NASM CPT Exam Study Guide;
Questions & Answers
What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices?
(Ans- To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive
forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?
(Ans- Gluteus maximus
For a fitness professional using the OPT model, the goal of the Stabilization
Endurance phase is to focus on which of the following aspects?
(Ans- Movement quality
Balance is best described as which of the following?
(Ans- The ability to maintain control of the body while in a static position
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
(Ans- c. 5 to 10 minutes
If a muscle is stretched too quickly, the muscle responds with an immediate
contraction to stop the stretch. What is this specific action called?
(Ans- d. Stretch reflex
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
(Ans- a. Vitamin A
What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top?
(Ans- b. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar
Which of the following is a question that may promote change?
(Ans- b. What might you want to change?
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the
antirotational stabilizing muscles?
(Ans- d. Kettlebell RDL
Which of the following is considered a component of NEAT?
(Ans- c. Walking
The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create
upward rotation of the scapula?
(Ans- b. Serratus anterior
Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their
personal grooming when working in a fitness facility?
(Ansd. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance
can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals
they are.
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to
enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what
determinant of behavior are they targeting?
(Ans- a. Self-efficacy
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be
described by which of the following?
(Ansb. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream
to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a
particular action.
Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about
fat-soluble vitamins?
(Ans- b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete
from the body.
NASM Personal Training Certification
Exam: Questions & Answers
Muscle imbalances
(Ans- alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint
Obesity
(Ans- The condition of being considerably overweight, and refers to a
person with a body mass index of 30 or greater, or who is at least 30
pounds over his or her recommended weight
What is the BMI of a typical obese individual?
(Ans- 30 or greater
Refers to a person with a body mass index of 25-29.9 or who is between
25-30 pounds over the recommended weight
(Ans- overweight
These are also known as cholesterol and triglycerides and are carried in
the bloodstream by protein molecules known as HDL and LDL
(Ans- blood lipids
chronic metabolic disorder caused by insulin deficiency, which impairs
carbohydrate usage and enhances usage of fats and proteins
(Ans- diabetes mellitus
a state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle imbalances,
decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability
(Ans- deconditioned
the cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from all
mechanoreceptors that sense body positions and limb movement
(Ans- proprioception
an unstable physical situation in which exercises are performed that cause
the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms
(Examples include using stability balls and single-leg squats versus
traditional)
(Ans- proprioceptively enriched movement
smaller divisions of training progressions that fall within the three building
blocks of training
(Ans- phases of training
a muscle’s ability to contract for an extended period
(Ans- muscular endurance
the ability of the neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently
work together in all planes of motion
(Ans- neuromuscular efficiency
What is the first phase of training that should be completed before anything
else to prevent injury and/or tension at the joints?
(Ans- stabilization training
the muscle that acts as the initial and main source of motive power
(Ans- prime mover
set of two exercises that are performed back-to-back without any rest time
between them
(Ans- superset
What type of training should done by individuals with a goal of maximal
muscle growth?
(Ans- Hypertrophy training
ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time
(Ans- rate of force production
the combination and interrelation of the nervous, muscular, and skeletal
systems
(Ans- human movement systems
a conglomeration of billions of cells specifically designed to provide a
communication network within the human body
(Ans- nervous system
the ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either the internal or
external environment
(Ans- sensory function
the ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory
information to allow proper decision making, which produces the
appropriate response
(Ans- integrative function
the neuromuscular response to the sensory information
(Ans- motor function
the functional unit of the nervous system
(Ans- neuron
These neurons transmit nerve impulses from effector sites via receptors to
the brain and spinal cord — respond to touch, sound, light and other stimuli
(Ans- sensory neurons
transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another
(Ans- interneurons
transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites
(Ans- motor neurons
NASM Personal Trainer Study Guide
5 Phases of OPT Model
(Ans-
-Stabilization Endurance
-Strength Endurance
- Muscular Development
-Maximal Strength
-Power
Homeostasis
(Ans- Human body ability to respond to stress and make changes to
maintain optimal health and physiological functioning.
Acute Disease
(Ans- medical condition that occurs suddenly and can be treated an healed
in a short period of time e.g. bronchitis. Left untreated bronchitis could
become a chronic illness.
