TBS PHASE 4 EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL
EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS|AGRADE
Who can delegate the power to impose a NJP? – ANSWER- Only a flag or general
officer-in-command
What is the UPB? – ANSWER- the document the unit uses to record the
imposition of NJP on enlisted personnel.
Within how many days does an appeal need to be submitted by? – ANSWER- must
be submitted within five days (calendar days, not working days) of the imposition
of punishment.
Who is able to “appeal the authority” – ANSWER- The next commander in the
chain of command senior to the officer who imposed NJP
What is a summary court martial? – ANSWER- is the lowest, least severe form of
court-martial
under the UCMJ
Who can be tried by a Summary Court-Martial (SCM)? – ANSWER- Enlisted
service members only
What is the SCM composed of? – ANSWER- one commissioned officer
Steps to gaining a foothold – ANSWER- SOSR
What are the two types of promotion boards? – ANSWER- Headquarters Marine
Corps SNCO Selection Board.
Local enlisted screening boards
Principles of urban patroling – ANSWER- Depth
Mutual support
Deception and pattern avoidance
Intra patrol communication
Systems approach to training education – ANSWER- Analysis
Design
Development
Implementation
Evaluation
SOSR acronym – ANSWER- Suppress
Obscure
Secure
Reduce
Who may impose a NJP? – ANSWER- Company commanders and higher may
impose punishment on commissioned and warrant officers and enlisted members
of their commands.
What is a special court martial? – ANSWER- Battalion or squadron commanders or
higher convene
SPCMs. An SPCM requires a minimum of three members (if not military judge
alone).
As a result of a competency review board (CRB), Marines
will not be promoted within – ANSWER- – 12 months of an administrative
reduction to Sgt or
higher grade.
- 6 months of a punitive or administrative reduction to
LCpl or Cpl. - 3 months of a punitive or administrative reduction to Pvt or PFC.
Nonjudicial Punishment (NJP) Situations For nonjudicial punishment (NJP)
situations, – ANSWER- Marines will not be promoted Within 3 months of a date
awarded NJP
What is The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution? – ANSWER- protects the
right of people to
be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable
searches
and seizures. The Fourth Amendment requires that no search
“warrants” be issued
except on the basis of probable cause.
What is the time given for a Corrective Action after NJP? – ANSWER- If NJP was
executed, action may be taken within a
reasonable time (usually four months) to set aside the NJP.
What is IRAM (Individual Records Administration Manual)? – ANSWER- Gives
guidance for personal records management
Forms of punishment under UCMJ – ANSWER- Non punitive measures
Extra military instruction
Non punitive letter of caution
Administrative withholding of privileges
MAGTF composition – ANSWER- Command
Ground
Air
Logistics
Types of MAGTF – ANSWER- MEF, MEB, MEU, SPMAGTF
MEF Sustainment – ANSWER- 60 days
MEB sustainment – ANSWER- 30 days
MEU sustainment – ANSWER- 15 days
Actions on contact with IEDs – ANSWER- Confirm
Clear
Cordon
Check
Control
Types of awards – ANSWER- Unit awards
Campaign awards
Personal military decorations
Marine Reported on (MRO) – ANSWER- Subject to Fitrep
Reporting Senior (RS) – ANSWER- Largely based on initial counseling
TBS PHASE 3 EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL
EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS|AGRADE
Describe Hasty Attack – ANSWER- an attack when the commander decides to
trade preparation time for speed to exploit an opportunity.
Describe a deliberate attack – ANSWER- a type of offensive action characterized
by pre-planned and coordinated employment of firepower and maneuver to close
with and destroy the enemy
Three phases of an attack – ANSWER- Preparation
Conduct
Exploitation/Consolidation
6 forms of offensive maneuver? – ANSWER- 1. Frontal
- Flanking
- Envelopment
- Turning
- Infiltration
- Penetration
Tell me about frontal attacks – ANSWER- used to rapidly destroy a weak enemy
force or to fix an enemy in place to support a flanking attack. The frontal attack is
simple and easy to control but attacks the enemy’s strongest point.
