2023 HESI MATERNITY PEDIATRICS EXAM VERSION 1,2 & 3 ACTUAL EXAM EACH VERSION CONTAINS 55 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% VERIFIED ANSWER) |ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)

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2023 HESI MATERNITY & PEDIATRICS EXAM VERSION 2 ACTUAL
EXAM 55 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (100% VERIFIED ANSWER) |ALREADY GRADED A+
(BRAND NEW!!)
1.The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client who had an evacuation of
gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) two days ago. Which information is most
important for the nurse to include in this client’s teaching plan?
A.Oral contraceptive use for at least one year.
2.The nurse is planning care for a client at 30-weeks’ gestation who is experiencing preterm
labor. What maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing
respiratory distress syndrome?
C. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12 mg deep IM.
3.The nurse places one hand above the symphysis while massaging the fundus of a multiparous
client whose uterine tone is boggy 15 minutes after delivering a 7-pound 10-ounce infant.
Which information should the nurse provide the client about this finding?
B. Both the lower uterine segment and the fundus must be massaged.
4.Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan of a 7-year-old girl
with a history of frequent urinary tract infections?
D. Monitor for changes in urinary odor.

5. A pregnant woman in the first trimester of pregnancy has a hemoglobin of 8.6 mg/dl and a
   hematocrit of 25.1%. What foot should the nurse encourage this client to include in her diet?
   B. Chicken.
6. The newborn nursery admission protocol includes a perception for phytonadione
   (Vitamin K1, AquaMEPHYTON) 0.5 mg IM to newborns upon admission. The ampoule
   provides 2 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer?
   0.3
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7. The nurse is preparing to administer methylergonovine maleate (Methergine) to a postpartum
   client. Based on what assessment finding should the nurse withhold the drug?
   C.Blood pressure 149/90.
8. The nurse is preparing a 10-year-old with a lacerated forehead forsuturing. Both parents and
   a 12- year-old sibling are the child bedside. Which instruction best supports this family?
   A.“While waiting for the healthcare provider, only one visitor may stay with the child”
9. The nurse is planning care for a 16-year-old, who has juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA).
   The nurse includes activities to strengthen and mobilize the joints and surrounding muscle.
   Which physical therapy regimen should the nurse encourage the adolescent to implement?
   C.Exercise in a swimming pool.
10. A primigravida arrives at the observation unit of the maternity unit because thinks is in
    labor. The nurse applies the external fetal heart monitor and determines that the fetal heart
    rate is 140 beats/minute and the contractions are occurring irregularly every 10 to 15
    minutes. What assessment finding confirms to the nurse that the client is not labor at this
    time?
    D.Contractions decrease with walking.
11. Which toy is most appropriate for a 10-year-old child with acute rheumatic fever who is
    on strict bedrest?
    D. Checkers
12. The nurse has completed a teaching plan for the mother of a child who is taking digitalis
    and a diuretic for treatment of the heart failure. Choosing which lunch would indicate
    that the mother understands the best diet for her child?
    B. Peanut butter and banana sandwich with orange juice.
13. A breastfeeding infant, screened for congenital hypothyroidism, is found to have low levels of
    thyroxine (T4) and high levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best
    explanation for this finding?
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C.The TSH is high because of the low production of T4 by the thyroid.

14. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. What
    should the nurse do first?
    D.Stimulate the infant to cry.
15. At 6-weeks’ gestation, the rubella titer of a client indicates she is non-immune. When is the
    best time to administer a rubella vaccine to this client?
    D. Early postpartum, within 72 hours of delivery.
16. A client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. Which assessment is most
    important for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased?
    D. Contraction pattern.
17. One day after vaginal delivery of a full-term baby, a postpartum client’s white blood cell
    count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?
    A.Check the differential, since the WBC is normal for this client.
18. A client delivers a viable infant, but beginsto have excessive uncontrolled vaginal bleeding
    after the IV Pitocin is infused. When notifying the healthcare provider of the client’s
    condition, what information is most important for the nurse to provide?
    A.Maternal blood pressure.
19. While obtaining the vital signs of a 10-year-old who had a tonsillectomy this morning, the
    nurse observes the child swallowing every 2 to 3 minutes. Which assessment should the
    nurse implement? A. Inspect the posterior oropharynx.
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2023 HESI MATERNITY & PEDIATRICS EXAM VERSION 3 ACTUAL
EXAM TEST BANK 130 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (100% VERIFIED ANSWER)
|ALREADY GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)

