Nurs 5315 UTA exam 1 questions with correct
answers
Atrophy – Answer E. Cells decrease in size
P. Still functional
Physiologic: thymus gland in early childhood
Pathological: disuse
Hypertrophy – Answer E. Increase in cell size
P. Increased workload
Physiologic: weightlifting
Pathologic: cardiomegaly from HTN
Hyperplasia – Answer E. Increase in cell number
P. Increased cellular division
Physiologic: liver regeneration
Pathologic: endometrial- usually r/t hormones
Dysplasia – Answer E. Cells change in size, shape, organization
P. AKA atypical hyperplasia, a disorderly proliferation
Physiologic: N/A
Pathologic: squamous dysplasia of cervix from HPV
Metaplasia – Answer E. one cell type replaced with another
P. reprogramming of stem cells, reversible
Physiologic: N/A
Pathologic: stratified squamous cells in bronchial lining r/t cigarette smoke
Hypoxia injury – Answer E. inadequate oxygenation of tissues
P. decrease in mitochondrial function, decreased production of ATP increases
anaerobic metabolism. eventual cell death.
C.M. hypoxia, cyanosis, cognitive impairment, lethargy
Free radical and ROS – Answer E. normal byproduct of ATP production, will
overwhelm the mitochondria- exhaust intracellular antioxidants
P. lipid peroxidation, damage proteins, fragment DNA
C.M. development in Alzheimer’s, heart disease, Parkinson’s disease, Amyotrophic
Lateral Sclerosis
Ethanol – Answer E. mood altering drug, long term effects on liver and nutritional
status
P. metabolized by liver, generates free radicals
C.M. CNS depression, nutrient deficiencies-Mag, Vit B6, thiamine, PO4,
inflammation and fatty infiltration of liver, hepatomegaly, leads to liver failure
irreversible
Oncosis – Answer Na and H2O enter cell and cause swelling. Organ increases in
weight, becomes distended and pale. Associated with high fever, hypocalcemia,
certain infections
Fatty Infiltration – Answer intracellular accumulation of lipids in the liver
liver fails to metabolize lipids. usually from ETOH or high fat diet. can lead to
cirrhosis
Nurs 5315: Adv Patho Exam 1 questions with
correct answers
Atrophy – Answer E. Cells decrease in size
P. Still functional; imbalance between protein synthesis and degradation.
Essentially there is an increase in the catabolism of intracellular organelles,
reducing structural components of cell
Physiologic: thymus gland in early childhood
Pathological: disuse (muscle atrophy d/ decrease workload, pressure, use, blood
supply, nutrition, hormonal stimulation, or nervous stimulation)
Hyperplasia – Answer E: cells increase in number, mitosis (cell division) must
occur, size of cell does not change
Phys: increased rate of division, increase in tissue mass after damage or partial
resection; may be compensatory, hormonal, or pathologic
Patho: abnormal proliferation of normal cells usually caused by increased
hormonal stimulation (endometrial). increase of production of local growth factors
Ex: removal of part of the liver lead to hyperplasia of hepatocytes. uterine or
mammary gland enlargement during pregnancy
Dysplasia – Answer E. Not true adaptation; Cells abnormal change in size, shape,
organization (classified as mild, moderate, severe)
P. caused by cell injury/irritation, characterized by disordered cell growth. aka
atypical hyperplasia or pre-cancer, a disorderly proliferation
Physiologic: N/A
Pathologic: squamous dysplasia of cervix from HPV shows up on pap smear,
breast cancer development; pap smears often show dysplastic cells of the cervix
that must undergo laser/surgical tx
Metaplasia – Answer E: reversible change, one type of cell changes to another
type for survival
P: reversible; results from exposure of the cells to chronic stressors, injury, or
irritation; Cancer can arise from this area, stimulus induces a reprogramming of
stem cells under the influence of cytokines and growth factors
Ex: Patho: Columnar cells change to squamous cells in lungs of smoker or normal
ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial linings are replaced by stratified squamous
epithelial cells.; Phys: Barrett Esophagus- normal squamous cells change to
columnar epithelial cells in response to reflux, aka intestinal metaplasia
Hypoxia injury – Answer E. inadequate oxygenation of tissues
P. decrease in mitochondrial function, decreased production of ATP increases
anaerobic metabolism. eventual cell death.
