Portage Learning Microbiology Exam #1
Latest 2022 Already Passed
Microorganism ✔✔Single cell (bacteria, archaeons, fungi, protozoa, algae)
Virus ✔✔Not living, not considered microorganisms, considered microbes
Microbes ✔✔Include microorganisms and viruses, can be advantageous or harmful
Cell ✔✔Smallest, most basic biological unit of life
All cells are compromised of ✔✔Macromolecules (building bloacks)
Four main types of macromolecules found ing cells ✔✔Proteins, nucleic acids, lipids, and
polysaccharides
Proteins ✔✔Comprised of amino acids, facilitate movement of materials, act as enzymes to speed
up biochemical processes, structural role
Amino Acid ✔✔Way proteins are formed by varying combinations, 20 different kinds
Each protein ✔✔has its own unique sequence of amino acids
Essential Amino Acids ✔✔human body cannot produce them, they must be taken in from the
environment through other sources (food you eat)
Nucleic Acid ✔✔chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell
Two types of nucleic acids ✔✔DNA and RNA
DNA ✔✔deoxyribonucleic acid, contains vast amount of hereditary info and is responsible for the
inheritable characteristics of living organisms, made from nucleotides
RNA ✔✔ribonucleic acid, responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and
using it to synthesize proteins
Can DNA and RNA be found in the nucleus? ✔✔Yes
Can DNA and RNA leave the nucleus? ✔✔Only RNA. DNA is highly compact in the nucleus
Three parts of a nucleotide ✔✔Nitrogenous base, sugar called deoxyribose, and a phosphate group
Four kinds of nitrogenous bases ✔✔Adenine or guanine (purine bases) and cytosine or thymine
(pyrimidine bases)
What forms the backbone of a DNA strand? ✔✔Sugar and phosphate
What base protrudes outward from the deoxyribose sugar? ✔✔Nitrogenous base
Strands from DNA produce a ✔✔double helix (two strands held together by hydrogen bonding)
Adenine and Thymine ✔✔Complimentary bases, form two hydrogen bonds
Guanine and Cytosine ✔✔Complimentary bases, form three hydrogen bonds
RNA contains the _ ribose rather than deoxyribose ✔✔Sugar
Portage Learning: Microbiology Final
Exam Set Already Passed
Microbiology is the study of what? ✔✔Microbiology is the study of microbes (microorganisms
and viruses) and their biological processes.
What is the smallest biological unit of life? ✔✔A cell
What is a macromolecule? ✔✔A macromolecule is classified as a complex molecule that is
composed from smaller subunits.
What are the four main types of macromolecules? ✔✔Proteins, nucleic acids, lipids and
carbohydrates
What various functions do proteins have in a cell? ✔✔Proteins may facilitate the movement of
materials in or out of a cell. Some can act as enzymes that catalyze, or speed up, biochemical
processes. Others play a structural role while other proteins, such as filaments, enable movement.
What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? ✔✔There are two major types of
nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are
chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of
hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms.
RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize
proteins.
What is the plasma membrane, and what is it made up of? ✔✔The plasma membrane serves the
cell as a surrounding barrier that separates the inside of the cell from the outside surrounding
environment. The plasma membrane also restricts the movement of materials (water, nutrients,
etc) either in or out of the cell, thus allowing a cells to absorb and keep what is needed (influx)
while also preventing the escape (out flux) of essential nutrients. The plasma membrane is
composed of lipids (hydrophobic hydrocarbons).
What are the three main components of polysaccharides? ✔✔Polysaccharides are composed of
carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. Examples would include, C6H12O6 (glucose) C12H22O11
(sucrose) and C6H10O5 (cellulose).
What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? ✔✔Eukaryotic cells
contain a nucleus, a membrane enclosed region within the cell that contains the genetic material.
Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus and can be further classified as either Bacteria or Archaea.
What are the main morphologies of bacteria? ✔✔Bacteria can be described as coccus
(round/spherical), bacillus (rod), vibrio (curved rod) or spirillum (spiral/corkscrew).
Which group (classification) of microbes is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions?
✔✔Archaea. They are able to survive in extremely harsh environmental conditions such as high
salt levels, acid conditions, high temperatures and oxygen-poor conditions.
What are the four main classifications of Eukarya? ✔✔Eukaryotic microorganisms are classified
as either belonging to Animalia, Plantae, Fungi or Protista.
Can viruses be classified as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic? ✔✔No. Viruses are considered
neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic. Viruses are not considered living and do not replicate on their
own, meaning they must replicate within a host.
The lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane is composed of what? ✔✔The cell membrane is a bilayer
composed primarily of amphipathic phospholipids, meaning they contain a polar hydrophilic
(water loving) head group and a non-polar hydrophobic (water fearing) tail region. The lipid
bilayer is situated in such a way where the non-polar tail groups face inward thus orienting the
polar head groups to interact with water both outside and inside of the cell.