Uses fire and movement.
Think R5!
Marines use the __ mil rule to avoid fratricide. – ANSWER- 300 (mil)
Tell me about flanking attacks – ANSWER- uses fire and maneuver in order to
gain a position of advantage against an enemy vulnerability.
A flanking attack usually uses a support by fire position that diverts attention away
from the main effort and uses fires to fix the enemy in place which prevents them
from reorienting on the main effort.
Where should the Platoon Cmdr place the SBF position? – ANSWER- The SBF
direction of fire is ideally located 60-90 degrees offset from the maneuver
element’s direction of attack. This allows the maneuver element to advance as close
to the enemy as possible under friendly suppression without the risk of fratricide.
What are the two methods of occupying an SBF position? – ANSWER- Stealth
Force
Common TCMs in a Platoon-Sized Atk – ANSWER- Boundary
Assembly Area
Attack Position
Line of Departure
Checkpoint
Phase Line
Release Point
Target Reference Point
Assault Pos
Objective
Limit of Advance
Linkup Point
Most offensive missions will have a fire support plan utilizing IDF (mortars, arty).
The IDF supports maneuver. What types of IDF fires are there in the offense?
(Hint, there are three) – ANSWER- Preparatory Fires: Battalion or higher. Purpose
is to isolate the enemy.
Fires ISO Conduct: Used by PC to support maneuver (beginning of R5)
Fires ISO Consolidation: prevent counterattack (end of R5).
What three things should a tasking statement include? – ANSWER- 1. Condition
- Tactical Tast
- Purpose
Common signals used for SBF position – ANSWER- Commence
Shift
Cease
Displace
Commence (SBF signal) – ANSWER- When to begin firing. If occupying by force
this will be the signal to seize the position. Should be:
Original;
Appropriate;
Redundant; and
Simultaneous.
Shift (SBF signal) – ANSWER- When the maneuver element reaches the objective
the support by fire element may still able to safely suppress deep targets or another
part of the objective.
Cease (SBF Signal) – ANSWER- When support by fire element can no longer
support the maneuver element without the risk of fratricide, or when their fires are
no longer needed.
Displace (SBF signal) – ANSWER- Tells the support by fire element to execute the
displacement criteria and is usually briefed in scheme ofmaneuver and/or the
support by fire element’s task.
Criteria includes:
Method
Objective
Route
Time
Key Steps in Supervise Phase – ANSWER- Rehearsals;
PCCs;
PCIs.
Tell me about rates of fire? What is it, and why is it relevant? – ANSWER- Rates
of fire typically used by the support by fire position are sustained and rapid.
Rapid Rate of Fire (SBF) – ANSWER- The rapid rate of fire provides more
suppression but uses double the ammunition. This will cause weapons to overheat
and malfunction more often and begins to affect soldiers’ load—a machinegun
squad will go through 14 pounds of ammunition per minute at the rapid rate. The
rapid rate can be used to achieve fire superiority when commencing fire, or when
the maneuver element slows because of effective enemy fire, or when the
maneuver element is about to reach the objective.
Sustained Rate of Fire (SBF) – ANSWER- The sustained rate of fire provides
average suppression and conserves ammunition—in most cases, a round on target
every five seconds will keep the enemy’s head down as effectively as two or three
rounds every five seconds. The sustained rate of fire will not overheat weapons and
should be the default rate of fire unless a higher rate is needed to achieve effective
suppression.
What are the three offensive principles that guide rifle platoons? – ANSWER- 1.
Orient
- Disrupt and Fix
- Maneuver and Follow Through
Talk to me about Ting and Ted – ANSWER- Ting = SupporTING element. Could
be an SBF position or Marine in Fore, laying suppressing fires.
Ted = SupporTED element. Could be maneuver element of Marine in aft rushing
past fore position.
Which do we decide on first: our assault pos/maneuver route, or our SBF position?
- ANSWER- We plan assault pos first and then we establish our SBF pos later.
