Midterm Exam: NR571/ NR 571 Complete Review (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care |Questions and Verified Answers|100% Correct – Chamberlain

Midterm Exam: NR571/ NR 571 Complete Review (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute Care |Questions and Verified Answers|100% Correct – Chamberlain

Midterm Exam: NUR571/ NUR 571
Complete Review (Latest 2023/ 2024 Update)
Complex Diagnosis & Management in Acute
Care |Questions and Verified Answers|100%
Correct – Chamberlain
Q: pulmonary diagnosis
Answer:
PFTs, arterial blood gases and radiography are for
Q: PTFs
Answer:
for intraoperative or postoperative respiratory complications. for bron- chodilator therapy, risk
evaluation for patients before thoracic or upper abdominal surgery.
Q: PFTs Evaluating
Answer:
lung volumes or the ability to fully expand
flow rates, rate of inflow and outflow of air maximal voluntary ventilation or airflow through the
major airways by completing rapid inspiration expiration maneuvers evaluation of diffusing
capacity or the ability of the oxygen to get into the blood
Q: PFTs Measures
Answer:
Spirometry evaluates the amount of air exhaled and inhaled during forced maneuvers
Lung volume refers to the total amount of air in the lungs with maximal inspiration. diffusing
capacity measures gas exchange and is often done in conjunction with a pulse oximetry reading.
Q: Normal PFTs

Answer:
FEV1 (80% to 120%), FVC (80% to 120%), Absolute FEV1/FVC Ratio (Within 5% of the
predicted ratio), TLC
(80% to 120%), FRC (75% to 120%), RV (75% to 120%), DLCO (>60% to <120%),
Q: Restrictive Lung Disease=
Answer:
decrease in the total volume of air that the lungs can hold. decrease in the elasticity, inability of
the chest wall to expand during inhalation
Q: associated with restrictive lung function
Answer:
interstitial lung disease such as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, sarcoidosis, obesity, including
obesity hypoventilation syndrome, scoliosis, neuromuscular diseases such as muscular dystrophy
or ama- teur amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) associated
Q: Obstructive Lung Disease
Answer:
impede exhaled air from the lungs due to the narrowing of the airways or actual damage to the
lung parenchyma.
Q: associated with obstructive lung function
Answer:
asthma, chronic (COPD), cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis are associated
Q: PTs Diagnostic Approach
Answer:
Determine if the FEV1/FVC ratio is low. (obstructive defect present)
Determine if the FVC is low. (restrictive pattern indicating restrictive lung disease, a mixed
pattern, or pure obstructive lung disease with air trapping).
Grade the severity of the abnormality.
Determined the reversibility of the obstructive defect..
Bronchoprovocation is done when a provider suspects exercise or allergen-induced

Q: Bronchodilator Response
Answer:
FEV1 or the FEV increases by at least 12% the obstructive pattern is considered reversible, with
Q: Bronchoprovocation
Answer:
for exercise, or allergen-induced asthma, involves a methacholine challenge or a mannitol
inhalation challenge.
Q: Restrictive and obstructive disorders
Answer:
Severity according to the American
Thoracic Society’s (ATS) based on FEV1 abnormality for
Q: restrictive processes
Answer:
The pattern of reduced FEV1 and FVC with preserves
FEV1/FVC ratio is often seen with
Q: airflow obstruction
Answer:
low FEV1 and low FEV1/FVC ratio, and low FEV1 and FVC
with a decreased FEV1/FVC ratio equals
Q: Complications with asthma
Answer:
sleep disturbance, limitation of physical activity, increased weight gain due to inactivity,
increased sick days from work, and perma- nent narrowing of the airways resulting in decreased
reserves are complications of

