Complete Answers WGU D236 Pathophysiology Exam 2 (Latest 2023 / 202A++ Exam with All New Qs & As – Guaranteed Pass!
- What is Starling’s Law of Capillary forces?
How does this explain why a nutritionally deficient child would have edema?-
Answer: Starling’s Law describes how fluids move across the capillary
membrane. Thereare two major opposing forces that act to balance each other,
hydrostatic pressure(pushing water out of the capillaries) and osmotic pressure
(including oncontic pressure, which pushes fluid into the capillaries).
Both electrolytes and proteins (oncontic pressure) in the blood affect osmotic
pressure, high electrolyte and protein concentrations in the blood would cause
water to leave the cells and interstitial space and enter the blood stream to
dilutethe high concentrations.
On, the other hand, low electrolyte and protein concentrations (as seen in a
nutritionally deficient child) would cause water to leave the capillaries and
enterthe cells and interstitial fluid which can lead to edema. - How does the RAAS (Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System) result in
increased blood volume and increased blood pressure?
Answer: A drop in blood pressure is sensed by the kidneys by low perfusion,
which in turn begins to secreterenin.
Renin then triggers the liver to produce angiotensinogen, which is converted to
Angiotensin I in the lungs and then angiotensin II by the enzyme
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin IIstimulates peripheral
arterialvasoconstriction which raises BP.
Angiotensin II is also stimulating the adrenal gland to release aldosterone,
whichacts to increase sodium and water reabsorption increasing blood volume,
while also increased potassium secretion in urine. - How can hyperkalemia lead to cardiac arrest?
Answer: Normal levels of potassium are between 3.5 and 5.2 mEq/dL.
Hyperkalemia refers to potassium levels higherthat 5.2 mEq/dL.
A major function of potassium is to conduct nerve impulses in muscles. Too
lowand muscle weakness occurs and too much can cause muscle spasms.
This is especially dangerous in the heart muscle and an irregular heartbeat can
cause a heart attack
- The body usesthe Protein Buffering System, Phosphate Buffering System,and
Carbonic Acid-Bicarbonate System to regulate and maintain homeosta-tic pH,
what is the consequence of a pH imbalance
Answer: Proteins contain many acidic and basic group that can be affected by
pH changes. Any increase or decrease in blood pH can alter the structure of the protein (denature), thereby affecting its function as well - Describe the laboratory findings associated with metabolic acidosis,metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis. (ie relative pH
and CO2 levels).
Answer: Normal ABGs (Arterial Blood Gases) Blood pH: 7.35-7.45 PCO2:
35-45 mm Hg PO2: 90-100 mm Hg HCO3-: 22-26 mEq/L SaO2: 95-100%
Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis are marked by changes in PCO2. Higher =
acidosis and lower = alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis and alkalosis are caused by something other than
abnormalCO2 levels. This could include toxicity, diabetes, renal failure or
excessive GI losses.
Here are the rules to follow to determine if is respiratory or metabolic in
nature. -If pH and PCO2 are moving in opposite directions, then it is the pCO2
levels that arecausing the imbalance and it is respiratory in nature.
-If PCO2 is normal or is moving in the same direction as the pH, then the
imbalanceis metabolic in nature.
- The anion gap is the difference between measured cations (Na+ and K+)
and measured anions (Cl- and HCO3-), this calculation can be useful in
determining the cause of metabolic acidosis.
Why would an increased anion gap be observed in diabetic ketoacidosis orlacticacidosis?
Answer: The anion gap is the calculation of unmeasured anions in the blood.
Lactic acid and ketones both lead to the production of unmeasured anions,
which remove HCO3- (a measured anion) due to buffering of the excess H+ and
thereforeleads to an increase in the AG. - Why is it important to maintain a homeostatic balance of glucose in the
blood (ie describe the pathogenesis of diabetes)?
Answer: Insulin is the hormone responsible for initiating the uptake of
glucose by the cells. Cells use glucose toproduce energy (ATP).