Chronic Disease
(Ans- a medical condition that persists long term e.g. emphysema.
Ischemic Heart Disease
(Ans- Narrowing of coronary arteries which supply blood and oxygen to the
heart.
Atherosclerosis
(Ans- Plaque is formed in the arteries, leading to reduced blood flow to the
heart or brain.
Hypertension
(Ans- Blood pressure greater than 120/80 (systolic/diastolic.
Systolic blood pressure (SBP)
(Ans- Pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is
beating or contracting. Top number recorded.
Diastolic blood pressure (DBP)
(Ans- pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest
or between boots. Th bottom number recorded.
Cholesterol (Dyslipidemia)
(Ans- Waxy substance found in blood made up of protein and fatty acids
known as lipoprotein.
2 types of Cholesterol
(Ans- Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) – bad cholesterol-plaque clogs arteries
High density lipoprotein (HDL) – good cholesterol-doesn’t clog arteries
Diabetes
(Ans- Disease that impacts the body’s ability to properly metabolize
carbohydrates, specifically glucose.
Two types of Diabetes
(AnsType 1 – genetic can’t be prevented. Exercise helps.
Type 2-body produces insulin, but not used properly by the cells.
Insulin resistance (type 2 diabetes)
(Ans- The inability of the cells to respond to insulin.
Cancer
(Ans- Abnormal cell growth in the body.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
(Ans- Respiratory dysfunctions that include breathlessness, airflow
limitation, and decline of lung function.
Patellar tendonitis
(Ans- Inflammation of the tendon that connects the patella (knee cap) to the
tibia (shin bone).
Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
(Ans- Stretch, partial or complete tear of the ligament of the knee.
Medial cruciate ligament (MCL) tear
(Ans- Stretch, partial or complete tear of the medial collateral ligament of
the knee.
Shoulder impingement
(Ans- Shoulder pain caused by rotator cuff tissues rubbing against the
acromion bone of the shoulder.
SWOT analysis
(Ans- As a CPT you need to identify your personal strengths, weakness
and opportunities for growth and potential threats to success.
Four P’s of Marketing
(Ans- product, price, promotion, place
Unique Selling Product (USP)
(Ans- A set of specific skills or traits that are highlighted during a sales
presentation (marketing to an older population or stay at home moms, etc.)
Amotivation
(Ans- Not being engaged in an activity or behavior (not wanting to
exercise).
Extrinsic motivation
(Ans- Doing an activity for some form of recognition (win an award). Short
term exercise as once reward is given person loses focus.
Intrinsic motivation
(Ans- Pursuing activities that are of interest or meaningful to that person
(long term exercise).
Outcome goals
(Ans- Focused on the end result (place in top 10 in a 10K race).
Process goals
(AnsProcess of pursuing a goal (walking 1 hour a day @ 11am MondaySunday).
4 types of social support
(AnsInstrumental (driving one to the gym, watching their kids so they have time
to workout);
Emotional (encouraging showing empathy);
Informational (providing education about fitness and health); and
Companionship (accompanying friend to the gym)
4 Components of Leadership
(Ans- Leader’s qualities (being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable.;
Leadership styles (encourages feedback and input from students);
Situational Factors (factors such as large or small class); and
Follower’s qualities (age group, gender, and exercise level).
10 Benefits of group exercise
(AnsAccountability,
Comparison
Competition
Comradery
Consistency
Energy
NASM 7th ed, Chapter 15:
Cardiorespiratory Fitness Training
An individual’s cardiorespiratory fitness level is a strong predictor of what?
(Ans- Morbidity and mortality.
What does the acronym FITTE-VP, used to design aerobic (cardio)
programs, represent?
(Ans- Frequency, intensity, type, time, enjoyment, volume, progression
What is considered the gold standard measurement for cardiorespiratory
fitness?
(Ans- VO2max
What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve
or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal
heart rate (HRmax)?
(Ans- It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.
Walking is considered a component of what type of activity?
(Ans- NEAT
If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per
week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes
total per week?
(Ans- 165 minutes per week
How is a general warm-up best defined?
