West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam(Questions And Answers)

West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam(Questions And Answers)

West Coast EMT Block #2
Exam(Questions And Answers)
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
Select one:
A. start CPR and transport immediately.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. determine if he has a valid living will. – Answer B. begin CPR until an AED is
available.
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Select one:
A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are
en route to the scene of an emergency.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway
obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual
defibrillation, and advanced airway management.
D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs,
paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses. – Answer B. noninvasive emergency
care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and
cardiac arrest.
Between each chest compression, you should __.
Select one:
A. check for a pulse
B. allow full chest recoil
C. administer a breath
D. remove your hands from the chest – Answer B. allow full chest recoil
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a fractured sternum.
B. gastric distention.
C. rib fractures.
D. liver laceration. – Answer B. gastric distention.
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus
to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST
likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood
flow to her heart.
B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which
restored her pulse.

West Coast EMT Block #2
Exam(Questions And Answers)
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored
her pulse.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest
compression effectiveness. – Answer D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena
cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Select one:
A. occurs every 24 months.
B. is delivered by computer.
C. involves hands-on practice.
D. is self-paced and brief. – Answer C. involves hands-on practice.
CPR should be initiated when:
Select one:
A. rigor mortis is obvious.
B. signs of putrefaction are present.
C. the carotid pulse is very weak.
D. a valid living will is unavailable. – Answer D. a valid living will is unavailable.
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Select one:
A. supine.
B. prone.
C. horizontal.
D. on a firm surface. – Answer B. prone.
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Select one:
a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
b.
c. in patients who are intubated.
d. when the airway is completely obstructed.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly. – Answer e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
If an object is visible in the unconscious patient’s airway, you should __.
Select one:
A. leave it in place
B. continue chest compressions
C. remove it
D. place the patient on his or her side – Answer C. remove it
In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
Select one:

West Coast EMT Block #2
Exam(Questions And Answers)
A. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B. severe chest trauma.
C. respiratory arrest.
D. a drug overdose. – Answer C. respiratory arrest.
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient’s airway with the jaw-thrust
maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:
Select one:
A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.
B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient’s neck.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. – Answer D. carefully perform the
head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. grasping the throat.
B. acute cyanosis.
C. inability to speak.
D. forceful coughing. – Answer D. forceful coughing.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active
compression-decompression CPR by:
Select one:
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest
compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac
filling.
B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each
chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.
C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes
positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the
heart.
D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates
the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression. – Answer
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest
compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac
filling.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Select one:
A. 30:2
B. 5:1
C. 30:1
D. 3:2 – Answer A. 30:2

West Coast EMT Block #2
Exam(Questions And Answers)
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute. – Answer B. with one or two hands.
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two
should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. suction the patient’s mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest. – Answer D. move to the opposite
side of the patient’s chest.
Without practice, your CPR skills will __.
Select one:
A. become part of your muscle memory
B. improve over time
C. come back automatically when needed
D. deteriorate over time – Answer D. deteriorate over time
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
Select one:
A. place the patient supine.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
C. administer back blows.
D. perform abdominal thrusts. – Answer B. encourage the patient to cough.
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest.
When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the
same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:
Select one:
A. move the patch to another area of the patient’s chest and then properly apply the
AED pads.
B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin
burns.
C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the
patch.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED
pads. – Answer D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue,
and apply the AED pads.
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A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
Select one:
A. start CPR and transport immediately.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
C. withhold CPR until he is defibrillated.
D. determine if he has a valid living will.
B. begin CPR until an AED is available.

Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Select one:
A. basic lifesaving treatment that is performed by bystanders while EMS providers are en route to the scene of an emergency.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
C. invasive emergency medical interventions such as intravenous therapy, manual defibrillation, and advanced airway management.
D. any form of emergency medical treatment that is performed by advanced EMTs, paramedics, physicians, and emergency nurses.
B. noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

Between each chest compression, you should __.
Select one:
A. check for a pulse
B. allow full chest recoil
C. administer a breath
D. remove your hands from the chest
B. allow full chest recoil

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. a fractured sternum.
B. gastric distention.
C. rib fractures.
D. liver laceration.
B. gastric distention.

CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Displacement of her uterus caused blood to flow backward, which increased blood flow to her heart.
B. Increased blood flow to her heart caused her ventricles to stop fibrillating, which restored her pulse.
C. Displacement of her uterus allowed her lungs to expand more fully, which restored her pulse.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.
D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest compression effectiveness.

