EMT Module 1 Exam: Questions &
Answers
What BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical
services (EMS) system?
(Ans- to have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency
care on the scene,during transport,and at the hospital
IN 1966, the National Highway Safety Act charged which agency with the
development of the emergency medical service standards?
(Ans- US Dept. of Transportation
THe National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians was founded to
establish which of the following?
(Ans- Professional standards for emergency medical services personnel
Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises the hospital personnel of the
patient’s condition,observation from the scene,treatment rendered, and
other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. THis process is known as
what?
(Ans- Transfer of care
What best describes person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and
supports his cause?
(Ans- advocate
Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the
EMT?
(Ans- Medical Director
What is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT?
(Ans- giving and receiving written instructions
What best describes a communication system capable of identifying the
number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling?
(Ans- Enhanced 911
Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs?
(Ans- Control personal habits
What is considered a form of off-line medical control?
(Ans- Protocols
You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the
following would be the first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT?
(Ans- Ensure scene safety
Which of the following descriptions best defines the term pathogen?
(Ans- an organism that causes infection and disease
AN EMT may consider wearing protective eyewear when caring for which
of these patients?
(Ans- A patient who is actively coughing
During what situation would the use of protective gloves be optional?
(Ans- Splinting a sprained ankle
WHat term is best defined as “a state of physical and/or psychological
arousal to a stimulus”?
(Ans- stress
For Emergency workers,meeting with trained mental health and counseling
personnel following a critical incident:
(Ans- may be helpful in some situations,but harmful in others
The term burnout is also known as _ stress reaction.
(Ans- cumulative
You are called to the home of an elderly female who has fallen and
fractured her hip. At the front door,you notice she has a German shepherd
who is very defensive of its owner. When you enter the home,the dog
remains calm,but as soon as you attempt to touch the patient, it begins to
bark. The patient says, “don’t worry, he’s just possessive of me. I just don’t
know what I’d do if anything happened to him.” An appropriate course of
action would be to:
(Ans- dispatch animal control to your location
What is a simple step EMTs can perform to help prevent the spread of flu in
the prehospital environment?
(Ans- place a surgical mask on suspected flu patients
What statement is true concerning the H1N1 Swine Flu?
(Ans- Respiratory droplets are its mode of transmission
Which of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting
TB?
(Ans- immunosuppressed patients
Which factors should be considered before lifting any patient?
(Ansa. the weight of the patient
b. your physical limitations
c. communications
When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to:
(Ans- know your lifting limits
Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted?
(Ans- as close to the body as possible
What is another name for squat lift position?
(Ans- power lift
EMT Module 6 Exam: Questions &
Answers
Your patient is a 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window
and has an 8- inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a
pressure dressing and bandage, but these have become saturated due to
continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do now?
A) Apply additional dressing material, bandage it in place, and apply
pressure to the brachial artery.
B) Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply direct pressure with
your gloved hand, and elevate the arm.
C) Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply an ice pack to the
wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage.
D) Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider
administering a hemostatic agent.
(Ans- D) Elevate that arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider
administering a hemostatic agent.
Which of the following BEST describes the delivery of oxygen and nutrients
at the body’s cellular level?
A) Hydrostatic pressure
B) Osmosis
C) Perfusion
D) Circulation
(Ans- C) Perfusion
Which of the following is the MOST effective way of controlling external
bleeding?
A) Using direct pressure with a dressing
B) Using an ice pack
C) Running cold water over the wound
D) Elevating the affected part
(Ans- A) Using direct pressure with a dressing
Limiting time spent at a scene can be especially important if the
mechanism of injury suggests that the patient could go into shock. In order
to keep the time at the scene to a minimum, which of the following
assessments or treatments should NOT be performed on the scene?
A) Rapid trauma exam
B) Splinting swollen extremities
C) Immobilization
D) ABCs with spinal precautions
(Ans- B) Splinting swollen extremities
Which of the following distinguishes decompensated shock from
compensated stage of shock?