What are the primary cellular organelles described in this module? Be sure to know the roles of
each. ✔✔Ribosomes (protein synthesis), ER (site of protein synthesis), Golgi (protein
modification and distribution), lysosomes (waste disposal), mitochondria (ATP generation) and
chloroplasts (plants only; site of photosynthesis).
Be able to identify the primary organelles within a cell as shown in Figures 1.4 ✔✔Prokaryotic
Cell
Be able to identify the primary organelles within a cell as shown in Figures 1.5 ✔✔Eukaryotic
Cell
Be able to identify the primary organelles within a cell as shown in Figures 1.6. ✔✔EC magnified
True/False. A virus is considered a microorganism. ✔✔False.
Viruses are not living and as such are not considered microorganisms. Viruses can, however, be
classified as microbes, a more general term that includes microorganisms and viruses.
What is the smallest biological unit of life? ✔✔A cell
At a generalized level, all cells are comprised of what? ✔✔Macromolecules*
*A student may also answer: Proteins, Lipids, Nucleic acids and Carbohydrates, but they must
answer with all four to be fully correct.
How many different types of amino acids are available from which to make proteins? ✔✔20
How many amino acids are classified as being essential amino acids? ✔✔9
What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? ✔✔There are two major types of
nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are
chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of
hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms.
RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize
proteins.
Complete the following DNA strand, and indicate how many bonds are formed for each
complementary pair:
3′ GGTCATCG 5’5′ CC AGC 3′ ✔✔3′ GGTCATCG 5’5′ CCAGTAGC 3’There are 2 bonds formed
between A and T, and 3 bonds between G and C.
The plasma membrane (select all that are true):
A) Only restricts movement of materials into the cell.
B) Is often a bilyaer comprised of lipids
C) Cannot prevent essential nutrients from escaping
D)Contains hydrophobic tails pointing inward. ✔✔B & D
How many carbon atoms are present in glucose? ✔✔6, The molecular formula of Glucose is
C6H12O6
True of False: Eukaryotic cells do not have a nucleus. ✔✔False, Eukaryotic cells do have a nucleus
(prokaryotic cells do not).
True or False: Prokaryotic cells can be subdivided into Bacteria and Archaea. ✔✔True
True or False: Archaea is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions. ✔✔True, Archaea
can often be found in harsh conditions such as high salt levels, high acid conditions, high
temperatures and even oxygen-poor conditions.
Portage Learning: Microbiology Module
1 with Complete Answers
Microbiology is the study of what? ✔✔Microbiology is the study of microbes (microorganisms
and viruses) and their biological processes.
What is the smallest biological unit of life? ✔✔A Cell
What is a macromolecule? ✔✔A macromolecule is classified as a complex molecule that is
composed from smaller subunits.
What are the four main types of macromolecules? ✔✔1. Carbohydrates
- Lipids
- Proteins
- Nucleic Acids
What various functions do proteins have in a cell? ✔✔Proteins may facilitate the movement of
materials in or out of a cell. Some can act as enzymes that catalyze, or speed up, biochemical
processes. Others play a structural role while other proteins, such as filaments, enable movement.
What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? ✔✔There are two major types of
nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are
chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of
hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms.
RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize
proteins.
What is the plasma membrane, and what is it made up of? ✔✔The plasma membrane serves the
cell as a surrounding barrier that separates the inside of the cell from the outside surrounding
Portage Microbiology Lab Exam 3 Latest
2022
List the four main steps used to prepare a DRY mount, and indicate which step is optional. ✔✔1
- Clean slide2 – Circle area on slide for specimen placement (OPTIONAL)3 – Apply organism to
slide4 – Air dry at room temperature
Why is it important to first clean your slide before applying your sample? ✔✔You must first
remove any unwanted contaminants from the slide otherwise it may be difficult to distinguish
between the pathogen of interest and a contaminant.
You wish to study the motility of a particular bacterium. What type of mounting technique would
you use? Explain your answer. ✔✔A wet mount technique is the best technique to use when
studying motility of an organism because the sample remains viable (heat fixing kills the sample).
What dye do Gram-positive bacteria primarily retain? ✔✔crystal violet
Why are Gram-positive bacteria able to retain the crystal violet dye? ✔✔They contain a thick
peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall that readily retains the dye.
Identify the Gram status (positive or negative) and shape of the bacteria pictured below. ✔✔Gramnegative; Bacillus (rod)
When might you want to utilize a negative stain technique in the lab? What is the name of the
primary dye used in this technique? ✔✔A negative stain is used to identify organisms with an
opaque structure. Nigrosin dye.