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Select one:
A. occurs every 24 months.
B. is delivered by computer.
C. involves hands-on practice.
D. is self-paced and brief.
C. involves hands-on practice.

CPR should be initiated when:
Select one:
A. rigor mortis is obvious.
B. signs of putrefaction are present.
C. the carotid pulse is very weak.
D. a valid living will is unavailable.
D. a valid living will is unavailable.

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Select one:
A. supine.
B. prone.
C. horizontal.
D. on a firm surface.
B. prone.

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Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Select one:
a. when you deliver minimal tidal volume.
b.
c. in patients who are intubated.
d. when the airway is completely obstructed.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.

If an object is visible in the unconscious patient’s airway, you should __.
Select one:
A. leave it in place
B. continue chest compressions
C. remove it
D. place the patient on his or her side
C. remove it

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
Select one:
A. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
B. severe chest trauma.
C. respiratory arrest.
D. a drug overdose.
C. respiratory arrest.

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient’s airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should:
Select one:
A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin.
B. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.
C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient’s neck.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

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Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. grasping the throat.
B. acute cyanosis.
C. inability to speak.
D. forceful coughing.
D. forceful coughing.

The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by:
Select one:
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.
B. maintaining increased intrathoracic pressure during the downward stroke of each chest compression, which forces more blood from both of the ventricles.
C. drawing all of the air out of the lungs in between chest compressions, which causes positive intrathoracic pressure and a reduction of blood return to the right side of the heart.
D. maximizing the amount of air in the lungs following chest recoil, which hyperinflates the lungs and forces more blood from the ventricle during each compression.
A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling.

What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Select one:
A. 30:2
B. 5:1
C. 30:1
D. 3:2
A. 30:2

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.
B. with one or two hands.

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While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. suction the patient’s mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient’s chest.

Without practice, your CPR skills will __.
Select one:
A. become part of your muscle memory
B. improve over time
C. come back automatically when needed
D. deteriorate over time
D. deteriorate over time

Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
Select one:
A. place the patient supine.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
C. administer back blows.
D. perform abdominal thrusts.
B. encourage the patient to cough.

Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:
Select one:
A. move the patch to another area of the patient’s chest and then properly apply the AED pads.
B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.
C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
Select one:
A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:
Select one:
A. contact medical control.
B. notify law enforcement.
C. quickly access the patient.
D. take standard precautions.
D. take standard precautions.

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.
B. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.
C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.
D. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.
C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _.
Select one:
A. nature of illness
B. field diagnosis
C. associated symptoms
D. medical history
A. nature of illness

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:
Select one:
A. is a more contagious type of disease.
B. has a greater ability to produce disease.
C. leads to chronic infection after exposure.
D. is less resistant to treatment.
B. has a greater ability to produce disease.

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of:
Select one:
A. epidemics.
B. parasitic infection.
C. uncontrolled outbreaks.
D. pandemics.
D. pandemics.

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service?
Select one:
A. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs
B. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days’ duration
C. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away
D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes
D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and a ground transport time of 50 minutes

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected _ problem.
Select one:
A. endocrine
B. respiratory
C. cardiac
D. neurologic
D. neurologic

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _.
Select one:
A. a low blood glucose level
B. abdominal pain
C. seizures
D. a fever
D. a fever

Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _.
Select one:
A. reduce the need for transport to the hospital
B. confirm the patient’s diagnosis
C. address the patient’s symptoms
D. correct the patient’s underlying problem
C. address the patient’s symptoms

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:
Select one:
A. routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.
B. ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.
C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
D. wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.
C. get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made:
Select one:
A. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.
B. after the primary assessment has been completed.
C. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment.
D. once the patient’s baseline vital signs are known.
B. after the primary assessment has been completed.

