CCC2 PRN 1178 Exam 1:PRN 1178 client centered care 2 exam 1:Client-Centered Care 1 Exam 2 concept guide:Patient Care Final Exam:Client Centered Care 3 Final Exam;Client Centered Care 3 Final Exam:PRN 1178 client centered care 2 exam 1:Client centered care

Client Centered Care Final Exam
what are risk factors associated with pressure ulcers?
(Ans- malnutrition, age, sensory issues, moisture
what is the name for an infection found in the dermal layer and
subcutaneous tissue
(Ans- cellulitis
what is the name for a tumor that usually begins as a nodule and
can rapidly form an ulcer
(Ans- squamous cell carcinoma
when repositioning a patient, why should you try to lift the patient
and not slide them?
(Ans- shearing
which type of diet should a teenager with acne follow
(Ans- well-balanced
when administering the flu vaccine, this type of immunity is known
as (Ans- active artificial immunity

what line of defense is your skin considered
(Ans- first
when you begin your shift, how long should you wash your
hands?
(Ans- 20-30 seconds
what is a “butterfly” rash?
(Ans- systemic lupus erythmatosis
what is it when the body produces an immune response against
its own cells?
(Ans- autoimmune
what should be reinforced with someone diagnosed with SLE
(Ans- daily skin inspection
which dietary teaching should you reinforce for a newly diagnosed
person with HIV+
(Ans- avoid excessively hot food

Client Centered Care Exam 2 Study Guide
a client low on Vitamin A may experience
(Ans- night blindness
Rickets can by a low amount of
(Ans- Protein
A low level of Vitamin K would lead to what
(Ans- Blood clotting issues
What minerals makes up bone/teeth?
(Ans- Phosphorus
Greatest risk for dehydration would be?
(Ans- poorly controlled diabetic
Who is at greatest risk for going into fluid overload?
(Ans- History of heart failure
A healthy BMI range is what?
(Ans- 18-25 kg/m2
The amount of energy needed to maintain the body at rest is called?
(Ans- Basal metabolic rate

What food is high in riboflavin?
(Ans- Milk
A client is ordered an antibiotic 0.5 g P.O. BID. You have 250 mg. Tablet.
How many tabs/day will you give?
(Ans- 4 tablets
A 132Ib client is ordered a single IV dose of Zofran 0.15 mg/kg for nausea.
Comes in 40 mg/20 ml. How many ml?
(Ans- 4.5 ml
What would be least concerning re: PIN Site care to a traction site?
(Ans- scant serous drng
If you have a client with hearing impairment, it is best to do what?
(Ans- Speak in a normal tone
You need to administer ear drops, so how do you do it?
(Ans- Pull the pinna up and toward the back of the head
What type of diet should someone with menieres disease follow?
(Ans- Low sodium diet
Someone with a detached retina might describe it as?
(Ans- Curtain Falling

Client centered care Exam 2
GI Tract is made up of what
(Ans- The mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small and large
intestines, rectum, and anus.
Accessory organs of the GI
(Ans- The liver, gallbladder, and pancreas
Functions of the upper GI
(Ans- Chewing, swallowing, and breaking down food particles.
Risk factors for oral cancer
(Ans- Cigarette smoking, tobacco use, pipe smoking, excessive alcohol
use, infection with HPV, and genetic predisposition
Signs and symptoms of oral cancer
(Ans- Lesions on the tongue or mucosa, sores or discoloration of the lips
or mouth that don’t heal
treatment of oral cancer
(Ans- radiation, chemotherapy, surgery that may require the creation of a
tracheostomy

Nursing care of a patient with oral cancer
(Ans- Involves monitoring respiratory status, nutritional support, and
comfort measures
Esophageal cancer/ gastric cancer risk factors
(Ans- Smoking, excessive alcohol use
cause of esophageal cancer
(Ans- Barrett esophagus
Barrett esophagus
(Ans- Precancerous condition due to longstanding GERD, the constant
irritation of the esophagus by stomach fluids can cause cells to become
malignant.
Signs and symptoms of esophageal cancer
(Ans- dysphagia, hoarseness, persistent cough, halitosis, regurgitation of
foods, and weight loss.
Treatment of esophageal cancer
(Ans- Endoscopic therapies and surgeries. Esophagectomy is less
commonly done due to complication rate
respiratory acidosis
(Ans- A drop in blood pH due to hypoventilation (too little breathing) and a
resulting accumulation of Co2.

