Speech Language Pathology (SLP) Praxis Exam V3 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct | Grade A
Speech Language Pathology (SLP) Praxis
Exam V3 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update)
Questions and Verified Answers| 100%
Correct | Grade A
Q: A number of research reports have described poor auditory memory in children with
language impairments. Which of the following can most appropriately be concluded from these
studies?
A. Poor auditory memory can be improved by language-intervention programs that focus on
teaching vocabulary and word meanings.
B. Poor auditory memory is a reflection of a language impairment, and clinicians and researchers
cannot effect improvement.
C. Poor auditory memory could be a reflection or a cause of a language impairment or could be
related to some other factor, and further research is needed to determine which is the case.
D. Children with language impairments normally do not have well-developed representational
skills.
Answer:
Option (C) is correct. Research reports are restricted to the variables examined in the studies on
which they are based. A relationship between poor auditory memory and language impairment
has been found in some research studies. Other factors could be involved, however, suggesting
that further research is needed. Conclusions about treatment or the effects of the impairment
must be made through additional research studies.
Q: Ms. Brown, a 70-year-old retired female, was admitted to the hospital following a CVA. The
SLP conducted a comprehensive evaluation that revealed the presence of left-side neglect,
anosognosia (denial of impairment), and visuospatial problems, including prosopagnosia
(difficulty recognizing familiar faces). Although her auditory comprehension and repetition skills
were good, she experienced difficulty with topic maintenance and turn taking. Based on the
clinical features described, Ms. Brown’s diagnostic classification would most likely be
A. Wernicke’s aphasia
B. Conduction aphasia
C. Cognitive-communicative disorder consistent with right hemisphere damage
D. Cognitive-communicative disorder consistent with left hemisphere damage
Answer:
Option (C) is correct. The symptoms described in the scenario are consistent with damage to the
right hemisphere.
Q: A client exhibits weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations of the right side of the tongue and
lower face. The client also has right vocal-fold weakness and nasal regurgitation of fluid when
swallowing. These problems are the result of damage to which part of the nervous system?
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Left cerebral cortex
D. Right cerebral cortex
Answer:
A. Brain stem
***Why? — Weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, and the other described symptoms are all
consistent with a lower motor neuron locus and suspected cranial nerve abnormalities (primarily
CN X and XII). These cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain stem and help mediate the
transfer of messages from the brain to the brain stem and to the structures of the head and neck.
Q: Which of the following constitutes the major component of an audiologic rehabilitation
program for infants with a moderate sensorineural hearing loss?
A. Development of cognitive skills
B. Development of social skills
C. Parent-mediated auditory stimulation
D. Gestural stimulation
Answer:
C. Parent-mediated auditory stimulation
***Why?– For an infant known to have a hearing loss, parents are in the best position to provide
consistent auditory stimulation, which the infant needs in order to develop an awareness of
sound.
Q: A child exhibits the following production errors.
w/r
θ/s
t/ʃ
t/tʃ
z/dʒ
t/k
d/g
If a target sound for initial intervention is to be selected on the basis of established
developmental norms, then that sound will be
A. /s/
B. /ʃ/
C. /k/
D. /tʃ/
Answer:
/k/— According to developmental norms, /k/ is the target phoneme that should be selected for
intervention.
Q: A public-school-based speech-language pathologist is employed in a state that sets the
maximum caseload at 65. However, the clinician’s caseload is currently at 64 with a waiting list
of 10 additional students. The school principal insists that the speech-language pathologist enroll
the 10 students immediately, because the district cannot locate another clinician to assist with the
caseload. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the speech-language
pathologist to address the situation?
A. Enroll 1 of the 10 students and provide the principal with a written statement of caseload
needs, mentioning the amount, type, and frequency of treatment
B. Refer the 10 students to a speech-language pathologist working in a private setting
C. Suggest that the principal ask a school speech-language pathologist from another school
district to take the 10 students
D. Maintain current caseload until an additional speech-l
Answer:
A. Enroll 1 of the 10 students and provide the principal with a written statement of caseload
needs, mentioning the amount, type, and frequency of treatment
**Why?–It provides the principal with a statement detailing the needs of the students awaiting
treatment but also observes the state’s caseload limit.
Q: Fiber-optic instrumentation is appropriate for evaluation of which of the following types of
disorders?
A. Articulation
B. Phonation
C. Proprioception
D. Respiration
Answer:
Phonation— Fiber-optic nasopharyngoscopy or laryngoscopy is a commonly used approach to
evaluate vocal fold anatomy and physiology for voice production (phonation).
Q: Which of the following views make up a standard videofluoroscopic swallow study?
A. Frontal
B. Lateral
C. Transverse
D. Anterior-posterior
Answer:
Lateral & Posterior/Anterior— A lateral view is best for seeing all stages of a swallow, and an
anterior-posterior view shows the symmetry (or asymmetry) of the swallow.
Q: Hearing loss in infants who are born with a cleft palate is usually related to which of the
following?
A. The infant’s inability to create positive pressure in the oral cavity
B. Malformation of the middle-ear ossicles associated with malformation of the palate
C. Eustachian tube dysfunction
D. Cochlear dysfunction
Answer:
Eustachian tube dysfunction— a major factor contributing to middle-ear disease and conductive
hearing loss, is nearly universal in infants with cleft palate.
Q: Which of the following, if observed in the speech of an African American child, is most
likely to represent a dialectical variation rather than an articulation error?
A. /f/ for /θ/ in postvocalic position
B. /θ/ for /s/ in all positions
C. Affricates for fricatives in word-final position
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Which of the following should be the primary focus of early language intervention for at-risk infants?A.Establishing object permanence through play activitiesB.Training primary caregivers to facilitate language learningC.Creating readiness activities in the context of playD.Enhancing social communication through play activities Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. Early language stimulation in at-risk infants is best provided by primary caregivers who have been trained in practices that promote learning.
The figure shows a midsagittal view of the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal structures. A bolus is present in the oral cavity on the posterior surface of the tongue, filliing the valleculae and flowing along the ariepiglottic fold where the bolus ends. The bolus is outside the larynx. The velum is not in contact with either the tongue or posterior pharyngeal wall, and the UES is closed, and the larynx is open.The figure above shows the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal structures involved in swallowing. Which of the following best describes the transit of the bolus at the moment depicted in the figure?A.The bolus is traveling through the esophagus.B.The bolus is being propelled from the oral cavity by the tongue and has entered the pharynx.C.The bolus has passively exited the oral cavity without propulsion by the tongue.D.Laryngeal penetration of some of the bolus is evident. Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. The tongue is in contact with the entire anterior and most of the mid to posterior hard palate. Furthermore, the bolus head has passed the epiglottis and is descending into the hypopharynx.
Primary motor innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by which cranial nerve?A.VB.VIIC.IXD.X Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. Primary innervation to the larynx and velum is provided by cranial nerve X, the vagus nerve. The other answer choices identify cranial nerves that are not primarily involved in motor innervation to the larynx and velum.
Fela is a third-grade student in a public school. She is a speaker of African American Vernacular English (AAVE) who has difficulty with the Standard American English (SAE) dialect used in her classroom. Her teacher believes that Fela’s language skills are affecting her academic performance and has referred her to the school’s speech-language pathologist. Which of the following is an appropriate rationale for providing language intervention for Fela?Select all that apply.A.It will likely foster better communication with Fela’s linguistically and culturally diverse peers.B.It will likely improve Fela’s code-switching ability with her teacher and other adult speakers of SAE.C.It may expand Fela’s later academic and vocational opportunities.D.It will likely lead Fela to adopt SAE as her primary dialect. Correct Answer: A,B,COptions (A), (B), and (C) are correct. The intervention will foster better communication because Fela and her peers will have a common dialect. Also, the intervention will provide Fela with the ability to switch easily between dialects using SAE structures. Furthermore, being able to switch codes will enable Fela to participate in more educational and vocational opportunities.
Federal laws regarding freedom of access to information stipulate that client records kept or written by health care professionals can beA.reviewed only by other health-care professionalsB.reviewed only by the clients themselves unless the client provides written permission to share with othersC.reviewed by anyone who submits a formal written requestD.released only by subpoena Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. Clients have the right to review their own records.
To justify providing individual treatment for a 2½ year old with apraxia of speech, which of the following would be LEAST important for the SLP to include in the evaluation report?A.A description of the child’s typical interaction with peersB.Relevant prognostic dataC.Information about apraxia of speechD.A description of the language development of the child’s older siblings Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. A description of the child’s older siblings’ language development does not provide the objective, documented evidence required to justify provision of treatment for a child of an age at which some unintelligibility would be typical.
The speech reception threshold (SRT) is a basic component of an evaluation of hearing function. Which of the following statements about the SRT is most accurate?A.It is measured in decibels and corresponds to the intensity level at which spondaic words can be recognized approximately 50% of the time.B.It makes use of test materials that are limited to monosyllabic words.C.It provides information on how well speech is understood at conversational levels.D.It is useful in validating acoustic intermittence measures. Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. It is an accurate definition of the speech reception threshold.
A clinician who employs active listening is doing which of the following?A.Responding to both the content and the affect of the client’s remarksB.Listening very carefully and taking extensive notesC.Conducting a clinician-directed interviewD.Directing the client to specific answers to questions Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. A clinician who employs active listening responds to both the content (the denotative message) and the affect (the emotional content) of a client’s remarks.