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?
Select one:
A. Baseline vital signs
B. Index of suspicion
C. Medical history
D. Primary assessment
C. Medical history

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:
Select one:
A. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient.
B. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away.
C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.
D. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital.
C. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

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When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.
B. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.
C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.
D. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.
C. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

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Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
Select one:
A. Alzheimer disease
B. Depression
C. Schizophrenia
D. Substance abuse
D. Substance abuse

Which of the following is bacterium resistant to most antibiotics and causes skin abscesses?
Select one:
A. Whooping cough
B. MRSA
C. H1N1
D. Avian flu
B. MRSA

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?
Select one:
A. 50-year-old woman moderate obesity
B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes
C. 12-year-old child with a fractured arm
D. 39-year-old man with mild hypertension
B. 68-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:
Select one:
A. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.
B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.
C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.
D. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.
B. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

You are attending to a 27-year-old male driver of a car. According to his passenger, the patient had been acting strangely while driving, then slumped forward against the steering wheel, apparently unconscious. The car drove off the road and struck a telephone pole. The patient remains unconscious, and physical assessment reveals only a large hematoma on his right forehead with no other physical signs. Your patient is a diabetic who had been under a lot of stress lately and may have missed meals. This is an example of a:
Select one:
A. combination of a psychiatric and trauma emergency.
B. medical emergency.
C. trauma emergency.
D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.
D. combination of a medical and trauma emergency.

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“PASTE” is an alternate assessment tool for _.
Select one:
A. respiratory patients
B. seizure patients
C. stroke patients
D. cardiac patients
A. respiratory patients

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:
Select one:
A. epinephrine.
B. a beta-antagonist.
C. albuterol.
D. an antihistamine.
A. epinephrine.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient’s condition?
Select one:
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax
B. Exacerbation of his COPD
C. Acute pulmonary embolism
D. Rupture of the diaphragm
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.
B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
C. a unilaterally collapsed lung.
D. a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.
A. fluid accumulation outside the lung.

Asthma is caused by a response of the:
Select one:
A. immune system.
B. cardiovascular system.
C. endocrine system.
D. respiratory system.
A. immune system.

Crackles (rales) are caused by _.
Select one:
A. severe bronchoconstriction
B. mucus in the larger airways
C. narrowing of the upper airways
D. air passing through fluid
D. air passing through fluid

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A. pertussis.
B. epiglottitis.
C. croup.
D. bronchiolitis.
D. bronchiolitis.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:
Select one:
A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.
B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
D. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?
Select one:
A. Alveoli
B. Bronchi
C. Trachea
D. Capillaries
A. Alveoli

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Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?
Select one:
A. Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety
B. Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia
C. Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%
D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg
D. Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:
Select one:
A. abnormal breath sounds.
B. diminished breath sounds.
C. normal breath sounds.
D. an absence of breath sounds.
A. abnormal breath sounds.

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?
Select one:
A. Pleural effusion
B. Severe anxiety
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Narcotic overdose
B. Severe anxiety

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?
Select one:
A. Multiple sclerosis
B. Severe acute respiratory syndrome
C. Cystic fibrosis
D. Celiac sprue
C. Cystic fibrosis

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?
Select one:
A. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
B. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
D. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
C. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

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Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?
Select one:
A. Orthostatic vital signs
B. Lung sounds
C. Blood glucose levels
D. Distal pulse, motor, sensation
B. Lung sounds

While auscultating an elderly woman’s breath sounds, you hear low-pitched “rattling” sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?
Select one:
A. Aspiration pneumonia
B. Widespread atelectasis
C. Early pulmonary edema
D. Acute asthma attack
A. Aspiration pneumonia

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:
Select one:
A. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.
B. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.
C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.
D. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.
C. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A. bacterial infection of the epiglottis.
B. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.
C. inflammation of the bronchioles.
D. inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm.
B. viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

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You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:
Select one:
A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
B. tuberculosis.
C. pneumonia.
D. influenza Type A.
B. tuberculosis.

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the _.
Select one:
A. alternate drive
B. CO2 drive
C. hypoxic drive
D. COPD drive
C. hypoxic drive

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:
Select one:
A. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.
B. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.
C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.
D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.
D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

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A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours’ duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:
Select one:
A. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.
B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.
C. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.
D. give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.
B. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:
Select one:
A. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.
B. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.
C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.
D. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.
C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:
Select one:
A. perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.
B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.
C. leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest.
D. remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.
B. remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?
Select one:
A. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
B. Acute myocardial infarction
C. Uncontrolled hypertension
D. Obstructive lung disease
B. Acute myocardial infarction

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:
Select one:
A. the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.
B. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.
C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.
D. the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.
C. the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should:
Select one:
A. transport the patient at once.
B. assess for a carotid pulse.
C. immediately resume CPR.
D. re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.
C. immediately resume CPR.