(Ans- Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not
necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
What is a sufficient amount of time for a cardiorespiratory cool-down?
(Ans- 5 to 10 minutes
What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if
participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
(Ans- 5 times a week
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training
if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
(Ans- 150 minutes per week
What reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?
(Ans- Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in
the average untrained individual
Which marker of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?
(Ans- Ratings of perceived exertion
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a
value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?
(Ans- 3.5 mL/kg/min
What is the Tanaka formula, which is used to estimate an individual’s
maximal heart rate?
(Ans- 208 – (0.7 x age)
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the
original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?
(Ans- 140 beats per minute
What is the main benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?
(Ans- It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a
compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
How is Fartlek training best described?
(Ans- Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by
combining different formats into one workout.
NASM Practice Test: Questions &
Answers
A female client’s waist measures 32 inches, and her hips measure 40
inches. In this scenario, her waist-to-hip ratio can be calculated as:
(Ans- 0.80
During glycolysis, in the presence of oxygen, pyruvic acid is converted into
an important molecule in metabolism called . (Ans- acetyl-CoAA A bending movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments decreases is called .
(Ans- Flexion
A health and fitness assessment is designed to:
(Ans- observe and document a client’s individual structural and functional
status.
The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the
following repetition ranges and intensity?
(Ans- 6-12 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM
_ is an example of a core-power exercise.
(Ans- Rotation chest pass
Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training
in Phase 2 of the OPT™ model?
(Ans- Single-leg squat touchdown
Which of the following exercises would be categorized as a core power
exercise?
(Ans- Soccer throw
Which of the following is a reactive-power exercise?
(Ans- Ice skaters
A client at the power level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT)
model should ideally be given drills with:
(Ans- maximal horizontal inertia.
A client at the stabilization level of an Optimum Performance Training
(OPT) model should ideally be given drills with:
(Ans- limited horizontal inertia.
A client at the strength level of an Optimum Performance Training (OPT)
model should ideally be given drills with:
(Ans- limited unpredictability.
A force that produces rotation is called . (Ans- Torque A movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body is called a(n).
(Ans- Abduction
Growth hormone released from the _ is primarily an anabolic hormone
responsible for most of the growth and development during childhood up
until puberty.
(Ans- pituitary gland
A client is performing a prone iso-ab exercise. The trainer notices that he is
not able to maintain proper alignment. As a regression, the trainer should
instruct the client to perform the exercise
(Ans- in a standard push-up position
NASM 7th Edition Exam Study Guide:
Complete Solution
What is credible nutrition information?
(Ans- Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science
You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss
benefits of including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you
consider in deciding if this is credible nutrition information?
(Ans- Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed
by other qualified individuals?
What are the three macronutrients?
(Ans- Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?
(Ans- 4
What are the three types of micronutrients?
(Ans- Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important
function of protein?
(Ans- Synthesis of hormones
What are the building blocks of proteins?
(Ans- Essential and nonessential amino acids
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?
(Ans- Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that
contain both fiber and starch
What best describes an essential amino acid?
(Ans- An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced
by the body
What is the RDA for protein?
(Ans- 0.8 g/kg of body weight
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports
Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
(Ans- 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
Describes the category of simple sugars
(Ans- Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the
body
During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the
body?
(Ans- Carbohydrates
You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate
diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking
energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low
energy?
(Ans- Inadequate carbohydrate intake
A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high
blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes
before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the
most appropriate course of action?
(Ans- Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of
practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.
What are the three categories within the lipid family?
(Ans- Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols
Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with
reduced inflammation?
(Ans- Omega-3 fatty acids
What is the optimal amount of protein per meal for muscle protein
synthesis?
(Ans- 20 to 40 g
A client reports that he is following a limited diet of chicken and rice every
day to avoid eating extra calories from other foods in order to lose weight.
What would be an appropriate response within your scope of practice as a
fitness professional?
(Ans- A varied diet of whole foods provides important micronutrients, and
this limited diet may be lacking adequate amounts of them.
During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is “cutting
out all carbs” from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose
weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope
of practice as a fitness professional?
(Ans- Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is
unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to
inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss
efforts.
What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids?
(Ans- Animal proteins
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female
adults) is comprised of water?