C.M. hypoxia, cyanosis, cognitive impairment, lethargy
Free radical and ROS – Answer E. normal byproduct of ATP production, will
overwhelm the mitochondria- exhaust intracellular antioxidants
P. lipid peroxidation, damage proteins, fragment DNA
C.M. development in Alzheimer’s, heart disease, Parkinson’s disease, Amyotrophic
Lateral Sclerosis
Ethanol – Answer E. mood altering drug, long term effects on liver and nutritional
status
P. metabolized by liver, generates free radicals
C.M. CNS depression, nutrient deficiencies-Mag, Vit B6, thiamine, PO4,
inflammation and fatty infiltration of liver, hepatomegaly, leads to liver failure
irreversible
Oncosis – Answer Na and H2O enter cell and cause swelling. Organ increases in
weight, becomes distended and pale. Associated with high fever, hypocalcemia,
certain infections
Fatty Infiltration – Answer intracellular accumulation of lipids in the liver
liver fails to metabolize lipids. usually from ETOH or high fat diet. can lead to
cirrhosis
dystrophic calcification – Answer accumulation of Ca in dead or dying tissues
calcium salt clump and harden- interfere with cellular structure and function
r/t pulmonary TB, atherosclerosis, injured heart valves, chronic pancreatitis
metastatic calcification – Answer accumulation of Ca in normal tissue
result of hypercalcemia r/t hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, toxic levels of
Vit D. Can also r/t hyperphosphatemia in renal failure
urate accumulation – Answer sodium urate crystals are deposited in tissues- group
of disorders collectively called gout- acute arthritis, chronic gouty arthritis, tophus,
nephritis
Coagulative Necrosis – Answer kidneys, heart, adrenals- secondary to hypoxia
Liquefactive Necrosis – Answer nerve cells- brain- accumulation of pus
Caseous Necrosis – Answer lung disease- usually TB- tissue looks like clumped
cheese
Fat Necrosis – Answer breast, pancreas, abdominal structures- creates soaps
Gangrenous Necrosis – Answer Dry- dark shriveled skin
Wet- internal organs- can lead to death
Gas- from clostridium- antitoxins and hyperbaric therapy
Gout – Answer E. disturbances in serum urate levels. uncommon for < 30 years
old.
P. uric acid is deposited in the tissues of kidney, heart, earlobes, and joints.
C.M. inflammation, painful joints. result of diuretic use or diet high in cream
sauces, red wine, or red meat
Rhabdomyolysis – Answer E. cell hypoxia caused by severe muscle trauma,
hyperthermia, crush injuries, or severe dehydration
P. hypoxia to cell causes failure of the Na-K pump, causing accumulation of
intracellular sodium, oncosis, and eventual cell death. Cell death releases enzymes
such as CK, uric acid, LDH, AST, etc.
C.M. Causes: trauma, hyperthermia, crush injuries, severe dehydration; s/s: CK is
5x upper normal limit, muscle pain, weakness, dark, reddish-brown urine,
hypercalcemia, renal failure
Alpha Fetoprotein Origin – Answer Liver and germ cell tumors
Carcinoembryonic Antigen – Answer GI, pancreas, lung, breast tumors
Prostate Specific Antigen – Answer prostate tumors
Carcino- – Answer from epithelial tissue- renal cell carcinoma
NURS 5315 UTA Exam 2 questions with
correct answers
HIV EIA (3rd generation immunoassay) – Answer can use urine, saliva, or serum
(most accurate), need to wait until 12 weeks post exposure to see antibodies, >99%
accurate
4th generation immunoassay- “gold standard”
measures P24 antigen
can test 10 days post exposure
Mast cell – Answer Cellular bags of granules located in loose connective tisssue
close to blood vessels. Activation initiates inflammatory process.
Histamine – Answer Causes vasodilation, increases vascular permeability,
increases blood flow to the site of injury- causes erythema and swelling.
Cytokines – Answer Soluble factors that contribute to the regulation of innate or
adaptive resistance by affecting other neighboring cells. Can be pro-inflammatory
or anti-inflammatory. Can react quickly or be more delayed.