Portage Learning: Microbiology, Module
3 – MICROSCOPY
micrometer ✔✔one millionth of a meter
nanometer ✔✔one billionth of a meter
resolution and contrast ✔✔two critical factors that influence our ability to see an object
resolution ✔✔the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate
greater ✔✔the closer two objects are to each other the ______ the resolution
requirement
contrast ✔✔the difference in light absorbance between two areas (objects)
lower ✔✔the ____ the contrast between an object and its background, the harder it
will be to see the object
bright field microscope ✔✔simplest form of light, or optical, microscopy/light, most often emitted
from a standard halogen bulb, enters the microscope from the base (bottom) and is reflected via
mirrors towards the sample
condenser ✔✔before the light reaches the sample, it first passes through a ____
converging the light beams into a focused area on the sample
iris diaphragm ✔✔controls the amount of light that passes through the sample and into the
objective lens
objective lens ✔✔the lens closest to the sample and yields the greatest amount of magnification
directly proportional ✔✔the degree of magnification is __________ to the amount
of light needed/to image samples clearly at higher magnifications, more light is required
ocular lens ✔✔eyepiece
10x ✔✔most common power of ocular lens
total magnification ✔✔objective x ocular lens=
staining ✔✔required due to the limitation of resolution on unstained cells, (i.e.) often the flat and
transparent regions of a cell may appear invisible under bright field conditions/with various dyes,
these regions can become labeled and thus visualized.
phase contrast microscope ✔✔able to visualize certain structures that would otherwise be
invisible/ can provide detailed images of live cells without staining./uses specialized condensers
and objectives, it amplifies the slight differences between cells and the surrounding medium
(background) to make the cells highly distinguishable/can be used to visualize cell movements
dark field microscope ✔✔can be used to greatly increase the contrast between a specimen and
background, resulting in a dark background with bright objects in it/reflects light off of the
specimen at an angle/does not permit the visualization of intracellular structures
fluorescence microscope ✔✔takes advantage of fluorescent molecules called fluorophores to
visualize cells on a dark background/ energy of the incoming light is in the form of the ultraviolet
(UV) spectrum.
UV light ✔✔_ excites different fluorophores at varying wavelengths, enabling
scientists to use a wide array of colors during imaging
Portage Learning: Microbiology Module
4 Rated A+
What is another name for a liquid growth media, and what are the basic components? ✔✔Growth
media in a liquid form is often referred to as nutrient broth. As the name implies its composition
consists primarily of essential ‘ingredients’ such as a rich source of sugars, amino acids and
vitamins. Together, a nutrient broth provides the microbe with a source of carbon/energy, which,
in turn, encourages its expansion.
What is selective media? ✔✔Selective media allows for only the growth of certain microbes while
restricting the growth of all others.
What is differential media? ✔✔Differential media is used to distinguish between two (or more)
related microbes.
What are the requirements of a fastidious microbe? ✔✔A fastidious microbe is an organism with
complex growth requirements such that if absent it will not grow. Enriched medias thus contain
these specific and essential nutrients required for the growth of a particular subset of
microorganisms.
What is agar? ✔✔In its simplest form agar is liquid growth media that has had a hardening agent
added to it. Agar is created when a polysaccharide derived from seaweed (algae) extract is added
to growth media. Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow.
True or False: LB agar is classified as a non-selective, differential media. ✔✔False. LB agar is
both a non-selective and non-differential media. LB agar is often used to expand unknown
microbial population because it encourages microbial growth due to the presence of universal
nutrients (non-differential) and absence of restrictive factors (non-selective).
Microbiology final /portage latest 2022
100% pass
Microbiology is the study of what ✔✔microorganisms/viruses and there biological processes
What is the smallest biological unit of life? ✔✔cell
What is a macromolecule? ✔✔a molecule containing a very large number of atoms, such as a
protein, nucleic acid, or synthetic polymer.
What are the 4 main types of macromolecules ✔✔proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, polysachrides
What various functions do proteins have in a cell ✔✔Proteins may facilitate the movement of
materials in or out of a cell.
Some can act as enzymes that catalyze, or speed up, biochemical processes.
Others play a structural role while other proteins, such as filaments, enable movement.
What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? ✔✔There are two major types of
nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are
chemical molecules that carry genetic information within the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of
hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms.
RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize
proteins.
What is the plasma membrane and what is it made up of? ✔✔The plasma membrane serves the
cell as a surrounding barrier that separates the inside of the cell from the outside surrounding
environment. The plasma membrane also restricts the movement of materials (water, nutrients,
etc) either in or out of the cell, thus allowing a cells to absorb and keep what is needed (influx)
while also preventing the escape (out flux) of essential nutrients. The plasma membrane is
composed of lipids (hydrophobic hydrocarbons).
What are the three main components of polysaccharides? ✔✔Polysaccharides are composed of
carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms.
Examples would include, C6H12O6 (glucose) C12H22O11 (sucrose) and C6H10O5 (cellulose).
What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? ✔✔Eukaryotic cells
contain a nucleus, a membrane enclosed region within the cell that contains the genetic material.
Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus and can be further classified as either Bacteria or Archaea.
What are the main morphologies of bacteria? ✔✔Bacteria can be described as coccus
(round/spherical),
bacillus (rod),
vibrio (curved rod)
spirillum (spiral/corkscrew).
Which group (classification) of bacteria is noted for its ability to survive under harsh conditions?
