AMEDD BOLC 2023- PT.1 questions with correct
answers
What is the electromagnetic spectrum? CORRECT ANSWER the range of al possible
electromagnetic radiation
What is the Army Ethic? CORRECT ANSWER the set of enduring moral principles, values, beliefs
and laws that guide the Army profession and create the culture of trust essential to Army
professionals in the conduct of missions, performance of duty & all aspects of life; the army
ethic articulates out shared identity
What is Identity r/t the Army? CORRECT ANSWER identity applies primarily to the individual and
is one’s sense of self or the perception of one’s roles and purpose in life; trusted army
professionals embrace a shared identity; it is progressively formed and strengthened as
individuals live by and uphold the Army Values
What is climate r/t the Army? CORRECT ANSWER climate is a shorter-term experience than
culture and reflects how people think and feel about their organization; a unit’s climate, based
on shared perceptions and attitudes, affects mutual trust, cohesion and commitment to the
mission (HOW MEMBERS FEEL)
What is culture r/t the Army? CORRECT ANSWER culture is longer lasting and consists of shared
attitudes, values, goals and practices that characterize the larger institution over time; the
Army’s culture is deeply rooted in tradition & honoring those who have gone before (HOW WE
DO THINGS)
What are the characteristics of health culture and climate? CORRECT ANSWER – fosters unity,
cohesion and trust
- promotes and rewards mental agility
- selects and rewards leaders who provide clear priorities
- is one of inclusion and that demands diversity
- requires and rewards delegation of authority
- rewards members who demonstrate the ability
What are the 3 levels of leadership? CORRECT ANSWER – strategic - organizational
- direct
What is direct leadership? CORRECT ANSWER – first line leaders - develops subordinates by coaching, counseling, mentoring and setting the example
- focused on short-range problems and immediate tasks
What is organizational leadership? CORRECT ANSWER – exercises leadership through
subordinate leaders - establishes a climate that supports and empowers subordinate leaders
- focused on long-term organization objectives
What is strategic leadership? CORRECT ANSWER – guides and integrates multiple organizational
level units - influences several thousand to hundreds of people
What are the characteristics of a successful organizational climate? CORRECT ANSWER – a clear,
wide known purpose (mission) - well trained, confident soldiers and army civilians
- disciplined, cohesive teams
- trusted, competent leaders
- promotes the army values and fosters the warrior ethos
- encourages learning, promotes creativity and performance
- recognizes mistakes as opportunities to learn
- values honest feedback
What are the indicators of a professional climate? CORRECT ANSWER – leaders set clear
priorities and achievable goals
- there is a fair system of recognition, reward and punishment
- leaders have the courage to admit when they are wrong and seek input from subordinates
- leaders lead from the front, sharing hardship
- leaders lead by example and serve as good role models
- etc.
What is the ethical climate of an organization determined by? (4 factors) CORRECT ANSWER –
individual character of unit members - policies and practices within the organization
- actions of the unit leaders
- environmental and mission factors
What are the 4 stages of the Counseling Process? CORRECT ANSWER 1. identify the need for
counseling
- prepare the counseling
- conduct the counsel
- follow up
What is the process of preparing the counseling? CORRECT ANSWER – select a suitable place
- schedule the time
- notify subordinate well in advance
- outline the session components
- organize info and draft a plan
- plan strategy
- establish the right atmosphere
AMEDD BOLC Midterm questions with correct
answers
The AMEDD views threats from what two perspectives? – correct answer General threat and
health threat
What is a health threat? – correct answer composite of ongoing potential enemy actions;
adverse environmental, occupational, and geographic and meteorological conditions, endemic
diseases, CBRN, etc
What is health Service Support (HSS)? – correct answer All support and services performed,
provided, and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental and
physical well being of personnel in the Army.
Anything that helps improve the physical and mental state of people in the Army.
What are the 3 components of Health Service Support? – correct answer Casualty Care:
treatment, hospitalization, dental, neuropsych, and lab services
Medical evacuation: medical regulating and en route care
Medical logistics: all subcomponents and services
What is Force Health Protection (FHP)? – correct answer Measures to promote, improve, or
conserve the mental and physical well-being of Soldiers.