Questions 9-11 refer to the following.This investigation was motivated by observations that when persons with dysarthria increase loudness, their speech improves. Some studies have indicated that this improvement may be related to an increase of prosodic variation. Studies have reported an increase of fundamental frequency (F0) variation with increased loudness, but there has been no examination of the relation of loudness manipulation to specific prosodic variables that are known to aid a listener in parsing out meaningful information. This study examined the relation of vocal loudness production to selected acoustic variables known to inform listeners of phrase and sentence boundaries: specifically, F0 declination and final-word lengthening. Ten young, healthy women were audio-recorded while they read aloud a paragraph at what each considered normal loudness, twice-normal loudness, and half-normal loudness. Results showed that there was a statistically significant increase of F0 declination, brought about by a higher resetting of F0 at the beginning of a sentence and an increase of final-word lengthening from the half-normal loudness condition to the twice-normal loudness condition. These results suggest that when some persons with dysarthria increase loudness, variables related to prosody may change, which in turn contributes to improvement in communicative effectiveness. However, until this procedure is tested with individuals who have dysarthria, it is uncertain whether a similar effect would be observed.Which of the following represent(s) the independent variable or variables used in the Watson and Hughes study?A.Prosody of dysarthric speechB.F0 declination and final-word lengtheningC.Vocal loudnessD.Speech intelligibility and communicative effectiveness Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. The researchers manipulated vocal loudness to determine its effect on prosodic F0 and durational variables.
Watson and Hughes are cautious when suggesting that the speech of some persons with dysarthria improves because of the prosodic changes that result from increasing vocal loudness. Of the following, which is the most likely reason for this caution?A.Only women were studied.B.The prosody of persons with dysarthria may not show similar loudness effects.C.Several acoustic variables related to speech prosody were not included.D.Reciting a paragraph aloud is unlike spontaneous speech. orrect Answer: BOption (B) is correct. At the end of the abstract, the researchers Hughes suggest a relationship between increased vocal loudness and “improvement in communicative effectiveness” in some persons with dysarthria. This relationship is not directly supported by their study, as individuals with dysarthria were not tested.
Which of the following best describes the experimental design of the Watson and Hughes study?A.A multiple-baseline designB.A between-subjects designC.A within-subjects designD.A mixed between- and within-subjects design Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. The researchers use the same group of subjects who recite a paragraph under three conditions: at normal, twice-normal, and half-normal loudness. This is an example of a within-subjects design, in which the dependent variables (in this case, prosodic F0 and durational variables) are measured repeatedly in the same subjects under different task conditions (in this case, vocal loudness).
A 55-year-old woman, recently hospitalized for probable cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is referred for evaluation of stuttering speech. The initial conversation with the client indicates that speech is characterized by frequent initial-phoneme repetitions and prolongations as well as associated mildly effortful eye blinking. Which of the following pieces of information is crucial to accurate speech diagnosis and decisions regarding management of the speech problem?A.The site and extent of the lesion associated with the suspected CVAB.Whether the client has any associated dysphagia or dysphoniaC.Whether the dysfluencies began before or after the suspected CVAD.Whether the client feels frustrated by the dysfluencies Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. Dysfluent speech may or may not be directly caused by the patient’s suspected CVA.
Which of the following is the best action to take initially with a client who presents with poor oral control of liquids and solids, coughing and choking while eating and drinking, and a history of hospitalizations associated with pneumonia?A.Thickening liquids so that the client will be better able to control oral movements for swallowingB.Obtaining a modified barium-swallow study to determine appropriate interventionsC.Evaluating the client’s ability to eat a variety of foods in order to determine which foods are safestD.Prescribing that the client be NPO, since aspiration is present Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. An assessment of the problem must be undertaken before treatment is provided, and the best way to do this is to obtain a modified barium-swallow study.
A number of research reports have described poor auditory memory in children with language impairments. Which of the following can most appropriately be concluded from these studies?A.Poor auditory memory can be improved by language-intervention programs that focus on teaching vocabulary and word meanings.B.Poor auditory memory is a reflection of a language impairment, and clinicians and researchers cannot effect improvement.C.Poor auditory memory could be a reflection or a cause of a language impairment or could be related to some other factor, and further research is needed to determine which is the case.D.Children with language impairments normally do not have well-developed representational skills. Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. Research reports are restricted to the variables examined in the studies on which they are based. A relationship between poor auditory memory and language impairment has been found in some research studies. Other factors could be involved, however, suggesting that further research is needed. Conclusions about treatment or the effects of the impairment must be made through additional research studies.
Ms. Brown, a 70-year-old retired female, was admitted to the hospital following a CVA. The SLP conducted a comprehensive evaluation that revealed the presence of left-side neglect, anosognosia (denial of impairment), and visuospatial problems, including prosopagnosia (difficulty recognizing familiar faces). Although her auditory comprehension and repetition skills were good, she experienced difficulty with topic maintenance and turn taking. Based on the clinical features described, Ms. Brown’s diagnostic classification would most likely beA.Wernicke’s aphasiaB.Conduction aphasiaC.Cognitive-communicative disorder consistent with right hemisphere damageD.Cognitive-communicative disorder consistent with left hemisphere damage Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. The symptoms described in the scenario are consistent with damage to the right hemisphere.
A client exhibits weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations of the right side of the tongue and lower face. The client also has right vocal-fold weakness and nasal regurgitation of fluid when swallowing. These problems are the result of damage to which part of the nervous system?A.Brain stemB.CerebellumC.Left cerebral cortexD.Right cerebral cortex Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. Weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, and the other described symptoms are all consistent with a lower motor neuron locus and suspected cranial nerve abnormalities (primarily CN X and XII). These cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain stem and help mediate the transfer of messages from the brain to the brain stem and to the structures of the head and neck.
Which of the following constitutes the major component of an audiologic rehabilitation program for infants with a moderate sensorineural hearing loss?A.Development of cognitive skillsB.Development of social skillsC.Parent-mediated auditory stimulationD.Gestural stimulation Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. For an infant known to have a hearing loss, parents are in the best position to provide consistent auditory stimulation, which the infant needs in order to develop an awareness of sound.
A child exhibits the following production errors.w/rθ/st/ʃt/tʃz/dʒt/kd/gIf a target sound for initial intervention is to be selected on the basis of established developmental norms, then that sound will beA./s/B./ʃ/C./k/D./tʃ/ Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. According to developmental norms, /k/ is the target phoneme that should be selected for intervention.
A public-school-based speech-language pathologist is employed in a state that sets the maximum caseload at 65. However, the clinician’s caseload is currently at 64 with a waiting list of 10 additional students. The school principal insists that the speech-language pathologist enroll the 10 students immediately, because the district cannot locate another clinician to assist with the caseload. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for the speech-language pathologist to address the situation?A.Enroll 1 of the 10 students and provide the principal with a written statement of caseload needs, mentioning the amount, type, and frequency of treatmentB.Refer the 10 students to a speech-language pathologist working in a private settingC.Suggest that the principal ask a school speech-language pathologist from another school district to take the 10 studentsD.Maintain current caseload until an additional speech-language pathologist is hired Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. It provides the principal with a statement detailing the needs of the students awaiting treatment but also observes the state’s caseload limit.
Fiber-optic instrumentation is appropriate for evaluation of which of the following types of disorders?A.ArticulationB.PhonationC.ProprioceptionD.Respiration Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. Fiber-optic nasopharyngoscopy or laryngoscopy is a commonly used approach to evaluate vocal fold anatomy and physiology for voice production (phonation).
Which of the following views make up a standard videofluoroscopic swallow study?Select all that apply.A.FrontalB.LateralC.TransverseD.Anterior-posterior Correct Answer: B,DOptions (B) and (D) are correct. A lateral view is best for seeing all stages of a swallow, and an anterior-posterior view shows the symmetry (or asymmetry) of the swallow.
Hearing loss in infants who are born with a cleft palate is usually related to which of the following?A.The infant’s inability to create positive pressure in the oral cavityB.Malformation of the middle-ear ossicles associated with malformation of the palateC.Eustachian tube dysfunctionD.Cochlear dysfunction Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. Eustachian tube dysfunction, a major factor contributing to middle-ear disease and conductive hearing loss, is nearly universal in infants with cleft palate.
Which of the following, if observed in the speech of an African American child, is most likely to represent a dialectical variation rather than an articulation error?A./f/ for /θ/ in postvocalic positionB./θ/ for /s/ in all positionsC.Affricates for fricatives in word-final positionD.Dentals for velars in word-initial position Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. The use of voiceless labiodental fricatives for voiceless interdental fricatives is a feature of African American Vernacular English (AAVE).
Children diagnosed as having specific language impairments are likely to exhibit the greatest deficits in which of the following?A.Production of sentences with appropriate inflectional morphology and syntaxB.Acquisition of word meaningsC.Comprehension of short sentencesD.Motoric aspects of written expression Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. Children with specific language impairments typically have difficulty producing utterances that are morphologically and syntactically well formed.
A 5-year-old girl with a repaired cleft palate has recently undergone a pharyngeal flap operation to correct velopharyngeal incompetence, but she continues to use glottal stops, pharyngeal fricatives, and mid-dorsum palatal stops. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the SLP to take?A.Recommending that the child be examined by a cleft palate team to determine the cause of the persistent articular errorsB.Referring the child back to the surgeon to determine the need for a revision of the pharyngeal flapC.Initiating articulation treatment to teach the correct placement for the stops and fricativesD.Initiating articulation treatment to teach correct production of nonpressure consonant sounds Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. This child is using compensatory glottal stops, mid-dorsum palatal stops, and pharyngeal fricatives for standard American English stops and fricatives. She has had surgical management to correct velopharyngeal incompetence. She now needs to learn to produce the stops and fricatives for which she is making compensations. Therefore, articulation treatment is appropriate
The major objective of auditory training in the treatment of a client with a hearing loss is toA.improve the client’s awareness of position and movements of the speech mechanismB.improve the client’s kinesthetic and auditory awarenessC.increase the client’s kinesthetic and proprioceptive discriminationD.teach the client to make discriminations among speech sounds Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. Auditory training focuses on the interpretation of auditory input and would thus teach a client to discriminate speech sounds.
A 70-year-old female has dysphagia characterized by poor posterior oral containment of the bolus during the oral preparatory stage, causing aspiration before the swallow. Cognition and the pharyngeal stage of the swallow are intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment approach for the client?A.Providing a puree diet with thickened liquidsB.Having the client flex her head forward (perform the chin-down posture) during oral preparation and transit stages of the swallowC.Having the client turn (rotate) her head to the right when swallowingD.Providing a diet that consists of thin liquids Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. This treatment alters oral configuration to place the base of the tongue superior to the bolus inside the oral cavity. Since liquid cannot flow uphill against gravity, this intervention compensates for impaired palatoglossus contraction, which is causing impaired posterior oral containment.