✔✔Archaea. They are able to survive in extremely harsh environmental conditions such as high
salt levels, acid conditions, high temperatures and oxygen-poor conditions.
What are the 4 main classifications of Eukarya ✔✔Eukaryotic microorganisms are classified as
either belonging to Animalia, Plantae, Fungi or Protista.
Can viruses be classified as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic? ✔✔No. Viruses are considered
neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic. Viruses are not considered living and do not replicate on their
own, meaning they must replicate within a host.
The lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane is composed of what? ✔✔The cell membrane is a bilayer
composed primarily of amphipathic phospholipids, meaning they contain a polar hydrophilic
(water loving) head group and a non-polar hydrophobic (water fearing) tail region. The lipid
bilayer is situated in such a way where the non-polar tail groups face inward thus orienting the
polar head groups to interact with water both outside and inside of the cell.
What are the primary cellular organelles described in this module? Be sure to know the roles of
each. ✔✔Ribosomes (protein synthesis)
ER (site of protein synthesis)
Golgi (protein modification and distribution) lysosomes (waste disposal),
mitochondria (ATP generation)
chloroplasts (plants only; site of photosynthesis).
True or False: Metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living
organisms in order to maintain life. ✔✔True
True or False: Enzymes are polysaccharides that catalyze chemical reactions. ✔✔False. Enzymes
are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions
What are usually metal ions known to assists enzyme during the catalysis reaction? ✔✔Cofactors
are usually metal ions and assist enzyme during the catalysis reaction.
Define catabolism ✔✔the breakdown of complex molecules in living organisms to form simpler
ones, together with the release of energy; destructive metabolism.
Upon cellular injury, which metabolic process is involved during the growth and repair phases of
the cell? ✔✔The anabolic process would be active as it (by definition) is involved in the building
up of small complexes into larger complexes.
Portage Microbiology Exam #3 Graded A
What is the total magnification of a sample imaged with a 60x objective and a 10x eyepiece? (short
answer) ✔✔60 x 10 = 600x magnification
True or False: A cell that is adherent, flat, and unstained is easily identified using bright field
microscopy ✔✔False. Adherent, flat cells are almost invisible due to the limits on both resolution
and contrast
Which of the following could be seen clearly by the unaided eye? (multiple choice) ✔✔Protozoa
with diameter of 150um and skin cell with diameter of 1500 um (have to be greater than 100um
Label the following unmarked microscope components by matching it with the components
provided ✔✔1. Eyepiece
- Neck
- Fine adjustment knob
- Objective
- Stage
- Base
This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP and YFP proteins (given list of
microscopes) ✔✔Flourescence
This type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining (given list of
microscopes) ✔✔Phase-Contrast
This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast between samples and background
by reflecting light off of the specimen (given list of microscopes) ✔✔Dark Field
Portage Microbiology Lab Exam 1 Latest
2022 Rated A+
What three elements are used in an autoclave to sterilize equipment? ✔✔1. Heat 2. Pressure 3.
Steam
What type of incubator is pictured below? ✔✔The picture below is a Fixed Incubator.
What is the minimum temperature an autoclave must be set at to achieve sterile condition? ✔✔The
minimum temperature for an autoclave to reach sterile conditions is 125°C.
If you are working in a lab in which an autoclave is not available, and you are pressed for time,
which would you choose to best sterilize your equipment? Hot steam or hot air? Explain why you
chose your answer. ✔✔The best way to sterilize equipment if an autoclave is not available, it
should be hot steam because it will sterilize the equipment in a matter of minutes while hot air
could take hours to reach the same effect.
At what temperature should you refrigerate bacterial samples? Explain why this is beneficial.
✔✔4°C. This temperature slows bacterial growth but does not stop it, thereby preserving the
sample.
What are the FOUR types of gloves presented in the lab video? ✔✔Latex gloves, Nitrile gloves,
Thermal cold gloves, Thermal heat gloves.
At what temperature is the fixed incubator set to, as presented in the lab video? ✔✔The fixed
incubator should have a temperature of 37°C.
What THREE rules were discussed in regards to lab safety that would protect you and others from
contamination? ✔✔1. Never bring any food or drinks inside lab settings
Portage Microbiology Lecture Exam 2
Already Passed
True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. ✔✔True
True or False. Metabolism is a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living
organisms in order to maintain life. ✔✔True
What is the term for metal ions that assist enzymes during the catalysis reaction? ✔✔Cofactor
The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions? ✔✔1.
Glycolysis
- Fermentation or Respiration
- Electron Transport Chain
What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose? ✔✔Throughout the electron
transport chain up to 34 molecules of ATP are formed. Glycolysis and fermentation/respiration
each yield only 2 STP.
In order to convert proteins into amino acids which metabolic process would be active?
✔✔catabolism
Define catabolism ✔✔breakdown of larger molecules into subunits
How many ATP does the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle produce per pyruvate?