In a normal individual, when blood glucose increases, the pancreas is signaled
to produced in insulin, which binds to insulin receptors on a cells surface and
initiatesthe uptake of glucose.
Glucose is a very reactive molecule and if left in the blood, it can start to bind
toother proteins and lipids, which can lead to loss of function.
AGEs are advanced glycation end products that are a result of glucose
reactingwith the endothelial lining, which can lead to damage in the heart and
kidneys. - Compare and contrastType I andType II Diabetes
Answer: Type I diabetes is causedby lack of insulin. With out insulin signaling, glucose will not be taken into the celland leads to high blood glucose
(hyperglycemia). Type I is usually treated with insulin injections.
Type II diabetes is caused by a desensitization to insulin signaling. The insulin
receptors are no longer responding to insulin, which also leads to
hyperglycemia.
Type II is usually treated with drugs to increase the sensitization to insulin
(met-formin), dietary and life-style changes or insulin injections.
- Describe some reasons for a patient needing dialysis
Answer: AEIOU-acidosis. Electrolytes, Intoxication/Ingestion, overload,
uremia. Patients with kidney or heartfailure.
A build up of phosphates, urea and magnesium are removed from the blood
usinga semi-permeable membrane and dialysate.
AEIOU:
A—acidosis;
E—electrolytes principally hyperkalemia; I—
ingestions or overdose of medications/drugs;
O—overload of fluid causing heart failure;
U—uremia leading to encephalitis/pericarditis - Compare and contrast hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.
What are some reasonsfor a patient choosing one over the other?
Answer: Hemodial-ysis uses a machine to pump blood from the body in one tube
while dialysate (madeof water, electrolytes and salts) is pumped in the separate
tube in the opposite direction. Waste from the blood diffuses through the
semipermeable membrane separating the blood from the dialysate.
Peritoneal Dialysis does not use a machine, but instead injects a solution of
waterand glucose into the abdominal cavity. The peritoneum acts as the
membrane instead of dialysis tubing.The waste products diffuse into the
abdominal cavity andthe waste solution is then drained from the body.
Complete Answers WGU D236 Pathophysiology (Latest 2023 / 2024)A++ Exam with All New Qs & As – Guaranteed Pass!
- Describe how your body responds to an infection.
Answer: T cells produce cy-tokines, which stimulate B cells. B cells
produce antibodies. - Identify role of DNA changes in congenital abnormalities.
Answer: Mutations ingenes or chromosomal abnormalities - How does development disrupts congenital abnormalities?
Answer: Alterations ofDNA - Describes factors that disrupt homeostasis and how disruptions affect
wellbeing.
Answer: (ex) Fluid and electrolyte shifts can cause n/v or dysrhythmias. - Explain RAAS
Answer:
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system - Reduce blood flow causes kidneys to release renin
produce angiotensin I > converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II >
vasoconstric-tion > release aldosterone > kidneys conserve sodium and water
Result less water lost in urine and blood pressure maintained.
- DKA
Answer: increased anion gap, decreased HCO3 - How do kidneys compensate for alkalosis
Answer: retain H and excrete HCO3 - Untreated acidosis leads to an increase in which electrolyte?
Answer: Potassium - West Nile Virus
Answer: Transmitted through the bite of an infected mosquito. Severesigns
and symptoms; high fever, headache and stiff neck - Lyme disease
Answer: Tick-borne disease caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. - Erythema infectiosum
Answer: a febrile upper respiratory illness in a child followedby the sudden
appearance of red, flushed cheeks, “fifth disease” - Obesity ad diabetes are risk factors for having a child with .