A) Cell damage and death in the vital organs
B) Delayed capillary refill time
C) Low blood pressure
D) Altered mental status
(Ans- C) Low blood pressure
Which of the following may occur when there is bleeding from a large vein?
A) Air embolism
B) Hypoperfusion
C) Transmission of bloodborne illnesses
D) All of the above
(Ans- D) All of the above
Which of the following is NOT part of the circulatory system?
A) Heart
B) Blood
C) Blood vessels
D) Brain
(Ans- D) Brain
Which of the following is a characteristic of arterial bleeding?
A) Steady flow
B) Spurting under pressure
C) Dark red color
D) Both B and C
(Ans- B) Spurting under pressure
External bleeding may be classified according to types. Which one of the
following is one of those types?
A) Brain bleeding
B) Liver bleeding
C) Cardiac bleeding
D) Capillary bleeding
(Ans- D) Capillary bleeding
Which of the following statements is NOT true when you are on-scene and
treating a patient that appears to be in shock?
A) It is important to spend on-scene time to be sure you have corrected and
dealt with any of the causes of the shock so that it does not get worse. This
is more important than rapid transport.
B) The patient should be promptly put on high-concentration oxygen.
C) Prompt transportation is a very high priority.
D) Airway management is of top priority.
(Ans- A) It is important to spend on-scene time to be sure you have
corrected and dealt with any of the causes of the shock so that it does not
get worse. This is more important than rapid transport.
Which one of the following is incorrect in the application of a tourniquet?
A) If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint.
B) The tourniquet should be 2 to 4 inches wide.
C) A blood pressure cuff can be used as a tourniquet.
D) The tourniquet should be placed
approximately 2 inches above the
bleeding.
(Ans- A) If possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint.
In the average adult, the sudden loss of __ cc of blood is
considered serious.
A) 1,000
B) 750
C) 150
D) 500
(Ans- A) 1,000
Which of the following is responsible for most of the signs and symptoms of
early shock?
A) The body’s attempts at compensation for blood loss
B) Dilation of the peripheral blood vessels
C) Increased respirations of the patient
D) Constriction of the peripheral blood vessels
(Ans- A) The body’s attempts at compensation for blood loss
Cold is sometimes used to help control bleeding. When using cold, the
following guidelines and statements are true except:
A) it should not be used alone but rather in conjunction with other manual
techniques.
B) it should not be left in place for more than 20 minutes.
C) it will reduce pain.
D) it should be applied directly to the skin; it will not be effective if anything
is between the cold agent and the wound.
(Ans- D) it should be applied directly to the skin; it will not be effective if
anything is between the cold agent and the wound.
Which of the following is NOT indicated in the management of a patient in
shock?
A) High-speed ambulance transportation
B) On-scene spinal precautions, if indicated
C) Preventing loss of body heat by covering the patient with a blanket.
D) Delaying a detailed exam until en route to the hospital
(Ans- A) High-speed ambulance transportation
EMT Module 6 Exam Study Guide
List the amount of blood that is considered significant if lost in
infants/children/adults.
(Ans – infants-150CC; children-500CC; adults-1000CC
What is the most common cause of shock in trauma patients?
(Ans – Hemorrhage
Describe the appearance of blood from a venous bleed.
(Ans – Dark red/Maroon and has a steady flow
What is the most common and effective way to control external bleeding?
(Ans – Direct Pressure
The type of shock most commonly seen by EMT’s.
(Ans – Hypovolemic Shock
Nose bleeds are also called____ and are frequently caused by ,
, and __.
(Ans – epistaxix, hypertension, sinus infection and digital trauma
what is the leading cause of internal bleeding?
(Ans – Blunt Force Trauma
what is the goal of the treatment of internal bleeding?
(Ans – Prevention and treatment of shock
Describe the categories of severity in regards to shock.
(Ans – COMPENSATED SHOCK: body compensates by increasing
pulse/respiratory rate; Normal blood pressure; cool, pale, clammy skin.