A. 1 ATP
B. 2 ATP
C. 4 ATP
D. 34 ATP ✔✔A
True or False: The Calvin cycle must occur in the absence of light. ✔✔false
Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP. ✔✔ADP undergoes
phosphorylation to become energy-rich ATP. A phosphoryl group is added to ADP by way of
photophosphorylation, substrate-level phosphorylation, or oxidative-level phosphorylation. ATP
is hydrolyzed in order to become ADP.
Identify the reactants of the following chemical equation:
Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP ✔✔Glucose, 2NAD+
True or False. The reactants of the TCA cycle directly enter and fuel the electron transport system.
✔✔False
The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants: select all that apply.
A. ATP
B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
C. CO2
D. NADPH
E. H2O ✔✔A, B, C, D, E
In phosphorylation, the light reactions always occur where? ✔✔The process of converting light
energy into chemical energy (photophosphorylation) always occurs in the membrane.
In the absence of glucose, which of the following can be used as alternative energy sources? Select
all that apply.
A. Lactose
B. Nucleic acids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Lipids ✔✔A, C, D
Portage Learning: Microbiology Module
5 Questions and Answers
Define the concept of universal precautions. ✔✔Universal precautions means any and all samples,
whether known or unknown, are to be treated as potentially hazardous (or pathogenic) materials.
What would a researcher be certain to note while analyzing a microbial sample? ✔✔1. Size and
shape
- Any observable motility
- Gram status (positive or negative)
- The presence of any chemical reactions
- Changes in color localized to the organism or the surrounding media
- Capture (or draw) images of any of the characteristics described above
Which non-selective yet differential agar plate should be used if a Streptococcus sample is
suspected? ✔✔A BAP (blood agar plate) would be the quickest way to identify and classify a
potential streptococcus microbe based on its hemolytic properties.
What disease can result if a patient with streptococcal pharyngitis goes untreated? ✔✔Rheumatic
fever occurs in approximately 3% of untreated cases of streptococcal pharyngitis, presenting
approximately 2-3 weeks post-infection.
Streptococcus, E. coli, pseudomonas, and klebsiella are all capable of causing what disease?
✔✔All of the above foreign microbes are capable of causing septicemia, also known as blood
poisoning.
What is a facultative anaerobe? ✔✔A facultative anaerobe is capable of growth under both aerobic
(with oxygen) and anaerobic (in the absence of oxygen) condition.
How can Staphylococcus be differentially tested? ✔✔Staphylococcus species are capable of
growth in the presence of bile salts.
A bacterial swab is taken from a patient with impetigo and streaked across an MSA plate.
Following incubation at 37C, what will be the color of the agar? ✔✔The causative agent of
impetigo is staph aureus, a Gram-positive bacterium capable of fermenting mannitol. Fermentation
will lower the pH of the agar and change the dye color from red to yellow.
If a patient were suspected to have tuberculosis (TB), which differential stain would you select
and why? ✔✔To stain for TB, one would utilize an acid-fast stain to best visual the foreign
microbe. As a mycobacterium tuberculosis would stain poorly (indeterminate) using the Gram
stain.
According to the module, which mycobacterium infection will be treated free of charge by the
World Health Organization (WHO)? ✔✔Leprosy is completely curable using a multiple-drug
therapy regimen consisting of various combinations of the drugs dapsone, rifampin and
clofazimine—all of which is given free of charge.
What are the three main conditions caused by the botulism toxin? ✔✔Foodborne, infant and
wound. Foodborne botulism is often the result of improperly canned, contaminated, low-acidic
foods such as green beans, corn and beats. Infant botulism occurs when children, usually under the
age of 6 months consume foods containing the bacteria. A potential source of infant botulism is
honey (which is why pediatricians recommend avoiding feeding honey to infants) but can also be
found in common places such as soil. Wound botulism occurs when C. botulinum bacteria colonize
a deep wound, often a puncture such as those who inject street drugs such as heroine. As
contaminated needles are injected through the skin, spores enter the body and, in the absence of
oxygen, release the toxin.
Why are infants (< 6 months) more susceptible to botulism? ✔✔Due to infants still maturing
intestinal tract and lack of an adult microbiota, the bacteria are able to colonize and produce the
Module 2- Microbiology Portage
Learning Questions and Answers 100%
Pass
cellular metabolism ✔✔a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms to
maintain life
Enzymes ✔✔a protein, or group of proteins, that speed up (catalyze) chemical reactions
Cofactors ✔✔a small chemical component, usually metal ions, that assist and regulate enzymes
during the catalysis reactions.
enzymes break down proteins into what: ✔✔amino acids
enzymes break down lipids into what: ✔✔glycerrol/fatty acids
enzymes break down polysaccharides into what: ✔✔monosaccharides
Anabolism ✔✔the building up of macromolecules from smaller molecular units into larger
complexes.
Catabolism ✔✔Metabolic pathways that break down molecules, releasing energy.
