2024 HESI Pathophysiology Practice RN Test V1 – V2 | Guaranteed A+ Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100%

2024 HESI Pathophysiology Practice RN Test V1 – V2 | Guaranteed A+ Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100%

2024 HESI Pathophysiology Practice RN Test V2
Guaranteed A+ Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100%

1. when maintained well, maintains skin and mucous membranes and is also
   essential in reducing host susceptibility:
   Answer:
   Nutrition
2. pts with advanced cancer are often _:
   Answer:
   Malnourished
3. involves the administration of a nutrient mixture directly into a peripheral
   vein:
   Answer:
   total parenteral nutrition
4. asymptomatic disease with mild discomfort, diarrhea, or constipation and
   flatulence which can be excused for other reasons:
   Answer:
   Diverticulosis
5. during acute episodes, food intake should be reduced along with antimicrobial
   drugs taken as needed; treated by increasing the bulk in the diet,
   omitting foods such as seeds or popcorn, and encouraging regular bowel
   movements without constipation:
   Answer:
   Diverticulosis
6. includes the pituitary gland, the two adrenal glands, the thyroid gland, the
   four parathyroid glands, the endocrine portion of the pancreas, the gonads,
   the pineal gland, and the thymus:
   Answer:

endocrine glands

7. secrete hormones directly into the blood, in contrast to exocrine glands
   that secrete into a duct:
   Answer:
   endocrine glands
8. chemical messengers that affect blood glucose levels, including insulin,
   glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol, and growth hormone:
   Answer:
   Hormones
9. develops more frequently in patients with Type 2 diabetes; often the patient
   is an older person with an infection or one who has overindulged in carbs,
   thereby using more insulin than anticipated:
   Answer:
   HHNC
10. condition may be difficult to diagnose initially; severe cellular dehydration
    results in neurologic deficits, muscle weakness, difficulties with speech,
    and abnormal reflexes:
    Answer:
    HHNC
11. hyperglycemia and dehydration develop because of the relative insulin
    deficit, but sufficient insulin is available to prevent ketoacidosis:
    Answer:
    HHNC
12. 1 nursing intervention with a patient who has HHNC is: Answer:
    maintain a patent
    airway!
13. low is a risk factor for osteoporosis:
    Answer:
    bone mass
14. have higher risk for osteoporosis:
    Answer:
    Women
15. 2 most critical stages of life in which osteoporosis can develop:
    Answer:
    children
    and elderly
16. osteoporosis is common in older individuals, especially women with
    deficiency:
    Answer:
    postmenopausal, estrogen
17. activity is less effective with advancing age:
    Answer:
    osteoblastic activity
18. decreased , factors, deficits, low vitamin _, or low are
    all factors of osteoporosis:
    Answer:
    mobility, hormonal, calcium, D, protein
19. excessive intake is a contributor to osteoporosis:
    Answer:
    Caffeine
20. positive results of a pregnancy test are based on the presence of this:

Answer:
hCG

21. some pregnancy tests can detect pregnancy as early as:
    Answer:
    the first day
    following a missed period
22. a second pregnancy test is recommended within a if the first test is
    negative:
    Answer:
    Week
23. this kind of pregnancy test should be performed if it is ectopic:
    Answer:
    serum
    pregnancy test
24. this level is expected to double about every 48 hours in a normal pregnancy;
    if failed to double, the pregnancy may be ectopic:
    Answer:
    beta- hCG
25. administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disorders:
    Answer:
    vitamin K
26. the sterile gut of a newborn lacks intestinal bacteria necessary for the
    synthesis of this vitamin:
    Answer:
    vitamin K
    get pdf at https://learnexams.com/search/study?query=hesi

2024 HESI Pathophysiology Practice Test
Guaranteed A+Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100%

1. After talking w/ the HCP, a male pt continues to have questions about the results
   of a prostatic surface antigen (PSA) screening test and asks the nurse how the PSA
   levels become elevated. The nurse should explain which pathophysiological
   mechanism?:
   Answer:
   As the prostate gland enlarges, its cells contribute more PSA in the circulating blood
   PSA is a glycoprotein found in prostatic epithelial cells, and elevations are used as
   a specific tumor markers. Elevations in PSA are r/t gland volume, ie. benign BPH,
   prostatitis, and cancer of the prostate, indicating tumor cell load. PSA levels are
   also used to monitor response to therapy
2. A 26 yr old male client w/ Hodgkin’s disease is scheduled to undergo radiation
   therapy. The clinet expresses concern about the effect of radiation on
   his ability to have children. What info should the nurse provide?:
   Answer:
   Permanent
   sterility occurs in the male client who receive radiation
   Low sperm count and loss of motility are seen in males w/ Hodgkin’s disease b/f
   any therapy. Radiotherapy often results in permanent aspermia, or sterility
3. The nurse hears short, high-pitched sounds just b/f the end of inspiration
   in the right and left lower lobes when auscultating a client’s lungs. How
   should this finding be recorded?:
   Answer:
   Crackles in the right and left lower lobes
   Fine crackles – short, high-pitched sounds heard just b/f the end of inspiration that
   are the result of rapid equalization of pressure when collaped alveoli or terminal
   bronchioles suddenly snap open
   Wheezing is a continuous high-pitched squeaking or musical sound caused by
   rapid vibration of bronchial walls that are 1st evident on expiration and may be
   audible
4. A client is admitted to the ER w/ a tension pneumothorax. Which assessment
   should the nurse expect to ID?:

Answer:
A deviation of the trachea toward the side
opposite of the pneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax is caused by rapid accumulation of air in the pleural space,
causing severely high intrapleural pressure. This results in collapse of the lung,
and the mediastinum shifts toward the unaffected side, which is subsequently
compressed

5. A client who is receiving a whole blood transfusion dv’s chills, fever, and a
   HA 30 min after the transfusion is started. The nurse shold recognize these sx as
   characteristic of what rxn?:
   Answer:
   A febrile transfusion reaction
   Sx of a febrile reaction include sudden chills, fever, HA, flushing, and muscle pain.
   An allergic rxn is the response of histamine release which is characterized by
   flushing, itching, and urticaria. It exhibits an exaggerated allergic response that
   progresses to shock and possible cardiac arrest
   an acute hemolytic reaction presents w/ fever, chills, but is hallmarked by the onset
   of low back pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, vascular collapse, hemoglobinuria, dark
   urine, ARF, shock, cardiac arrest, and even death
6. The nurse is analyzing the waveforms of a client’s ECG. What finding indicates
   a disturbance in electrical conduction in the ventricles?:
   Answer:
   QRS interval
   of 0.14 second
   the normal duration of the QRS is 0.04 – 0.12 sec
   T wave is 0.16 sec;
   PR is 0.12 – 0.20 sec;
   QT is 0.31-0.38 sec
7. Several hrs after surgical repair of an AAA, the client dvps left flank
   pain. the nurse determines the client’s urinary output is 20 m.;hr for the
   past 2 hrs. The nurse should conclude that these findings support which
   complication?:
   Answer:
   Renal artery embolization
   get pdf at https://learnexams.com/search/study?query=hesi