Tell me about the offset principles of SBF. How many degrees do I need for MSL
for fixed and unfixed fires? – ANSWER- Fixed weapon (tripod/bipod) = 15
degrees
Unfixed (rifle) = 45 degrees
What is the purpose of leader’s recon? – ANSWER- To confirm or deny our
EMLCOA/estimate of the situation.
What is the trinity of the night? – ANSWER- Direction
Surprise
Control
Advantages of Night Attacks – ANSWER- Conceals your movement
TBS PHASE 2 EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL
EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS|AGRADE
Which capabilities does Assault Support Operations provide? – ANSWER- Attack
enemy positions from any direction
The five stages of Assault Support Operation planning are the ground tactical plan,
landing plan, air movement plan, and what other two? – ANSWER- Loading plan
and staging plan
Which platform is considered an Assault Support Aircraft? – ANSWER- CH-53
The term Assault Support Operations is defined as the tactical movements of
Marines, weapons, and material by ______________________ to
support the ground tactical plan – ANSWER- Assault Support Aircraft
Prior to landing in the zone, what information should be passed to the transport
aircraft? – ANSWER- Landing zone brief
How many transmissions are necessary to transmit a Call for Fire (CFF)? –
ANSWER- 3
How many elements are included in an adjust fire (AF) call for fire (CFF) request?
- ANSWER- 6
When is an immediate suppression mission used? – ANSWER- To fire on a
planned target or target of opportunity that has taken friendly units under fire
Target location is given in which transmission of the CFF? – ANSWER- Second
Which element is a standard part of the message to observer? – ANSWER- Target
number
During a polar plot CFF, what unit of measurement is used to express direction and
distance? – ANSWER- mils (grid), meters
What are the 5 essential elements of an offensive scheme of maneuver? –
ANSWER- Distribution of forces, Form of maneuver, Direction of attack, Tactical
control measures, consolidation
The Command sub paragraph consists of what sections? – ANSWER- Location of
key personnel and succession of command
Which of the following acronyms is used to describe the composition, disposition,
and strength of enemy forces? – ANSWER- Size, Activity, Location, Unit, Time,
Equipment
The method portion of Commander’s Intent includes which of the following? –
ANSWER- Enemy Center of Gravity, Critical Vulnerability, Exploitation Plan
Identify the 6 main sections to the five paragraph order – ANSWER- Orientation,
Situation, Mission, Execution, Admin and Logistics, Command and Signal
Instructions that are not included in tasks and pertain to two or more subordinate
units are known as? – ANSWER- Coordinating Instructions
Rational Calculation forms the basis for what type of decision making –
ANSWER- Analytical
Identify a disadvantage of Analytical decision making – ANSWER- Time
Consuming
Which decision making type includes Feature-Matching and Reasoning by
Analogy? – ANSWER- Recognitional
The Boyd Cycle, also known as the _ Loop, is used to describe are
occurring decision making cycle – ANSWER- OODA
Identify an advantage for Recognition decision making – ANSWER- Requires little
time
Identify a disadvantage for Recognition decision making – ANSWER- Requires
large experience base on the subject before the crisis
Identify an advantage of Analytical decision making – ANSWER- Manages large
amount of information
TBS PHASE 1 EXAM LATEST 2023-2024 REAL
EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS|AGRADE
define Operational Security (OPSEC), – ANSWER- The process to deny the enemy
critical information about us.
identify immediate actions for safeguarding suspected classified material –
ANSWER- Report all security violations or suspected compromises, including
espionage attempts, to the security manager immediately.
identify the levels of classified materials security classification – ANSWER- 1. Top
Secret –
- Secret
- Confidential – –
- Unclassified –
top secret – ANSWER- – unauthorized disclosure can be expected to cause
exceptionally grave damage to national security. Orange cards
Secret – ANSWER- unauthorized disclosure could be expected to cause serious
damage to national security. Red card indicator
Confidential – ANSWER- – could be expected to cause identifiable damage to
national security- blue cards
Unclassified – ANSWER- any other material not marked
identify procedures for classified material spillage or compromise – ANSWERReport all security violations or suspected compromises, including espionage
attempts, to the security manager immediately.