Q: acute asthma exacerbation S/S
Answer:
chest tightness, expiratory wheezing, dysp- nea, and non-productive cough, escalation at night,
anxiety s/s
Q: Physical Exam acute asthma exacerbation
Answer:
tachypnea, tachycardia, de- creased oxygen saturation, expiratory wheezing, and a prolonged
expiratory phase use of accessory muscles, hypercapnia develops, hypoxemia impaired ventilation/perfusion results in acidosis are present exam for
Q: acute asthma exacerbation impending death!
Answer:
The absence of breath sounds and a pCO2 > 70 mmHg are signs of
Q: Differential Diagnosis for asthma
Answer:
airway obstruction related to a mechanical or foreign body, airway obstruction related to a
structural abnormality such as a tumor, aspiration or severe gastroesophageal reflux disease,
paradoxical vocal cord motion disorder, heart failure, COPD, vasculitis, bronchiectasis,
pulmonary emboli interstitial lung disease are differential
Q: Diagnostic Testing for asthma
Answer:
physical exam findings, lung function, and oxygen saturation, peak expiratory flow (PEF),
spirometry, Chest x-ray, Labs are test
Q: Asthma Exacerbations-Mild or Moderate
Answer:
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TLC (total lung capacity)

the total volume of gas within the lungs after a maximal inspiration

Image: TLC (total lung capacity)

VC (vital capacity)

the volume of gas expired after a maximal inspiration followed by a maximal expiration.

Image: VC (vital capacity)

FRC (functional residual capacity)

the volume of gas within the lungs at the end of expiration during normal tidal breathing at rest

Image: FRC (functional residual capacity)

PFTs measure three distinct parameters which include

spirometry, lung volume, and diffusing capacity.

PFT’s are useful in evaluating:

-lung volumes or the ability to fully expand
-flow rates or the rate of inflow and outflow of air
-maximal voluntary ventilation or airflow through the major airways by completing rapid inspiration expiration maneuvers
-evaluation of diffusing capacity or the ability of the oxygen to get into the blood

spirometry

Spirometry evaluates the amount of air exhaled and inhaled during forced maneuvers which provide the following measurements:

-FVC

-FEV1

-FEV1/FVC ratio

Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

total volume a patient exhales for the total duration of the test

Normal: 80% to 120%

Image: Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

forced expiratory volume in 1 second, or total volume of air exhaled in the 1st second of maximal effort

Normal: 80% to 120%

Image: forced expiratory volume (FEV1)

FEV1/FVC ratio

the percentage of the FVC expired and 1 second

Normal: Within 5% of the predicted ratio

Lung Volume

Lung volume refers to the total amount of air in the lungs with maximal inspiration. This is evaluated using the following measurements:

-ERV

-IRV

-RV

-Vt

-FRC

Image: Lung Volume

Expired Reserve Volume (ERV)

the maximal volume of air exhaled from end-expiration

Image: Expired Reserve Volume (ERV)

Inspired Reserve Volume (IRV)

the maximal volume of air held from end-inspiration

residual volume (RV)

the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal exhalation

Normal: 75% to 120%

Tidal Volume (VT or TV)

the volume of air inhaled or XL during each respiratory cycle

Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)

the volume of air in the lungs at resting end-expiration

Normal: 75% to 120%

diffusing capacity

The diffusing capacity measures gas exchange and is often done in conjunction with a pulse oximetry reading. This is evaluated using the following measurements:

-TLC

-VC

-DLCO

Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

the volume of air in the lungs at maximal inflation

Normal: 80% to 120%

vital capacity (VC)

the largest volume measured on complete exhalation after full inspiration

DLCO

the diffusing capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide

Normal: >60% to <120%

Classification of Pulmonary Disorders Based On PFT:
Restrictive Lung Disease

Restrictive lung disease is diagnosed by a decrease in the total volume of air that the lungs can hold
It often results from a decrease in the elasticity of the lungs or may be related to the inability of the chest wall to expand during inhalation.

Classification of Pulmonary Disorders Based On PFT:
Obstructive Lung Disease

Obstructive lung diseases are conditions that impede exhaled air from the lungs due to narrowing of the airways or actual damage to the lung parenchyma.

EX: asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis

A systematic approach is helpful to accurately interpret PFTs and includes the following steps:

1. Determine if the FEV1/FVC ratio is low. This finding will indicate that there is an obstructive defect present.

2. Determine if the FVC is low. This finding will indicate a restrictive pattern indicating restrictive lung disease, a mixed pattern, or pure obstructive lung disease with air trapping.