(Ans- 60%
You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her
diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond,
while staying within your scope of practice?
(Ans- Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important
physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for
carbohydrate in the diet?
(Ans- 45 to 65% of total calories
Which part of a food label would help a client review the ingredients in a
food product?
(Ans- The ingredients list
Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient
composition of a food product?
(Ans- The nutrition facts panel
What is glycogen?
(Ans- The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
What types of foods contain carbohydrates?
(Ans- Plant foods and dairy
Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which
of the following functions?
(Ans- It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for
performance.
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in
the diet?
(Ans- 20 to 35% of total calories
These vitamins play a key role in energy metabolism.
(Ans- B vitamins
NASM 7th ed, Chapter 9: Nutrition;
Questions & Answers
Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a
Certified Personal Trainer?
(Ans- General guidance on the importance of nutrition for health and
performance
Which of the following nutrition professionals is nationally recognized by the
Commission on Dietetic Registration to provide clinical, community, food
service, and nutrition education?
(Ans- Registered dietitian nutritionist
What is credible nutrition information?
(Ans- Nutrition information that is rooted in and supported by science
You read an article in a popular magazine explaining the weight-loss
benefits of including a certain nutrient in your diet. What should you
consider in deciding if this is credible nutrition information?
(Ans- Is the information supported by research, and has it been reviewed
by other qualified individuals?
What are the three macronutrients?
(Ans- Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
How many calories are in 1 gram of protein?
(Ans- 4
What are the three micronutrients?
(Ans- Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
Along with muscle protein synthesis, which of the following is an important
function of protein?
(Ans- Synthesis of hormones
What answer best describes the building blocks of proteins?
(Ans- Essential and nonessential amino acids
What is the best definition of complex carbohydrates?
(Ans- Carbohydrates that are comprised of polysaccharides and that
contain both fiber and starch
What best describes an essential amino acid?
(Ans- An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced
by the body
Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?
(Ans- Dairy foods
What is the RDA for protein?
(Ans- 0.8 g/kg of body weight
Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports
Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals?
(Ans- 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight
What statement best describes the category of simple sugars?
(Ans- Single- or double-molecule sugars that are easily absorbed by the
body
During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the
body?
(Ans- Carbohydrates
You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate
diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking
NASM 7th ed, Chapter 2: The Personal
Training Profession
What allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their
services?
(Ans- Unique selling proposition (USP)
What statement describes the main benefit of establishing a brand identity?
(Ans- A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
Which statement describes the first stage of the sales process?
(Ans- Identifying a customer’s needs
Which statement describes the second stage of the sales process?
(Ans- Communicating solutions for the customer’s needs
Which statement describes the final stage of the sales process?
(Ans- Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the
customer’s needs
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for
renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
(Ans- 0.1
What is the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that a
NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to
renew the certification?
(Ans- 2
Why is continuing education required for NASM Certified Personal
Trainers?
(Ans- To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest
understandings and research findings within the industry
What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?
(Ans- To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability
to perform the tasks required for this job category
What statement describes a low-cost health club?
(Ans- A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very
few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
What statement describes a premium health club?
(Ans- A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and
provides a selection of high-end amenities
What statement describes a mid-market health club?
(Ans- A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and
additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement
sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership
NASM: Certified Personal Trainer Study
Questions & Answers
Deconditioned
(Ans- a state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle
imbalances, decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability.
muscle imbalance
(Ans- alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint
Musculoskeletal system
(Ans- the combined, interworking system of all muscles and bones in the
body.
Obesity
(Ans- the condition of being considerably overweight; a person who is at
least 30# over the recommended weight for their height.
Scope of Practice
(Ans- the actions, procedures, and processes that a professional is
allowed to undertake in keeping with the terms of the professional’s license
or credential.
The modern state of health and Fitness
(Ans- physical activity decreased with industrialization. This resulted in
deaths caused by CVD, type 2 diabetes, and cancer to increase. Since
then the need for exercise increased; obesity still increases regardless of
this fact.