An SLP receives a referral regarding a 4-year-old boy who uses two words spontaneously and functionally, who began walking at 3 years of age, and who responds to his name inconsistently. On the basis of the information alone, the SLP can legitimately conclude that the child’s communication profile reflectsA.a developmental delayB.autism spectrum disorderC.a chromosomal anomalyD.a metabolic disorder Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. A 4-year-old typically developing child would have 4 word utterances and would respond to his name consistently. Most children start to walk around age 1. Therefore, the delay in walking, along with the delay in language, indicates a general developmental delay.
Successful use of an alternative and augmentative communication system is based on such factors as selecting appropriate vocabulary, seating and positioning, and having a reliable method of controlling the system. To facilitate the most effective use of the system, clinicians most often advocate which of the following approaches?A.UnimodalB.MultimodalC.BimodalD.Gestural Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. A multimodal approach offers more communicative options than any other of the approaches listed.
Which of the following is most important for an SLP to do when assessing a child who has an acquired brain injury?A.Evaluate pragmatics through a structured language testB.Compare premorbid performance with present performanceC.Ensure administration of an intelligence testD.Compare nonverbal performance with verbal performance Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. An SLP needs to know what skills the child attained prior to the brain injury in order to select appropriate treatment goals.
Which of the following is the most important acoustic cue that distinguishes between an unreleased final /p/ and an unreleased final /b/, as in “cap” versus “cab”?A.Locus frequency of burstB.Voice onset timeC.Vocal fundamental frequencyD.Duration of the preceding vowel Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. Research shows that vowel duration influences a listener’s perception of voicing. Vowels that precede unreleased voiced stop consonants are as much as 1.5 times as long as vowels that precede voiceless stops.
When counseling the parents of a child who has an articulation disorder, the SLP can cite developmental norms to show which of the following?A.The child’s misarticulation will interfere with reading skills.B.A certain percentage of children of a certain age can correctly articulate the misarticulated sound.C.The misarticulation is caused by faulty learning.D.The misarticulation is not physically based. Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. Developmental norms demonstrate that a certain percentage of children of a given age can correctly articulate certain sounds.
Language intervention for a child at the one-word stage should be most strongly influenced by a consideration of the child’sA.motor skillsB.cognitive skillsC.syntactic skillsD.articulation skills Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. The cognitive skills of a child at the one-word stage will most strongly influence the child’s speech-language responses, so language intervention for the child should take into account the child’s cognitive skills.
A single exposure of several hours duration to continuous music with an overall level of 100 dB SPL will most likely produceA.tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in high frequenciesB.tinnitus and a distortion of speech perceptionC.a temporary threshold shift in the low frequenciesD.a permanent threshold shift Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. A single exposure of several hours duration to continuous music at a level of about 100 dB SPL will most likely produce tinnitus and a temporary threshold shift in the high frequencies.
According to research on the development of Brown’s morphemes in young children, which of the following is a determinant of acquisition order?A.Phonological ease of productionB.Figurative-language abilityC.Semantic and syntactic complexityD.Sequencing and segmentation strategies Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. Brown’s morphemes are acquired by children in an order that is determined by semantic and syntactic complexity, with the simplest forms acquired first. The order of acquisition is typically followed by all children.
John is a 4 1/2 year old whose consonantal inventory includes word-initial [ w ], [ m ], [ n ], [ p ], [ b ], [ t ], [ d ], and [ f ]. He uses [ t ] for /k/, [ d ] for /ɡ/, [ b ] for /v/, and [ f ] for /θ/. He produces no consonant clusters. His word-final consonantal inventory consists of [m] and [n]. His word shape inventory includes V, CV, CVC, and CVCV. The information given most strongly indicates that the child hasA.childhood apraxia of speechB.an oral motor impairmentC.delayed phonological developmentD.a significant high-frequency hearing loss Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. The pattern describes the phonological pattern of a younger child. The errors are consistent, unlike childhood apraxia of speech, which has an inconsistent error pattern. Children at this age typically have mastered consonant clusters and use word-final consonants.
After sustaining a CVA, Ms. Williams, age 75, was referred to an SLP for a speech and language evaluation. While Ms. Williams was describing the cookie-theft picture, the SLP observed that her grammatical structure appeared to be intact and her prosody was normal but that many of her sentences were meaningless, did not fit the context, and included nonsensical paraphasic errors. Additional testing also revealed that Ms. Williams exhibited poor repetition and naming skills, did not respond appropriately to many simple commands, and had difficulty reading. Ms. Williams appeared happy and talked excessively. She did not appear to be aware of her communication deficits. What is the most likely location of the lesion?A.Left posterior superior temporal gyrusB.Left inferior frontal gyrusC.Left superior frontal gyrusD.Left inferior parietal gyrus Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. The symptoms that are described in the scenario are consistent with damage to the left posterior superior temporal gyrus.
Before an SLP initiates voice intervention, it is most important that the SLP gather information about theA.cause of the client’s voice problemB.client’s breathing patternsC.client’s oral motor skillsD.fundamental frequency of the client’s laryngeal tone Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. It is essential to know the cause of a voice problem prior to commencing voice intervention, because some voice problems are symptoms of diseases/disorders (e.g., laryngeal cancer) that do not respond to the types of voice interventions that an SLP typically provides, and can only be treated through medical intervention.
Excessive nasality is associated with inadequate velopharyngeal closure. An SLP is training a client to self-monitor nasality during speech. Which of the following tactics will best allow the speaker to determine whether there is excessive nasal airflow?A.Looking in a mirror while speakingB.Being aware of vowel-sound productionsC.Speaking/phonating while alternately leaving the nostrils open and pinching them closedD.Monitoring production of consonant blends Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. Speaking while alternately leaving the nostrils open and pinching them closed is an easy way for a speaker to determine whether inappropriate nasal airflow is occurring. This technique allows one to determine the difference in airflow pattern when speech is produced with the nostrils occluded as compared with speech produced when the nostrils are open. For a speaker with velopharyngeal incompetence, closure of the nostrils will eliminate the nasal airflow in production of /s/.
Which of the following best describes the rationale for using standardized, norm-referenced instruments to assess speech-language functioning?A.They enable the clinician to generate weekly statements about a client’s treatment progress.B.They provide the clinician with the information that is necessary to generate a specific and comprehensive treatment plan.C.They enable the clinician to understand and make informed statements about how a client’s performance compares with the performance of other people.D.They provide the clinician with reliable information about how well a client is likely to respond to treatment. Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. The use of standardized normative instruments enables a clinician to compare a client’s language and speech function with the average normal function for a person in the client’s age range.
An SLP who is treating an adolescent who stutters designs a treatment plan that includes three fluency management strategies: prolonged speech, cancellation, and pullout.Which of the following is true about the use of these treatment strategies?Select all that apply.A.Use of prolonged speech is likely to reduce the frequency of part-word repetitions and sound prolongations significantly.B.Each of the three strategies entails deliberate regulation of speech motor movements.C.The client will seek to apply cancellation whenever he feels anxious about the possibility of stuttering overtly.D.The client will seek to apply pullout during the course of part-word repetition or sound prolongation. Correct Answer: A,B,DOptions (A), (B), and (D) are correct. Prolonged speech, deliberate regulation of speech motor movements, and pullout could all be appropriately applied.
A client with anomic aphasia is a native speaker of Spanish with fair proficiency in English. Production of the word “shoes” as [tʃuz] on a repetition task is most likely due to which of the following factors?A.Phonological interference from the speaker’s native languageB.Semantic interference from the speaker’s native languageC.Semantic paraphasia due to the aphasiaD.Phonemic paraphasia due to the aphasia Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. The Spanish language does not have /f/ in its phonemic inventory, and native speakers of Spanish typically substitute the affricate /t∫/ when producing English words with that phoneme. A native speaker of Spanish would most likely have made the substitution before acquiring an anomic aphasia.
An SLP has a consultation with a self-referred adult who has a fluency disorder. The client had been enrolled in treatment programs with the clinician three times before and had reached from 75 to 90 percent fluency before dropping out of treatment for various reasons. Thirty percent of the client’s syllables are spoken disfluently. The client also exhibits signs of depression and anxiety. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the SLP to take?A.Encouraging the client to re-enroll for remedial servicesB.Encouraging the client to take responsibility for maintaining fluency by using techniques learned in the previous treatment sessionsC.Recommending that the client schedule a neurological evaluationD.Referring the client for psychological counseling Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. Psychological counseling is most appropriate for a client who appears interested in improving speech but has not remained motivated long enough to complete the several treatment programs started. The client also does not exhibit maintenance of benefits from prior treatment. Thus, psychological counseling should precede any further remedial efforts.
Immediately following removal of a benign tumor from the base of the brain, a 76-year-old client exhibits severe nasalization and a weak, breathy voice. A four-month postsurgical assessment reveals no improvement. At this time, the remediation strategy for this client should focus onA.evaluation for prosthetic or surgical interventionB.strengthening exercises for the oral articulatorsC.a trial period using the yawn-sign techniqueD.complete vocal rest Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. The client has a resonance and phonation disorder indicative of velopharyngeal and laryngeal problems. The velopharyngeal problem could be assisted by prosthetic or surgical intervention
A 12-year-old native speaker of Spanish who has been studying English as a second language for three years is most likely to do which of the following when speaking English in casual conversation with teachers at school?A.Use the auxiliary “have” in place of “be” in progressive tensesB.Use incorrect word order within prepositional phrasesC.Use conjunctions in place of prepositionsD.Use multiple negation improperly Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. Multiple negation is a grammatical feature of Spanish but not of Standard English. The contrast between the two languages can cause multiple negation to persist as a speaker attempts to learn Standard English.