3. Grade the severity of the abnormality. If there is an obstructive defect, restrictive pattern, or mix pattern you should grade the severity of the abnormality based on the FEV1 percentage predicted based on the American Thoracic Society’s (ATS) system for grading PFT abnormalities.

4. Determined the reversibility of the obstructive defect. If the patient does have an obstructive defect, the determination should be made if it is reversible based on the increase in FEV1 or FVC after bronchodilator treatment.

5. Bronchoprovocation is done when a provider suspects exercise or allergen-induced asthma may be causing the abnormality. 

-If the FEV 1 is 70% or less predicted on standard spirometry, bronchoprovocation should be used to make the final diagnosis. This involves a methacholine challenge or a mannitol inhalation challenge.

What is a Bronchodilator Response used for

Determined the reversibility of disease when an obstructive pattern is present 

If either the FEV1 or the FEV increases by at least 12% the obstructive pattern is considered reversible.

Risk Factors for Asthma

Allergen exposure in those with a predisposition to atopy

Occupational exposure

Air pollution

Infections (viral and Mycoplasma)

Tobacco

Obesity

Diet

Fungi in allergic airway mycoses

Acute irritants and reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (RADS)

High-intensity exercise in elite athletes

Clinical Pearl

What happens to the oxygen saturation after initial tx that is a strong predictor in the need for hospitalization?

Oxygen saturation < 92-94 % one hour after the patient’s initial treatment is a strong predictor of the need for hospitalization.

Inpatient vs. Outpatient for asthma exacerbation

-provider driven

-Most mild exacerbations can be managed in the primary or urgent care setting.

-Patients with signs of severe or life-threatening symptoms of an acute asthma exacerbation should be transferred to an ED

-initiated with bronchodilators, systemic corticosteroids, and oxygen if able

Provider questions to consider for patients classified as moderate severity should include the following:

1.Was the patient’s asthma controlled before this exacerbation? -If not, inpatient management may be indicated with close monitoring and medication adjustment.

2. Has the patient achieved symptom relief and improved peak flow readings with treatment that was administered? 

-If so, a period of observation should be done to assure a rebound attack does not occur.

Patients admitted with high risk of asthma related death should receive very close inpatient monitoring, possibly ICU. This includes:

-previous severe exacerbation (intubation/ICU admit)
->2 admits/>3 ER visits in the last 12 mo
-use of >2 canisters of short acting B-antagonist (SABA) per month
-reduced ability to perceive airway obstruction or worsening symptoms
-comor. such as CVD, or other chronic lung disease

Asthma Exacerbation Severity:

MILD 

-dyspnea w/ activity
-Spiro metric Measurement (PEF or FEV1): >70% personal best
-Triage/Admission: home

Asthma Exacerbation Severity:

MODERATE

-dyspnea limits typical daily activity
-Spiro metric Measurement (PEF or FEV1): 40-69% personal best
-Triage/Admission: Often requires ED visit +/- admit (if no rapid ED improvements)

Asthma Exacerbation Severity:

LIFE THREATENING

-dyspnea significantly limiting speech
-Spiro metric Measurement (PEF or FEV1): <25% personal best
-Triage/Admission: Hospital Admission or ICU

Asthma Exacerbation Severity:

SEVERE

-dyspnea at rest that interferes w/ conversation
-Spiro metric Measurement (PEF or FEV1): <40% personal best
-Triage/Admission: Hospital Admission or ICU

Secondary Asthma Triggers

Allergens
Irritants
Viral infections
Exercise and cold, dry air
Air pollution
Drugs
Occupational exposures
Hormonal changes
Pregnancy

Standard treatment for acute asthma exacerbation (5)

1. Supplemental Oxygen
2. Inhaled SABA Therapy
3. Systemic Corticosteroids
4. High Dose Inhaled Corticosteroids
5. Ensure Adequate Hydration

Supplemental Oxygen for acute asthma exacerbation

Delivered by nasal cannula or mask to keep O2 saturation 93-95%. Can correct hypoxemia

Inhaled SABA Therapy for acute asthma exacerbation

repetitive or continuous (MDI) or nebulizer can quickly reverse airflow obstruction.