Leukotrines – Answer Released when mast cells degranulate, prolong the
inflammatory process. Cause vasodilation, attract neutrophils, monocytes, and
eosinophils.target of inhibition for singular.
Prostaglandins – Answer Released when mast cells degranulate, are produced by
the arachidonic pathway. Cause vasodilation, platelet aggregation at site of injury,
pain, and fever.
Chemotactic factors – Answer Biochemical substance that attracts leukocyte to
the site of inflammation
Neutrophils – Answer Predominant leukocyte at work during the early stages of
acute inflammation
Monocytes – Answer Become macrophages when entering the tissue, responsible
for presenting antigens to the CD4 cell which triggers T-cell immunity and B-cell
immunity.
Releases additional cytokines IL1, IL6, TNF.
Cytokine IL1 function – Answer Causes fever, activates phagocytes &
lymphocytes and also increases the release of IL6a
Cytokine IL6 function – Answer Stimulates production of acute phase reactants
and promotes growth and stimulation of RBCs
Cytokine TNF function – Answer Causes fever, increases synthesis of
proinflammatory proteins by liver, causes muscle wasting, induces thrombosis
Cytokine growth factor function – Answer Promotes production and maturation of
neutrophils
Complement – Answer Functions include bacterial lysis, vasodilation and
increased vascular permeability, triggers mast cell degranulation, chemotaxis, and
opsonization.
Kinin – Answer Converted to bradykinin which is responsible for pain and
chemotaxis, and it increases vascular permeability and vasodilation.
Coagulation cascade – Answer Factor XII activates kinin. Function is to form
fibrin mesh to stop bleeding and trap micro organisms.
COX1 – Answer Prostaglandin of arachidonic pathway. Provides
gastroprotection, platelet aggregation, fluid/electrolyte balance
COX2 – Answer Prostaglandin of arachidonic pathway. Responsible for pain,
fever, renal protection, tissue repair, reproduction development.
COX2 inhibitors- clinical implications – Answer Protect gastric mucosa- prevent
ulcers and bleeding. Removed from market r/t cardiac events except for Celebrex.
Can impair renal function , monitor labs.
Arachidonic pathway purpose – Answer Synthesis of prostaglandins
Non-selective NSAIDS – Answer Inhibit COX1 and COX2, risk for gastric
ulceration, GI bleeds, edema, renal impairment
ASA – Answer Blocks COX1 and COX2, also inhibits Thromboxane A2 and
prostaglandins
Corticosteroids – Answer Inhibit phospholipase A2, preventing formation of
prostaglandins, thromboxane A2, prostacyclin, and leukotrines
Thromboxane – Answer Vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation
Prostacyclin – Answer Vasodilation, platelet aggregation (most effective one)
UTA NURS 5315 Test 1 questions with correct
answers
byproduct of aerobic metabolism – Answer carbon dioxide (CO2)
what enzyme converts CO2 to Carbonic acid H2CO3 – Answer carbonic
anhydrase
is a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism of glucose – Answer lactic
acid
end product of oxidation of sulfur containing amino acids – Answer sulfuric acid
end product of metabolism of phosphoproteins and ribonucleotides which are used
as an energy source – Answer phosphoric acid
_ binds with 40% of calcium – Answer albumin
charge of albumin – Answer negative
what happens with albumin and calcium in acidotic states – Answer There is an
increased amount of H ions which causes albumin to bind to more H ions and less
calcium ions causing calcium ions to become displaced leading to a higher level of
free calcium
what happens with albumin and calcium in alkalotic states – Answer There is a
decreased amount of H ions causing a insufficient amount of H ions to bind with
albumin. This causes albumin to bind with more calcium (due to H depletion) and
causes a decreased amount of free calcium
When the extracellular fluid volume is expanded it _ the reabsorption
of HCO3 in the _ – Answer inhibits; proximal tubule
A deficit in ECF volume results in a ___ in the reabsorption of HCO3 –
Answer increase
What hormone does ECF volume deficit stimulate – Answer RAAS
How does RAAS affect bicarb – Answer Angiotension II stimulates the Na-H
exchanger in the proximal tubule –> increases HCO3 reabsorption
Angiotension II stimulates the Na-H exchanger in the proximal tubule –> increases
HCO3 reabsorption –> what does this cause? – Answer metabolic alkalosis
(contraction alkalosis) secondary to volume depletion- can occur with use of
loop/thiazide diuretics
Where does the renal excretion of hydrogen occur? – Answer distal tubule and
collecting ducts
What 2 active transport system are used to secrete H – Answer H-ATPase and HK-ATPase
How do the 2 transport systems move H to be excreted – Answer move H into the
lumen and move potassium from the lumen into the cells
once H is in the lumen what does it bind with? – Answer monohydrogen
phosphate (HPO4)
what does mono hydrogen phosphate produce – Answer H2PO4 –> dihydrogen
phosphate
once H2P04 is created what can happen with it? – Answer it can be excreted
what happens to the cell cycle when cancer develops? – Answer cell life cycle is
unregulated and the cells grow and proliferate. cancer cellular division is
unregulated and malignant cells can invade local or distant tissues
Are cancer cells specialized? – Answer No, only normal cells are specialized
Are cancer tumors encapsulated? – Answer No, only benign tumors are
encapsulated.