A 4-month-old-infant who has a low birth weight but passed a neonatal hearing screening was evaluated for development of communication skills. The speech-language pathologist found that the infant followed moving objects visually, showed interest in mouthing and banging objects, and began sucking in anticipation of eating, but failed to localize to environmental sounds. On the report to the infant’s primary care physician, the most appropriate recommendation by the speech-language pathologist isA.consideration of auditory amplificationB.hearing-loss counseling for the parentsC.careful parent monitoring of the child’s speech-language developmentD.evaluation of auditory function by an audiologist Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. The infant is showing normal development except for problems in localizing environmental sounds. This symptom is indicative of a possible auditory problem, making it appropriate for the infant to be referred to an audiologist for evaluation of auditory function.
A 60-year-old man says that he has “trouble thinking of names and words” and that it is interfering with his job performance. The problem began three months ago after he had a minor cerebrovascular accident. He does not report any other problems. His conversation is characterized by some hesitancies, latencies, repetitions, interjections, and self-corrections. On the basis of an interview and the results of an aphasia battery, it is concluded that he has a mild aphasia. The most appropriate course of action is toA.advise the client to wait for three more months in order to allow spontaneous recovery to take placeB.begin a treatment program designed to decrease dysfluencies in his speechC.offer a treatment program designed to improve word-retrieval skillsD.encourage the client to increase his reading of information related to his profession in order to facilitate recall of professional terminology Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. The client’s language reflects the word-finding difficulties of an individual with aphasia. Treatment to remediate his difficulties is appropriate.
Which of the following procedures would be effective in remediating a falsetto voice for an adult male with a severe bilateral hearing loss?A.Development of phonation from coughingB.Pushing exercisesC.Manual depression of the larynxD.Manual elevation of the larynx Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. Manual depression of the larynx will serve to lengthen the vocal folds, allowing them to vibrate at a lower frequency.
Cognitive therapy for stuttering focuses on which of the following?A.Extinguishing the overt, dysfluent speech behavior by withholding positive reinforcementB.Changing distorted beliefs about self-efficacy and the need to speak with complete fluencyC.Providing positive reinforcement during periods of fluent speechD.Reducing dysfluent speech behavior by using visual imaging Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. Changing distorted beliefs about self-efficacy and the need to speak with complete fluency represents the only answer choice that is cognitive in nature.
A prospective client is described as a man in his forties who is under chronic stress. He uses his voice extensively in daily life has a hard-driving personality, and exhibits glottal fry. The client has the classic profile of a person at high risk forA.spastic dysphoniaB.acute laryngitisC.vocal nodulesD.contact ulcers Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. The symptoms exhibited by this patient represent a classic profile of a person who has contact ulcers.
Which of the following most accurately represents the etiology of cleft palate?A.Genetic factors aloneB.Environmental influences aloneC.Genetic factors interacting with environmental influencesD.Medications taken by the mother during pregnancy Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. The interaction of genetic factors and environmental influences represents the etiology of cleft palate.
For which individual would a recommendation for an augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) intervention be least appropriate?A.A preschool child with a language-learning disorder and highly unintelligible speechB.A teenager with a repaired cleft palate who continues to experience hypernasalityC.A young adult with severe cerebral palsy precluding functional oral communicationD.A 55-year-old man who has had a laryngectomy Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. This is correct because someone with hypernasality would still be intelligible, and an AAC device would not be needed.
Which of the following is an accurate statement about whispered speech?A.It is produced by approximating the arytenoid cartilages so that their medial surfaces are in direct contact.B.It is composed largely of aperiodic sounds.C.Spectrographic analysis of it reveals no discernible formants for the vowels.D.Most people can produce longer utterances per breath using it than they can using conventional phonation. Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. Whispered speech is composed largely of aperiodic sounds, as the vocal folds do not vibrate while whispering is taking place.
Which of the following actions will most effectively control the problem of overreferral in school screening programs that use impedance/immittance measurements?A.Obtaining the measurements in a professional sound-insulated roomB.Including 500 Hz in the audiometric screening procedureC.Retesting immediately those who did not pass the first screeningD.Waiting three to five weeks to retest those who did not pass the first screenin Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. Some children may have a temporary problem due to a cold or ear infection, which may resolve in a few weeks.
Six months ago, an SLP evaluated 4-year-old Molly’s speech fluency during conversation. At that time, she displayed physically relaxed repetitions of words and phrases (occurring at a frequency of 2 per 100 words), and interjections such as “um” (occurring at a frequency of 1 per 100 words). She did not display any sound prolongations or facial grimaces; she did not produce any pitch rises or phonatory breaks; and she did not appear to avoid any sounds or words. Results from several formal tests suggested that her articulation and language development were within normal limits. Molly reportedly began producing repetitions and interjections at age 24 months, and the frequency of these disfluency types reportedly has remained stable since then. The SLP did not recommend speech-language intervention following the previous evaluation; however, she did provide the parents with information about fluency development, symptoms of stuttering, and general suggestions for how to facilitate children’s fluency. A reevaluation is scheduled for next week. Which of the following is most appropriate for the SLP to do if Molly’s speech fluency has remained the same since the previous evaluation?A.Recommend that Molly immediately begin fluency therapy, in which the focus is on reducing the frequency of repetitions and interjections in her conversational speechB.Recommend that Molly be released from the SLP’s active caseloadC.Recommend that Molly be referred for psychological counseling, with a focus on on helping Molly improve speech fluency by learning how to manage anxiety more effectivelyD.Recommend monthly evaluations of Molly’s speech fluency until she is five years old Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. Molly’s fluency development was within normal limits at the previous evaluation, and, based on the parents’ report, it also seemed to be within normal limits at age 2. Further, no other concerns about Molly’s communication development were mentioned in the scenario. Thus, it appears that Molly has never stuttered and her communication skills have been and continue to be within normal limits. Therefore, it is unnecessary to reevaluate her speech or enroll her in fluency therapy.
The utterances above, spoken by a 3-year-old monolingual English-speaking child, indicate that the child most likely has a problem with which of the following?A.Semantic redundancyB.Syntactic relationshipsC.Morphological relationshipsD.Pragmatics Correct Answer: BOption (B) is correct. The utterances are not in the correct order, which is characteristic of a syntactic error.
Which of the following is a type of perturbation that can be measured to determine the amount of noise in the voice?A.Changes in the frequency range between F1 and F2 over timeB.Changes in the frequency range between F2 and F3 over timeC.F3 cycle-to-cycle variations in sound energy over timeD.F0 cycle-to-cycle variations in sound energy over time Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. Perturbation is a disturbance in the quality of the laryngeal tone, or fundamental frequency, of the voice.
Which of the following describes an important diagnostic distinction between apraxia of speech and dysarthria?A.Apraxia of speech is a result of lower motor neuron lesions, whereas dysarthria is the result of upper motor neuron lesions.B.Clients with apraxia of speech lack the ability to monitor reactive speech, whereas clients with dysarthria lack the ability to sequence volitional speech movements.C.Strength and coordination of the speech musculature are intact in clients with apraxia of speech, whereas slowness, weakness, incoordination, or altered tone of the speech musculature are associated with dysarthria.D.Apraxia of speech is characterized by distortions, omissions, and substitutions, whereas dysarthria is characterized by inconsistent, highly variable misarticulations. Option (C) is correct. Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder characterized by slowness, weakness, incoordination, or altered tone of the speech production mechanism. The definition of apraxia includes the absence of any deficits in strength, tone, or coordination and rather is characterized by deficits in motor planning and/or programming of speech.
Naturalistic teaching chiefly involves which of the following?A.Establishing successful and useful communicationB.Using multiple trials and training techniquesC.Using more adult-initiated interactions than child-initiated interactionsD.Using differential reinforcement, fading, and modeling Option (A) is correct. Naturalistic teaching focuses on the successful production of utterances that are useful in context for communicating.
Ms. Helene, a 60-year-old woman with a suspected neurological disorder, is referred for speech-language evaluation. She achieves a score of 35/50 on a measure of confrontation object-naming ability. This score is below norms established for individuals of her age and educational level. Based on these results alone, which of the following statements can most reliably be made about Ms. Helene’s disorder?A.She has anomic aphasia, which might or might not be associated with other language deficits.B.She has aphasia, but the type of aphasia cannot be specified on the basis of this test score alone.C.She does not have aphasia but probably does have a memory disturbance.D.She has difficulty with naming, but the precise nature of the deficit cannot be determined on the basis of this test score alone. Correct Answer: DOption (D) is correct. Ms. Helene has a suspected neurological disorder and she achieves a score that is below the norms for individuals her age. Given this information alone, the most that can be said is that she has difficulty with naming; the precise nature of her deficit cannot be determined.
A 67-year-old male patient with no history of swallowing problems has undergone a cardiothoracic surgical procedure. Postoperatively, he is found to be aspirating while swallowing and is diagnosed with a left vocal-fold paralysis and left pharyngeal paresis. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?A.An intraoperative CVA in the right ponsB.Damage to the right recurrent laryngeal nerveC.Damage to the left recurrent laryngeal nerveD.A left hemispheric stroke Correct Answer: COption (C) is correct. The left recurrent laryngeal nerve courses under the aortic arch in its course back to innervate the left larynx and the inferior pharynx. The nerve can be damaged in cardiothoracic operations including aortic arch or valve repairs. Only the left (and not the right) recurrent laryngeal nerve has this course.
A team of SLPs is evaluating whether a new language intervention is suitable for use with children who are on their caseload. The clinicians read an article documenting research on the effect of a novel treatment on the language performance of 30 children with specific language impairment. The researchers administered a standardized language test to the children before and after the treatment program. The children’s posttreatment scores on the test were significantly higher than their pretreatment scores. This led the researchers to conclude that the treatment was highly effective.Based on the preceding description, which of the following appears to be a significant limitation of the design of the study?Select all that apply.A.The use of a single-group pretest-posttest designB.The absence of a control groupC.The inability to rule out the possibility that the children’s language scores improved for reasons other than the treatmentD.The use of random assignment to place the children into the treatment groupE.The number of participants in the study Options (A), (B), and (C) are correct. The use of a single-group pretest-posttest design is a limitation because there is inadequate control of internal and external validity without a control group. The absence of a control group is a limitation because control groups are a way of introducing control and can better isolate the effect of the treatment. Furthermore, since it is a longitudinal study, improvement based on language development cannot be ruled out.