DECOMPENSATED SHOCK: body cannot compensate any more showing
hypotension.
IRREVERSIBLE SHOCK: cell damage has occurred in which the patient
my die due to failure of irreparable organs.
You arrive to a scene of a stabbing and find an improvised tourniquet has
been placed by a bystander. What should you do in regards to bleeding
control to the wound?
(Ans – Have partner apply direct pressure; remove tourniquet, check to see
if it is necessary. If not, apply direct pressure and transport. If necessary,
continue direct pressure and apply tourniquet.
what are the major functions of the skin?
(Ans – Protection, Water Balance, Temperature Regulation, Excretion and
Shock Absorption.
True or False. The epidermis does not contain any blood or nerve vessels?
(Ans – TRUE
Up to how much blood may accumulate in a hematoma?
(Ans – 1 Liter
Name as many open wound classifications as you can.
(Ans – Abrasions, lacerations, punctures/penetrations, avulsions,
amputations, open crush injuries, blast injuries, high pressure injections
injuries.
List the steps of open wound management.
(Ans – Expose Clean, control, and care for shock, prevent contamination,
bandage the dressing, keep patient still, reassure the patient, transport.
what is the general rule for the treatment of impaled objects?
(Ans – do not remove the impaled object!
EMT Module 7 Exam
Priority 1 (“hot”) response
(Ans- Ambulance response to an emergency; lights-and-sirens mode;
constitute less than 5% of all transports
Priority 3 (“cold”) response
(Ans- Ambulance response at normal speed
50-100 feet
(Ans- other drivers do not see or hear an ambulance until it is within this
distance of them
typical ambulance collision conditions
(Ans- dry road with clear weather during daylight hours in an intersection
steps of transfer to an ambulance
(Ans1. Select the proper patient-carrying device;
- Package the patient for transfer;
- Move the patient to the ambulance;
- Load the patient into the ambulance
packaging
(Ans- the sequence of operations required to ready the patient to be moved
and to combine the patient and the patient-carrying device into a unit ready
for transfer
patient-carrying device
(Ans- must have a minimum of 3 straps for securely holding the patient:
one at chest level, one at hip or waist level, and one on the lower
extremities
legs raised 8 to 12 inches
(Ans- position that can be used to transport a patient in shock
1:100 bleach-to-water mixture
(Ans- intermediate-level disinfectant that can be used to clean and kill
germs on equipment surfaces; purpose for carrying it on the ambulance is
to destroy mycobacterium tuberculosis
low-level disinfectant
(Ans- can be used to clean and kill germs on ambulance floors and walls;
ex: Lysol
Landing zone (LZ)
(Ans- Area without aerial obstruction required by a helicopter that is
approximately 100-by-100 feet and on ground that has a slope of less than
8 degrees
Questions an EMD should ask a caller reporting a medical emergency
(AnsWhat is the exact location of the patient? What is your call-back number?
What’s the problem? How old is the patient? What’s the patient’s sex? Is
the patients conscious? Is the patient breathing?