Answer: Spinabifida - Trousseau’s sign
Answer: arm/carpal spasm associated with hypocalcemia - Cause and sign of spina bifida
Answer: results from failure of neural tube to close.sign – fluid filled sac on
lower back. - hemophilia is more common in
Answer: males - Prenatal exposure to alcohol includes
Answer: ND-PAE, decreased brain function,FAS - Connective vs muscle tissue disorders
Answer: Connective- RA, Scleroderma, Lu-pus
Muscle – MS, Muscular dystrophy, Myasthenia Gravia - Describe Lupus
Answer: Inflammatory disorder characterized by joint pain and butter-fly rash - Describe Myasthenia Gravis
Answer: It is an autoimmune disorder where antibodiesattack own Ach
receptors. This causes weakness of skeletal muscles over the course of the day,
along with ptosis, double vision, and difficulty swallowing.
Complete Answers WGU D236 Patho Respiratory (Latest 2023 / 2024)
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- What conducts air to the lower airways, protects the lungs from foreign
matters, warms, filters, and humidifies air.
Answer: Upper respiratory tract - Participated in gas exchange, but oxygenating blood and excreting carbon
dioxide at the alveoli
Answer: Lower respiratory tract - This type of respiratory failure occurs when the pressure of oxygen in
arterial blood is lower than 60 mmHg with normal arterial carbon dioxide.
Ex include;
- pulmonary edema
- PE
- pneumonia
- Pneumothorax
Answer: Hypoxemic respiratory failure
- This type of respiratory failure occurs when carbon dioxide in arterial
blood is greater than 50MmHg
- a common cause would be COPD and asthma.
Answer: Hypercapnic respiratoryfailure
- What is true about all restrictive lung disorders?
Answer: They impair lung ventila-tion, and they impair lung inflation - This is an infectious process that impairs gas exchange.
Answer: Pneumonia - In what infectious process are the alveoli filled with purulent material
which prevents the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?
Answer: Pneumonia - This kind of pneumonia is caused by anaerobic bacteria,swallowed by the
oropharynx
Answer: Aspiration pneumonia - What disorder is a pulmonary embolism, most commonly a complicationof
Answer: Deep vein thrombosis - What is often caused by diseases that and pear, gas exchange or oxygenation?
Answer: Shortness of breath also known as dyspnea - A low blood oxygen level can trigger what
Answer: Dyspnea - What is triggered by mechanical or chemical irritants to the airways
including excess mucus caused by inflammation
Answer: Coughing - This disease affects the lower airways specifically the alveoli the crackles and
Ronke are suggestive of lower airway. Inflammation is fluid and pus from the
inflammatory process created sounds
Answer: Pneumonia
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- causes traumatic damage to the endothelium of the arteries.
Answer: Hypertension - In HTN which organs have arteries that are at particular risk for damage?-
Answer: Brain, Heart, Eyes, Kidneys - Which problem causes a myocardial infarction or heart attack?
Answer: An occlu-sion of a coronary artery (most commonly from a
thrombus) - A patient has what kind of HTN if their BP is consistently >130/80. It is also
idiopathic, common and “silent killer”
Answer: Primary/Essential - What kind of HTN results from other diseased or disorders such as; renal
disease; endocrine disorder; pheochromocytoma
Answer: Secondary - This kind of HTN is severe, rapidly progressing; uncontrolled
Diastolic pressure is extremely high
Many complications
Answer: Malignant/ Resistant - What type of HTN has manifestations of: asymptomatic, Vague (Fatigue,
Malaise, Morning headache)
Answer: Essential - What type of HTN has risk factors such as
Answer: age,sex, heredity, lifestyle: Es-sential - What type of HTN has complications of Sclerosis, narrowing of vessels,
Atheroma formation
Answer: Essential - The following all cause what cardiovascular problem?
Myocardial infarction (L ventricle)
CAD (Coronary Artery Disease)
HTN (Hypertension)
Chronic lung disease (R ventricle needs to work harder to push blood
through pulmonary circulation if there is an obstructive lung disease.