Which of the following muscles produces the opposing action to those that produce velopharyngeal closure?A.Musculus uvulaeB.Levator veli palatiniC.PalatoglossusD.Stylopharyngeus Option (C) is correct. Velopharyngeal closure is largely produced by soft palate elevation, and the only muscle in the list that produces soft palate depression (the opposite of soft palate elevation) is the palatoglossus.
Questions 64-67 refer to the following.Michael is a 32-month-old boy who has been receiving early intervention services over the past ten months for delayed speech and expressive-language development. Although his birth was reportedly unremarkable, Michael does have a history of recurrent otitis media with effusion. His parents described him as having been a “well-behaved and quiet baby.” When Michael began receiving services, he communicated mainly through gestures and crude vocalizations. An open resting mouth position with slight tongue protrusion was sometimes noted. However, his receptive-language skills were found to be age appropriate and he showed no oral motor deficits during feeding. Michael’s expressive-language skills have shown some progress since he began working with the speech-language pathologist, but he remains poorly intelligible. Michael’s imitation of tongue, lip, and jaw movements is characterized by inconsistent groping and errors of sequencing not observed in his spontaneous oral movements. Michael has an age-appropriate vocabulary and produces utterances of up to five words. Articulation errors, especially metathesis of phones and syllables, increase as his utterance length increases. Michael’s intelligibility is greatest at the single-word level. Automatic speech and highly familiar utterances are much more intelligible than his imitated productions.As part of ongoing assessment, the SLP’s most appropriate action is to have Michael’s parents consult with his primary-care provider for referral toA.a special educatorB.a neurologistC.a psychologistD.an otolaryngologist Option (D) is correct. Michael’s history of recurrent middle ear infections, an otolarygologist would be able to clinically manage otitis media and make provisions to obtain an audiological assessment.
Michael demonstrates speech behaviors that are typical of children diagnosed with which of the following?A.Childhood apraxia of speechB.Conductive hearing lossC.Hyperkinetic dysarthriaD.Autism spectrum disorder Option (A) is correct. Articulation characterized by groping, inconsistency, and errors of sound and syllable sequencing strongly suggests developmental apraxia of speech.
Based on Michael’s case history, the SLP would most appropriately provide activities toA.stabilize muscle tone to improve gross motor support of speech movementB.improve receptive-language abilityC.strengthen tongue, lip, and jaw musclesD.increase the accuracy of CV, VC, and CVC syllable sequences Option (D) is correct. Michael’s case history suggests that his poor intelligibility is tied to his inconsistent sequencing of speech sounds and syllables.
Given Michael’s age, which of the following is likely to be the most effective strategy for speech and language intervention?A.Using structured play to address short-term goalsB.Facilitating Michael’s ability to self-monitor his speechC.Instructing Michael’s parents in structured home exercises for their sonD.Introducing augmentative and alternative communication devices Option (A) is correct. Toddlers and preschoolers respond better to games and play activities than to structured exercises.
A 9-month-old child was observed during a speech-language evaluation. To express herself, the child occasionally touched her mother, gained eye contact, and then gestured toward an object. If the child’s development is normal, within the next month or so the child will begin toA.use consistent sound and intonation patterns as signals for specific intentionsB.reach for objects that she desiresC.establish joint reference with her caretakerD.use recognizable words and phrases to express her intentions Option (A) is correct. In normal development, a child begins to use vocalizations to express specific intentions at around 10 months of age.
For a patient with communication and swallowing disorders secondary to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), a speech-language pathologist will most appropriatelyA.serve only as a consultant to others who are directly involved in the patient’s careB.provide treatment on a monthly basisC.provide treatment only as prescribed by the patient’s physicianD.provide treatment in consultation with the patient’s primary-care physician or medical team Option (D) is correct. Treatment in consultation with the patient’s primary-care physician or medical team would provide the information needed to determine the best management of the patient.
An otolaryngologist has referred a 45-year-old man for voice treatment following medialization thyroplasty for a paralyzed vocal fold. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic strategy for the SLP to use?A.Assisting the patient to produce a soft glottal attackB.Digitally manipulation of the patient’s neck to reduce strap-muscle tensionC.Assisting the patient to produce a hard glottal attackD.Employing techniques aimed at increasing airflow Option (C) is correct. Medialization thyroplasty moves the paralyzed vocal fold closer to the mid-glottis to allow better compensation by the unaffected fold. Only the production of a hard glottal attack addresses the compensatory behavior.
Compared with children who do not have language disorders, children with language disorders tend toA.take more conversational turnsB.initiate topics and direct the flow of conversation moreC.ask fewer open-ended questionsD.initiate more indirect requests Option (C) is correct. Children with language disorders tend to ask fewer open-ended questions than do children who are developing normally.
Which of the following types of cerebral palsy is characterized by slow, arrhythmic writhing and involuntary movements of the extremities?A.AthetosisB.SpasticityC.HypotoniaD.Bulbar palsy Option (A) is correct. Athetosis is a type of cerebral palsy that is characterized by slow, arrhythmic writhing and involuntary movements of the extremities.
Intervention from an SLP for a nursing-home resident who is in a late stage of progressive dementia will most effectively focus onA.conversational intelligibilityB.recall of salient vocabulary wordsC.comprehension of social discourseD.assisting in communication routines Option (D) is correct. Intervention from an SLP for a nursing-home resident in a late stage of progressive dementia would most effectively focus on assisting the resident with daily communication functions.
For a test of expressive morphology and syntax for speakers of African American Vernacular English (AAVE), the test item that would be considered LEAST biased against such speakers would be one requiringA.use of the auxiliary verb “be” in the present progressive tenseB.use of the past-tense ending “-ed”C.use of sentences with multiple negationD.agreement of personal pronouns with their antecedents in gender and number Option (D) is correct. The morphological feature listed is one in which African American Vernacular English (AAVE) does not differ from Standard American English (SAE).
In the treatment of acute Wernicke’s aphasia, the initial focus should be onA.encouraging self-monitoring of the adequacy of verbal outputB.increasing the rate of speechC.improving the client’s ability to elaborate verballyD.increasing the complexity of sentence structures Option (A) is correct. Wernicke’s aphasia results in deficits related to the ability to recognize the adequacy of one’s verbal production.
Research regarding the use of intensive phonemic-awareness treatment for children who have difficulty learning to read has demonstrated that the treatmentA.is effective only for children from 4 to 8 years oldB.is effective mainly with children who have remediated all phonological process errorsC.is effective only when combined with a supplemental literacy programD.might have no direct relationship to improvement in reading abilities Option (D) is correct. Intensive phonemic-awareness treatment programs are thought to improve reading by training children to better differentiate and process speech sounds. However, to date, research has not successfully separated the effects of intensive intervention, so no direct relationship has yet been proved.
Which of the following would be most likely to help a client who has aphonia?A.Development of phonation through coughing or throat clearingB.Pairing the production of /s/ and /z/C.Respiratory exercisesD.Easy initiation of phonation Option (A) is correct. Development of phonation through coughing or throat clearing is an effective technique in the treatment of aphonia.
A child with discourse problems is most likely to need remediation directed at which of the following?A.MorphologyB.An initial lexiconC.Gestural communicationD.Cohesive devices Option (D) is correct. Cohesive devices, such as prenominal references, coordinating conjunctions, and conjunctive adverbs, are used to link clausal and sentential elements to form a coherent and unified message.
In the treatment of voice disorders, the chewing technique is used to do which of the following?A.Improve control of loudnessB.Increase pitch range during voice productionC.Increase air supply during voice productionD.Reduce tension in the laryngeal area Option (D) is correct. The chewing technique is used to reduce muscular tension in the laryngeal area.
In terms of communication impairment, an adult with Alzheimer’s-type dementia tends to differ from an adult with aphasia associated with a CVA in thatA.repetition abilities are typically more seriously impaired in the adult with dementiaB.the adult with dementia generally experiences greater dysfluencyC.the adult with dementia is generally more aware of any disruptions in communicationD.the capacity of the adult with aphasia to make appropriate comments about recent events is generally better Option (D) is correct. Adults with dementia typically have impaired short-term memory abilities. Adults with aphasia are more likely to recall recent events and consequently would be more likely to make appropriate comments about recent events when compared to those with dementia.
An SLP is planning treatment for a 5-year-old child with multiple speech-production errors. The most effective strategy the clinician can use to treat the child is toA.arrange error sounds by developmental pattern and correct them sound by soundB.start with sounds the child can make and use them as bridges to error soundsC.teach sounds in isolation, then use nonsense syllables, and then build to wordsD.delineate phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs Option (D) is correct. The most efficient procedure for the child would be for the speech-language pathologist to define the phonological processes in operation and address them through minimal-contrast pairs.
A teacher asks the speech-language pathologist for advice regarding a child who talks excessively during class, rarely listens to instructions, and does work only intermittently. Attempts at alternative seating for the child have not been successful. Of the following, which is the most appropriate recommendation that the speech-language pathologist can provide to the teacher?A.Have the school counselor consider working with the child and the parents on self-control and disciplineB.Put the child on a management system for classroom behaviorC.Refer the child for evaluation by members of the child-study teamD.Suggest remedial speech-language services for the child to improve the child’s interactive communication Option (C) is correct. The child has a behavioral problem that should be evaluated for the purposes of identification and management planning.
A disfluent 4-year-old child is referred to an SLP for assessment. Which of the following is most important for the SLP to consider in deciding whether the child is developmentally nonfluent or stuttering?A.The length of time the child has been disfluentB.The rate at which the child talksC.The nature and frequency of the child’s disfluenciesD.The child’s comments to the clinician about the disfluencies Option (C) is correct. The nature and frequency of the child’s repetitions will help distinguish between normal disfluency and the type of stuttering for which remediation is indicated.
Which of the following provides the most important diagnostic information to an SLP making a differential diagnosis between childhood apraxia of speech and flaccid dysarthria in a child?A.The child’s articulation performance at the sentence levelB.A history of the child’s development of chewing, eating, and swallowingC.A history of the child’s language developmentD.The child’s willingness to function in sociocommunicative events Option (B) is correct. A child with childhood apraxia of speech does not have difficulties with chewing, eating, and swallowing, whereas a child with flaccid dysarthria is likely to have such difficulties.