Due regard
(Ans- legal term that appears in most states’ driving laws and refers to the
responsibility of the emergency vehicle operator to drive safely and keep
the safety of all others in mind at all times
True emergency
(Ans- Call in which the driver of the emergency vehicle responds with lights
and sirens because he or she is of the understanding that loss of life or
limb is possible
U.S. Department of Transportation
(Ans- The federal agency that develops specifications for ambulance
vehicle designs
Stokes basket
(Ans- A device used to carry patients over long distances
Scoop stretcher
(Ans- A device used to pick up patients found in tight spaces
Components of a typical fixed oxygen delivery system
(Ans- 3,000-liter reservoir; a two-stage regulator; the necessary reducing
valves and yokes
emergency medical dispatcher (EMD)
(Ans- person responsible for coordinating EMS resources, interrogating the
caller and prioritizing the call, and coordinating with other public safety
agencies
tell the operator to stop the ambulance
(Ans- the first action that should be taken if a patient develops cardiac
arrest en route to the hospital
First responder awareness
(Ans- Level of hazardous materials training that allows for recognition of the
problem and initiation of a response from proper organizations; no
minimum training hours are required; EMS responders should be trained to
this level
First responder operations
(Ans- Level of hazardous materials training for those who initially respond
to releases or potential releases of hazardous materials in order to protect
people, property, and the environment; they stay at a safe distance, keep
the incident from spreading, and protect others from exposures; requires a
minimum of 8 hours of training
EMT Module 3 Exam: Questions &
Answers
As the single EMT managing an apneic patient’s airway, the preferred initial
method of providing ventilations is the:
(Ans- mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve
You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner
is controlling severe bleeding from the patient’s lower extremities as you
attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After respositioning the mask
several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You
should:
(Ans- begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of
breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
(Ans- Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Which if the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an
oropharyngeal airway?
(Ans- a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations
After taking diphendydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person
begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an
example of a(n):
(Ans- side effect
Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is
correct?
(Ans- The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug
Activated charcoal is an example of a(n):
(Ans- suspension
A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache.
There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The
EMT must immediately:
(Ans- perform oropharyngeal suctioning
While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old
male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to:
(Ans- administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect
When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized
weakness, you find that he takes simvastatin (Vytorin) and clopidogrel
(Plavix). This medication regimen suggests a history of:
(Ans- cardiovascular disease
You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs
and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls
an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After
administering 100% oxygen, you should:
(Ans- contact medical control
EMT Module 4 Test Review
Contraindications for CPAP.
(AnsBP lower than 100
Pneumothorax
Chest trauma
Unconscious
What does CPAP stand for?
(AnsContinuous
Positive
Airway
Pressure
What is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes?
(AnsType 1:
-juvenile onset
-produces either no insulin or bad insulin
Type 2:
-adult onset
-produces insulin but not enough.
What are the 3 steps in the Prehospital Cincinnati hospital test?
(Ans1)Facial droop
-make them smile
2)Arm drop test
-close eyes and lift arms
-note if one arm droops
3) Speech test
-can’t teach an old dog new tricks
What is the difference between anaphylaxis and allergic reaction?
(AnsAnaphylaxis
-severe
-can cause airway compromise and/or shock
Allergic rxn
-not severe at all
Characteristics of an Allergic reaction
(AnsUritis (itchiness)
Uticaria (rash)
How do you use an Epi auto injector?
(AnsArm it
Place it on the vastus lateralis of the thigh
Hold for 5-10 seconds
Pull it out
What is stridor?
(Ans- Narrowing of the UPPER airway
What are inhalers?
(Ans- Bronchodilators
What part of the lungs does oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange at?
(Ans- Alveoli
Lower airway sounds
(AnsBronchi
EMT Test 3 review, EMT module 3 Exam
Review
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the
abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of:
Answers:
A. intra-abdominal bleeding.
B. a severe liver laceration.
C. rupture of a hollow organ.
D. a ruptured spleen.
(Ans- A
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury:
Answers:
A. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss.
B. should be placed in Trendelenburg position.
C. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
D. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta.
(Ans- C
The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous
system is:
Answers:
A. aldosterone.
B. epinephrine.
C. thyroxine.
D. insulin.
(Ans- B
When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed:
Answers:
A. into a fist.
B. in an extended position.
C. in a straight position.
D. in a functional position.
(Ans- D
An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion
if the:
Answers:
A. systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg.
B. heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min.
C. body’s temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C).
D. body’s demand for oxygen is markedly increased.
(Ans- C
The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at:
Answers:
A. C1 and C2.
B. C3, C4, and C5.
C. C3 and C4.
D. C1, C2, and C3.
(Ans- B
Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain
of pain because:
Answers:
A. subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted.
B. the nerve endings have been destroyed.
C. blister formation protects the burn.
D. they are generally not conscious.
(Ans- B
The lower jawbone is called the:
Answers:
A. zygoma.
B. mastoid.
C. mandible.
D. maxillae.
(Ans- C
In a patient with a head injury, hypertension, bradycardia, and Biot
respirations indicate:
Answers:
A. herniation of the brain stem.
B. internal bleeding in the chest.
C. an underlying skull fracture.
D. decreased cerebral blood flow.
(Ans- A
Which of the following is a severe burn in a 2-year-old child?