Angina pectoris occurs when:
Select one:
A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.
B. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.
C. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.
D. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.
A. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:
Select one:
A. left ventricle.
B. right atrium.
C. right ventricle.
D. left atrium.
B. right atrium.

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:
Select one:
A. distance between the two AED pads on the chest.
B. direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.
C. actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver.
D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.
D. resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:
Select one:
A. who have taken up to two doses.
B. who have experienced a head injury.
C. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.
D. with a history of an ischemic stroke.
B. who have experienced a head injury.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:
Select one:
A. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.
B. contact medical control.
C. dry the chest if it is wet.
D. perform CPR for 30 seconds.
C. dry the chest if it is wet.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:
Select one:
A. family history.
B. lack of exercise.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. excess stress.
A. family history.

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who:
Select one:
A. are older than 40 years of age.
B. regularly take illegal drugs.
C. have chronic hypertension.
D. have had a stroke in the past.
C. have chronic hypertension.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:
Select one:
A. atrioventricular node.
B. bundle of His.
C. sinoatrial node.
D. coronary sinus.
C. sinoatrial node.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if:
Select one:
A. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.
B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.
C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.
D. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse.
C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the “LL” and “RL” electrodes should be placed:
Select one:
A. anywhere on the arms.
B. on either side of the chest.
C. on the thighs or ankles.
D. on the lower abdomen.
C. on the thighs or ankles.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?
Select one:
A. Generalized weakness
B. A rapid heart rate
C. Syncope or dizziness
D. Heart rate less than 60 beats/min
B. A rapid heart rate

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?
Select one:
A. Labored breathing
B. Dependent edema
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Flat jugular veins
B. Dependent edema

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:
Select one:
A. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.
B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.
C. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:
Select one:
A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.
B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
C. apply pressure to the brachial artery.
D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages.
B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival?
Select one:
A. High-flow oxygen administration
B. Rapid transport to a trauma center
C. Full immobilization of her spine
D. Intravenous fluid administration
B. Rapid transport to a trauma center

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be?
Select one:
A. Check for a pulse.
B. Control the bleeding.
C. Administer oxygen.
D. Open the airway.
B. Control the bleeding.

Distributive shock occurs when:
Select one:
A. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster.
B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function.
C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain.
D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of __.
Select one:
A. anaphylactic shock
B. septic shock
C. neurogenic shock
D. psychogenic shock
A. anaphylactic shock

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:
Select one:
A. plasma.
B. platelets.
C. whole blood.
D. red blood cells.
A. plasma.

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:
Select one:
A. tachycardia.
B. hypovolemia.
C. diaphoresis.
D. hypothermia.
D. hypothermia.

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called __.
Select one:
A. perfusion
B. hypoxia
C. hypotension
D. shock
D. shock

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:
Select one:
A. septic shock.
B. neurogenic shock.
C. cardiogenic shock.
D. anaphylactic shock.
C. cardiogenic shock.

Shock due to severe infection is called __.
Select one:
A. anaphylactic shock
B. septic shock
C. hypovolemic shock
D. neurogenic shock
B. septic shock

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:
Select one:
A. the lungs.
B. the brain.
C. the skin.
D. the heart.
C. the skin.

What are the three components of the “perfusion triangle”?
Select one:
A. Heart, blood vessels, blood
B. Plasma, red blood cells, platelets
C. Heart, brain, lungs
D. Arteries, veins, capillaries
A. Heart, blood vessels, blood

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.
B. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock.
C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.
D. the patient’s respirations are deep during the early stages of shock.
C. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock.

When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient?
Select one:
A. En route to the hospital
B. During the primary assessment
C. Prior to transport
D. Immediately after the injuries are discovered
A. En route to the hospital

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. the older patient’s central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock.
B. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate.
C. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.
D. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume.
C. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?
Select one:
A. Spinal cord injury
B. Simple pneumothorax
C. Liver laceration
D. Cardiac tamponade
D. Cardiac tamponade

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax?
Select one:
A. Early administration of high-flow oxygen
B. Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest
D. Positive-pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask
C. Decompression of the injured side of the chest

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient’s skin is pale. This is likely due to _.
Select one:
A. an increased heart rate
B. peripheral vasoconstriction
C. peripheral vasodilation
D. hypothermia
B. peripheral vasoconstriction