What is involved in Force Health Protection? – correct answer -Preventative medicine
-Veterinary services, food inspection, zoonotic disease prevention
-Combat operational stress control (COSC)
-Dental services (preventative)
-Lab services and support
What is the Army health System? – correct answer All encompassing term to describe both
the HSS and FHP aspects of AMEDD support.
What are the 3 parts of Tactical Combat Casualty Care (TC3)? – correct answer Care Under
Fire
Tactical Field Care
Tactical Evacuation
What are the 6 principles of the Army health System? – correct answer 1. Conformity
- Proximity
- Flexibility
- Mobility
- Continuity
- Control
What are Roles 1, 2 3 and 4? – correct answer Role 1: BN aid station and below
-Immediate life saving measures
Role 2: Medical company
-X-ray, lab, dental, patient hold, pharmacy, advanced trauma
Role 3: Field hospital
-Resuscitation, wound surgery, postoperative treatment
Role 4: Definitive Care
-Full spectrum of definitive medical care
Is sequential evacuation necessary? (Role 1 > Role 2 > Role 3 > Role 4) – correct answer No.
For example you can go from Role 1 to Role 3
What is the role of the command surgeon? – correct answer Special staff officer that plans
and monitors execution of the AHS mission
Ensures all Medical Functions and operational planning factors are planned and synchronized in
operation plans and orders
Not a commander. May recommend policy/procedures but can’t give orders except through unit
plans and orders
What are the primary tasks of mission command functions? – correct answer Mission
command
Communications and computers
Task organization
Medical intelligence
Technical supervision
Regional focus
What are the 3 mission command organizations? – correct answer Medical command
(Deployment support)- medical force provider
Medical brigade (Support)-provide mission command of all attached/assigned AHS units
Medical Battalion (Multifunctional)-provide mission command, administrative assistance,
logistical support, and technical supervision capability
What are the responsibilities of the medical commander? – correct answer Exercises mission
command (authority and direction) over his subordinate medical resources
What are the responsibilities of the command surgeon? – correct answer At all levels of
command, a command surgeon is designated. This AMEDD officer is a special staff officer
charged with planning for and executing the AHS mission
What are the responsibilities of the line commander? – correct answer The commander
ensures health promotion program. This encompasses the assets of educational, environmental,
and AHS support services
What is the Law of Land Warfare inspired by? What does it do? – correct answer The desire
to diminish the evils of war
-Protects combatants and noncombatants from unnecessary suffering
-Safeguards certain fundamental human rights of persons who fall into the hands of the enemy,
particularly detainees/enemy prisoners of war, the wounded and sick, and civilians
-Facilitates the restoration of peace
What are possible operation variables? (Known as PMESII-PT) – correct answer Political
Military
Economic
Social
AMEDD BOLC Final Exam questions with correct
answers
What is the purpose to having the Amphibious Assault Ship (LHD/LHA)? – correct answer
To provide similar care as a role 2+ near a coastal location
- Can be used in emergency or natural disaster events
Role 1 Capabilities – correct answer – Immediate Lifesaving Measures - Disease Non-Battle Injury
- Patient Collection
- Medical Evacuation
Role 2 Capabilities – correct answer – All Capabilities of Role 1 - Ancillary Support
- Patient Holding
- Preventive Medicine
- Behavioral Health
Physical Therapy - Medical Supply Office
- Blood Storage
In which companies is a Role 2? – correct answer – Brigade Support Medical Company
(BSMC) - Area Support Medical Company (ASMC)
How long are patients held within a Role 2? – correct answer 72 hrs
A Role 3 is better know as what? – correct answer Combat Support Hospital (CSH)
Role 3 Capabilities – correct answer – All of Role 1 & 2
- Resuscitation
- Initial Wound Surgery
- Postoperative Treatment
- Blood Bank
How long are patients kept within a Role 3? – correct answer Until the patients are stabilized
and are not expected to return to duty
Where is FST attached?
Where can it be assigned?
