2024 HESI Practice Exam 1 – 2 | Guaranteed A+ Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100%
2024 HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
Guaranteed A+ Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100%
- The RN is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed iwth type 2 DM.
What information is most important for the RN to teach the client about
life-style changes?:
Answer:
Portion-controlled, heart healthy diet selections - The RN suspects that a female client is altering her own diabetic journals.
Which lab test should the RN review?:
Answer:
Hemoglobin A1C - The RN is assessing the client regarding the need to increase vitamin B12.
Which foods should the RN instruct the client to include?:
Answer:
Cheese, eggs, fish - The home health RN is caring for a client with a stage III pressure ulcer. The
RN recognizes which food group that contains zinc should be added to the
client’s diet:
Answer:
Meats and shellfish - The RN receives four new admissions in an assisted living community.
Which client should the RN assess for a higher caloric diet?:
Answer:
A client with bacterial pneumonia - Orthodox Jewish client can have what?:
Answer:
lamb chops with mint jelly - Client’s knowledge of low-sodium menu selections:
Answer:
White rice/steamed veggies and cottage cheese/sliced tomatoes - Lactose intolerant client needs foods enriched with calcium and vit d:
Answer:
Fortified soy products - Stress incontinence dietary change:
Answer:
avoid alcohol and caffeine - Instructions for client experiencing dumping syndrome:
Answer:
Fluids should be limited to eight oz with meals - Recommended food for postoperative colectomy and colostomy:
Answer:
Chicken noodle soup - reduce odor in colostomy:
Answer:
eat foods with yogurt
drunk buttermilk
eat parsley - vitamin deficiency increases the susceptibility of bleeding:
Answer:
Vit K - continuous feeding through a NG tube – position to prevent aspiration?: –
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2024 HESI Practice Exam 2
Guaranteed A+ Actual Questions and Answers, Complete 100%
- Which action should the nurse implement when preparing to measure the
fundal height of a pregnant client?:
Answer:
To accurately measure the fundal height, the bladder must be empty to avoid
elevation of the uterus. - The nurse identifies crepitus when examining the chest of a newborn who
was delivered vaginally. Which further assessment should the nurse perform?-:
Answer:
The most common neonatal birth trauma due to a vaginal delivery is fracture of
the clavicle. Although an infant may be asymptomatic, a fractured clavicle should
be suspected if an infant has limited use of the affected arm, malposition of the
arm, an asymmetric Moro reflex, crepitus over the clavicle, focal swelling or
tenderness, or cries when the arm is moved. - One hour after giving birth to an 8-pound infant, a client’s lochia rubra has
increased from small to large and her fundus is boggy despite massage. The
client’s pulse is 84 beats/minute and blood pressure is 156/96. The healthcare
provider prescribes Methergine 0.2 mg IM × 1. What action should the nurse
take immediately?:
Answer:
Methergine is contraindicated for clients with elevated blood pressure, so the nurse
should contact the healthcare provider and question the prescription - The nurse is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client
requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?:
Answer:
A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilatation and the presenting part
is not engaged.
When the presenting part is ballottable, it is floating out of the pelvis. In such a
situation, the cord can descend before the fetus causing a prolapsed cord, which is
an emergency situation. - the Silverman-Anderson Index:
Answer:
A Silverman-Anderson Index has five categories with scores of 0, 1, or 2. The total
score ranges from 0 to 10. A total score of 0 means the infant has no dyspnea, a
total score of 10 indicates maximum respiratory distress.
- A client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints
of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. Which question is most
important for the nurse to ask this client?:
Answer:
Do you have a history of rheumatic fever?
Clients with a history of rheumatic fever may develop mitral valve prolapse, which
increases the risk for cardiac decompensation due to the increased blood volume
that occurs during pregnancy, so obtaining information about this client’s health
history is a priority. - The nurse is assessing a client who is having a non-stress test (NST)
at 41-weeks gestation. The nurse determines that the client is not having
contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR
accelerations are occurring. What action should the nurse take?:
Answer:
The client should be asked if she has felt the fetus move.
An NST is used to determine fetal well-being, and is often implemented when
postmaturity is suspected. A “reactive” NST occurs if the FHR accelerates 15 bpm
for 15 seconds in response to the fetus’ own movement, and is “nonreactive” if no
FHR acceleration occurs in response to fetal movement. - A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment
finding is most significant in planning this client’s care?:
Answer:
A 4+ reflex in a client with pregnancy-induced hypertension indicates
hyperreflexia, which is an indication of an impending seizure. - The nurse assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and
obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense
between contractions, BP 110/68, FHR 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated
and uneffaced. Based on these assessment findings, what intervention should
the nurse implement?:
Answer:
Monitoring bleeding from peripheral sites is the priority intervention. This client is
presenting with signs of placental abruption. Disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC) is a complication of placental abruptio, characterized by
abnormal bleeding.
- A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which
assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?:
Answer:
Three plus deep tendon reflexes and hyperclonus are indicative of an impending
convulsion and requires immediate attention. - Immediately after birth a newborn infant is suctioned, dried, and placed
under a radiant warmer. The infant has spontaneous respirations and the
nurse assesses an apical heart rate of 80 beats/minute and respirations of 20
breaths/minute. What action should the nurse perform next?:
Answer:
The nurse should immediately begin positive pressure ventilation because this
infant’s vital signs are not within the normal range, and oxygen deprivation leads to
cardiac depression in infants. (The normal newborn pulse is 100 to 160
beats/minute and respirations are 40 to 60 breaths/minute.) - A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In
reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered
premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL
should the nurse document in this client’s record?:
Answer:
THIS QUESTION WAS CONTRAINDICATED. EVOLVE SAYS THIS BUT
CORRECTLY IT IS SUPPOSE TO BE 3-1-2-0-3
The client has been pregnant 3 times including the current pregnancy (G-3). She
had one full-term infant (T-1). She also had a preterm (P-1) twin pregnancy (a
multifetal gestation is considered one birth when calculating parity). There were no
abortions (A-0), so this client has a total of 3 living children. - The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in
preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the
nurse to assess the client for which condition?:
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