-oma – Answer benign tumor
Loss of cellular differentiation – Answer anaplasia
tumors involving epithelial tissues – Answer -carcinoma
glandular epithelial tissue – Answer -adeno
preinvasive carcinoma – Answer carcinoma in situ
tumors of connective tissue – Answer -sarcoma
UTA Nurs 5315 Mod 6 questions with correct
answers
Minute Ventilation is a – Answer Measure of how effective
ventilation is
RR x volume of air per breath
Alveolar ventilation an only be assessed by measuring a _ – Answer
PaCO2
The and the _ are located in the medulla and are
responsible for controlling breathing patterns – Answer Dorsal respiratory group
(DRG)
Ventral respiratory group (VRG)
Where are the peripheral chemoreceptors located that monitor ? – Answer aorta
and carotid arteries
pH and PaO2 levels
What is compliance used to describe? – Answer how easily the lungs and chest
wall can be stretched
compliance means that the lungs and chest wall are difficult to inflate –
Answer decreased
Compliance __ with COPD – Answer increases
What are 4 things in which you would see decreased compliance? – Answer –
acute respiratory distress syndrome
- pneumonia
- pulmonary edema
- pulmonary fibrosis
In normal physiology, the airway resistance is normally very _ – Answer Low bronchoconstriction naturally ___________ – Answer increases airway
resistance
caused by smooth muscles of PNS
_ distribution of ventilation and perfusion is required for effective gas exchange – Answer Equal The bases of the lungs are better perfused when in the _________. –
Answer upright position
Ventilation is greater than perfusion in the _ – Answer apices (very top) Perfusion is greater than ventilation in the _ – Answer bases of the lungs
What is the ventilation perfusion ratio? – Answer the relationship between
ventilation and perfusion
-normal ratio is 0.8=amount by which perfusion exceeds ventilation
NURS 5315 Advanced Pathophysiology questions
with correct answers
Ovarian cancer site of metastasis? – Answer Peritoneal surfaces, omentum (fold
of peritoneum connecting the stomach with other abdominal organs), liver
The increased NADH/NAD+ ratio in the liver from ethanol causes: – Answer 1.