respiratory alkalosis
(Ans- Arise in blood pH due to hyperventilation (excessive breathing) and
a resulting decrease in CO2.
metabolic acidosis
(Ans- decreased pH in blood and body tissues as a result of an upset in
metabolism
metabolic alkalosis
(Ans- elevation of HCO3- usually caused by an excessive loss of metabolic
acids
respiratory acidosis
(AnsCauses: shallow, slow respirations-> Hypoventilation; respiratory
congestion or obstruction.
Can be due to COPD, severe pneumonia, or excessive sedation;
respiratory muscle weakness.
Signs and symptoms of respiratory acidosis
(Ans- Hypoventilation, dyspnea, anxiety, and confusion
ABG values for respiratory acidosis
(Ans- pH less than 7.35, PaCO2 greater than 45
causes of metabolic acidosis
(Ans- shock, DKA, lactic acidosis, renal failure, diarrhea, and starvation

PRN 1178 client centered care 2 exam 1
4 main functions of water in the body
(AnsAct as a vehicle of transportation of substances to and from cell
Aid heat regulations by providing perspiration which evaporates
Assist with maintenance of hydrogen balance in the body
To serve as a medium for the enzymatic action for digestion
How much of the body is water?
(Ans- More than half – 60% males contain 50% females contain 60% due to
fat tissue
Lose more fluid through skin than adults
(Ans- Infants – kidneys are not as efficient as adults less fluid absorption
Adults – age related decline in total body water
(Ans- Diminished thirst sensations; decrease in urine concentrating abilities
of kidneys; decreases the effectiveness of the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Hypovolemia
(Ans- Abnormal decrease in the volume of blood plasma (occurs with
dehydration or bleeding)
What is critical in maintaining homeostasis
(Ans- Water
Cells can’t function without
(Ans- Water – death will occur
Electrolytes are
(Ans- Minerals or salt dissolved in body fluid. Major source is from diet
Electrolytes are measured

(Ans- MEq/L
Electrolytes in
(Ans- A solution breaks into particles known as ions from reactions from
hydrogen and electrolyte
Ions
(Ans- Develop a positive electrical charge known as citations; for each
positive charge in a fluid compartment there must be a negatively charged
anion so that the balance is maintained
Circulating blood volume
(Ans- 4 to 6 liters
Erythrocytes
(Ans- Red cells – carried in plasma
Leukocytes
(Ans- White cells – carried in plasma
Platelets
(Ans- thrombocytes – carried in plasma
Cancer
(Ans- Results from defect in DNA genes; Inherited or caused by mutation;
carcinogens is external and internal environment men and women who are overweight by 40% or more have a 33%-35% greater risk of developing cancer than persons of normal weight
Environmental agents
(Ans- Carcinogen exposure ( x-rays, sun, UV light, lifestyle, tobacco use )
viruses are capable of introducing new genetic material into normal cell and
transforming it into a malignant one

Patient Care Final Exam: Questions &
Answers
How many attempts within how many years does one have to pass the
registry exam?

  1. 2 attempts
  2. 3 attempts
  3. 4 years
  4. 3 years
    a. 1 and 3
    b. 1 and 4
    c. 2 and 3
    d. 2 and 4
    (Ans- d. 2 and 4
    Which of the following does not represent a responsibility of the
    radiographer?
    a. providing a patient with an accurate diagnosis
    b. keeping patient information confidential
    c. avoiding discrimination
    d. providing quality care
    e. maintaining a professional appearance
    (Ans- a. providing a patient with an accurate diagnosis
    The purpose of an organizational chart is to:
    a. delineate roles
    b. assign blame
    c. show which workers are better than others
    d. prove to the community that the hospital is organized
    (Ans- a. delineate roles

A radiographer with the credentials R.T. (T) is registered in what discipline?
a. radiation therapy
b. ultrasound
c. mammography
d. computerized tomography
e. vascular
(Ans- a. radiation therapy
OSHA does which of the following?