Valve problems (heat has to maintain CO, if it can’t it is going to pump harderto
compensate)
Answer: Heart Failure - The Patho of failure is when the heart is unable to pump sufficient bloodto
meet metabolic needs of the body
Answer: Heart - The compensatory mechanisms of failure is;
Complete Answers WGU D236 Exam (Latest 2023 / 2024)
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- What is a Reward System?
Answer: Reward Systems are also mechanisms for ex- changing value
between two parties. Employees create value for the organizationthrough their
work, and organizations provide value for employees through the reward
systems. - Define Job Analysis
Answer: the process of systematically analyzing positions thatresult in
completed work in organizations. - What are the implications of Job Analysis on the compensation system?-
Answer:
1) Job Analysis, provides a process for understanding how work is organized
andserves as the basis for most reward systems.
2) Job Analysis will detail the knowledge, skill, and ability requirement for a
job,which will have a direct connection to the reward strategy for that
particular job.
3) the job analysis defined the nature of the work which serves as an
importantdeterminant of Fair Labor Standards Act status (exempt vs. nonexempt).
4) Job Analysis provides an understanding of the nature of the work
performancewhich is vital for determining the likely effectiveness of
performance-based pay systems. - What does an employee contribute to the organization to create value?
Answer: -Work - What are 3 job analysis methods available to a company to analyze a
job?
Answer:
1) Traditional Interviews
2) Questionnaires
3) Panel Interview - What is involved in the traditional interview?
Answer: The job analyst asks the jobincumbent preset questions about the
content, skills needed, and time spent onactivities in the job. - How is the panel interview used to analyze a job?
Answer: Multiple job incumbents(and sometimes multiple job analysts) all
meet together to analyze the job. In panel interviews, the job incumbents
themselves explore the agreement and contradictions in their responses. - What analysis method does an organization use to overcome some of the
limitations of interview methods?
Answer: Questionares - When creating a job analysis who should you speak with for input?
Answer: Insmall organizations, the information may be gathered from every
incumbent ofa given job. As the number of job incumbents per job
increases, organizationstypically try to make the process more efficient by
choosing a subset of the jobincumbents to be involved in the process. - Why is it necessary to gain buy in for a job analysis to create a value-added analysis?
Answer: It is important to involve people from all levels in the organi- zation,
not only to increase the quality of the information, but also to obtain buy-in
from those who will be using it for reward decisions.
- What is the goal of a job analysis?
Answer: Understand the work involved and howit creates value (The goal is
not to evaluate the performance of any particular employee in performing that
work) - Define job design and state what is its purpose?
Answer: The process of system-atically constructing jobs to make them
functional, efficient, and motivational - Job Title
Answer: Name by which the job is known within the company - Job Specification
Answer: Translates the TDRs into the Knowledge, Skills, Abilities,and Other
(KSAOs) that an employee needs to perform the job at a satisfactory level - What is included in the bulk of the job description?
Answer: Written documents that serve as the primary source of information
about jobs for many uses within the organization, and these descriptions play
a key role in the design and imple-mentation of total reward systems. - Job Family
Answer: Grouping of jobs that have similar functions or content - What does the Fair Labor Standards Act require of organizations?
Answer: Orga-nizations determine the “employee status” of each job - What does an Independent Contractor have the ability to do?
Complete Answers WGU D236 Patho Integumentary (Latest 2023 / 2024)
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- You receive a patient who has experienced a burn on the right leg. The burn
has small blisters, is markedly pinkish red and has a shiny and moist
appearance.When the patient is asked about pain level, the patient describesit as
severe. What level of burn does this patient present?
Answer: Second degree (partial thickness) - A 56-year-old female presents with superficial partial-thickness burns to the
anterior head and neck, front and back of the left arm, front of the rightarm,
posterior trunk, front and back of the right leg, and back of the left leg.
Calculate the total body surface area percentage that is burned using the Rule
of Nines.
Answer: 63% - A patient presents with normal vital signs and urinary output of 49 mL/hr.