Pyruvate –> lactic acid, causing lactic acidosis
- Oxaloacetate –> malate. This prevents gluconeogenesis and leads to
hypoglycemia - Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate –> glycerol 3- phosphate and combines with fatty
acids to form triglycerides in the liver, known as hepatosteatosis - Decreases citric acid cycle production of NADH and leads to using Acetyl-CoA
for ketogenesis and lipogenesis
What can Reactive Oxygen Species cause? – Answer Heart disease, Alzheimers,
Parkinsons, Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS), CV disease, HTN, HLD, DM,
ischemic heart disease, HF, OSA. Lipid perioxidation, damage proteins, fragment
DNA, less protein synthesis, chromatin destruction, damage mitochondria
What is the body’s defense against ROS? – Answer Antioxidants (Vitamin E,
Vitamin C, cysteine, glutathione, albumin, ceruloplasmin, transferrin)
How are free radicals produced? – Answer 1. Normal cellular respiration - Absorption of extreme energy sources (radiation, UV light)
- Metabolism of exogenous chemicals, drugs, and pesticides
- Transition of metals
- Nitric oxide acting like a chemical mediator and a free radical
action potential – Answer Process of conducting an impulse. Activates the neuron
–> the neuron depolarizes –> then repolarizes
Threshold potential – Answer Point at which depolarization must reach in order to
initiate an action potential
Hypokalemia and action potentials – Answer HYPERpolarized (more negative,
ex. -100). Less excitable. Decreased neuromuscular excitability: weakness, smooth
muscle atony, paresthesia, cardiac dysrhythmias
Hyperkalemia and action potentials – Answer HYPOpolarized (more positive, ex:
closer to 0). More excitable. Peaked T waves.
When resting membrane potential=threshold potential, it is BAD = cardiac
standstill, paresthesia, paralysis
Hypocalcemia and action potentials – Answer Increased permeability to Na+.
More excitable. Tetany, hyperreflexia, circumoral paresthesia, seizures,
dysrhythmias.
Hypercalcemia and action potentials – Answer Decreased permeability to Na+.
Less excitable. Weakness, hyporeflexia, fatigue, lethargy, confusion,
encephalopathy, depressed T waves
Atrophy – Answer Occurs as a result of decrease in work load, pressure, use,
blood supply, nutrition, hormonal stimulation, or nervous stimulation. Once the
cell has decreased in size, it has now compensated for decreased blood supply,
nerve supply, nutrient supply, hormonal supply, and has achieved new
homeostasis. Cells are alive but have diminished function and may lead to cellular
death.
Atrophy examples – Answer Physiologic atrophy- shrinking of the thymus gland
during childhood.
Disuse atrophy- someone that ends up being paralyzed
Hypertrophy – Answer Increase in SIZE of cells, which will lead to increase in
size of organ. Caused by hormonal stimulation or increased functional demand.
Hypertrophy examples – Answer physiologic hypertrophy- skeletal hypertrophy
when a person does heavy work or weight lifting / when a kidney is surgically
removed, the other kidney increases in size
pathologic hypertrophy- cardiomegaly results from an increased workload in
hypertensive patients / left ventricular hypertrophy
Hyperplasia – Answer Increase in NUMBER of cells. Results from increased rate
of mitosis. Can ONLY happen in cells that are capable of mitosis (cell division).
Hyperplasia examples – Answer 1. Thickening of skin because of hyperplasia of
epidermal cells.
- Hormonal hyperplasia- occurs in estrogen dependent organs like uterus and
breast. - Compensatory hyperplasia- liver regenerates, callus on skin
- Pathologic hyperplasia- estrogen is unopposed by progesterone and the
endometrial lining undergoes hyperplasia and increased risk for endometrial cancer
Dysplasia – Answer abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of
mature cells due to persistent, severe cell injury or irritation
Dysplasia examples – Answer Pre cancer pap smears often show dysplastic cells
of the cervix that must undergo treatment.
NURS 5315 Final questions with correct answers
A patient in respiratory distress and is breathing 33 breaths per minute. Which
ABG value is consistent with the clinical scenario?
PCO2 15
pH 7.30
pH 7.45
O2 sat 100%
A patient who is breathing 33 breaths per minute is hyperventilating and blowing
off CO2; therefore the PCO2 level will be low. The patient will most likely
experience a respiratory alkalosis and the two pH values provided are not
consistent with this diagnosis.
A patient has a sodium level of 115 mEq/L and is disoriented and lethargic. Which
pathological process best explains this patient’s symptoms?
a. The action potential has become hyperpolarized.
b. Water has shifted into the neurons and caused them to swell.
c. Water has shifted into the vascular space and dehydrated the neurons.
d. The action potential has become hypopolarized.
b. The cause of neurologic symptoms associated with a sodium imbalance is
directly related to fluid shifting into or out of the neurons of the brain. With a
serum sodium of 115 mEq/L, water shifts into the neurons and causes them to
swell. Hypernatremia causes water to shift out of the cell into the intravascular
space and causes the neurons to become dehydrated. An alteration in the action
potential is not seen with sodium imbalances.