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to _.
Select one:
A. neurogenic shock
B. cardiogenic shock
C. hypovolemic shock
D. septic shock
B. cardiogenic shock

Your patient is in shock, but the body’s defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called _.
Select one:
A. irreversible shock
B. compensated shock
C. decompensated shock
D. late shock
B. compensated shock

A 31-year-old female is experiencing an acute asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in obvious respiratory distress. After assisting her with her prescribed MDI, you should:
Select one:
A. administer another treatment in 30 seconds if she is still in distress.
B. contact medical control and apprise him or her of what you did.
C. check the drug’s expiration date to ensure that it is still current.
D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.
D. reassess the patient and document her response to the medication.

A 62-year-old male is seen with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering supplemental oxygen if needed and contacting medical control, you should:
Select one:
A. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.
B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure.
C. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit.
D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
D. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.

Activated charcoal is an example of a(n):
Select one:
A. suspension.
B. elixir.
C. gel.
D. solution.
A. suspension.

Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication:
Select one:
A. ibuprofen.
B. acetaminophen.
C. aspirin.
D. nitrostat.
Select one:
A. ibuprofen.

After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n):
Select one:
A. side effect.
B. therapeutic effect.
C. unpredictable effect.
D. untoward effect.
A. side effect.

In _ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.
Select one:
A. peer-assisted
B. patient-assisted
C. EMT-administered
D. paramedic-administered
A. peer-assisted

Medications encased in a gelatin shell that are taken by mouth are called:
Select one:
A. capsules.
B. caplets.
C. pills.
D. tablets.
A. capsules.

The amount of medication that is given is known as the _.
Select one:
A. contraindication
B. indication
C. dose
D. side effect
C. dose

The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called:
Select one:
A. adsorption.
B. digestion.
C. suspension.
D. absorption.
A. adsorption.

The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. the study of how medications affect the brain.
B. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.
C. the study of drug excretion from the human body.
D. the study of drugs that are produced illegally.
B. the study of drugs and their actions on the body.

What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector?
Select one:
A. Intraosseous
B. Intramuscular
C. Intravenous
D. Sublingual
B. Intramuscular

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:
Select one:
A. bacterial infection.
B. cardiovascular disease.
C. reactive airway disease.
D. non-insulin-dependent diabetes.
B. cardiovascular disease.

Which of the following clinical signs would necessitate the administration of naloxone (Narcan)?
Select one:
A. Slow respirations
B. Extreme agitation
C. Hypertension
D. Tachycardia
A. Slow respirations

Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error?
Select one:
A. The EMT administers the correct drug, but gives it by the wrong route.
B. The EMT administers a drug that is contraindicated for the patient.
C. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director.
D. The EMT accidentally gives a higher drug dose than what is indicated.
C. The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director.

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
Which of the following is required for an EMT to administer a drug to a patient?
Select one:
A. A patient with an altered level of consciousness
B. An alert adult patient
C. Medical direction approval
D. A patient with stable vital signs
C. Medical direction approval

Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose?
Select one:
A. Middle adults
B. Females
C. Patients with asthma
D. Pediatric patients
D. Pediatric patients

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?
Select one:
A. Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic.
B. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.
C. Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream.
D. Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route.
B. Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream.

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?
Select one:
A. Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system.
B. Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects.
C. Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally.
D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.
D. Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications.

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to:
Select one:
A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure.
B. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose.
C. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.
D. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place.
C. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect.

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient supplemental oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should:
Select one:
A. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient.
B. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.
C. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal.
D. place her in a supine position, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route.
B. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital.

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:
Select one:
A. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.
B. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block.
C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.
D. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx.
C. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx

A man was found unresponsive in his bed at home. There is no evidence of injury and the patient’s medical history is not known. The patient’s face is cyanotic, yet the pulse oximeter reads 98%. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this?
Select one:
A. Severe pulmonary edema
B. Carbon monoxide poisoning
C. Increased body temperature
D. His extremities are cold
B. Carbon monoxide poisoning

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:
Select one:
A. nonrebreathing mask.
B. nasal cannula.
C. mouth-to-mask device.
D. bag-valve mask.
A. nonrebreathing mask.

During your assessment of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear wheezing when listening to breath sounds. This indicates:
Select one:
A. a lower airway obstruction.
B. fluid in the alveoli.
C. secretions in the airway.
D. swelling of the upper airway.
A. a lower airway obstruction.