Use classified material in a controlled environment that limits the number of
people who have access to it.
Cover or close material if uncleared personnel approach.
Never leave classified material unsecured.
Never take classified material home.
Memorize safe combinations; written records of combinations are only maintained
in the CMCC and may not be held by any individual.
Store nothing valuable with classified material.
Do not discuss classified material with anyone other than cleared personnel with
need to know.
Destroy material exactly when told using the prescribed method.
identify the procedures for reporting persons suspected of espionage – ANSWERreport the incident or person immediately to your chain of command, security
manager, S-2 Intelligence Officer, or Naval Criminal Investigative Services (NCIS
identify the methods used by foreign agents to collect information – ANSWER- 1.
Exploiting or stealing classified equipment and technology
- Illegally transferring U.S. technology from third countries
- Covert espionage.
- Recruitment of Americans to a foreign cause or the exploitation of human
intelligence. - Cyber attacks
identify procedures for handling of “For Official Use Only” materials – ANSWERidentify ways to safeguard personally identifiable information (PII) in – ANSWER1. Ensuring that PI/PII contained in a system of records, , is protected so that the
security and confidentiality of the information is preserved. - Not disclosing any information contained in a system of records
- Not maintaining unpublished official files.
- Safeguarding the privacy of individuals and confidentiality of PI/PII contained
in a system of records. - Properly marking all FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY – PRIVACY SENSITIVE –
Any misuse or unauthorized disclosure can result in both civil and criminal
penalties.” - Not maintaining privacy sensitive information in public folders.
- Reporting any unauthorized disclosure of PI/PII f
. - DON activities shall not maintain records describing how an individual
exercises his/her rights guaranteed by the First Amendment
define personally identifiable information (PII – ANSWER- Any information or
characteristics that may be used to distinguish or trace an individual’s identity, such
as their name, social security number, or biometric records. PII falls under the subclassification For Official Use Only (FOUO).
Communications
Security (COMSEC – ANSWER- Measures and controls taken to deny
unauthorized persons information derived from telecommunications systems and
ensure authenticity of such communications
Classified Information – ANSWER- Official information which has been
determined to require, in the interests of national security, protection against
unauthorized disclosure and which has been so identified by the assignment of a
security classification
Classified Material – ANSWER- A document or any media upon which classified
information is recorded or embodied.
Security – ANSWER- The establishment of a protected environment for classified
information and materials
Access – ANSWER- The ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge of classified
information or possession of classified materials.
Need to Know – ANSWER- The necessity for access to knowledge or possession
of classified information in order to carry out official military or government
duties.
Clearence – ANSWER- An administrative determination by a designated authority
that an individual is eligible for access to classified information of a specific
classification designation or less.
The 3 big – ANSWER- 1. Clearence , CCES and need to know
Original classification – not you – ANSWER- The Secretary of the Navy severely
restricts the power to classify new material or information which is not derived
from previously existing material or information
Derivative Classification Authority- ME – ANSWER- This power is inherent to all
personnel who work with classified materials and information. Specifically, if you
produce or extract classified material or information from other classified material,
you are responsible for classifying the newly created material to the appropriate
level. This authority must be exercised daily to ensure security.
Clearences – ANSWER- 1. Top Secret- 5 years max, based on one single scoop
background investigation
- Secret- 10 years max, i
- Confidental- 15 years
Billets and individual responsibility of CO – ANSWER- Is directly responsible
and, therefore, accountable for all matters pertaining to the security of classified
materials and information held or used by the command.
Responsibilities of Security manager – ANSWER- The CO assigns the unit security
manager, usually the battalion executive officer (XO). The security manager:
Investigates all security violations and suspected compromises of classified
information and materia
Custodians – ANSWER- The two different custodians in the infantry battalion are
the classified material control custodian (CMCC) and the electronic keying
material systems manager. Custodians:
Store classified material in containers appropriate for the classification level of
material being stored.
Classified Material Control Custodian (CMCC) – ANSWER- Normally, the CMCC
is the S-1/Adjutant and handles classified materials such as operation orders,