2024 NAB Complete Bundle ( ALL TOPIC ) ( Exam V1 – V2, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Review, Study Guide , Practice Questions, etc.. ) Questions and Answers Included | Passed | A Rated Guide | New Full Exam Actual

2024 NAB Complete Bundle ( ALL TOPIC ) ( Exam V1 – V2, Practice Exam, Comprehensive Review, Study Guide , Practice Questions, etc.. ) Questions and Answers Included | Passed | A Rated Guide | New Full Exam Actual

2024 CORE-NAB EXAM
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. Written policies and procedures are used by a health care organization forthe of the
   following except:
   -to communicate what management expects in any situation
   -to prepare staff for dealing with emergency situations
   -to establish the management style for operating the health care organization
   -to set guidelinesforstaff to follow in delivery of care
   Answer: -to establish the management style for operating the health care organization
2. Which of the following does not support care recipient centered care concepts:
   -Upon admission, the care recipient indicated a preference to bathe at night,the health care
   organization policy requires all baths to be given on the day the shift.
   -Breakfast is served from 6:30 am to 8:00 am ; the care recipient chooses tosleep until 9:00am
   so the staff makes sure cereal and milk are available.
   -Upon admission the care recipient was allowed to bring their personal recliner to the health
   care organization to furnish their room.
   -Prior to living in the health care organization, the care recipient enjoyed fishing; the staff
   arrange for the care recipient to attend the annual fishing rodeo located 30 milesfrom the health
   care organization.
   Answer: -Upon admission, thecare recipient indicated a preference to bathe at night, the health
   care organizationpolicy requires all baths to be given on the day the shift.
3. Which of the following changes in dietary would most closely reflect theprinciples behind
   culture change?
   -Providing set meal service times with little flexibility to maintain a dailyroutine for the care
   recipients.
   -Liberalizing therapeutic dietsto provide more food choicesto care recipients.
   -Increasing the number of pureed or soft diet orders to make feeding easierfor the staff.
   -Structuring meal times to the benefit of staff schedules.
   Answer: -Liberalizing therapeutic diets to provide more food choices to care recipients.
4. If a care recipient refuses to consume all of a meal initially given to him/her,the staff should:
   -Do nothing; it is the care recipients right to refuse meals
   -Document that the care recipient was being uncooperative for that particularmeal
   -offer a suitable meal replacement or nutrition supplement to provide adequate calories
   -Force-feed the care recipient the meal asserved
   Answer: -offer a suitable meal replacement or nutrition supplement to provide adequate
   calories
5. In the event of an error in administration of medication, which of the following should be
   notified first?
   -Report to the attending physician
   -Report the error to the head of nursing services
   -Report to the administrator
   -report to the family
   Answer: -Report to the attending physician
6. Which of the following is NOT a step used by management to deal withunexcused
   absences or excessive absenteeism by an employee?
   -Interviewing employee upon return to work
   -stating policies after an infraction
   -Recognizing the workers positive work performance as a means of encouragement
   -Imposing penalties for unexcused and excessive absences
   Answer: -Recognizing theworkers positive work performance as a means of encouragement
7. Which one of the following is a key factor in managing cultural diversity inthe workforce?
   -Job roles
   -Job responsibilities
   -Education and training programs
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2024 NAB CORE Practice Exam
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. If a medical device malfunctions, the Occupational Safety and Health Ad- ministration
   (OSHA) requiresthe administrator to report the incident to the:
   Answer: 2.manufacturing producer
2. Emergency exits must have which of the following components?:
3. Exitaccess (lit corridor), exit door (locked from inside or outside), and exit discharge(access
   to street or public way)
4. Exit sign (must be lit), exit access (corridor), and exit (must be double doors)
5. Exit sign, exit access (lit corridor), and exit door (locked from outside)
6. Exit access (lit corridor), exit (must be double doors), and exit discharge (three feet of clear
   sidewalk)
   Answer 1
7. Which of the following Occupational Safety and Health Administration(OSHA) violations
   is least likely to be associated with a fine?:
8. Serious
9. Non-serious
10. De minimus
11. imminent danger
    Answer3
12. The administration of the budget by the administrator::
13. requires intervention by the governing body
14. is more costly than by staff
15. is a controlling function
16. is also part of the planning
    Answer 1
17. Healthcare organizations are in the business of marketing::
18. assistance
19. compassion
20. wellness
21. services
    Answer 4
22. A care recipient in a long-term care healthcare organization disagrees with management’s
    decision regarding an aspect of care. The care recipient feelsthat is could adversely affect the