Phototrophs ✔✔organisms that get energy from photons of light to generate ATP from ADP
Chemotrophs ✔✔organisms that obtain energy from chemicals found in the environment
Organotrophs ✔✔chemotrophs that remove electrons from organic compounds (such as glucose)
Lithotrophs ✔✔chemotrophs that remove electrons from inorganic molecules (such as elemental
sulfur)
Heterotrophs ✔✔a microorganism that cannot make its own food and must get carbon from
organic molecules (ie. sugars)
autotrophs ✔✔Organisms that make their own food and derive their carbon from inorganic
molecules (most often CO2)
Phosphorylation ✔✔The transfer of a phosphate group, usually from ATP, to a molecule. Nearly
all cellular work depends on ATP energizing other molecules by phosphorylation.
3 Types of phosphorylation reaction that generates ATP: ✔✔1. Photophosphorylation – the use of
light energy / 2. Substrate-level phosphorylation – the phosphoryl (PO3) group of a chemical
compound is transferred and donated directly to ADP / 3. Oxidative phosphorylation – the energy
released by the chemical oxidation of nutrients is used to reform ATP
glucose metabolism ✔✔The process by which cells commonly obtain energy by breaking the
chemical bonds of glucose molecules and use this energy to form ATP. Yields up to 38 ATP and
involves three distinct transitions.
steps of glucose catabolism ✔✔1. Glycolysis: the breakdown of glucose to pyruvate to yield
energy. Yields 2 ATP
- Either fermentation or respiration yields 2 additional molecules of ATP
- Electron Transport Chain produces 34 ATP via an oxidative phosphorylation event at the plasma
membrane
Portage Microbiology Exam #5
Questions and Answers Already Passed
Define the concept of universal precautions (short answer) ✔✔Universal precautions means any
and all samples, whether known or unknown, are to be treated as potentially hazardous (or
pathogenic) materials
List at lease 3 observations a researcher would be sure to note while assessing and unknown
microbial sample (short answer) ✔✔Need to note:
- Size and shape
- Any observable motility
- Gram status (positive or negative)
While observing an unknown sample of limited amounts, a researcher must determine the
following observations: 1) the presence of any motility and 2) its Gram status using the same
sample- the liquid sample cannot be divided. Which would you determine first and why? (short
answer) ✔✔You must determine motility before determining Gram status. Motility requires a wet
mount, while gram staining requires heat fixing the sample. If one were to begin with the gram
stain, the heat fixation process would kill the organism, making any observations regarding
motility impossible. The correct approach would be to place the liquid culture on a glass slide and
determine its motility status. Next, the same liquid culture can be heat fixed and gram stained.
A facultative anaerobe is a microorganism capable of growth under what conditions? (short
answer) ✔✔A facultative anaerobe is capable of growth under aerobic (with oxygen) and
anaerobic (without oxygen) conditions
True or False: The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide antigenic groups of alpha-hemolytic
Streptococcus ✔✔False. The Lancefield groups are used to subdivide beta-hemolytic strep
The distinctions for Lancefield subgroups lie in its: (select all that apply)
A. Catalase activity
B. Carbohydrate composition of antigens
C. Hemolytic activity
D. All of the above ✔✔B. Carbohydrate composition of antigens
Rheumatic fever displays _ hemolytic activity and occurs when _ if left untreated
✔✔Beta: strep. Pharyngitis
True or False: Under most circumstances, staphylococcus can be found in ~80% of human
population where it remains non-symptomatic ✔✔False. Staphylococcus in only found (nonsymptomatic) in ~30% of the human population
Define commensal bacteria (short answer) (know term and definition first) ✔✔The bacterium
neither harms nor benefits from the host from which it obtains nutrients
How can staphylococcus be differentially tested? (short answer) ✔✔Staphylococcus species are
capable of growth in the presence of bile salts
Symptoms of folliculitis ✔✔Pus-filled lesions on skin or hair
Symptoms of scalded-skin syndrome ✔✔Ruptured-pustules; treated with penicilin
Symptoms of Impetigo ✔✔Childhood skin disease near mouth/nose
Symptoms of conjuctivitis ✔✔Infections of thin, transparent scieral tissue
Symptoms of ophthalmia neonatorum ✔✔Infection occurs at time of birth
Portage Microbiology Exam #6
Questions and Answers Already Passed
True or False: Because the genome is contained within an enclosed space, (much like the nucleus
of a cell) viruses are classified as eukaryotic ✔✔False. Viruses are neither eukaryotic nor
prokaryotic
Describe the two basic components of a virus (short answer) ✔✔A virus has 1. genomic material
comprised of either DNA or RNA and 2. a capsid, a membrane-like protective structure that
contains the genetic material, similar to the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell
The _ surrounds the capsid of some viruses ✔✔Envelope The envelope surrounds the _ of some viruses ✔✔Capsid
True or False: You would expect to see a viral envelope on a virus infecting a plant cell ✔✔False.