A patient experiencing dehydration should be monitored for which electrolyte
imbalance?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hyponatermia
a. Serum osmolality is increased during times of dehydration. An elevated serum
osmolality will pull potassium into the intravascular space from the intracellular
space and cause a rise in serum potassium.
A married couple presents to your office for genetic counseling. The husband has
an autosomal recessive disease and his wife has a heterozygous genotype for the
disease. They ask you, What is the chance that our baby will have the disease?
Which of the following answers is correct?
25%
50%
75%
100%
A chromosome is a package of material located inside the cell nucleus which is
made of proteins and a single molecule of DNA. There are 23 pairs of
chromosomes in each human cell for a total of 46 chromosomes. Chromosomes are
separated into two identical sets during mitosis or meiosis. This provides a set of
chromosomes to each daughter cell which results from cell division. This process
is responsible for the transfer of genetic information to the daughter cells. The first
22 pairs of chromosomes are known as autosomes. The 23rd pair of chromosomes
is the pair which contains the genetic information for gender. This pair contains the
genetic information which delineates between the male and female genders.
Females have two X chromosomes (XX) and males have an XY chromosome pair.
Autosomal chromosomes are said to be autologous. This means they do not carry
genetic information pertaining to gender. Autosomal genetic diseases are carried
on the first 22 pairs of chromosomes. Sex-linked diseases are only carried on the
23rd pair of chromosomes. The autosomal chromosomes are nearly identical to one
another and are considered homologous to one another. Each autosomal
chromosome in a pair carries identical genes. These two genes are known as
alleles. The alleles occupy the same site on each partner of the chromosome pair
and code for the same genetic trait or physiologic function. Alleles can be
dominant or recessive. One allele may be dominant and the other recessive, or they
both may be dominant or both recessive. The dominant alleles’ genetic code will
always manifest in the individual’s phenotype. The information in the recessive
allele is typically not expressed in the phenotype unless both alleles are recessive.
For the purpose of clarity in use, the dominant gene is assigned a capital letter and
the recessive gene is assigned a lower case letter. Any letter is okay to use but
make sure you use the same letter for the genotype – for example, “Bb or aa.” The
term homozygous refers to a pair of alleles which are either both dominant or
recessive. For example, “BB or bb” are said to be homozygous because the alleles
are either both dominant or recessive. An allele pair in which one is dominant and
one is recessive is said to be heterozygous. In autosomal recessive disorders both
alleles on the chromosome are affected by the genetic aberration. If only one
recessive gene is affected by the genetic aberration then the person is said to be a
carrier and will not have the phenotypic expression of the disease. The healthy,
recessive allele will compensate for the allele which is affected by the genetic
aberration. The carrier can pass the trait but does not have the genetic disease. In
an autosomal dominant disorder the dominant gene is the only gene that has to be
affected by the genetic aberration in order to have the phenotypic expression of the
disease. A healthy recessive allele cannot compensate for a diseased dominant
allele. In order to answer this question one must understand the above information
and draw a Punnett Square.
The husband has an autosomal recessive disease which means his genotype must
be aa. The wife has a heterozygous genotype for the disease which means her
genotype is Aa. The capital A reflects a healthy gene so she is merely a carrier and
does not express the disease phenotype. The father’s genotype is written across the
top line and the mother’s genotype is written in the boxes to the left. The four
boxes in the middle are the possible genotypes of their offspring. Each box
represents a 25% chance for the offspring to have that particular genotype. The
question asks you to determine the chances the offspring will have the autosomal
recessive disease or in other words, express the phenotype for the disease. The
genotype which will result in the disease is “aa.” Therefore, there is a 50% chance
that their offspring will have the autosomal recessive disease.