    health, safety, welfare, or rights of care recipients. The individual or group most responsible for
    acknowledging, investing,and resolving the concern is the::
23. ombudsman
24. social worker
25. care recipient council president
26. governing body
    Answer2
27. Stakeholders are defined as::
28. any constituent group that has an interest inwhat outcomes the organization procedures
29. the individuals who have the most to lose financially if the organization closes
30. any group of investors who own stock in the organization
31. the staff, physicians, and local groups who want to see the organization succeed
    Answer 3
32. The purpose of a corporate compliance plan is to::
    1.reduce fraud and abuseand to establish internal controls for responsible organization
    conduct
33. avoid charges of price-fixing and the violation of federal anti-kickback statutes
34. identify the corrective steps necessary for the removal of quality indicator flagsfrom a
    healthcare organization’s profile
35. establish policies and procedures for conducting criminal background checks onall officers
    and directors
    Answer 1
36. The primary benefits of management by walking around are::
37. listening,teaching, and facilitating
38. evaluating, controlling, and planning
39. listening, planning, and organizing
40. directing, evaluating, and innovating
    Answer3
41. What function of the management process includes gathering informationand input?:
42. Directing
43. Decision-making
44. Controlling
45. Organizing
    Answer4
46. Management by walking around is an approach that allowsthe administrator to::
    1.see first-hand the needs of the care recipient
47. control the staff in order to minimize care recipient and family complaints
48. ensure the healthcare organization’s license is not in jeopardy due to regulatorycompliance
49. innovate new approaches and physical plant improvements to enhance publicrelations
    Answer 1
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2024 NAB Exam – Leadership & Strategy
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. In a chance conversation with the owner of an eight-facility chain, the newlyhired
   administrator for the oldest facility in the chain indicates that, becausethe mortgage is fully
   retired, the administrator will concentrate more on beingeffective than efficient since the
   quality indicators are all at or above the state’s average.The owner would likely .
   A. Be pleased
   B. Be distressed
   C. Be content
   D. Praise the newly hired administrator
   Answer: B. Be distressed.
2. Under the Prospective Payment System (PPS), nursing facilities’ reimbursed costs .
   A. Were about the same as previously
   B. Were more bundled
   C. Used an unbundled cost structure
   D.Were reimbursement for actual costs
   Answer: B.Were more bundled.
   Medicare (and Medicaid) forced facilities to give more services for a single reimbursement
   rate than had been the case previously. PPS utilized an all-inclusive ratefor Medicare Part A
   beneficiaries.
3. In recent years, Medicare has .
   A. Allowed facilities to make a modest pro
   B. Shifted more costs onto nursing facilities
   C. Eased up on economic pressures previously placed on facilities
   D. Remained relatively unchanged in its reimbursement structure
   Answer: B. Shiftedmore costs onto nursing facilities.
   Medicare, to cut its own costs, has required facilities to give more services under the Medicare
   reimbursement given. Both Prospective Payment System (PPS) and Patient Driven Payment
   Models(PDPMs) have utilized per diem or all-inclusive ratesfor reimbursement.
4. The applicant for the administrator position in a facility near a large teachinghospital insists
   that, as before in hisrural facility,if hired they would not let theMedicare reimbursement policies
   affect their case mix.This applicant .
   A. Should be hired
   B. Is likely to succeed if hired
   C. Can likely succeed in his goal

D. Is out of touch
Answer: D.Is out of touch.
Case mix in the typical rural facility is hard to manipulate and often predisposes thefacility to
accept all potential admissions. However, in the teaching hospital setting,the facility normally
must maximize the number of Medicare rehabilitation residentsto remain competitive and
solvent. Monitoring and maximizing case mix today is a very important function of the
administrator.

5. The medical supplies provider tells the administrator of a facility that has not paid bills for
   the past three months but is now operating under a bank- ruptcy judge’s approved plan for
   restructuring that no more deliveries will bemade until past bills are fully paid.The medical
   supplies provider .
   A. Is smart to cut losses at that point
   B. Does not understand how bankruptcy works
   C. Will now likely get his past due bills paid
   D. Is farsighted
   Answer: B. Does not understand how bankruptcy works.
   Under bankruptcy plans, the court ensuresthat all current bills are paid.The medicalsupplies
   provider does not understand the bankruptcy laws.
6. An administrator who adopts the leadership-by-walking-around (LBWA) approach by
   walking through the facility once a week and intently observinghas .
   A. Become an effective leader
   B. Chosen a good management style
   C. Failed to understand LBWA
   D. Implemented a useful strategy
   Answer: C. Failed to understand LBWA.
   LBWA, to be effective, must be done daily; weekly is too infrequent.