1. Monitoring for fetal position is important because the mother cannot tell you she has
   back pain, which is the cardinal sign of persistent posterior fetal position. Why do the
   regional blocks, especially epidural and caudal, often result in assisted delivery?
   A. inability to push effectively in 3rd stage
   B. inability to push effectively in 4th stage
   C. inability to push effectively in 1st stage
   D. inability to push effectively in 2nd stage
2. Early detection of rheumatoid arthritis can decrease the amount of bone and joint
   destruction and often the disease will go into remission. What activity recommendations
   should the nurse provide a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
   A. Exercise of painful, swollen joints to strengthen them
   B. Exercise joint to the point of pain so that the pain lessens
   C. Make Jerky movements during the exercise so that the pain lessens
   D. Perform exercises slowly and smoothly
3. A patient who is 32 weeks gestation has the following symptoms: dark, red vaginal
   bleeding, 100 bpm FHR, rigid abdomen, and severe pain. What is the difference
   between abruptio placentae and placenta previa?
   A. Abruptio placentae: painless bright red bleeding occurring in the third trimester
   B. Abruptio placentae: occurs in the second trimester
   C. Placenta previa: occurs in the second trimester
   D. Placenta previa: painless bright red bleeding occurring in the third trimester
4. A patient who is 32 weeks gestation is experiencing dark red vaginal bleeding and the
   nurse determines the FHR to be 100 bpm and her abdomen is rigid and board like. What
   action should the nurse take first?
   A. Administer O2 per face mask
   B. Abdominal manipulation
   C. vaginal manipulation
   D. Abdominal exam
5. A nurse must use knowledge base to differentiate between abruptio placentae from
   placenta previa. What assessments should be done in case of a patient suspected of
   abruptio placentae or placenta previa.
   A. abdominal or vaginal manipulation

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B. Leopold’s maneuvers
C. internal monitoring
D. Monitor for bleeding at IV sites and gums due to increased risk of DIC

6. A patient suspected of abruptio placentae or placenta previa should be monitored for
   bleeding at IV sites and gums due to increased risk of DIC. What isn’t DIC related to?
   A. cervical carcinoma
   B. fetal demise
   C. infection/sepsis
   D. pregnancy-induced hypertension
7. If a child is on oral iron medication, the family should be taught by the nurse how it
   should be administered. Out of the following options, what oral iron administration advise
   is inappropriate?
   A. Oral iron should be given on empty stomach
   B. Oral iron should be given with citrus juices
   C. Oral iron should be given with dairy products
   D. A dropper or straw should be used to avoid discoloring teeth
8. In autosomal recessive disease, both parents must be heterozygous, or carriers of the
   recessive trait, for the disease to be expressed in their offspring. If both parents are
   heterozygous, what is the chance the baby to have the disease as well?
   A. 1:2
   B. 1:3
   C. 1:4
   D. 1:1
9. When it comes to X-linked recessive linked recessive trait, the trait is carried on the x
   chromosome, therefore, usually affects male offspring. What is the chance for a
   pregnant woman carrier her offspring to get the disease?
   A. Male child: 75% of having the disease
   B. Female child: 50% of having the disease
   C. Male child: 50% of having the disease
   D. Female child: 25% of having disease
10. Supplemental iron is not given to clients with sickle cell anemia because the anemia is
    not caused by iron deficiency. What aspect is very important in treatment of sickle cell
    disease because it promotes hemodilution and circulation of red cells through the blood
    vessels?

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A. HgbAS
B. HGBS
C. Hydration
D. Hydrotherapy

11. An infant with hypothyroidism is often described as a “good, quite baby” by the parents.
    What early disease detection is essential in preventing mental retardation in infants?
    A. Hyperthyroidism
    B. Phenylketonuria
    C. Diabetes Mellitus
    D. Ketoacidosis
12. Diabetes mellitus (DM) in children was typically diagnosed as insulin dependent diabetes
    until recently. What diabetes type has been discovered to occur more often in Native
    Americans, African Americans, and Hispanic children and adolescents?
    A. Type 1
    B. Type 2
    C. Type 3
    D. Type 4
13. There has been an increase in the number of children diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes
    with the increasing rate of obesity in children thought to be a contributing factor. What
    other factors are thought to be contributing in the increase of Type 2 cases?
    A. Hypotension
    B. Hypokalemia
    C. Lack of physical activity
    D. Hyperkalemia
14. Fractures in older children are common as they fall during play and are involved in motor
    vehicle accidents. What fractures in children are related to child abuse?
    A. Greenstick Fracture
    B. Growth plate Fracture
    C. Torus Fracture
    D. Spiral fracture
15. Skin traction for fracture reduction should not be removed unless prescribed by
    healthcare provider. What fractures have serious consequences in terms of growth of the
    affected limb?
    A. Greenstick fracture