The history of the fitness industry and personal training
(Ans- up to the 1950’s, health clubs were male oriented mainly for body
builders and olympic lifters. After then, different exercise types increased
and the ratio between genders decreased. in the 1960’s “figure saloons” or
women’s fitness centers began to pop up. In the 70’s, personal training
began to flourish with low qualified staffing. 80-90’s fitness education
organizations were started. (page 5-6)
Best practices
(Ans- professional procedures that are considered to be correct, safe, or
most effective.
Continuing Education
(Ans- any of a variety of course offerings that serve the purpose to keeping
professionals up-to-date with their knowledge and skills.
Continuing Education Unit: CEU
(Ans- a measure used in continuing education courses that is designed for
professionals to maintain a certification or licensure.
Mentor
(Ans- a trusted advisor in a specific area.
Special population
(Ans- individuals who will require modifications or specialized training
Fitness employment opportunities
(Ans- large-scale clubs, medium-sized fitness centers, clinical settings,
sport performance
Adjacent Careers
(Ans- Athletic trainer, physical therapist, Registered dietitian, facility owner,
group fitness instructor, management, sports coach, strength and
conditioning coach, licensed massage therapist.
Education Responsibilities
(Ans- Continuing education unit courses, traditional advanced education
(collegiate degrees), Live Events (seminars), Publications (american fitness
journal)
Mentors
(Ans- are invaluable for new fitness professionals. They can give you
feedback for different situations. Some professionals have 1 or more
mentors and can include those outside the fitness industry.
Networking
(Ans- is important when advancing one’s career. it is the active
development of professional relationships that will result in the change of
information or devices to advance one’s career. Easiest way to is discuss
industry information, like the latest trends, research etc.
Referring Clients
(Ans- if a situation occurs where the fitness professional insure about
whether a situation falls within his/her scope of practice, the best thing to
do is refer out (i.e. dietitian for nutrition; physician for impairment).
Scope of Practice for NASM
(Ans- CPTs are health and fitness professionals who perform individualized
assessments and design safe, effective, and individualized exercise and
conditioning programs. Provide guidance. Are CPR and AED certified. Do
not diagnose and treat injuries. They abide by NASM’s code of conduct.
Continuing education requirements
(Ans- In order to maintain a CPT certification, the fitness professional will
need to obtain 2 CEUs every 2 years. (this ~ 20 Hours of contact hour
training; 1 hour = 0.1)
Abduction
(Ans- A body segment is moving away from the midline of the body.
Adduction
(Ans- A body segment is moving toward the midline of the body.
NASM CPT Exam Study Guide
Name the structures that make up the
lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC).
(Ans- Lumbar spine, pelvic girdle, abdomen,
and hip joint
Dysfunction within the connective
tissue of the kinetic chain that is
treated by the body as an injury,
initiating this repair process.
(Ans- Cumulative injury cycle
Name four core-strength exercises.
(Ans- Ball Crunch, Back Extensions, Reverse
Crunch, Cable Rotations
The type of flexibility training that
applies gentle force to an adhesion,
altering the elastic muscle fibers from
a bundled position to a straighter
alignment with the direction of the
muscle and/or fascia.
(Ans- Self-myofascial release
Exercises in the core-stabilization level
are identified through these
characteristics.
(Ans- They involve little motion through the
spine and pelvis
What are four common ways a stressor
causes breakdown or injury?
(Ans- Stress fractures, muscle strains, joint
pain, emotional fatigue
Name four core-stabilization exercises.
(Ans- Marching, Floor Bridge, Floor Prone
Cobra, Prone Iso-abs
Law stating that soft tissue models
along the lines of stress.
(Ans- Davis’s law
Referred to as a co-contraction of
global muscles, such as the rectus
abdominis, external obliques, and
quadratus lumborum.
(Ans- Bracing
It is critical that the core training
program is designed to achieve these
three functional outcomes in the right
order.
(Ans- 1. Intervertebral stability, 2. Lumbo-pelvic stability, 3. Movement
efficiency.
What are the proper backside
mechanics during sprinting?
(Ans- Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension,
hip extension, and neutral pelvis
What are the proper frontside
mechanics during sprinting?
(Ans- Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip
flexion, and neutral pelvis
The ability to accelerate, decelerate,
stabilize, and change direction quickly,
while maintaining proper posture.