7. The candidate for administrator said that they used a variety of administrative styles but
   could not say exactly which they would use in every circumstance.The interviewer should be
   .
   A. Favorably impressed
   B. Unfavorably impressed
   C. Concerned about possible indecisiveness
   D. Looking for one leadership style
   Answer: A. Favorably impressed.
   This candidate understands the need for exibility in leadership styles and

believesthat several styles are necessary for effective leadership.

8. The candidate for administrator indicated that they consistently chose thecharismatic style
   of leadership.This should the interviewer.
   A. Reassure
   B. Alert
   C. Con rm the candidate’s qualications to
   D. Please
   Answer: B. Alert.
   Charismatic leadership is given to leaders by followers.Leaders cannot just declarethemselves
   charismatic.
9. The nurse supervisor who had just been appointed director of nursing announced at the
   rst department head meeting that they had circulated a memo among the nursesthat only
   formal communications were to be allowedin the nursing department.The administrator should
   .
   A. Be relieved
   B. Con rm the decision
   C. Be supportive
   D. Anticipate problems
   Answer: D. Anticipate problems.
   It is impossible to prevent informal communications among nurses. The nurse supervisor does
   not seem to have enough communication savvy to understand this.
10. The department head was not surprised to learn that an employee had heard only the
    positive commentsto the employee and ignored the criticisms.The department head’s grasp of
    the communication process is .
    A. De cient
    B. Appropriate
    C. Out of focus
    D. Inadequate
    Answer: B. Appropriate.
    The department head understands that employees often engage in selective hearing, that is,
    hearing good news and screening out anything unpleasant.
11. The administrator routinely accepted as a nearly exclusive information source the director
    of nursing’s positive reports that nursing was going well.The administrator is .
    A. Showing appropriate con dence in the director of nursing
    B. Utilizing the director of nursing properly
    C. Realizing a successful appointment has been made

D. Placing themselves at risk
Answer: D. Placing themselves at risk.
The administrator must get information from all levels of management to know whatis going
on. It is dangerous to rely solely on one person.

12. Congress and the federal rule makers behave as if the facility will run successfully if
    Congress and the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
    (CMS) can write enough rules.They are .
    A. Incorrect
    B. Correct, according to behavior theory
    C. Pessimistic about the need for rules
    D. Correct, according to emerging management theory
    Answer: A. Incorrect.
    It is impossible and undesirable to try to write enough rules to make every facility function
    successfully. It is important to realize that not all facilities can run the same based on
    population, resident mix, niche of residents served, and many otherfactors.
13. The administrator insists that a timely copy of all reports generated withinthe facility come
    across their desk before anyone signs them.The administrator is .
    A. Not rationalizing their management information system
    B. Making appropriate and desirable requests
    C. Exercising good judgment
    D. Initiating an appropriate management information system
    Answer: A. Not rationalizing their management information system.
    The administrator may have all reports made available to them but requiring that the
    administrator sees all reports before staff responsible for producing them signs off on them
    would likely be dysfunctional for getting the facility’s work done in a timelymanner.
14. Corporate sends a directive to its agship facility administrator directingthe administrator’s
    attention more toward the outcome of resident care thanthe cost of resident care during the
    coming 12 months. Corporate is more concerned with than with .
    A. Effectiveness/efficiency
    B. Efficiency/effectiveness
    C. Expenses/inputs
    D. Expenses/throughput
    Answer: A. Effectiveness/efficiency.
    Corporate wants that facility to have as nearly a de ciency-free inspection as possible and is
    willing to pay a little more for that year’s performance to achieve this.
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2024 NAB Exam – NHA
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. Effect or seriousness of deficient facility practice on care recipient/client/patient outcome.
   There are four levels (as described in the FederalEnforcement Grid for nursing homes).
   Answer: Severity
2. Giving away property for less than it is worth or for the sole purpose ofbecoming eligible
   for Medicaid.
   Answer: Transfer of Assets
3. A table developed by the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services that definesseverity
   and scope of federal deficiencies and indicated whether plansof correction and remedies are
   necessary.
   Answer: Enforcement Grid
4. A tool to help facilities identify care recipient’s needs and strengths anddevelop an
   appropriate care plan. The federal system includes: the MDS, CAAs, and the utilization
   guidelines.
   Answer: Resident Assessment Instrument (RAI)
5. A collection of nursing facility care recipient classification systems used in a variety of case
   mix indexed reimbursement systems.
   Answer: Minimum Data Set(MDS)
6. Changes to the Federal Social Security Act that significantly changed hownursing homes
   and home health agencies are regulated for Medicare and Medicaid certification.