A speech-and-hearing clinic has recently opened, but referrals are slow in coming. Which of the following would be most appropriate and effective for the clinic’s director to do first?A.Ask local hospitals to provide names of recent clients likely to need speech-language servicesB.Identify and define the major consumer groups and referral sources, and develop a plan to reach themC.Identify the weaknesses in the competition, and inform consumer groups and referral sources of the weaknessesD.Wait for demand to increase on its own, because marketing speech-language services is against the ASHA Code of Ethics Option (B) is correct. The clinical director of a new speech-and-hearing clinic would most appropriately prospect for referrals by identifying major consumer groups and creating a plan to contact them.
Native speakers of a language possess several capacities or abilities that provide insight into their language competence. Sentences such as “Visiting friends can be a nuisance” are especially useful to test a person’s ability toA.recognize syntactic ambiguityB.interpret metaphoric languageC.distinguish homophones by means of syntactic cuesD.recognize a semantically anomalous sentence Option (A) is correct. There are two ways to parse or interpret the structure of the sentence “Visiting friends can be a nuisance.” One interpretation is that it is bothersome to visit friends; the other is that friends who have come for a visit are bothersome. Therefore, this sentence would be appropriate as part of a test of a person’s ability to recognize syntactic ambiguity.
A 6-year-old child produces [t] for /s/, [d] for /z/, [p] for /f/, and [b] for /v/. Intervention for this problem would target language at the level ofA.morphologyB.syntaxC.phonologyD.semantics Option (C) is correct. The speech patterns described in the question stem all pertain to speech sound production. Phonology is the aspect of language that deals with speech sound production.
A correct-response rate of 51 percent on a two-choice picture-pointing task would most likely indicate which of the following?A.A random pointing responseB.Successful interventionC.Development of crucial discrimination skills by the clientD.Readiness to progress to a three-picture point task Option (A) is correct. If an individual is responding randomly on a two-choice task, then there should be no significant preponderance of correct responses over incorrect responses. A result of 51 percent represents such an expected pattern of random responses.
Ms. Lopez’s articulation errors consist of the following: f/v, ʃ/ʒ, and s/z. On the basis of these errors, the SLP should begin remediation that focuses onA.mannerB.placeC.fricativesD.voicing Option (D) is correct. Ms. Lopez’s phonological errors are errors of voicing, as [f] is substituted for [v], [ʃ] for [ʒ], and [s] for [z].
Control over the fundamental frequency of the laryngeal tone is most closely related to the activity of which of the following muscles?A.Posterior cricoarytenoidB.Lateral cricoarytenoidC.CricothyroidD.Sternocleidomastoid Option (C) is correct. The cricothyroid muscle has the greatest control over the fundamental frequency of the laryngeal tone by lengthening or tensing the vocal folds.
A two-year-old child produces the following utterances during a play-based conversation with her mother.Utterance Gloss/Child’s Intended MeaningNo kitty It’s not a kitty.My doggie This toy dog is mine.No goat It’s not a goat.Kitty house The cat is in the house.Big kitty It’s a big cat.Doggie ball The dog pushed the ball.Which of the following semantic-syntactic constructions does the child show evidence of using?Select all that apply.A.DisappearanceB.DenialC.Possessor + possessionD.Attribute + entityE.Agent + action Options (B), (C), (D), and (E) are correct. Denial is shown through the utterance of “no kitty,” possessor + possession is shown through the utterance of “my doggie,” attribute + entity is shown through the utterance of “big kitty,” and agent + action is shown though the utterance of “doggie ball.”
Which of the following areas needs to be evaluated first for a 5 year old who says [pun] for “spoon” and [top] for “soap”?A.Auditory discriminationB.Dialectal differencesC.Phonological systemD.Receptive language Option (C) is correct. The error patterns described are phonological in nature (cluster reduction and stopping, specifically) and are not consistent with a deficit in language comprehension (receptive language), dialectal differences, or problems with auditory discrimination.
Which of the following errors is likely to persist the longest in the speech of children who are learning Standard American English (SAE) as a first language and are following the normal developmental course for speech and language acquisition?A.AssimilationB.Consonant cluster reductionC.Final-consonant deletionD.Velar fronting Option (B) is correct. Consonant cluster reduction is the most persistent of the normal developmental processes listed.
For which of the following conditions is it most appropriate for the SLP to recommend that the patient’s primary-care physician refer the patient to a prosthodontist for construction of a palatal-lift appliance?A.Submucous cleft palateB.Unrepaired cleft of the secondary palateC.Flaccid paralysis of the soft palateD.Congenitally short palate Option (C) is correct. Construction of a palatal-lift appliance is appropriate for a patient with flaccid paralysis characterized by an intact palate that does not function.
Computer software that has been developed to facilitate speech and language treatment can best be usedA.in group sessions when the SLP’s caseload precludes working individually with clientsB.by clients in place of services that would otherwise be provided by an SLPC.by clients under the direction of SLPsD.when SLPs are unavailable Option (C) is correct. Computer software and other aids are intended not to replace treatment sessions provided by an SLP but rather to enhance clients’ opportunities to improve their skills in relation to goals established by the clinician.
The most serious limitation of employing imitation as an intervention strategy for children with a language impairment is that imitationA.lacks communicative intentionB.relies on semantic knowledgeC.is clinician controlledD.is contextualized speech Option (A) is correct. The most serious shortcoming of imitation as an intervention strategy is that imitation is not an intentionally communicative act.
Treatment for apraxia of speech most appropriately emphasizesA.coordination of respiration with phonation and articulationB.auditory discrimination, resonance, and respirationC.auditory-visual stimulation, oral-motor repetition, and phonetic placementD.rate of speech, range of movement, strength, and coordination of the oral mechanism Option (C) is correct. Treatment for apraxia of speech appropriately emphasizes auditory-visual stimulation, oral-motor repetition, and phonetic placement.
Which of the following is a typical symptom of cerebellar involvement?A.Overshooting or undershooting an intended targetB.Rigidity during voluntary motionsC.Spasticity during involuntary actionD.Word-finding difficulty Option (A) is correct. The overshooting or undershooting of an intended target is typical of individuals with deficits related to a lesion of the cerebellum.
To provide greater independence for a client who has a brain injury and is in a late stage of speech-language treatment, which of the following techniques is most appropriate?A.Increasing memory-retention spanB.Using word-repetition drillsC.Teaching compensatory strategiesD.Training visual-perceptual skills Option (C) is correct. Functional independence is a main goal for a client shortly before dismissal from treatment. It can be achieved by teaching compensatory strategies to minimize any remaining deficits.
Following anoxic encephalopathy, clients are likely to experience the most significant long-term impairments in the area ofA.prosodyB.resonanceC.aphoniaD.memory Option (D) is correct. Anoxic encephalopathy, or brain damage resulting from oxygen deprivation, typically leads to global impairment that affects memory. It is difficult to reverse the effects of memory loss, so the impairment is usually long-term.
Doing which of the following would likely yield the most useful information about the effectiveness of an intervention strategy?A.Reviewing the results of standardized assessment instrumentsB.Utilizing a single-subject design (ABAB) or a reversal procedure (ABA)C.Utilizing the subjective, objective, assessment, and plan (SOAP) formatD.Requesting that a colleague reevaluate the client Option (B) is correct. An ABAB or ABA design shows changes when intervention is applied. Single-subject design using ABAB or ABA design is the best method to determine whether intervention has succeeded.
Individuals diagnosed as having hemifacial microsomia are also most likely to haveA.laryngeal dysfunctionB.ear malformationC.webbed fingers and toesD.widely spaced eyes Option (B) is correct. Ear malformation is the only symptom of those listed that is typical of hemifacial microsomia, a genetic diagnosis within the oculo-auricular-vertebral (OAV) spectrum.
A child repeatedly inserts an inappropriate sound in certain environments; for example, [fpɪʃ] for [fɪʃ] . Which of the following would likely be most helpful for the child as a target for treatment?A.Bisyllabic words for which a minimal-contrast pair can be easily identifiedB.Words containing phonemes that have distinctive features in common with the sound the child inserts inappropriatelyC.Repeated practice with the combinations of phonemes that the child finds particularly easy to produceD.Words that contrast the child’s error pattern with the target pattern in the word Option (D) is correct. Words that contrast the child’s error pattern with the target pattern would be most helpful for this child.
The sensorimotor integration of the muscles of the lower face depends on which two of the cranial nerves?A.The accessory and hypoglossalB.The trigeminal and facialC.The vagus and glossopharyngealD.The phrenic and facial Option (B) is correct. The trigeminal nerve has a motor component which is involved in mastication (and thus the lower face) and a sensory component, which provides sensory information from the entire face (including the lower face). The facial nerve provides motor innervation to several muscles that are found in the lower face, including the orbicularis oris and the buccinator.
For which of the following reasons would the therapy for a client whose language loss is due to brain injury differ from the therapy for a client whose language loss is due to a progressive disorder?A.There is a much higher chance of spontaneous recovery for the client with brain injury.B.There is a much higher chance of spontaneous recovery for the client with a progressive disorder.C.The client with brain injury typically has problems with fatigue and mental confusion, whereas the client with a progressive disorder does not.D.The client with a progressive disorder typically has problems with attention and memory, whereas the client with brain injury typically does not. Option (A) is correct. Brain injury is typically characterized by some degree of spontaneous improvement over a period of several days to weeks, which may be evidenced through gradual improvement in language abilities, whereas a progressive disorder is characterized by gradual loss/reduction in language skills.
Which of the following treatment goals related to pragmatics best addresses a young child’s use of language?A.In a play situation, the child will request a turn, either verbally or through gestures, 90 percent of the time.B.In a treatment session, the child will produce a two-word combination 90 percent of the time.C.In conversation, the child will produce correct velars 90 percent of the time.D.When telling a story, the child will use the standard dialect’s irregular past tense forms of five specific verbs 90 percent of the time. Option (A) is correct. Pragmatics is the study of language in realistic contexts, and the treatment goal describes a real-life, naturalistic use of communication skills.