(Ans- Agility
The ability to react and change body
position with maximum rate for force
production, in all planes of motion and
from all body positions, during
functional activities.
(Ans- Quickness
The ability to move the body in one
intended direction as fast as possible.
(Ans- Speed
Name four core-power exercises.
(Ans- Rotation Chest Pass, Ball Medicine
Pullover Throw, Front Medicine Ball
Oblique Throw, Soccer Throw
The ability of the body to produce high
levels of force for prolonged periods of
time.
(Ans- Muscular endurance
What is a component of core-power
exercises that make them easy to
identify?
(Ans- Explosive movements with medicine
balls
Name five balance-stabilization
exercises.
(Ans- Single-leg Balance, Single-leg Balance
Reach, Single-leg Hip Internal and
External Rotation, Single-leg Lift and
Chop, Single-leg Throw and Catch
Name five balance-strength exercises.
(Ans- Single-leg Squat, Single-leg Squat
Touchdown, Single-leg Romanian
Deadlift, Step-up to Balance,
Multiplanar Lunge to Balance
Name three balance-power exercises.
(Ans- Multiplanar Hop with Stabilization,
Multiplanar Single-leg Box Hop-up with
Stabilization, Multiplanar Single-leg
Box Hop-down with Stabilization
What are four plyometric-stabilization
exercises?
(Ans- squat jump with stabilization, box jump-up with stabilization, box
jump-down with stabilization, multiplanar jump with stabilization.
Name four plyometric-strength
exercises.
(Ans- Squat Jump, Tuck Jump, Butt Kick,
Power Step-up
Name three plyometric-power
exercises.
(Ans- Ice Skater, Single-leg Power Step-up,
Proprioceptive Plyometrics
Exercises that use quick powerful
movements involving an eccentric
action immediately followed by an
explosive concentric contraction.
(Ans- Plyometric training
Body position progressions in balance
training.
(Ans- two-leg stable, single-leg stable, two-leg unstable, single-leg
Give examples of chest exercises used
in the Stabilization Level of the OPT
model.
(Ans- Ball Dumbbell Chest Press, Push-up,
Ball Push-up: hands on the ball,
Standing Cable Chest Press
What are the two techniques used in
corrective flexibility according to the
integrated flexibility continuum?
(Ans- SMR (self-myofascial release) and
NASM 7th ed, Chapter 13: Integrated
training and the OPT Model
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with
resistance training methods indicates what style of training?
(Ans- Integrated training
Programming exercises that are too advanced or physically demanding can
have a lasting effect on which of the client’s emotional considerations?
(Ans- Self-efficacy
The body can adapt to new demands while becoming stronger and more
resilient through which exercise programming approach?
(Ans- Progressive overload
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound
exercise?
(Ans- Squatting
Training to enhance the size of muscle, or an increase in muscle mass, is
an example of which improvement of the body?
(Ans- Muscle hypertrophy
Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions?
(Ans- Quadriceps
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
(Ans- Cleaning
Which predominant anatomical position of muscle groups would be
enhanced by using pulling motions?
(Ans- Posterior
Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance
chest stabilization, strength, or power?
(Ans- Triceps brachii
Which pressing exercise would be appropriate for someone who has high
levels of upper-body strength but has no equipment because they are
traveling?
(Ans- Handstand push-up
What muscle(s), working with the obliques, will assist a client in completing
a standing cable rotation movement?
(Ans- Erector spinae
“Posture” uses which anatomical landmark in comparison to other positions
of the body?
(Ans- Spine
Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct
posture?
(Ans- Muscle imbalances
Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of
motion?
(Ans- Sagittal
What would be the back-squat volume for a client who has completed 10
sets of 3 repetitions at 225 pounds?
(Ans- 6,750 pounds
What common term can be used in place of repetition tempo?
(Ans- Speed
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual’s
fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?
(Ans- Baseline value
NASM 7th ed, Chapter 7: Human
Movement Science
Movement represents the integrated functioning of which three main body
systems?
(Ans- Muscular, nervous, and skeletal
What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one
body segment can impact other areas of the body?
(Ans- Regional interdependence
What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer
to the midline of the body?