Answers:
A. Superficial burn that covers 25% of the BSA
B. Any full-thickness burn, regardless of its location on the body
C. Partial-thickness burn that covers 10% of the BSA
D. Any burn that involves the arms, legs, or posterior part of the body
(Ans- B
Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing triad?
Answers:
A. Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg; pulse, 140 beats/min; respirations, 28
breaths/min
B. Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg; pulse, 30 beats/min; respirations, 32
breaths/min
C. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg; pulse, 55 beats/min; respirations, 30
breaths/min
EMT Module 3 Exam: Questions &
Answers
As the single EMT managing an apneic patient’s airway, the preferred initial
method of providing ventilations is the:
(Ans- mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve
You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner
is controlling severe bleeding from the patient’s lower extremities as you
attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After respositioning the mask
several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You
should:
(Ans- begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique
Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of
breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
(Ans- Cheyne-Stokes respirations
Which if the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an
oropharyngeal airway?
(Ans- a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations
After taking diphendydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person
begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an
example of a(n):
(Ans- side effect
Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is
correct?
(Ans- The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug
Activated charcoal is an example of a(n):
(Ans- suspension
A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache.
There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The
EMT must immediately:
(Ans- perform oropharyngeal suctioning
While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old
male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to:
(Ans- administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect
When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized
weakness, you find that he takes simvastatin (Vytorin) and clopidogrel
(Plavix). This medication regimen suggests a history of:
(Ans- cardiovascular disease
You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs
and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls
an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After
administering 100% oxygen, you should:
(Ans- contact medical control
In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin life maneuver be
the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?
(Ans- a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an
allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely
labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine autoinjectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your
medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient highflow oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a
signal from your cell phone. You should:
(Ans- Administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport,
and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital
EMT Module 5 Exam: Questions &
Answers
Glascow Coma Scale (Ans
What is the difference between compensated and decompensated shock?
(Ans- Blood Pressure
What are the different types of shock?
(Ans- Obstructive Shock:
-conditions cause mechanical obstruction of the cardiac muscle also impact
pump function
-i.e. cardiac tamponade and tension pneumothorax
Cardiogenic Shock
-inadequate function of heart (pump failure)
Hypovolemic Shock:
-inadequate amount of fluid or volume in the system
-can be hemorrhagic or non-hemorrhagic
-vomiting and diarrhea = non-hemorrhagic
Psychogenic Shock:
-sudden reaction of the nervous system that produces generalized vascular
dilation which results in fainting.
Anaphylactic Shock:
-person reacts violently to a substance to which they have become
sensitized.
Neurogenic Shock:
-Damage to spinal cord (usually upper) can cause significant injury to the
part of the nervous system that controls the size and muscular tone of
blood vessels.
-Vessels will dilate widely, causing blood to pool and thus causing shock
How long should you spend on a patient that’s showing signs of shock?
(Ans- 10 mins- The Platinum 10
What is the best treatment during cardiac arrest?
(Ans- CPR then AED as soon as possible
Compression: Ventilation Ratios (Adult)
(Ans- 1 rescuer:
30:2
2 rescuers:
30:2
Compression:Ventilation Ratios (Child)
(Ans- 1 rescuer:
30:2
2 rescuers:
15:2
Compression:Ventilation Ratios (Infant)
(Ans- 1 rescuer:
Chapter 9 module Test EMT
A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an
altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is
conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the
bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:
(Ans- apply direct pressure to the wound
A palpable pulse is created by
(Ans- pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction
An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is
assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response,
and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings
is consistent with his GCS score?