   Answer: Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA)
7. Minor deficiencies or violations, but a facility generally meets the intent of federal or state
   regulations. On the Federal Enforcement Grid, SubstantialCompliance is equated to findings
   in boxes A-C.
   Answer: Substantial Compliance
8. National association that prescribes safety codes and definitions for stateand local agencies
   to adopt as building regulations.
   Answer: National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
9. A core set of screening, clinical, and functional status elements, includingcommon
   definitions and coding categories, which forms the foundations of a comprehensive
   assessment for all residents of nursing homes certified toparticipate in Medicare or Medicaid.
   Answer: Minimum Data Set (MDS)
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2024 NAB Exam Comprehensive Review
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. OSHA
   Answer: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
2. Primary purpose of OSHA
   Answer: Ensuring employee safety and health.Why? Thefacility’s most valuable asset is it’s
   employees.
3. OSHAs goalsthrough the National Emphasis Program
   Answer: Reduce muscoskeletal injuries for employees
4. OSHA will target facilities with a high incident rate with DART.DART meansAnswer: Days away, restricted, transfers
5. Subject to OSHA survey: if DART rate of or more employees per 100
   FTEs
   Answer: 10
6. OSHA 300
   Answer: – Annual log of injuries and illnesses
7. OSHA300A
   Answer: – Summary of OSHA300, but does not include the names of employees. Must be
   posted in the facility Feb 1 – APRIL 30 of each year.
8. OSHA 301
   Answer: First form completed when an employee is injured or becomes ill dueto a work related
   incident.
9. OSHA records must be kept for
   Answer: 5 years
10. If OSHA requestsrecords,they must be submitted within
    Answer: 4 hours ofrequest
11. Work related deaths muat be reported to OSHA within
    Answer: 8 hours
12. Any injury that results in hospitalization, amputation of a limb, or loss ofan eye must be
    reported within
    Answer: 24hrs
13. OSHAS standards for BBP
    Answer:
    -BBP- HIV and HBV
    -All facilities must have a BBP training program which includes how to handlebloodspills
    -Mandates protection against occupational exposures
14. Occupational Exposures by OSHA
    Answer: Standard precautions, proper handlingand disposal of contaminated sharps and other
    materials and use of PPE
15. An effective infection control program must have
    Answer:
    1) PPRs with evidencebased infection control practices
    2) Program thar includes planning, organizing, implementing, operating, and monitoring all
    aspects of the program
    3) Infection preventionist
    4) Surveillance (monitoring, data analysis, documentation)
    5) Education and training
    6) Antibiotic review
16. The FLSA is administered by
    Answer: The US Department of Labor
17. Primary purpose of the Fair Labor Standards Act
    Answer: Provides certain guaran-tees to employees about the minimum rate of pay for
    overtime, minimum wages, child labor and the Equal Pay Act.
18. Who imposes the minimum wage?
    Answer: Wage and Hour Division of the US Deptof Labor
19. Equal Employment Opportunity
    Answer: Part of the FLSA and is administered and enforced by the EEOC which prohibitssexbased wage discrimination between menand women
20. EEOC
    Answer: An ammendement to the Civil Rights Act and is a unit of the DOL.
21. Laws enforced by EEOC
    Answer: Civil Rights Act(anti discrimination of religion, sex, origin, etc) EPA (gender
    equalit, Rehabilitation Act (disabilities in the federal govt),ADA, Pregnancy discrimination
    Act.
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2024 NAB Exam Review
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. What isthe primary focus ofthe Life safetyCode?
   Answer: Fire safety in buildings andstructures.
2. What are 2 other namesforRespondent Superior?
   Answer: Strict liability and vicariousliability
3. What is an ear doctor or hearing specialist called?
   Answer: Audiologist
4. The monetary fine in paragraph 40 above will not be imposed if the facilitywaives their
   right to an administrative hearing to appeal the citation within days
   Answer: 60 days
5. Year end OSHA report must be posted on between which dates?
   Answer: Feb 1 toApril 30
6. The care plan must be done within what time frame of admission of theresident?
   Answer: 21 days
7. The care plan must be done within how days of when the MDS is signed offby the RN?
   Answer: 7 days
8. A comprehensive assessment must be done within how many days ofadmission?
   Answer: 14
9. You must have an RN work which days of the week?
   Answer: every day
10. Bacteria grows within which of the following temperature ranges?
    Answer: 42degrees to 134 degrees
11. Weight change in 1 month is percent
    Answer: 5
12. What is clear width for a wheelchair?
    Answer: 36 inchs
13. Percentage of weight loss for 90 days
    Answer: 7.5
14. What is Clear Access for a wheelchair?
    Answer: 36 inchs
15. Medication errors must not exceed percent
    Answer: 5%
16. A life safety code violation would be cited as which of the following?
    Answer: K
17. What 3 people determine the contents of the emergency medication kit?-
    Answer: Director of Nursing Medical Director and Pharmacist
18. What 3 elements determine a residents COMFORT in their room?
    Answer: lightingsound temperature
19. The consultant pharmacist must check the facility records of receipt anddisposition of
    medications received from the pharmacy how often?