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems?
Select one:
A. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung.
B. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during inhalation.
C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.
D. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for lung expansion.
C. It forces the alveoli open and pushes oxygen across the alveolar membrane.

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway?
Select one:
A. A 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet
B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed
C. A 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma
D. A 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree
B. A 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:
Select one:
A. agonal respirations.
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
C. eupneic respirations.
D. ataxic respirations.
B. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it:
Select one:
A. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.
B. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex.
C. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly.
D. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest.
A. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called:
Select one:
A. ventilation.
B. oxygenation.
C. diffusion.
D. respiration.
A. ventilation.

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?
Select one:
A. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations.
B. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate.
C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.
D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
C. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange.

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than:
Select one:
A. 100 mm Hg.
B. 400 mm Hg.
C. 200 mm Hg.
D. 300 mm Hg.
D. 300 mm Hg.

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag-valve mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse?
Select one:
A. Consistently increasing heart rate
B. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag
C. Twenty breaths/min being delivered to the adult
D. Decreased compliance when squeezing the bag
B. Adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?
Select one:
A. An unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin
B. A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations
C. A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume
D. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
D. A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position?
Select one:
A. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing
B. A 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations
C. A 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations
D. A 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume
A. A 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct?
Select one:
A. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate.
B. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.
C. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation.
D. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.
D. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate.

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct?
Select one:
A. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide.
B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.
C. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase.
D. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries.
B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct?
Select one:
A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.
B. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position.
C. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.
D. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure.
A. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
Select one:
A. Larynx
B. Oropharynx
C. Bronchus
D. Pharynx
C. Bronchus

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?
Select one:
A. 75%
B. 65%
C. 55%
D. 45%
C. 55%

You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should:
Select one:
A. ventilate with less pressure.
B. thoroughly suction the stoma.
C. seal the mouth and nose.
D. thrust the jaw forward.
C. seal the mouth and nose.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious. He is screaming in pain and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should:
Select one:
A. elevate his legs and keep him warm.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.
C. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.
D. ensure that his airway is patent.
B. apply direct pressure to the wound.

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
A palpable pulse is created by:
Select one:
A. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
B. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
D. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:
Select one:
A. providing immediate transport.
B. obtaining baseline vital signs.
C. airway, breathing, and circulation.
D. gathering medical history data.
C. airway, breathing, and circulation

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
Select one:
A. Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain
B. Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion
C. Eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension
D. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
D. Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
Select one:
A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
B. before you load the patient into the ambulance.
C. immediately after completion of your primary assessment.
D. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
A. before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the:
Select one:
A. back of the neck.
B. dorsum of the hand.
C. lips or oral mucosa.
D. forehead and face.
C. lips or oral mucosa.

Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. whether or not the patient is deteriorating.
B. the nature of any newly identified problems.
C. the reason why the patient called EMS.
D. the patient’s response to your treatment.
C. the reason why the patient called EMS.

The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
Select one:
A. gross physical signs that you detect on assessment.
B. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.
C. condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.
D. most life-threatening condition that you discover.
B. most serious thing the patient is concerned about.

The rapid exam of a patient that occurs following the primary assessment should take no longer than:
Select one:
A. 60 to 90 seconds.
B. 90 to 120 seconds.
C. 120 to 180 seconds.
D. 30 seconds.
A. 60 to 90 seconds.

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:
Select one:
A. a physician arrives at the scene.
B. all the patients have been triaged.
C. area hospitals have been notified.
D. the number of patients is known.
B. all the patients have been triaged.

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
Select one:
A. Head tilt-chin lift
B. Head tilt-neck lift
C. Jaw-thrust maneuver
D. Tongue-jaw lift
C. Jaw-thrust maneuver

When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
Select one:
A. approach him from behind and ask him not to move.
B. stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head.
C. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.
D. assess his mental status by having him move his head.
C. ensure that the patient can see you approaching him.

When you shine a light into one pupil, the normal reaction of the other pupil should be to:
Select one:
A. dilate.
B. become larger.
C. not react.
D. become smaller.
D. become smaller.

Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?
Select one:
A. Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle
B. Asking a neighbor to secure the patient’s dog
C. Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel
D. Rapidly assessing a patient’s respiratory status
D. Rapidly assessing a patient’s respiratory status

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Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
Select one:
A. Inadequate perfusion
B. Acute anxiety
C. Drug overdose
D. Poisoning
B. Acute anxiety

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
Select one:
A. A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
B. A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea
C. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
D. A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
C. A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

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Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
Select one:
A. A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.
B. A significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability.
C. The exact location of a patient’s injuries can be determined by the MOI.
D. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries.
D. The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient’s injuries.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
Select one:
A. The secondary assessment should be performed en route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient’s condition.
B. During the secondary assessment, the EMT’s primary focus should be on taking the patient’s vital signs and obtaining a SAMPLE history.
C. A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.
D. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.
D. The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.

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You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm. As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:
Select one:
A. direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.
B. document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.
C. immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.
D. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.
D. position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.

You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she:
Select one:
A. is restless and is working hard to breathe.
B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.
C. is anxious, tachycardic, and leaning forward.
D. has an increased heart rate and retractions.
B. has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

A by-product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:
Select one:
A. oxygen.
B. lactic acid.
C. heat.
D. nitrogen.
C. heat.

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The “130” in this measurement represents:
Select one:
A. atrial contraction.
B. ventricular relaxation.
C. ventricular contraction.
D. ventricular filling.
C. ventricular contraction.

A patient has a large accumulation of blood in the sac surrounding the heart. Which type of shock would this condition cause?
Select one:
A. Hypovolemic
B. Obstructive
C. Cardiogenic
D. Neurogenic
B. Obstructive

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:
Select one:
A. stomach.
B. kidneys.
C. gallbladder.
D. pancreas.
C. gallbladder.

If a patient’s chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient’s respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:
Select one:
A. minute volume is decreased.
B. expiratory reserve volume is decreased.
C. overall tidal volume is increased.
D. inspiratory reserve is increased.
A. minute volume is decreased.

Large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when:
Select one:
A. the cells function with adequate oxygen.
B. the cells function without oxygen.
C. carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high.
D. circulating blood glucose levels fall.
A. the cells function with adequate oxygen.

Pathophysiology is the study of the functional changes that occur when the body reacts to a particular:
Select one:
A. assessment.
B. disease.
C. protocol.
D. medication.
B. disease.

The _ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.
Select one:
A. orbit
B. sphenoid
C. mastoid
D. occiput
A. orbit

The __ is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen.
Select one:
A. diaphragm
B. mediastinum
C. costal arch
D. costovertebral angle
A. diaphragm

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:
Select one:
A. foramen magnum.
B. spinous foramen.
C. foramen ovale.
D. vertebral foramen.
A. foramen magnum.

The central nervous system is composed of the:
Select one:
A. spinal cord and sensory nerves.
B. brain and spinal cord.
C. motor and sensory nerves.
D. brain and sensory nerves.
B. brain and spinal cord.

The waste products of aerobic metabolism include:
Select one:
A. glucose and lactic acid.
B. carbon dioxide and water.
C. ATP and glucose.
D. uric acid and nitrogen.
B. carbon dioxide and water.

Urine is transported from the kidneys to the urinary bladder via the:
Select one:
A. ureters.
B. renal duct.
C. urethra.
D. prostate.
A. ureters.

What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?
Select one:
A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.
B. The veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion.
C. Arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles.
D. Widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease.
Select one:
A. The arteries contract to increase the blood pressure.

What is the function of the fallopian tubes?
Select one:
A. To connect the ovaries
B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus
C. To supply blood to the uterine lining
D. To produce progesterone and estrogen
B. To transport a mature egg to the uterus

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?
Select one:
A. Pressure and pain perception
B. Sensory reception
C. Metabolic coordination
D. Temperature regulation
C. Metabolic coordination

Which of the following is NOT true of the lymphatic system?
Select one:
A. It relies on muscle movement to circulate lymph.
B. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body.
C. It circulates waste products of metabolism away from cells.
D. It circulates oxygen, nutrients and hormones to the cells.
B. Its vessels closely parallel the major arteries in the body.

Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle?
Select one:
A. Urinary system
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Blood vessels
D. Skeletal system
D. Skeletal system

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing hormones that regulate body activities?
Select one:
A. Reproductive
B. Skeletal
C. Endocrine
D. Nervous
C. Endocrine

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?
Select one:
A. Cecum
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Stomach
B. Spleen