(Ans- opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws
from pain
During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
(Ans- before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact
In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent
only in certain areas, such as the:
(Ans- lips or oral mucosa
Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
(Ans- the reason why the patient called EMS
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
(Ans- most serious thing the patient is concerned about
the rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment
should take no longer than
(Ans- 90 to 120 seconds
Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident
should be determined after:
(Ans- all the patients have been triaged
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive
patient with suspected trauma?
(Ans- jaw-thrust maneuver
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic
neck pain, you should:
(Ans- ensure that the patient can see you approaching him
When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil
should be to:
(Ans- become smaller
EMT Module 2 Exam: Questions &
Answers
The scene size-up is the first part of the patient assessment process. It
begins as you approach the scene, surveying it to determine:
A. if there are any threats to your patient’s safety
B. the number of injured
C. personal safety of all those involved in the call
D. the mechanism of injury (MOI)
(Ans- A
Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size-up?
A. it takes place as you are approaching the scene
B. is it replaced by patent care once you arrive at the scene
C. it occurs during the first part of the assessment process
D. it continues throughout the call
(Ans- D
If you arrive at a collision scene where there are police, fire vehicles, and
other ambulances already present, you should:
A. immediately begin patient care
B. conduct your own scene size-up
C. ensure that no bystanders are injured
D. all of these
(Ans- B
Which of the following is not an appropriate action when you near the
scene of a traffic collision?
A. look and listen for other EMS units as you near intersections
B. look for signs of collision-related power outages
C. observe traffic flow to anticipate blockage at the scene
D. attempt to part your vehicle downhill from the scene
(Ans- D
When you are in sight of the collision scene., you should watch for the
signals of police officers and other emergency service personnel because:
A. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured
persons
B. the first ones on the scene are considered to be in charge
C. federal law requires you to follow the command of other responders
D. they are considered the medical-care experts on the scene
(Ans- A
When there are no apparent hazards, consider the danger zone to extend
at least _ feet in all directions from the wreckage. A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 200 (Ans- B When a collision vehicle is on fire, consider the danger zone to extend at least feet in all directions, even if the fire appears small and limited to
the engine compartment.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
(Ans- C
It is essential that the EMT do a good scene size-up. Your scene size-up
should identify:
A. the potential fora a violent situation
B. the name and amount of toxic substances
C. the number of patients and their diagnoses
D. all of these
(Ans- A
The EMT’s Standard Precautions equipment during the scene size-up may
include all of the following except:
A. eye protection
B. disposable gloves
C. face mask or eye shield
D. nonrebreather mask
(Ans- D
Standard Precautions should be taken with all patients. The key element of
Standard Precautions is to:
A. always wear all the protective clothing
B. always have personal protective equipment readily available
C. place equipment on the patient as well as the rescuer
D. determination which body fluids are a danger to the EMT
(Ans- B
Certain injuries are common to particular situations. Injuries to bones and
joints are usually associated with:
A. fights and drug usage
B. falls and vehicle collisions
C. fires and explosions
D. bullet wounds
(Ans- B
Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in:
A. immobilizing the patient’s spine
B. determining which Standard Precautions to use
C. predicting various injury patterns
D. all of these
(Ans- C
The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced
by the laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, stat that:
A. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight
B. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss
C. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside
force
D. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an
injury
(Ans- C
You are treating a patient who was involved in a head-on collision. She was
the unrestrained driver who took the “up-and-over” pathway. To which part
of her body was she most likely to have sustained injuries?
A. Skull
B. Fibula
C. Knees
D. Femur
(Ans- A
Which of the following is least likely to be considered a mechanism of injury
for ta patient who was involved in ahead-on collision. She was the
unrestrained driver who took the “up-and-over” pathway.