The overwhelming majority of animal viruses are enveloped whereas the majority of plant or
bacteria-infecting viruses are not
True or False: You would expect to see a viral envelope on a virus infecting a bacterial cell
✔✔False: Not all the viruses have envelopes
Rank the following viruses based on their size from largest to smallest: orthomyxovirus,
poliovirus, variolavirus ✔✔Variolavirus>Orthomyxovirus>Poliovirus
Rank the following viruses based on their size from largest to smallest:Paramyxovirus, Poliovirus,
Smallpox virus ✔✔Smallpox>Paramyxovirus>Poliovirus
True or False: Viral replication occurs after it attaches and enters the host cell ✔✔True. The viral
genome is never replicated before attachment and entry
True or False: Highly infectious viruses undergo genome replication prior to viral attachment and
entry. ✔✔False. The viral genome is never replicated before attachment and entry regardless of
its level of infectivity.
Place the following viral life cycle steps in order beginning with viral attachment and provide a
description of each step (short answer) ✔✔Uncoating: the viral capsid disassembles
Release: New virus particles are produced and leave the cell
Replication: the viral genome is the ‘blueprint’ to make copies of itself
Attachment: viral receptors bind to host proteins on the surface of the cell
Entry: the virus fuses with the host membrane and enters the cell
New Infection: newly produced viruses that left the host cell now go on to infect new cells
A virus that infects bacteria is called a _ and contains a _ -side polygon capsid (fill in
the blank) ✔✔Bacteriophage; 20-sided
True or False: Structurally bacteriophages are similar to viruses that infect animals ✔✔False.
Bacteriophages have a distinct composition and structure
True or False. Structurally, bacteriophages are distinct from viruses that infect plant or animal
cells. ✔✔True. Bacteriophages are structurally distinct from viruses that infect plant and animals
cells.
Identify the following components of a bacteriophage (picture) ✔✔1. Capsid
- Collar
- Tail
- Base
- Tail fibers
Portage Learning: Microbiology Module
3 Latest 2022
Define the measurements micrometer and nanometer. ✔✔A micrometer (µm) is defined as being
one-millionth of a meter and is commonly designated at 10-6 meters. A nanometer (nm) equals
10-9 m or one-billionth of a meter.
What are the two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object? ✔✔Resolution and
contrast. Resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be
seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one. The
contrast is the difference in light absorbance between two objects. Poor contrast gives a high
background and makes the visualization of multiple objects difficult. For instance, trying to
identify 2 dark colored objects at night (low light = low contrast) versus the same 2 objects in the
middle of a sunny afternoon (bright light against 2 dark objects = high contrast).
If you wish to increase the amount of light going into a microscope, what part would you adjust?
✔✔The iris diaphragm controls the amount of light that passes through the sample and into the
objective lens. Thus, as you open the iris more light is permitted to pass through to illuminate the
sample.
As light passes through a microscope, what is the last piece that light passes before reaching your
eyes? ✔✔Once light passes through the sample and the objective lens it is directed through the
ocular lens, or eyepiece, directly into your eye.
How is the total magnification of an object calculated? ✔✔Total magnification is calculated by
multiplying the power of the objective and the power of the eyepiece. For instance, a 40x objective
with a 10x eyepiece would make an object appear (40 x 10) 400 times larger (400x).
Microbiology – Portage Module 2
Metabolism Already Passed
What is cellular metabolism? ✔✔a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living
organisms in order to maintain life
What is an enzyme? ✔✔a protein, or group of proteins, that catalyze (speed up) chemical reactions
What is unique about enzymes? ✔✔the enzyme is not consumed during the reaction and can be
used repeatedly by the cell
What is a cofactor? ✔✔a small chemical component, usually metal ions, that assist enzymes during
the catalysis reactions
Do cofactors serve as regulators of chemical reactions? ✔✔Yes
In the absence of the proper cofactor what happens? ✔✔enzymes are inactive
In the presence of the proper cofactor what happens? ✔✔enzymes are active
In order to produce sufficient levels of energy what must microorganisms do? ✔✔microorganisms
must break down complex nutrients into smaller, manageable (and useful) subunits
What 3 things must enzymes break down into smaller subunits? ✔✔Enzymes must break down
proteins, lipids and polysaccharides into their smaller building-block molecules
Fats or lipids get broken down into what? ✔✔glycerol/fatty acids
Most metabolic processes can be classified as either of what 2 things? ✔✔catabolism or anabolism
What is catabolism? ✔✔the process of breaking down larger molecules into useful energy sources
What is anabolism? ✔✔the building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from smaller molecular
units into larger complexes
The anabolic process is often used during what? ✔✔growth and repair phases of the cell.
What would happen to cells without enzymes? ✔✔Without enzymes and their ability to increase
the rate of a specific chemical reaction, these reactions would take too long and exhaust too much
energy. If a cell runs out of energy before the necessary reactions conclude, it dies.