They experienced a full thickness burn 72 hours ago. What phase of burn
management is this patient experiencing?
Answer: Acute - Albinism is a defect in what pigment?
Answer: Melanin - A fair-skinned 64-year-old male patient presents to the clinic with an 8mm
purplish-black, flat, irregularly shaped lesion over his left shoulder-blade. The
patient is unsure of how long he has had the lesion and only presentedafter his
spouse thought the lesion was getting larger. Which diagnosis is most likely?
Answer: Melanoma - An adolescent male patient is brought to the emergency department after
spending a long day at the beach. The patient’s head, neck, and trunk from the
waist upwards and legsfrom the knees downward are bright red and ede-matous.
The patient is crying and reports 8 out of 10 on the pain scale and aninability to
find a comfortable position.What is the most likely classificationof this burn?
Answer: Superficial - When a provider assesses a patient with bright red, edematous skin aftera
long day at the beach, the provider notes that the anterior face and neck,
anterior and posterior arms, the anterior and posterior torso above the waist,and
the anterior and posterior lower legs are burned. Using the Rule of Nines,what
percentage of body surface area is burned?
Answer: 58.5% - A patient presents to the primary care office concerned about irregular
patches of skin on the neck and arms that appear white.The patches are flatand
smooth but burn easily in the sun. Which diagnosis is most likely?
Answer: Vi- tiligo - A child is brought to the clinic for an itchy, scaly, dry lesion on the scalp.
The healthcare provider uses a Wood’s light to examine the lesion,which
turns fluorescent yellow green.The healthcare provider prescribes atopical
antifungal medication. Which type of tinea infection does the child have?
Answer: Tinea capitis - While caring for a client with a skin disorder, the nurse finds wheals on the
skin, as well asswelling of the eyes,face, lips and mucous membranes ofthe
client. Which reason does the nurse attribute to this disorder?
Answer: Release of histamine from mast cells
Complete Answers WGU D236 Patho Test Review (Latest 2023 / 2024)
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- What is the role of helper T cells?
Answer: They produce cytokines, which serve tohelp activate B cells and
cytotoxic T cells. - Red-green color blindness affects males more often than females. Men
inherit the disease from their mother’s side of the family.
What is red-green colorblindness?
Answer: Sex linked - What does Neurobehavioral Congenital Abnormality (ND-PAE) result
from?
Answer: Prenatal exposure to alcohol - Which developmental defect occurs in spina bifida?
Answer: Failure of the neuraltube to close results in a fluid filled sac on the
lower back. - How does the spine appear in an individual with kyphosis?
Answer: An outwardcurvature of the spine, resulting in a hunchbacked
appearance
6.Julia was learning to roller skate after receiving the skates for her sixth
birthday. She fell and outstretched her arm with her wrist flexed to break her
fall. Her X-ray revealed a fracture that extended partway through the radius,
but not all the way through the bone.What type of fracture did Juliasustain?
Answer: A greenstick fracture
- Leo is a 62-year-old auto mechanic and presents with pain in his hands. The
pain is the worst when he wakes up. Last month, he took a week of vacation
and reported that the pain subsided. He does not have any other systemic
symptoms, and his white blood cell count is normal. Physical examshows
prominent Heberden and Bouchard nodes.
Answer: Osteoarthritis - Paula has a successful business as a painter with additional expertise in
hanging wallpaper. She is having a lot of shoulder pain. It is difficult for her
to complete her work, which requires her to lift and reach with her
arms repetitively throughout the day. She also notices that she struggles to
unhook her bra strap. Paula’s doctor explains that there is a fluid filled sac that
normally allows the joint to move smoothly and without pain. Paula’s sac is
inflamed and causing her symptoms.
Answer: Bursitis - A fair-skinned client presents to the clinic with a growth on the left forehead.The growth is a shiny, translucent dome about 3 mm in diameter witha
telangiectasia present.
Which diagnosis is most likely?
Answer: Basal cell carcinoma