    Answer: quarterly
20. What is ergonomics?
    Answer: Proper movement of the body to reduce stress on thebody and repetitive injuries
21. What areCASPERReports 3 and 4?
    Answer: 5 years ofsurvey history (2567 and plansof correction)
22. What 5 groups are protected by the Civil Right Act?
    Answer: RRGNC (race, religion,gender, color and national origin)
23. What is the From 671?
    Answer: The Facility license
24. What is Form 672?
    Answer: The staffing and census form
25. Matrix and roster of resident condition
    Answer: form 802
26. What is the General Duty Clause under OSHA?
    Answer: Must provide a safe work-place free of health hazards
27. What is PILER?
    Answer:

Profit
Income
Loss
Expenses
Revenue

28. What is LANCE?
    Answer:
    Liabilities
    Assets
    Net worth
    Capital
    Equity
29. Title 18 is which program?
    Answer: medicare
30. What is a delusion?
    Answer: Believing something that is not based in reality
31. Tile 19 is which program?
    Answer: medicaide
32. What is COPD?
    Answer: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
33. What is the formula for Current ratio?
    Answer: Current assets divided by currentliabilities
34. Acid test Ratio is ?
    Answer: cash, accounts receivable and money market funds /current liabilities
35. An individual to be approved to self administrator medications must beassessed to be
    oriented X ?
    Answer: X3
36. vascular dementia
    Answer: Second most common type of dementia- caused by de- creased blood flow to parts
    of the brain which causes impairments.The symptomsare similar to Alzheimers. however
    Memory may not be severely affected
37. Alzheimer’s Disease
    Answer: Most common type of dementia.Early symptoms includedifficulty remembering
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2024 NAB Exam Study Guide
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. While Title XVIII (Medicare) and Title XIX (Medicaid) both refer to fire safety and
   construction information, the actual provisions in those areas are specified by:
2. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
4. Life Safety Code (LSC)
5. Uniform Building Codes (UBC)
   Answer: 3. Life Safety Code
6. Written policies and procedures are used by the facility for all of the following except:
7. To communicate what management expects in any situation.
8. To prepare staff for dealing with emergency situations.
9. To establish the management style for operating the facility.
10. To set guidelines for staff to follow in delivery of care.
    Answer: 3.To establish themanagement style for operating the facility.
11. When admitted to the nursing home, which of following is not required tobe given to the
    resident:
    1.The resident’s rights and rules and regulations governing resident conductand
    responsibilities during the stay in the facility.
12. Services to be provided and their associated cost.
13. The federal standards and state licensing rules for nursing facilities.
14. Information regarding an advance directive.
    Answer: 3.The federal standards andstate licensing rules for nursing facilities.
15. In the case of non-Medicare Part A residents,the initial resident assessmentmust be
    completed:
16. Within 10 days of admission.
17. Within 14 days of admission.
18. Within the first week of admission.
19. Prior to formally admitting the resident.
    Answer: 2.Within 14 days of admission.(Time frame set by CMS)
20. According to the federal certification standards, the QA committee is re-quired to meet:
21. When a problem arises that requires immediate attention.
22. At least twice a year.
23. At least quarterly.
24. When directed by the medical director.
    Answer: 3. At least quarterly.
25. A resident is admitted to a nursing home that has been certified as a (Medicare) Skilled
    Nursing Facility only.Which of the following is not requiredto be adhered to by the facility:
26. State Medicaid standards for payment.
27. SNF regulations.
28. State licensing regulations.
29. Office of Civil Rights laws.
    Answer: 1. State Medicaid standards for payment.
30. Unless a waiver has been secured, a registered nurse is required to be inthe facility:
31. At least eight hours within every 24 hour period.
32. At least eight consecutive hours a day,seven days a week.
33. At least eight consecutive hours Monday through Friday.
    4.There is no minimum number of hours required.
    Answer: 2.At least eight consecutivehours a day, seven days a week.
    8.Restorative care must be provided:
34. Only with the order of the facility’s physical therapist.
35. By specialized qualified staff for which the facility has contracted.
36. Only if the resident can’t provide his/her own care.
37. By nursing staff based on a comprehensive assessment.
    Answer: 4. By nursing staffbased on a comprehensive assessment.