Inhaled Short Acting B2-antagonist(SABA): 

-albuterol nebulizer

-Levalbuterol (R-albuterol)

what are the names of 2 inhaled SABA?

albuterol
Levalbuterol (R-albuterol)

albuterol doses for acute asthma

Inhaled Short Acting B2-antagonist(SABA): albuterol nebulizer -2.5-5 mg q 20 min for 3 doses

-2.5-10mg q 1-4 hrs PRN

-10-15mg/hr continuous

Levalbuterol (R-albuterol) dose for acute asthma

Levalbuterol (R-albuterol)

-1.25-2.5mg q 20min x3; 1.5-5mg q 1-4hr PRN

Systemic Corticosteroids for acute asthma exacerbation

Administer within 1 hour of presentation.

decreases inflammation & used to supplement tx is asthmatics who fail to respond adequately or at all to SABA.

-Prednisone

-Methylprednisolone 

-Prednisolone

dosage for systemic corticosteroids

applies to all 3:

-Prednisone

-Methylprednisolone 

-Prednisolone

40-80mg/d in 1 or 2 divided doses until PEF reaches 70% of predicted or personal best.

Anticholinergics for acute asthma exacerbation

Ipratropium bromide Nebulizer
Ipratropium with albuterol nebulizer

Ipratropium bromide Nebulizer dosing

0.25mg/mL
0.5mg every 20 min for 3 doses, then as needed.

Ipratropium with albuterol nebulizer dosing

each 3mL vial contains 0.5 Ipratropium bromide and 2.5 albuterol.
3mL every 20 min for 3 doses then as needed.

Differential Dx for pneumonia of noninfectious origin

cardiac-related conditions such as pulmonary edema and pulmonary emboli
respiratory-related conditions to include asthma and COPD
neoplasms- lung CA
immunologic disorder such as sarcoidosis

Prevention strategies for VAP

-elevation of HOB above 30 degrees
-oral care with antiseptic such as chlorhexidine
-daily assessment of readiness to extubate (sedation vacation)
-daily cessation of sedative meds to determine minimum -amount of sedation necessary
-DVT prophylaxis
-stress ulcer prophylaxis

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the development of pneumonia?

1. pneumonia is an acute inflammatory condition within the parenchyma of the lung

2. immunocompromised individuals are at an increased risk of developing pneumonia

3. pneumonia often develops as a consequence of bacterial colonization and micro aspiration of upper airway track secretions

4. all of the above

4. All the above

Rationale

Patients are at a higher risk of developing pneumonia if they are immunocompromised and have poor ability to control secretions increase in the risk of aspiration. Pneumonia is also an acute inflammatory condition within the parenchyma of the lung.

All of the following are common symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia in adults except:

-fever

-bradycardia

-sputum production

-consolidation on chest x-ray

Bradycardia

Rationale

In patients with community-acquired pneumonia, tachycardia is often seen due to the fever associated with the condition. Bradycardia is not seen in this population unless there is an underlying medical condition already present.

Mr. C is a 75-year-old male with a recent history of an ischemic stroke. He is being cared for at home and has home health assistance. Residual effects of his stroke include dysphasia and right-sided weakness. He presents today for evaluation secondary to fever, chills, and productive cough. His CXR demonstrates the following:

What is the most likely cause of this finding?

-COPD

-bacterial pneumonia

-viral pneumonia

-aspiration pneumonia

aspiration pneumonia

Rationale

This patient has aspiration pneumonia. That is evident by the collection in the right base of the lung. With his past medical history significant for ischemic stroke in dysphasia, aspiration has to be high on the differential list for this patient.

COPD risk factors

smoking
exposure to secondhand smoke
environmental irritants
occupational exposures
childhood pulmonary infections
HIV
genetic predisposition

Differential Dx for COPD exacerbations?

pneumonia
upper respiratory tract infection
pulmonary emboli
reactive airway disease
congestive heart failure
pneumothorax
arrhythmias and myocardial infarction
upper airway obstruction
environmental irritants
dehydration resulting in thickened bronchial secretions

ER room Tx of COPD exacerbations

Oxygen

Oxygen therapy in the hospital setting is a key treatment in managing COPD exacerbations. Supplemental oxygen delivered via a high-flow mask (venti-mask), should be initiated and titrated to a target oxygen saturation of 88-92%.