  1. establishes health and safety standards
  2. mandates compliance by hospitals
  3. accredits hospitals
  4. accredits radiography programs
    a. 1 and 2
    b. 1 and 3
    c. 2 and 3
    d. 3 and 4
    e. 2 and 4
    (Ans- a. 1 and 2
    What is the relationship between mAs and kVp?
    a. direct
    b. indirect
    c. no relationship
    (Ans- c. no relationship
    The height of a wave is referred to as sine.
    True or False
    (Ans- False

What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?
a. direct
b. indirect
c. no relationship
(Ans- b. indirect
The size of the x-ray beam is controlled by the collimator.
True and False
(Ans- True
Which variables will result in the best detail?
a. increase SID, increase OID, small FSS
b. decrease SID, decrease OID, small FSS
c. increase SID, decrease OID, large FSS
d. increase SID, decrease OID, small FSS
e. decrease SID, increase OID, small FSS
(Ans- d. increase SID, decrease OID, small FSS
The primary purpose of a grid is to prevent the production of scatter.
True and False
(Ans- False
What is the term given to the device used to reduce the amount of radiation
used in fluro?
a. image intensifier
b. R/F unit
c. spot film
d. video camera
(Ans- a. image intensifier

Characteristic interactions occur at any set kVp.
True or False
(Ans- False
What is the relationship between SID and beam intensity?
a. direct
b. indirect
c. no relationship
(Ans- b. indirect
Community college programs that are two-years in length award what
degree?
a. associate’s
b. master’s
c. bachelor’s
d. certificate
(Ans- a. associates
Ultrasound uses __ to image the body.
a. sound waves
b. x-rays
c. television waves
d. magnetic waves
(Ans- a. sound waves
Which of the following is/are a purpose(s) of the ARRT?

  1. to administer the national registry exam
  2. to accredit radiography programs
  3. to develop a code of ethics for the radiography profession
  4. to establish health and safety procedures and guidelines
    a. 1 only

Client Centered Care III- FINAL EXAM
Reasons for keeping blood pressure under control:
(Ans

  • decrease risk of
    -stroke
    -heart attack
    -loss of vision
    -kidney disease
    chronic HTN can cause organ damage
    Normal BP range
    (Ans – UNDER 120/80
    Cause for secondary hypertension:
    (Ans –
    -acute stress
    -excessive alcohol intake
    -sickle cell disease
    -arteriosclerosis
    -contraction of the aorta
    -renal, endocrine, and neurological disorders
    Modifiable risk factors for HTN:
    (Ans –
    -alcohol intake
    -smoking
    -diabetes
    -obesity
    -stress
    -elevated serum lipids
    -excess sodium intake
    -lower socioeconomic status

DEFINITION: Embolus
(Ans – a clot that is traveling
RELATION: Anemia and Kidney Damage
(Ans – a client in renal failure can be anemic due to the decrease in
erythropoietin
CAUSE: Pernicious Anemia
(Ans –
-lack of intrinsic factor (protein that helps intestines absorb B12)
take sublingual or injectable vitamin B12
DIET: iron deficiency
(Ans –
HIGH IRON/HIGH FOLIC ACID
-liver
-beans
-leafy greens
-whole grains
-prunes/raisins/dried fruit
CAUSE: Sickle Cell Disease
(Ans – genetic disorder
defected gene from BOTH parents
NURSING INTERVENTIONS: Sickle Cell Disease
(Ans –
-push fluids
-educate client to avoid alcohol/drugs
-folic acid supplement
-educate client to eat a diet with sufficient protein

Client-Centered Care 1 Exam 2 concept
guide
Vitamin A
(Ans- Found in chicken livers, sweet potato with skin, carrots, spinach, and
pumpkin.
Deficiency causes night blindness, exophthalmia, and decreased immunity
Vitamin D
(Ans- Found in tuna fish, whole or fortified milk, fortified soy milk, and
fortified cereal.
Deficiency causes rickets, osteomalacia, and osteoporosis
Vitamin K
(Ans- Found in green leafy vegetables, tuna fish, and tomato sauce.
Deficiency causes hemorrhagic disease (newborn) and defective blood
clotting
Thiamin (B1)
(Ans- Found in pork, beef, whole grains, and legumes
Deficiency causes beriberi, neuropathy, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
(alcoholism)
Riboflavin (B2)
(Ans- Found in milk products, organ meats, enriched grains and cereals
Deficiency causes cheilosis, glossitis, seborrheic dermatitis