38. The facility staff will determine what the needs of the resident are based on:
39. Quality indicator reports
40. Family interviews
41. The MDS assessments
42. Quality measures
    Answer: 3.The MDS assessments
43. Physician visits are required:
44. Monthly after the initial required visits
45. Quarterly after the initial required visits
46. Every 60 days after the initial required visits
47. Twice a year after the initial required visits
    Answer: 3. Every 60 days after the initialrequired visits
48. Which one below is an exception to when a facility may release resident identifiable
    information under the HIPAA Privacy Standard without the resident’s permission?
49. For a research study conducted by CMS
50. When any immediate family member requests it
51. To consumer groups
52. When a resident is transferred to another health care institution

Answer: 4.When aresident is transferred to another health care institution

12. Standard precautions(previously referred to as universal precautions) areto be used when
    providing personal care to:
13. All residents.
14. Residents with AIDS
15. Residents with Hepatitis
16. Residents withTuberculosis
    Answer: 1. All residents
17. All of the following are barriers regarding the recognition of chronic painexcept for:
18. Cognitive impairment and communication barriers (language or speech) hinder a resident’s
    ability to report pain or respond to caregiver’s questionsregarding pain.
19. Staff who are utilizing valid tools to screen for pain.
20. Elderly may not show verbal or non-verbal symptoms of pain.
21. Staff may not have knowledge of or be skilled in assessing pain.
    Answer: 2.Staff whoare utilizing valid tools to screen for pain.
22. Which of the following does notsupport resident centered care concepts?
23. Upon admission the resident indicates a preference to bathe at night, the facility policy
    requires all baths to be given on the day shift.
24. Breakfast is served from 6:30am to 8:00am; the resident chooses to sleep until 9:00am so
    the nursing staff makes sure cereal and milk are available at9:00
25. Upon admission the resident was allowed to bring his personal recliner to the facility to
    furnish his room
26. Prior to living in the nursing facility the resident enjoyed fishing; the activitystaff arrange for
    the resident to attend the annual fishing rodeo located 30 miles from the facility.
    Answer: 1. Upon admission the resident indicates a preference tobathe at night, the facility
    policy requires all baths to be given on the day shift.
27. Facilities are expected to provide a pleasant dining experience for allresidents.This
    includes all except:
28. Providing well-lit, well ventilated dining room
29. Providing adequate space and seating accommodations
30. Maintaining a level of dignity when serving all residents
31. Serving residents without attempting to honor resident food preferences
    Answer: 4.Serving residents without attempting to honor resident food preferences
32. Which one of the following is not a correct policy for dietary services?
33. Receiving of food for facility use must be from approved sources
34. Storage of food brought in by staff must be stored separately from facilityfood
35. Facilities are required to provide a therapeutic diet,prescribed by the dietaryconsultant, when a
    nutrition problem exists
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2024 NAB Exam STUDY STAN MUCINIC
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. CMS
   Answer: Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
2. Comprehensive assessment is due days after admission.
   Answer: 14
3. HHS stands for
   Answer: Health and Human Services.
4. ANSI
   Answer: American National Standards Institute
5. The quality assurance committee must meet at least per OBRA
   1987.
   Answer: quarterly
6. A change between 1/4″ and 1/2″ in levelsurface .
   Answer: Requires a beveled edge
7. A change in level surface over 1/2″ .
   Answer: requires ramp treatment
8. A leader who delegates decision making to subordinates while settinglarger objectives is
   using the style.
   Answer: laizze faire style
9. A passenger loading zone must be at least wide and long.
   Answer: 60″ wideand 20 ft long
10. A tag of or above would indicate substandard care.
    Answer: G
11. A violation with a severity requiring immediate action due to risk of injury, harm,
    impairment or death to a resident is a .
    Answer: Level 4
12. A violation is where the severity of negative outcomes that compromises a resident’s
    ability to maintain the highest physical,mental and psychosocialwell being.
    Answer: Level 3
13. Adding baking soda to food will primarily affect its .
    Answer: Nutuitive value
14. Administrators consult to compare outcomesto expectations.
    Answer: policiesand plans of actions
15. All furniture, equipment, boxes and supplies must be elevated inchesabove the
    floor to allow the floor directly underneath to be cleaned.
    Answer: 6
16. Doors must have a clear width of ” at openings and must be at a “
    angle to an accessible route.
    Answer: 32″, 90
17. Each level orstory of a building that houses patientsleeping and treatmentareas must be
    divided into smoke compartments.