A 42-year-old client with upper-and lower-extremity weakness and a diagnosis of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is referred for a speech-language evaluation. The evaluation reveals a progressive severe dysarthria that is characterized by imprecise articulation secondary to bilateral facial and lingual weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations; mild-to-moderate hypernasality and weak pressure consonants with associated nasal emission during speech; and strained, harsh, groaning voice quality with occasional inhalatory stridor. Speech intelligibility is poor. Which of the following will most effectively improve this client’s ability to communicate?A.Teflon injection into one or both vocal cordsB.Palatal-lift prosthesisC.Amplification deviceD.Augmentative communication system Option (D) is correct. The client has an advanced stage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis with consequent progressive deterioration of communication abilities. An augmentative-communication system is the best option for improving or maintaining communication for this client.
Which of the following communication disorders is most frequently associated with significant dysphagia?A.AphasiaB.Ataxic dysarthriaC.Flaccid dysarthriaD.Organic voice tremor Option (C) is correct. Flaccid dysarthria and dysphagia are both disorders likely to be characterized by flaccidity or weakness of the oromotor and laryngeal mechanisms that results from cranial nerve damage. These two disorders frequently coexist.
Language impairment in a child with Down syndrome is often determined by comparing performance on one or more standardized language tests with the child’s mental age, rather than with the child’s chronological age. Although mental age should not be used to specify the need for treatment, mental age can legitimately be used as a performance criterion becauseA.using chronological age would overidentify language disordersB.using chronological age would underidentify language disordersC.mental age always correlates with verbal performanceD.language performance is expected to exceed mental age Option (A) is correct. Using chronological age as a performance criterion for a child with Down syndrome would make the child’s language disorders seem more pronounced than they are.
Which of the following is the ratio of reinforcement that will most quickly cause a newly acquired behavior to be habituated?A.A random ratio of tokens to correct responsesB.A ratio of 1 token to 1 correct responseC.A ratio of 1 token to 4 correct responses onlyD.A ratio of 1 token to 10 correct responses only Correct Answer: AOption (A) is correct. When the goal is to reinforce a behavior that has already been acquired, a random ratio of tokens to correct responses creates an intermittent reinforcement schedule and is the most effective. Such a reinforcement schedule decreases the client’s dependence on the token reward.
Mr. Charles, age 78, has had Alzheimer’s disease for the past nine years. A recent speech and language evaluation at his nursing home indicated severe deficits in verbal reasoning, memory, word finding, discourse, pragmatics, phonology, semantics, and syntax. Which of the following should the speech-language pathologist do next?A.Recommend individual treatment to improve his receptive and expressive language skills, beginning with the areas where he is least deficientB.Recommend individual treatment to improve his receptive and expressive language skills, beginning with the areas where he is most deficientC.Initiate group treatment with other adults with language impairments to improve spontaneous conversational speech and pragmatic skillsD.Examine his living conditions and, if necessary, educate the nursing staff concerning ways to help him communicate more effectively Option (D) is correct. Mr. Charles has Alzheimer’s disease with loss of memory and deteriorating language skills. The best that can be done for him is to help his caregivers improve the conditions related to his basic communication needs. Speech-language treatment itself is very unlikely to be effective and thus is not appropriate.
An adult client exhibits visuospatial disorganization, an inability to initiate interactions, left-side neglect, and lack of facial expression. This combination of symptoms is most likely associated with which of the following?A.Right-hemisphere traumatic brain injuryB.Left-hemisphere cerebrovascular accidentC.Bilateral traumatic brain injuryD.Alzheimer’s dementia Option (A) is correct. The symptoms listed are indicative of deficits that are generally associated with right-hemisphere dysfunction.
A physician told the spouse of a client that melodic intonation therapy (MIT) would improve the client’s speech considerably. The most appropriate next action by the SLP would be toA.provide MIT, as recommendedB.tell the physician that it is inappropriate for the physician to make recommendations for a speech treatmentC.consider the potential value of incorporating MIT into the client’s treatmentD.explain MIT to the client’s spouse to assist in the decision-making process about the type of therapy to use Option (C) is correct. MIT is a procedure appropriately used by SLPs to promote certain results. The SLP has responsibility for determining the value of this procedure in relation to the objectives of the speech-language treatment program.
Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for vocal fold abduction?A.Posterior cricoarytenoidB.CricothyroidC.InterarytenoidD.Lateral cricoarytenoid Option (A) is correct. The posterior cricoarytenoid muscle has its origin on the posterior wall of the cricoid lamina, and courses anterolaterally and then anteriorly to insert onto the lateral aspect of the arytenoid cartilage. Given the anatomy of the cricoarytenoid joint, posterior cricoarytenoid contraction (shortening) can only produce rotation of the arytenoid cartilages such that the vocal processes are displaced laterally, abducting the true vocal folds.
Which of the following factors contributes to UES opening?Select all that apply.A.Partial relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscleB.Superior and anterior hyolaryngeal excursionC.Velopharyngeal closureD.Posterior and inferior hyolaryngeal excursion Options (A) and (B) are correct. Partial relaxation of the cricopharyngeal portion of the inferior constrictor muscle is part of the neurological sequence. Superior and anterior hyolaryngeal excursion provides a mechanical opening.
A client has been determined to have poor upper esophageal sphincter opening secondary to decreased hyolaryngeal excursion, following a lateral medullary stroke. Cognitive functions are within normal limits. Which of the following interventions would be the most appropriate recommendation for this client as an initial course of treatment for the underlying disorder?A.Thermotactile stimulationB.Mendelsohn maneuverC.Thickened liquidsD.Chin-down posture (head/neck flexion) Option (B) is correct. The Mendelsohn maneuver is the only one of the listed interventions designed and shown in research to prolong the duration and diameter of upper esophageal sphincter opening.
The figure shows a midsagittal view of the oral and pharyngeal structures. The top and bottom lip are located one above the other, with a small opening in between. The top central incisors and lower central incisors are both tipped forward labially; however, the lower central incisors appear to rest behind the top central incisors. The tongue is not in contact with the hard or soft palate. The soft palate is not in contact with the posterior pharyngeal wall.An individual attempting to sustain /f/ is shown in the midsagittal view above. The most important reason why this speaker will not produce an acceptable /f/ is thatA.the upper central incisors are tipped too far labiallyB.the lower central incisors tipped too far labiallyC.intraoral air pressure will be insufficientD.lip placement is inadequate Option (C) is correct. The midsagittal section shows that the speaker’s velopharyngeal port is open, allowing a flow of air into the nasal cavity; the resulting intraoral air pressure would be insufficient to sustain normal production of the phoneme.
If a child’s language exhibits the phonological process of gliding, the child might say [wɛd] for “red.” When asked, “Do you mean wed?” the child may respond, “No! [wɛd]!” Such a response demonstrates which of the following?A.Phonological development lags behind semantic development.B.Semantic development lags behind phonological development.C.Linguistic competence lags behind linguistic performance.D.Linguistic performance lags behind linguistic competence. Option (D) is correct. Linguistic performance typically lags behind linguistic competence.
Of the following sentences, which represents the greatest degree of syntactic complexity?A.Is John helping Bill?B.Why isn’t John helping Bill?C.John isn’t helping Bill.D.Why is John helping Bill? Option (B) is correct. The sentence involves inversion, adding negation, and adding a question word, so with three transformations, this option has the greatest degree of syntactic complexity.
Establishment of which of the following is most important in ensuring that the results of any diagnostic test of speech or language are replicable?A.Content validityB.Interjudge reliabilityC.Split-half reliabilityD.Face validity Option (B) is correct. A test that has interjudge reliability is one whose results are replicable, even if different people administer the test.
Linguistic approaches to the treatment of sound-production errors in children are based on the notion that the errors are systematic and rule-based and that the goal of treatment is to modify a child’s rule system to approximate the rule system used by adults. Which of the following is a treatment objective that reflects a linguistic approach to treatment?A.The child will contrast alveolar stops with velar stops in meaningful word pairs.B.The child will produce voiceless alveolar sibilants correctly in unstructured conversation.C.The child will coarticulate stop plus liquid clusters as easily as other children of the same age.D.The child will recognize and identify phonetic distortions of his or her error sound. Option (A) is correct. The objective refers to speech sounds in terms of general distinctive-feature classes, rather than in terms of isolated phonemes or overly specific classifications.
Which of the following is the most reasonable standard to apply when judging whether a client has achieved generalization of a targeted skill?A.The client uses the targeted skill under stimulus conditions that were not present during the training process and without reinforcement.B.The client maintains the correct production of the targeted skill when the reinforcement schedule is changed.C.The client correctly produces the targeted skill effortlessly and without hesitation.D.The client is able to monitor errors and correct them with only a minimal number of cues from the clinician. Option (A) is correct. When judging whether a client has achieved generalization of a targeted skill it is a reasonable standard to apply. It shows that the client is exhibiting the skill independently in situations not covered during training.
A child who is 4 years and 4 months old is referred for assessment of speech sound development, with the following results.Phonological error pattern Sounds in error Error frequency (# of errors/# of opportunities to produce error)Stopping Observed only on ð 85%Fronting /k/ → [t] 90%/g/ → [d] 100%/ng/ → [n] 20%Gliding /r/ → [w] 100%Final consonant deletion Obstruents à null 80% (The only phonemes the child used correctly in the word-final position were /n, m/.)Epenthesis Insertion of ə into stop /s/ clusters 10%Which of the following phonological error patterns is most appropriate to address in a treatment program?Select all that apply.A.StoppingB.FrontingC.GlidingD.Final consonant deletionE.Epenthesis Options (B) and (D) are correct. Fronting and final consonant deletion should be suppressed earlier, as they make the biggest difference in intelligibility.