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2023 HESI MATERNITY PEDIATRICS EXAM VERSION 1 ACTUAL
EXAM 55 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES (100% VERIFIED ANSWER) |ALREADY GRADED A+
(BRAND NEW!!)
A child with severe burns begins to exhibit decreased level of consciousnessand
lethargy four days after being admitted to the burn unit. The nurse’s assessment reveals
a low-grade fever, but the client’s other vital signs are stable. The nurse should be alert
for which potential complication?
Respiratory failure.
Dehydration.
Correct
Sepsis.
Hypovolemia.
Rationale
Dead tissue and exudate associated with burned skin provides a fertile field for bacterial growth.If the
burn site is contaminated with infectious material, sepsis may occur. Decreased level of consciousness
and lethargy are early signs of sepsis.
Question 2 of 3
The parents of a 13-year-old male client are concerned that he may not have started
puberty. The client’s stage of puberty is assessed using the Tanner scale of
development. Which type of test is performed to determine this child’sTanner stage?
Correct
Orchidometry.
Radiological examination.
Bone densitometry.
Muscle mass calculation.
Rationale
Tanner’s staging is used to assess puberty milestones and compare individuals. In males, thestages are
partly based on testes volume, which is measured with an orchidometer.
Question 3 of 3
The nurse is assessing a 16-month old child whose mother is concerned thather 16-
month old child is not spontanesously speaking any meaningful
words. The child uses gestures and appears to have difficulty following verbal
directions. What is the next action the nurse should take?
Advise the mother to ask the primary care provider to conduct a thorough language

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assessment.
Correct

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Reassure the mother that this may be a variation of normal development.
Tell the mother that the child should see a speech pathologist before the child’ssecond
birthday.
Teach the mother that language development is not completed until 4 years of age.
Rationale
Indications for a referral for possible communication Impairment should be made if a toddler bythe age of
two is not speaking meaningful words spontaneously, consistently uses gestures rather than vocalizations,
appears to have difficulty in following verbal directions and fails to respond consistently to sound.
Question 1 of 3
The nurse is reviewing the white blood cell differential for an infant admittedfor
suspected sepsis in the client’s electronic medical record. The nurse should expect
the client to have elevated levels of which cells?
Monocytes.
Correct
Neutrophils.
Eosinophils.
Lymphocytes.
Rationale
Neutrophils are phagocytic immune cells that are recruited to sites of infection early in the immunologic
response cycle, known as the “first responders”. An acute bacterial infection increases the need for
neutrophils, so the nurse should expect a white blood cell differential thatreflects neutrophilia.
Question 2 of 3
An eighteen-month-old is put into an isolation room for suspected mumps dueto
presenting the following symptoms of parotitis, high fever, weakness
and muscle aches. Which factor should the nurse evaluate to help reduce thespread of
infection?
History of prodromal symptoms in child.
Documentation of immunization history.
Correct
Family members’ compliance with isolation measures.
Evidence of mumps in child’s school.
Rationale

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Isolation precautions must be observed in order to prevent the spread of communicablediseases. The
nurse must ensure that visiting family members adhere to the relevant precautions.
Question 3 of 3
Which information about toxic shock syndrome should the nurse emphasizewhen
counseling an adolescent female client?
Symptoms.
Correct
Prevention.
Medication.
Treatment.
Rationale
Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) occurs from a buildup of toxins produced by staphylococcus bacteria and
can lead to acute multisystem organ failure. Education should focus on preventivemeasures, such as the
dangers of prolonged tampon replacement use.
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a child who has just recovered from a transient periodof low
cardiac output. Which complication should the nurse be vigilant in assessing for in
this client?
Correct
Renal failure.
Rebound hypertension.
Persistent pallor.
Liver failure.
Rationale
Renal failure is a potential complication when a child suffers from a transient period of lowcardiac
output. The nurse should carefully measure and document intake and output.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a 19-year-old client who is pregnant with twins. The client
reports persistent severe headaches and blurry vision. The nurse notesthat the client’s
blood pressure is 190/100. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
Correct