vomiting;
    photophobia and phonophobia.
  9. Incorrect: This is seen in tension headaches. Headaches last 30 minutes
    to 7 days. Pain is mild or moderate in intensity. It is not aggravated by
    routine physical activity. Nausea/vomiting, photophobia and phonophobia
    are not common manifestations with tension headaches. These usually
    start gradually, often in the middle of the day.
  10. Incorrect: This is associated with cluster headaches, which are severe or
    very severe unilateral orbital, supraorbital and/or temporal pain lasting 15-
    180 minutes. Symptoms include stabbing pain in one eye with associated
    rhinorrhea (runny nose) and possible drooping eyelid on the affected side.

The headaches tend to occur in “clusters”: typically one to three headaches
per day (but may be as many as eight) during a cluster period.

  1. Incorrect: Overuse of painkillers for headaches, can, ironically, lead to
    rebound headaches. Culprits include over the counter medications such as
    aspirin, acetaminophen or ibuprofen, as well as prescription medications.
    Too much medication can cause the brain to shift into an excited state,
    triggering more headaches. Also, rebound headaches are a symptom of
    withdrawal as the level of medicine drops in the bloodstream. Rebound
    headaches may have associated issues such as difficulty concentrating,
    irritability and restlessness but does not typically include photophobia or
    visual disturbances as seen with migraines.
    The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the hospital following a
    severe motor vehicle crash (MVC) in which the client was trapped in the car
    for several hours. The client is being closely monitored for the development
    of renal failure. Which assessment finding would warrant immediate
    reporting?
  2. Creatinine 1.1 mg/dl (97.24 mmol/L)
  3. Urinary output of 150 mL per hour.
  4. Gradual increase of BUN levels.
  5. Calcium levels of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L)
    (Ans- Rationale
  6. Correct.
    Gradual accumulation of nitrogenous wastes results in elevated BUN and
    serum creatinine. This is an indication of impaired renal function.
  7. Incorrect. This is a normal creatinine level. Gradual accumulation of
    nitrogenous wastes from impaired renal function results in elevated BUN
    and serum creatinine.
  8. Incorrect. This is a normal output level. This level alone would not
    necessarily be an indicator of acute renal failure and that value alone would
    not warrant reporting it to the primary healthcare provider.
  9. Incorrect. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) is considered
    normal. When observing for renal functioning you would assess the BUN

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