    Answer: 2
18. Facilities that are licensed by the state adn certified to receive Medicare and Medicaid
    reimbursement must submit to .
    Answer: State and federal inspection
19. Grab bars and railings mustsupport a minimumweight of pounds.
    Answer: 250
20. Landings are required at the bottom and top of each stairway run and musthave a minimum
    width of .
    Answer: 60 square inches
21. Minimum clear width for a single wheelchair is continuously and
    at any one point.
    Answer: 36 , 32
22. Minimum wheelchair passing width for two wheelchairs is
    inches.
    Answer: 60
23. Non-compliance affecting a limited number of residents and locationswould be assigned
    a scope of .
    Answer: isolated
24. Nursing homes must have hearing aid compatible phones with volume control that can
    adjust the volume between a minimum of and a
    maximumof decibels
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2024 NAB Exam
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. Gerontologists Categories – How isYoung-Old Defined?
   Answer: 65 to 74 years old
2. Gerontologists Categories – How is Old-Old Defined?
   Answer: 75 to 84 years old
3. Gerontologists Categories- How is Oldest-Old Defined?
   Answer: Over 85 + years old
4. The morning meal must be served within how many hours afterthe previousmeal?
   Answer: 14 Hours, if the required evening snack is substantial and the resident approves 16
   hours may elapse
5. A full time social worker is required if the facility has more than how manybeds?
   Answer: 120 Beds
6. What qualifications are required of a full time social worker?
   Answer: BS (Bachelorsof Science) in Social work, psychology or rehabilitation counseling.
   Also, 1 year of supervised social work experience in a health-care setting
7. When can the DON act as charge nurse?
   Answer: When ADC (Average Daily Census)is 60 or lower
8. What is a substantial weight loss or gain?
   Answer: 5% gain/loss in one month or a10% gain/loss in a 6 month period
9. How often are physiciansrequired to visit their patients?
   Answer: Once every 30 daysfor the first 90 day period, then at least every 60 days thereafter
10. A comprehensive care plan must be developed with how many days ofMDS completion?
    Answer: 7 Days (Medicare or 14 days Medicaid)
11. If marked PRN a medication is administered?
    Answer: As Needed
12. If marked BID a medication is administered?
    Answer: Twice a Day
13. If markedTID a medication is administered?
    Answer: Three Times a Day
14. If marked QID a medication is administered?
    Answer: Four Times a Day
15. If marked QD a medication is administered?
    Answer: Every Day
16. If marked QOD a medication is administered?
    Answer: Every Other Day
17. If marked HS a medication is administered?
    Answer: At Bedtime
18. If marked AC a medication is administered?
    Answer: Before Meals
19. If marked PC a medication is administered?
    Answer: After Meals
20. If marked PO a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Orally (bymouth)
21. If marked R a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Rectally
22. If marked IV a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Intravenously
23. If marked IM a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Intramuscularly
24. If marked OD a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Right Eye
25. If marked OS a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Left Eye
26. If marked OU a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Both Eyes
27. If marked AD a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Right Ear
28. If marked AS a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Left Ear
29. If marked AU a medication should be given by which route?
    Answer: Both Ears
30. Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 11?
    Answer: Prevalence ofFecal Impaction
31. Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 15?
    Answer: Prevalence ofDehydration
32. Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 24?
    Answer: Prevalence ofStage 1-4 Pressure Ulcers
33. Quality Indicators (QI) will be flagged at what percentage?
    Answer: 90% Percentile(the higher the % the worse the flag)
34. Activities of Daily Living (ADL) include? (5 areas)
    Answer: Ambulation/Locomotion,Eating, Toileting, Grooming/Personal Hygiene/Bathing,
    and Communicating
35. How areControlled Substancesrated?
    Answer: On a Schedule from1 to 5.The higherthe # the more controlled the substance.
36. What controls are necessary for #2 scheduled substance?
    Answer: Must have Separate Locked Storage. Must be Accounted for Each Shift.
37. If an applicant isn’t hired how long must their application be kept in file?
    Answer: 1Year
38. How many hours of In-Service must C.N.A.’s have each year?
    Answer: 12 hours
39. How long can aides work before they become certified?
    Answer: 4 Months(i.e..Theyare going through classes or waiting to take a test for
    certification)
40. A facility must give how many days notice to a Union for a desired contractchange?
    Answer: 90 Days
41. A Union must give how many days notice before a strike?
    Answer: 10 Days
42. An I-9 must be retained for how long?
    Answer: 3 years from the date of hire or until 1year after termination (whichever is later)
43. Employeesreturning from Military leave must apply to return to work withinhow many days
    of discharge?