What is the most widely used form of energy in the cells? ✔✔adenosine triphosphate or ATP
Compare ATP to ADP ✔✔ATP has energy to donate while ADP can accept energy (phosphate
group) to become ATP
How does ATP work and help give the cell energy? ✔✔By donating available phosphate groups,
ATP transfers energy from catabolic (breaking down) reactions to be used for anabolism (building
up). This process of donating and/or accepting energy is what fuels a cell to carry out the necessary
biochemical reactions for survival.
The way in which microbes produce ATP, specifically the starting source of electrons, tells us
what? ✔✔It can also be used as a means to further differentiate and characterize microorganisms
How does a Phototroph acquire energy? ✔✔It acquires energy from photons of light to generate
ATP from ADP
Microbiology Portage – Module 4
Microbial Growth and Control Already
Passed
Expanding a given microbial population allows researchers to do what? ✔✔to detect and assess
the microorganism more easily
What is Growth Media? ✔✔Growth media is a liquid or solid formulated to support microbial
growth.
What does Growth Media contain? ✔✔The media contains essential nutrients to provide the
microbe with a source of carbon/energy. The nutrient composition often includes a rich source of
sugars, amino acids and vitamins.
What else can Growth Media also be called? ✔✔Such media can also be referred to as a nutrient
broth and is commonly used to grow microbes in a suspension.
Describe LB media ✔✔Perhaps the most common nutrient broth in the lab, LB media (lysogeny
broth) is a nutritionally rich liquid known for its ability to grow a vast array of microbes.
What is Selective Media? ✔✔Selective media allows for only the growth of certain microbes and,
by extension, restricts the growth of all others.
How can Selective Media be accomplished? ✔✔Such an approach can be accomplished in a
variety of ways including: using limiting amounts of nutrients, varying degrees of pH (being either
very acidic or very basic media), or various chemical additives that limit unwanted microbial
growth (i.e.) antibiotics.
Describe how Selective Media works with Gram-Positive versus Gram-Negative bacteria. ✔✔If a
plate is selective for Gram-Negative then it will only grow Gram-Negative bacteria on it. It will
not grow Gram-Positive bacteria on it.
What is Differential Media? ✔✔Differential media distinguishes between two, often related,
microbes.
What is one way that a Differential Media can distinguish between Escherichia coli and
Salmonella? ✔✔They are both Gram negative but can be distinguished by the presence (or
absence) of lactose fermentation.
If grown on the same differential media, E coli ferments lactose and turns the culture red.
In contrast, Salmonella does not ferment lactose and the culture remains white/tan in color.
(This above example is probably on MacConkey agar)
What is a fastidious microorganism? ✔✔an organism with complex growth requirements such that
if absent it will not grow
What are Enriched Medias used for? ✔✔Enriched media is used to grow fastidious
microorganisms
Enriched Medias contain what? ✔✔enriched medias contain the essential nutrients required for
the growth of this subset of microorganisms
Can a plate be a combination of selective, differential and enriched? ✔✔Yes
Growth Media comes in what 2 forms? ✔✔liquid and solid
Portage Microbiology Module 2
Questions and Answers Rated A+
cellular metabolism ✔✔a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in living organisms in
order to maintain life
enzyme ✔✔a protein, or group of proteins, that catalyze (speed up) chemical reactions/is not
consumed during the reaction and can be used repeatedly by the cell
cofactor ✔✔a small chemical component, usually metal ions, that assist enzymes during the
catalysis reactions/serve as regulators of chemical reactions: in their absence, enzymes are inactive
while in its presence enzymes are active
catabolism ✔✔the process of breaking down larger molecules into useful energy sources
anabolism ✔✔the building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from smaller molecular units
into larger complexes
anabolism ✔✔used during growth and repair phases of the cell
ATP ✔✔most widely used form of energy in the cells
donate/accept ✔✔ATP has energy to while ADP can __ energy (phosphate
group) to become ATP
phototrophs ✔✔acquire energy from photons of light to generate ATP from ADP
chemotrophs ✔✔acquire energy from preformed (already existing) chemicals found in the
environment
organotrophs ✔✔removing electrons from organic molecules such as glucose
lithotrophs ✔✔remove electrons from inorganic molecules such as elemental sulfur
carbon ✔✔in order to carry out metabolic processes, microbes must also have a source of…
heterotroph ✔✔a microorganism that derives its carbon from organic molecules such as sugars
autotroph ✔✔organisms that derive their carbon from inorganic molecules, most often from
carbon dioxide (CO2)
phosphorylation ✔✔the addition of a phosphate group
photophosphorylation ✔✔light energy is used to power the formation of ATP from ADP
substrate-level phosphorylation ✔✔the phosphoryl (PO3) group of a chemical compound is
transferred and donated (added) directly to ADP
phosphorylated reactive intermediate ✔✔in substrate-level phosphorylation, the chemical
compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as the…
oxidative phosphorylation ✔✔used by chemotrophs, the energy released by the chemical oxidation
of nutrients is used to reform ATP
glycolysis ✔✔the breakdown of a single molecule of glucose
reactants ✔✔molecules present and involved at the beginning of a chemical reaction