What would that role be referred to as? – correct answer – Role 3 - Role 2
- Role 2 plus
What is a Role 4? – correct answer A major hospital
Define Health Service Support (HSS) – correct answer All support and services performed,
provided, and arranged by the AMEDD to promote, improve, conserve, or restore the mental and
physical well being of personnel in the Army.
What 3 components encompass HSS? – correct answer – Casualty Care - Medical Evacuation (MEDEVAC)
- Medical Logistics (MEDLOG)
Define Force Health Protection (FHP) – correct answer The measures to promote, improve,
or conserve the mental and physical well-being of Soldiers
What 5 components encompass FHP? – correct answer – Preventive Medicine - Veterinary Services
- Laboratory Services
- Dental Services
- Combat and Operational Stress Control (COSC)
What are the roles of the Command Surgeon? – correct answer – Supervises medical
operations within the command (is not a commander)
What is the purpose of the Modular Medial System? – correct answer – Standardizes all
medical sub-units - Designed to allow medical planners acquire, receive, and triage patients
What squads does an Area Support Section consist of? – correct answer – Treatment Squad - Area Support Squad
- Patient Holding Squad
What is the role of the Nurse Corps Officer within a Medical Company? – correct answer –
Authority to triage - Responsible for patient holding
Basic Army Element Symbols - Ø
- •
- ••
- •••
- l
- ll
- lll
- X
AMEDD BOLC Midterm July 2020 questions with
correct answers
What are the two Medical Readiness Read Applications – correct answer Medical Protection
System (MEDPROS) and Commander’s Portal
Medical Protection System (MEDPROS) – correct answer Tracking and reporting
mechanism for the unit’s medical readiness
Commander’s Portal – correct answer Provides holistic picture of the units medical readiness,
empowering command teams decision for deployability.
- And lets physicians and commanders communicate
For a Soldier that that receives a permanent limitation, they may receive one of three Physical
Category Codes – correct answer F, V and X
Category code F – correct answer No assignment or deployment to OCONUS areas where
definitive medical care for the Soldier’s medical condition is not available.
Category code V – correct answer Deployment. This code identifies a Soldier with
restrictions on deployment to certain areas.
Category code X – correct answer COAD/COAR. This Soldier is allowed to continue in the
military service with a disease, injury, or medical defect that is below medical retention
standards, pursuant to a waiver of retention standards, or waiver of unfit finding and continued
on active duty or in active Reserve status under AR 635-40.
How many sections is the DD 2796 Post-Deployment Health Assessment (PDHA) divided into
and what are they? – correct answer 1. General Health Assessment
- Occupational/Environmental Exposure Questions
- Behavioral Health Questions
3 potential sources of exposure concerns: – correct answer 1. Ambient environment
- Occupational exposure
- Wartime agent usage
DD 2795 – correct answer Pre-Deployment Health Assessment (Pre-DHA)
- Parts I and II may be completed within 120 days of deployment, but must be validated as
current within 60 days of deployment - Part I completed online and Part II with a provider
- Part II completed within 30 days of Part I completion
DD 2796 – correct answer Post-Deployment Health Assessment (PDHA) - Part I is done using AKO and within 30 days of part II
- Part II must be completed within 5 days of redeployment and filed in records within 30 days of
redeployment
DD 2900 – correct answer Post Deployment Health Re-Assessment (PDHRA) - Completed 90-180 days upon redeployment
- Part I is done online and within 30 days of part II
- Part II must be completed within 180 days of redeployment
Troop Leading Procedures – correct answer 1. Receive the Mission
- Issue a Warning Order
- Make a Tentative Plan
- Initiate Movement
- Conduct Reconnaissance
- Complete the Plan
- Issue the Order
- Supervise and Refine
Receive the Mission – correct answer – Conduct initial METT-TC analysis
- Conduct confirmation brief
- Prepare an initial timeline for plan
Issue a Warning Order – correct answer – Follow five paragraph OPORD format. - Provide all available information for preparation (Type of operation, initial timeline,
movement, CCIR, etc.)
Make a tentative plan – correct answer – Detailed mission analysis (friendly, enemy, terrain,
etc.) - Compare all courses for action.