SABA

SABAs, with or without short-acting anticholinergics, are recommended as the initial bronchodilator to treat an exacerbation; however, maintenance therapy with LABA should be administered as soon as possible and before discharge

Systemic Corticosteroids

improve FEV1 and oxygenation as well as shortens recovery time and length of stay but should not be given more than 7 days

Antibiotics

when indicated, have been shown to improve outcomes

Arterial Blood Gas (ABG)

Arterial blood gases should be drawn after starting oxygen and then frequently throughout the patient’s stay to monitor oxygenation, CO2 retention, and acidosis.

mild to moderate COPD exacerbation Tx in outpatient/PC

long-acting B2 agonists (LABA)
long-acting Antimuscarinic Agents (LAMA)
inhaled corticosteroids (ICS)
systemic corticosteroids
antibiotics when signs of bacterial infection exist

Which of the following is required to confirm a diagnosis of COPD in most adults?
1. pre-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70
2. pre-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC > 0.70
3. post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70
4. post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC > 0.70

post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC < 0.70

Rationale

Spirometry is required to make the diagnosis of COPD which requires a post-bronchodilator result of FEV1/FVC < 70 %.

A 70-year-old patient with a history of COPD presents to the emergency room for cough and increasing exertional dyspnea with newly reported symptoms at rest. Sputum production is clear to white, but an increase in the amount is reported. The patient’s last hospitalization for COPD was 4 years ago. She is currently taking a LABA as monotherapy but is using her rescue inhaler 3-4 times per day since her symptoms started. She is alert and oriented, breath sounds are scattered with inspiratory and expiratory wheezing throughout all lung fields, and there are no signs of respiratory distress. Vital signs are T 98.0 F, BP 120/80, HR 85, RR 20, SaO2 90 % on room air. EKG and labs including CBC, CMP, BNP, troponin are normal. Chest x-ray reveals hyperinflation and flattened diaphragm without infiltrates or cardiomegaly. ABG is normal except for a mildly decreased pO2. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient at this time?

1. administer supplemental oxygen, albuterol nebulizers, and oral corticosteroids

2.administer antibiotics, supplemental oxygen, and albuterol nebulizers

3. initiate noninvasive ventilation and administer IC corticosteroids

4. intubate and transfer the patient to the ICU

administer supplemental oxygen, albuterol nebulizers, and oral corticosteroids

Rationale

The initial management of COPD exacerbation includes supplemental oxygen, SABA, and corticosteroids. Her exam findings show mild hypoxia and tachypnea, but other results show her to be medically stable. She is not exhibiting any signs of infection; therefore, antibiotics are not indicated at this time. There are no signs of respiratory distress therefore noninvasive ventilation or mechanical ventilation is not appropriate.

Which of the following tests provide the best evaluation of acuteness and severity of a COPD exacerbation?
1.serum chemistry
2.alpha 1-antitrypsin measurement
3. arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
4. sputum culture

arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis

Rationale

The evaluation of the PCO2 level will provide information on the severity of the current exacerbation and the need for additional respiratory support

A 16-year-old patient with a history of mild, intermittent asthma is seen in the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath. She normally only needs her albuterol inhaler before exercise, but she is using it now 2-3 times per day for 3 days. Upon examination, the AGACNP notes the patient’s appearance as calm but tachypneic. HR is 108, O2 saturation on room air is 91 %. A bedside peak expiratory flow measurement reveals FEV1 at 58 % of her personal best. The AGACNP should classify this patient’s asthma as which of the following?