Which of the following indicates the goal of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) ?A.To ensure a patient’s privacy and confidentiality of health-care informationB.To maximize health insurance coverage for speech-language pathology servicesC.To ensure a free and appropriate educationD.To ensure a patient’s knowledge of health insurance Option (A) is correct. Protecting patient privacy and the confidentially of health-care information is the main purpose of HIPAA.
A 3-year-old child presents for an evaluation of communication skills. When the SLP says “Sit in your seat,” the child responds by saying [tɪ ɪ ti]. When the SLP asks the child to “put the big block in the box,” the child responds by saying [bɪ bɑ ɪ bɑ].Based on the responses, the child’s primary problem with communication is most likely which of the following?A.Oral-motor weaknessB.Poor auditory discriminationC.A fluency disorderD.A receptive and/or expressive language impairment Option (D) is correct. The child is imitating what the SLP is saying but not adding new information to the conversation. This may be due to difficulty comprehending what is said (receptive language) and difficulty with producing sounds and words (expressive language).
Laborious, halting, telegraphic utterances are typical of clients with which of the following types of aphasia?A.ConductionB.AnomicC.WernickeD.Transcortical motor Option (D) is correct. Transcortical motor aphasia is characterized by dysfluent, telegraphic utterances, and none of the distractors are characterized by this pattern of production.
A videofluoroscopic study of a client with dysphagia revealed post-swallow vallecular residue occupying more than 50 percent vallecular height. Which of the following is the most likely overt symptom that the client will experience?A.Watery eyes during swallowingB.Oral pocketing of foodsC.Coughing after swallowingD.Esophageal reflux Option (C) is correct. The valleculae are depressions that lie lateral to the median epiglottal folds. Pooling of liquids in the valleculae gives a person the feeling that there is material remaining in the respiratory pathway, so coughing would be a natural reaction to expect in this case.
When treating a client who is using an electronic augmentative-communication device, the speech-language pathologist’s primary goal should be toA.ensure that the client develops skill in using every technical aspect of the aidB.ensure that the client’s caregivers learn how to modify the aid’s hardware and any applicable software to meet the client’s communication needsC.train the client to use the aid as independently and interactively as possible in a variety of settingsD.help the client develop the skills necessary for moving on to a more sophisticated device Option (C) is correct. The primary goal of any intervention is to effect the best functional outcome for the client. Generalization with respect to the environments in which the augmentative device is used effectively would help accomplish this goal.
An SLP sees a college-educated 22-year-old man who has sustained a brain injury as a result of a motor vehicle accident eighteen months earlier. The man was unconscious for five days and had posttraumatic amnesia for three months. In the last year he has held three unskilled jobs, from which he was released for unspecified reasons. Based on the information given, the man’s most pervasive condition is most likely impairedA.visual constructionB.attention and memoryC.speechD.language Option (B) is correct. Impaired attention and impaired memory are consistent with the brain injury sustained by the client. There is no evidence for any of the other areas of potential deficit listed in the other choices.
A 4-year-old child presents with general speech patterns that include liquid gliding, stridency deletion, final-consonant deletion, and consonant-cluster reduction. Which of the following is the speech-language pathologist’s most appropriate recommendation for the child?A.Treatment is not needed, because the child’s speech will improve during the next year.B.Treatment should focus on the production of /p/, because /p/ is one of the earliest acquired phonemes.C.Treatment should use a phonological approach and focus initially on the production of final consonants.D.Formal treatment is not needed not, but the parents should be counseled to read aloud to the child, correct the child’s errors, elicit correct repetitions, and, when needed, interpret to other people what the child is trying to say. Option (C) is correct. A 4-year-old child should have already developed final consonants.
A third-party reimburser asks the speech-language pathologist to demonstrate in a diagnostic statement that a child’s communication problems have a physiological cause. Which of the following observations, if included in the statement, would best satisfy the request?A.The child’s dentition is not yet fully developed but is within normal limits for a child of that age.B.The child has developmental delay, exhibiting speech that is not appropriate for a child of that age.C.The child demonstrates a motor-speech disorder and is unable to perform voluntarily the oral movements required for speech production.D.The child exhibits stridency deletion, consonant cluster reduction, stopping, and fronting. Option (C) is correct. The wording represents a well-written diagnostic statement for a child with communication problems that are physiological, or functional, in nature. None of the other answer choices demonstrates the presence of a physiological problem.
A 412-year-old boy has significant speech and language difficulties exemplified by poor oral-motor control, slight difficulty in swallowing, high palate, poor tongue mobility, and fasticulation on protrusion. During an evaluation, the speech-language pathologist notes very poor paper-and-pencil grasp, poor posture, and an inability to complete performance tasks requiring fine motor control. To which of the following should the child be referred in order to obtain additional diagnostic information?A.An orolaryngologistB.A physical therapistC.A neurologistD.A physiologist Option (C) is correct. The boy’s deficits as noted are most indicative of a neurological disorder, and a neurologist can best provide the additional diagnostic information needed.
- A clinician is asked to give a workshop to graduate students about evaluation of patients with swallowing disorders. She discusses evaluation in depth. Which one of the followingfacts in the clinician’s workshop would be inaccurate?A. An ultrasound examination can measure oral tongue movement and hyoid movement.B. A manometric assessment can assess the preparatory phase of the swallow using posteriorand lateral plane examinations.C. An electromyographic assessment can be conducted by attaching electrodes to structures of interest (e.g., oral, laryngeal, or pharyngeal muscles).D. A laryngeal examination can be conducted with indirect laryngoscopy or endoscopic examination to inspect the base of the tongue, vallecula, epiglottis, pyriform sinuses, vocal folds, and ventricular folds. Also, the actual swallow can be seen during the study. B. A manometric assessment can assess the preparatory phase of the swallow using posteriorand lateral plane examinations.
- What is the muscle that exerts the pull that allows the eustachian tube to open during yawning and swallowing?A. Tensor palatiniB. Levator palatiniC. Tensor tympaniD. Levator veli palatini A. Tensor palatini
- Social interactionist theorists believe thatA. specific stimulus-response reinforcement principles play an important role in children’s language acquisition.B. language function, not structure, should be emphasized in language acquisition.C. the structure of human language may have arisen from language’s social communicativefunction in human relations.D. in therapy with children with language delays, we should emphasize syntax. C. the structure of human language may have arisen from language’s social communicativefunction in human relations.
- A thrombus is aA. traveling blood clot that blocks the flow of blood.B. stationary blood clot that blocks the flow of blood.C. cause of aphasia in women only.D. bleeding vessel. A. traveling blood clot that blocks the flow of blood.
- Key parts of the auditory nervous system include cranial nerve VIII, which has two branches: the branch and the branch, which carries electrical sound impulses from the cochlea to the brain.A. retrocochlear, auditoryB. cochlear, auditory-acousticC. auditory-acoustic, retrocochlearD. vestibular, auditory-acoustic D. vestibular, auditory-acoustic
- Repetition skills are better preserved inA. transcortical motor aphasia.B. Broca’s aphasia.C. global aphasia.D. Wernicke’s aphasia. A. transcortical motor aphasia.
- During an evaluation of a 1-month-old infant, the speech-language pathologist informed the mother that on average most 1-month-old infants consume aboutA. 1 ounce of liquid per feeding.B. 2-6 ounces of liquid per feeding.C. 9-10 ounces per feeding.D. 11 or more ounces per feeding. B. 2-6 ounces of liquid per feeding.
- Measures of jitter and shimmer are becoming more common in use with voice patients because they can be useful in early detection of vocal pathology. Although you suspect that the otolaryngologist will find obvious vocal pathology, given Allison’s history of prolonged hoarseness, you still want to obtain measures of jitter and shimmer because these can serve as an excellent baseline, especially if Allison has phonosurgery. When you take these measures, you might expect to seeA. a small amount of shimmer and a large amount of jitter.B. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1 dB of variation across vibratorycycles when shimmer is measured.C. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1 dB of variation across vibratory cycles when jitter is measured.D. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with Allison being able to sustain a vowel with approximately 15% shimmer. B. large amounts of both jitter and shimmer, with more than 1 dB of variation across vibratorycycles when shimmer is measured.
- You decide to use gestural-assisted augmentative and alternative communication with a child who has some proficiency in American Sign Language. Which type of symbols would be helpful to use in this situation?A. Sig symbolsB. Premack-type symbolsC. BlissymbolsD. Picsyms A. Sig symbols
- Consonants and vowels have certain distinct characteristics. Of the following statements, which one accurately distinguishes the two classes of speech sounds?A. Vowels form the nucleus of syllables, whereas consonants release and arrest syllables.B. Consonants are syllabic, whereas vowels cannot stand alone to form syllables.C. The vocal tract is constricted for vowel productions, whereas it is open for consonantalproductions.D. Consonants may be described in terms of distinctive features, whereas vowels cannot be so described. A. Vowels form the nucleus of syllables, whereas consonants release and arrest syllables.
- Linguavelars are produced byA. raising the tip of the tongue to make contact with the alveolar ridge.B. the tongue coming in contact with the hard palate.C. the back of the tongue rising to contact the velum.D. the tongue making contact with the upper teeth. C. the back of the tongue rising to contact the velum.
- You refer a patient to an audiologist because you suspect that the patient might have a hearing loss. You ask the audiologist to inform you about the patient’s threshold of hearingfor selected frequencies. In response to your request, the audiologist willA. tell you the intensity at which tones are faintly heard at least 75% of the time they are presented in a pure-tone hearing test.B. inform you of the intensity level at which tones are faintly heard at least 25% of the time in a speech reception threshold test.C. inform you of the intensity level at which tones are faintly heard at least 50% of the time in a masked speech reception threshold test.D. tell you that the threshold of hearing is the quietest sound a human can detect. D. tell you that the threshold of hearing is the quietest sound a human can detect.
- Which articulation therapy approach emphasizes both the syllable as the basic unit of speech and the concept of phonetic environment?A. McDonald’s sensory-motor approachB. Irwin and Weston’s paired stimuli approachC. Baker and Ryan’s Monterey Articulation ProgramD. Van Riper’s traditional approach A. McDonald’s sensory-motor approach