Niacin (B3)
(Ans- Found in meat and dairy, peanuts, enriched grains and cereals
Deficiency causes pellagra, weakness, scaly dermatitis and neuritis
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
(Ans- Found in meat, organ meats, legumes, bananas, and potatoes
Deficiency causes hypochromic anemia and CNS abnormalities
Vitamin B12 (cobalamin)
(Ans- Found in meat, milk, cheese, egg, fortified cereals and juices
Deficiency causes pernicious anemia, and neural tube defects in
pregnancy
Phosphorus
(Ans- Formation of bones and teeth, participates in absorption of glucose.
Found in milk, cheese, meats, egg yolk, whole grains, legumes and nuts.
Requires 700 mg/day
Deficiency causes hypophosphatemia, weakness, loss of appetite, fatigue
and pain
Risks for dehydration & diseases
(Ans- Kidney infections, kidney stones, gallstones, and constipation, can
advance to death, may adversely influence cognitive function and mood
Risks for fluid volume overload (Hypervolemia)
(Ans- Kidney disease, congestive heart failure and liver disease.

CCC2 PRN 1178 Exam 1: Questions &
Answers
Signs/symptoms of cancer
(Ans- Unexplained weight loss, fever, fatigue, pain, skin changes,
Obstruction, Hemorrhage, Anemia, Fracture, Infection, Cachexia.
Screenings for men and women and when should be done
(Ans- Breast 20+, Cervix 21-65, Colorectal men & women 50+,
Endometrial women at menopause, Lung if smoker 55-74,
Prostate 50+, Cancer related check up 20+.
Dehydration Signs & Symptoms and Interventions
(Ans- cool dry skin, poor skin turgor, weak thready pulse. IV fluids
or fluid orally.
Osmosis
(Ans- Movement of pure solvent (liquid) across membrane,
moves from area of less solute concentration to area of greater
concentration until the solutions in the compartments are of equal
concentration. Takes place via a semipermeable membrane.

Diffusion
(Ans- Movement of molecules from an area of higher
concentration to an area of lower concentration. Passive transport
is substances move back and forth across the membrane until
evenly distributed throughout the available space
Filtration
(Ans- A process that separates materials based on the size of
their particles.
Active Transport
(Ans- Movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane
into a region of higher concentration, assisted by enzymes and
requiring energy.
Hypokalemia Signs and Symptoms
(Ans- muscle weakness, fatigue, nausea and vomiting, intestinal
distention decreased bowel sounds
decreased, deep tendon reflexes, ventricular dysrhythmias,
paresthesias weak, irregular pulse, low potassium flat t waves,
high heart rate low blood pressure decreased GI motility.

Client Centered Care 1 Final Exam Study
Guide
FRACTURE
(Ans – breaking of bone
AIDS Diet
(Ans –
-High protein
-High calorie
-Small frequent meals
-whole grains
-lower on sugars
Strain
(Ans – damaging of a tendon
Sprain
(Ans – damaging of a ligament
Long Bones
(Ans – Bones of the arms, legs, hands, and feet that include a shaft and an
end
Respiratory Interventions after Surgery
(Ans –
-encourage fluids
-encourage coughing/deep breaths
-use incentive spirometer
-mobilize as soon as able
Flat Bones
(Ans – Ribs, shoulder blades, hip bones, cranial bones

Flow of urine
(Ans –
1.Kidneys
2.Ureters
3.Bladder
4.Urethra

  1. Exits the body
    surgical asepsis
    (Ans – techniques used to destroy all pathogenic organisms, also called
    sterile technique
    Surgical Asepsis Rules
    (Ans –
  • Know what is sterile
  • Know what is not sterile
  • Separate sterile from unsterile
  • Remedy contamination immediately
    SIMS Position
    (Ans – Side-lying position used for rectal exams
    Prone Position
    (Ans – lying face down
    Dorsal Recumbent Position
    (Ans – supine position, knees flexed, feet FLAT on bed
    Supine
    (Ans – lying on the back
    fluid volume deficit
    (Ans –
    dehydration

Leave a Comment

Scroll to Top