1. mild/moderate
2. severe
3. life-threatening
4. the severity cannot be determined with the information given

mild/moderate

Mild or Moderate
Talks in phrases, prefers to sit rather than lying down, not agitated, no accessory muscle use, HR 100-120, O2 saturation 90-95 % on room air
> 50% of predicted or personal best

subjective symptoms of COPD exacerbation

patients experiencing an exacerbation include:
air hunger
increased cough;
a change in color, viscosity, or amount of mucus;
more noticeable wheezing than normal;
dizziness or lightheadedness (due to hyperventilation and hypercapnia);
worsened fatigue;
trouble sleeping;
headaches;
severe anxiety, fear, or sense of impending doom;
chest tightness;
fever may be present.

Considerations for Discharge Home versus Hospital Admission in COPD exacerbation

The decision to discharge the patient from the ER and provide home management is informed by the following questions:

-Is the patient in respiratory distress after treatment?

-Does the patient require continued supplemental oxygen?

-Is the patient hypercapnic despite treatment?

If the answer to any of these three questions is yes, the patient requires inpatient admission for further management stabilization.

secondary prevention strategies in COPD

-smoking cessation
-vaccinations including pneumonia and flu vaccines
-physical activity
-nutritional counseling and support
-pulmonary rehabilitation

physical exam findings in CAP

tachypnea
tachycardia
abnormal lung sounds (crackles, rales, rhonchi, and/or wheezing)
tactile fremitus
fever
appearance of being acutely ill
cough

Radiology findings in CAP

pulmonary infiltrates
dense consolidation of a segment or lobe is usually bacterial.
infiltrate- tends to be associated with bacteremia

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the development of pneumonia?

-pneumonia is an acute inflammatory condition within the parenchyma of the lung

-immunocompromised individuals are at an increased risk of developing pneumonia

-pneumonia often develops as a consequence of bacterial colonization and microaspiration of upper airway track secretions

-all of the above

all the above

Rationale

Patients are at a higher risk of developing pneumonia if they are immunocompromised and have poor ability to control secretions increase in the risk of aspiration. Pneumonia is also an acute inflammatory condition within the parenchyma of the lung.

All of the following are common symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia in adults except:

-fever

-bradycardia

-sputum production

-consolidation on chest x-ray

bradycardia

Rationale

In patients with community-acquired pneumonia, tachycardia is often seen due to the fever associated with the condition. Bradycardia is not seen in this population unless there is an underlying medical condition already present.

Mr. C is a 75-year-old male with a recent history of an ischemic stroke. He is being cared for at home and has home health assistance. Residual effects of his stroke include dysphasia and right-sided weakness. He presents today for evaluation secondary to fever, chills, and productive cough. His CXR demonstrates the following:

What is the most likely cause of this finding?

1.COPD

2. bacterial pneumonia

3. viral pneumonia

4. aspiration pneumonia

aspiration pneumonia

Rationale

This patient has aspiration pneumonia. That is evident by the collection in the right base of the lung. With his past medical history significant for ischemic stroke in dysphasia, aspiration has to be high on the differential list for this patient.

causes of hypoxemia: hypoventilation

ABG: elevated pCO2 and decreased PAO2

A-a Gradient: normal.

the hypoxemia can be easily corrected with a small amount of 02

causes of hypoxemia: V/Q mismatch

ABG: occurs normally and as part of many disease processes. The PAO2 is decreased. The pCO2 can be normal, low or elevated.

A-a Gradient: increased

only a small amount of 02 will correct the hypoxemia

causes of hypoxemia: Right to left shunt

ABG: the PAO2 is decreased. the pCO2 can be low, normal or elevated.

A-a Gradient: increased

The hypoxia can be difficult to correct with O2

causes of hypoxemia: Diffusion limited

ABG: interstitial disease. the PAO2 is decreased. the pCO2 can be normal low or elevated.

A-a gradient: increased

pattern of PFT abnormalities: The obstructive pattern

EX: asthma, chronic bronchitis, or emphysema

decreased FEV1 with normal or decreased FVC
FEV1/FVC normally decreased
FEF 25-75% (usually quite low)

Hallmark disease: decreased FEV1 and FEV1/FVC

pattern of PFT abnormalities: The restrictive pattern

low TLC
decreased FEV1 and FVC
normal FEV1/FVC
a normal or super-normal FEF 25-75%
a low DLCO

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