UTA Nurs 5315 Exam 2 questions with correct
answers
Name 5 types of immunity – Answer Natural Immunity, Acquired Immunity,
Passive acquired immunity, Humoral immunity, Cell-Mediated immunity
Macrocytic Anemias – Answer Pernicious anemia, Folate Deficiency Anemia,
Microcytic Anemias – Answer Iron Deficiency Anemia
Neonate Platelets – Answer Are equal to adult levels and remain so through
childhood
During childhood the functioning bone marrow is limited to the vertebrae, ribs,
sternum, pelvis, scapulae, skull and proximal ends of the femur and humerus. –
Answer A degree of hematopoiesis occurs in the liver and spleen in children.
Fetal hemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin.
Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn – Answer This is an anemia which
occurs in a newborn secondary to an immune destruction of the RBCs from the
mother’s antibodies
Sickle Cell Disease – Answer – presence of the abnormal hgb, Hgb S.
- Hemoglobin S is formed because of a genetic mutation which results in the
replacement of glutamate amino acid with a valine amino acid in the β-globin
hemoglobin chain. - This is a genetic disorder which is autosomal recessive disorder
- increase risk of infections secondary to streptococcal infections.
Disorders of the GI System NURS 5315 Test
4 questions with correct answers
Primary manifestations of SRMD – Answer GI bleeding
Cushing Ulcers – Answer Stress ulcers that occur as a result of TBI or brain
surgery
Upper GI bleed – Answer any source of bleeding which occurs in the esophagus,
stomach or the duodenum.
Upper GI bleed is characterized by… – Answer frank, bright red or “coffee
ground” emesis
Upper GI bleed causes – Answer bleeding varices (varicose veins) in the
esophagus or stomach
peptic ulcers
gastritis
Mallory-Weiss tear (tearing of the esophagus from the stomach)
Lower GI bleed is found in the … – Answer jejunum, ileum, colon, or rectum
Lower GI bleed causes – Answer inflammatory bowel disease, cancer, diverticula
or hemorrhoids
Type of bleed commonly associated with colon cancer – Answer occult GI bleed
Blood loss of 1000ml or greater will cause… – Answer hypotension, tachycardia
and if severe enough may lead to hypovolemic shock
Indicator of an upper GI bleed – Answer Hematemesis
Hematemesis – Answer bright red, bloody emesis
Coffee ground emesis – Answer indicator of upper GI bleed but is not necessarily
emergent
Hematochezia – Answer presence of bright red blood in the stools
Presence of hematochezia – Answer suggests that the bleed is in the lower GI
tract, usually in the rectum, sigmoid colon or the descending colon
Diarrhea is characterized by… – Answer loose, watery stools
Acute diarrhea – Answer presence of 3 loose stools that develops within 24 hours
and lasts no longer than 14 days
persistent diarrhea – Answer Diarrhea which lasts 14-30 days
Chronic diarrhea – Answer present for longer than 30 days
Osmotic diarrhea – Answer caused by the presence of a nonabsorbable substance
in the intestines
how the laxatives mag citrate, lactulose and MiraLAX work – Answer pulls water
by osmosis into the intestinal lumen and results in large volume diarrhea
causes of osmotic diarrhea – Answer tube feedings, dumping syndrome,
malabsorption, pancreatic enzyme deficiency, bile salt deficiency, small intestine
bacterial overgrowth, or celiac disease.
Secretory diarrhea – Answer large volume losses secondary to infectious causes
such as the rotavirus, bacterial enterotoxins, or C-diff
These infections trigger enteroendocrine cells to secrete 5HT and the activation of
afferent neurons that stimulate submucosal secretomotor neurons and alter sodium
chloride transport resulting in decreased water 2 absorption – Answer How does
Secretory diarrhea result in large volume losses secondary to infectious causes
Motility diarrhea – Answer AKA as short bowel syndrome and results from the
resection of the small intestine or a surgical bypass of the small intestine or a
portion of it, IBS, diabetic neuropathy, hyperthyroidism, and laxative abuse
Complications of diarrhea – Answer dehydration, electrolyte imbalances,
metabolic acidosis, weight loss, and malabsorption
Chronic diarrhea – Answer Fever, cramping and bloody stools; caused by
inflammatory bowel disease and dysentry
AST (aspartate aminotransferase) – Answer intracellular protein which regulates
metabolism. It is a marker of hepatic injury. When it is elevated it indicates that
there is hepatocellular injury occurring. It does not tell you what is causing the
injury, only that the injury is happening.