(Ans- Medial
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an
identified reference point?
(Ans- Superior
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the
opposite side of the body?
(Ans- Contralateral
Which plane of movement can be described as an imaginary line that
bisects the body into right and left sides?
(Ans- Sagittal
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction
occur?
(Ans- Transverse
Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human
eye may be classified in what way?
(Ans- Arthrokinematic
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
(Ans- Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the
shoulder blades so that they become closer together?
(Ans- Scapular retraction
What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a
change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?
(Ans- Isometric
How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?
(Ans- A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and
the resistance varies with the force exerted
How should an eccentric muscle action be described?
(Ans- The development of muscle tension during lengthening of the
contractile tissue
NASM CPT Practice Test: Questions &
Answers
Davis’s law states which of the following?
Select one:
a. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular
efficiency.
b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
c. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional
antagonist.
d. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional
movement patterns.
(Ans- b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress
Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an
anterior pelvic tilt?
Select one:
a. Erector spinae
b. Psoas
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Gluteus maximus
(Ans- d. Gluteus maximus
When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due
to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is:
Select one:
a. the knees moving inward.
b. external rotation of the feet.
c. excessive forward lean.
d. low back arches.
(Ans- b. external rotation of the feet.
When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the
purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as:
Select one:
a. reflections.
b. affirmations.
c. compliments.
d. judgments.
(Ans- a. reflections.
Which of the following best describes the code of conduct for a fitness
professional?
Select one:
a. A set of scientifically proven and evidence-based theories that a fitness
professional can apply to specific fitness programs.
b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of
service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general
public.
c. A set of processes that help a fitness professional determine the number
of clients he or she can handle at a given. time
d. A set of records that allow a fitness professional to track his or her own
progress career-wise.
(Ans- b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level
of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the
general public.
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate
one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.
(Ans- c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training
exercise for legs?
Select one:
a. Multiplanar step-up to balance
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg dead lift
d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
Feedback
(Ans- d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
Which of the following macronutrients should be consumed in the highest
percentage for a healthy diet?
Select one:
a. Carbohydrate
b. Fat
c. Protein
d. Water
(Ans- a. Carbohydrate
Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown
(Ans- a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is
in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
Select one:
a. Resistance development
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Periodization
(Ans- a. Resistance development
NASM CPT Final Exam Study Guide
Proprioception
(Ans – The body’s ability to to sense the relative position of adjacent parts
of the body
Ex: when walking our feet give us proprioception about the type of surface
we are on.
Mechanoreceptors
(Ans – specialized structures that recognize pressure in tissue and transmit
signals to sensory nerves.
Muscle Spindles
(Ans – sensory receptors in the muscles that are parallel to the muscle
fibers and are sensitive to change in muscle length. Spindles stretch with
muscle and sends information to CNS.
helps to prevent muscles from stretching too far or too fast
Golgi Tendon Organs
(Ans – sensory receptors that are located at the point where the skeletal
muscle fibers insert into the tendon. Sensitive to change in tension at the
rate of change
causes the muscle to relax
Epimysium
(Ans – connective tissue UNDER fascia that acts as an outer layer of the
whole muscle
Perimysium
(Ans – connective tissue acts as an outer layer of fascicles
Endomysium
(Ans – between the individual muscle fibers
Type 1 Muscle Fiber
(Ans – “slow-twitch”, smaller in size, lessforce produced, long-term
contractions (stabilization)
Type 2 Muscle Fiber
(Ans – fast twitch, larger, quick to fatigue, force and power exercises
Agonist
(Ans – PRIME MOVER, main muscles
ex: chest press-> pectoralis major
Synergist
(Ans – ASSIST PRIME MOVER,
ex: chest press -> ant deltoid, triceps
Stabilizer
(Ans – stabilizes while prime mover and assist work.
chest press -> rotator cuff
Antagonist
(Ans – Oppose Prime mover,
chest press -> posterior delt
Right Atrium
(Ans – gather DEOXGENATED blood returning to the heart from ENTIRE
BODY
Left Atrium
(Ans – gathers OXYGENATED blood coming from the LUNGS
Right Ventricle
(Ans – thin walls pumps under low pressure. Pumps to lungs