Initiate movement – correct answer Initiate movements necessary to continue mission
preparation or to posture the unit for starting the mission.
Conduct Reconnaissance – correct answer To verify terrain analysis, confirm routes, confirm
PIR, gain best possible view of the decisive action.
Complete the plan – correct answer Based on recon and coordination, complete the OPORD.
Issue the Order – correct answer Ensure subordinates understand and share vision.
Supervise and Refine – correct answer – Observe rehearsals, conduct back briefs and check
equipment. - Happens throughout the entire process.
AMEDD RC-Basic Officer Leader Course Phase 1
Module D Exam questions with correct answers
Professional mortuary services and supplies incident to care and disposition of human remains
and personal effects of persons who are eligible for these services by specific statute. The
decedent’s PE are shipped to the PERE from the SCMO. Which operation is this within the
Army’s Mortuary Affairs Program? – correct answer B) Current Death
If refrigeration is not available, and you have to use ice packs to preserve the remains, what is an
important fact to remember? – correct answer B) Avoid skin contact with the ice
This operation should be conducted only when operational constraints prevent the storage or
evacuation of human remains out of the operational area to a servicing mortuary, or when it is
deemed prudent for the protection of health and welfare of personnel. Which operation is this
within the Army’s Mortuary Affairs Program? – correct answer A) Concurrent Return
The search for, recovery, tentative identification, processing, and evacuation of human remains
and decedent PE from a theater of operation to a servicing mortuary through MA evacuation
channels. Which operation is this within the Army’s Mortuary Affairs Program? – correct
answer D) Search and Recovery (SAR)
Your Soldiers were tasked to assist the MA unit gaining a full accounting of deceased Soldiers.
They were able to determine cause of death and the manner of death. Have the gained a full
accounting and why or why not? – correct answer C) No, there is no proper identification
Once a profile is visible in the Commander Portal, how many days does an active duty
commander have to view it? How many days does a reserve component commander have to
view it? – correct answer C) Active duty commanders have 14 days and reserve component
commanders have 30 days
Match the role of care with the correct type of facility. – correct answer Role 1 – Battalion
Aid Station and below
Role 2 – Medical Company
AMEDD RC-Basic Officer Leader Course Phase 1
Module A Exam questions with correct answers
When two or more distinctly different potential enemies join together to fight the United States,
what type of threat are they considered? – correct answer A) Dual Threat
B) Hybrid Threat
C) Combined Threat
D) Organized Threat
At the tactical level of command, who is the commander’s principal advisor on all spectrum
related matters? – correct answer A) The commander’s RTO
B) The Brigade Signal Officer
C) The spectrum manager
D) The net control station
When issuing the warning order to your Soldiers, what type of format should you use? –
correct answer A) There’s no particular format
B) Mission briefing format
C) Five-paragraph OPORD format
D) Memorandum format
How are small-unit orders normally formatted? – correct answer A) E-mail
B) Verbally
C) Text Message
D) Copies of the higher headquarters OPORD is issued
The Army is the largest user of satellite enabled capabilities, integrated into all six what? –
correct answer A) Battle Drills
B) Support brigade combat teams
C) Warfighting functions
D) Intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance systems
You are planning for operations, how many operational variables are there to consider? –
correct answer A) Five
B) Six
C) Twelve
D) Eight
Living by and upholding the Army Ethic means that its moral principles are woven through all
facets of what? – correct answer A) Our lives
B) The Army’s history
C) Army culture
D) Mission planning
Why should your Soldiers train on the use of map and compass, terrain association,
azimuth/distance/direction and dead reckoning? – correct answer A) GPS may not work in a
significant jamming environment
B) There is no need to train on those methods because the GPS will always work
C) They will need that training when they attend leadership courses
D) It’s good hip-pocket training
What type of task is CEMA in the Mission Command Warfighting Function? – correct
answer A) Implied task
B) Supplemental task
C) Additional task
D) Staff task
How many satellites must a GPS receiver have line of site to in order to gain a reliable
positioning solution? – correct answer A) Three