    Answer: 90 Days
44. What does FMLA stand for?
    Answer: Family and Medical Leave Act
45. What benefits does FMLA provide?
    Answer: 12 Weeks unpaid leave
46. How many days notice must an employee give to go out on FMLA?
    Answer: 30 DaysNotice
47. An accidental death must be reported to OSHA within what time frame?
    Answer: -Within 8 hours
48. Type of leadership known asTop down leadership?
    Answer: Autocratic
49. Balance sheet is made up off which three items?
    Answer: Assets, Liabilities, andOwners Equity (all on a particular date)
50. An Income Statement shows?
    Answer: Revenues and Expenses
51. Liabilities that may or may not be incurred by a facility depending on theoutcome of a
    future event?
    Answer: Contingent Liabilities (ex. Court Case)
52. A fixed daily payment?
    Answer: Per Diem
53. Residents funds in excess of what amount must be kept in an interestbearing account?
    Answer: Medicaid- $50; Medicare-$100
54. (Cash + Current Receivables) / Current Liabilities =
    Answer: Acid Test Ratio
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2024 NAB NHA Exam- Human Resources
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. purpose of human resources: to provide quality resident care with efficiencyand economy.
   MUST
   Answer:||1. Employ qualified person for each position.|2. Create a POSITIVE WORK
   ENVIRONMENT
2. What are the three factorsthat promote positive work environment betweenstaff and
   management:
   Answer: a. POLICIES and PROCEDURES- clear guidelines for employees to work by. |b.
   SOCIAL ENVIRONMENT – people like to wrk with others(few hermits) i like the I work
   with: pleasant, congenial, cooperative |c. WORK ITSELF- interesting, challenging, satisfying,
   fulfilling – i like what i do. |
3. EEOC
   Answer: Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
4. OSHA
   Answer: Occupational Safety and Health Administration
5. INS
   Answer: Immigration and Naturalization Service
6. Policies, Procedures, and Rules (PPR’s)
   Answer: 1. FIRST STEP in human resource management|2. PURPOSE: provide information
   on what management expects of employees and what employees expect from management|3.
   DEFINITIONS| poli- cies – flexible| rules – inflexible|4.EMPLOYEES HANDBOOK – simply
   written PPR’son personnel management. Copy for each emplyee.
7. staffing requirements for DON
   Answer: Must be an a registered nurse. May serve as charge nurse only when 60 or fewer
   residents.Must have a RN 8 consecutive hoursa day/ 7 days per week unless have a waiver.
8. staffing requirements for charge nurse
   Answer: licensed nurse on each tour of dutyunless have a waiver (waivers for medicare
   facility granted by CMS; for medicaid,by state)
9. staffing requirements for CNAs
   Answer: each state must maintain a registry which includes name, address, SS #, DOB, record
   of training and competency evaluationcompleted,(name and date of program), documentation of
   any act of neglect, abuse,or misappropriation property.
10. policies/procedures for CNA requirements
    Answer: 1. NURSING home must verifythat CNA is registered and is in good standing
    before hiring|2. RE-registration every 2 years|3. DISCIPLINE. if CNA is reported to have
    committed any violationsof concerning abuse, neglect, or misappropriation of property, the
    administrator must:| – insure that it cannot happen again until the case is completed. 30 days.|

• report incident to the state Medicaid complaints office.| – do a full investigationand
  document.|4. NEVER hire a CNA found guilty of one of these three viola- tions.|5.NURSING
  hours /resident days – set by state, approved by CMS

1. staffing requirementsfor SocialWorker|
   Answer: More than 120 bed facility, SW musthave at least bachelors degree in social work orin
   human services field (sociology,special ed., rehab, counseling, psychology, etc.) PLUS 1 year
   supervised SW experience working with individuals in health care facility.| 120 beds or less;
   state sets requirement.
2. Resident Activity Director (RAD)
   Answer: Therapeutic Recreation Specialist: preferred: licensed or registered, if applicable, or
   eligible for certification as a TRSor anactivities professional by a recognized accrediting body;
   or is a OT or OTA; or in asocial or recreational program withing the past 5 years. 1 of which
   was full time in apatient activities program in a health care setting.
3. staffing requirements for dietitian
   Answer: registered by ADA, or qualified by education, training, experience as approved by
   state| Dietary Manager – certified by boardof Dietary Managers as a Certified Dietary Manger
   (CDM)
4. staffing requirementsfor consultants,professionals
   Answer: administrator must ensure all outside resources used are qualified to provide service|
   pharmacists| rehabtherapists|
5. are there any specifications for workers in dietary, housekeeping, laundry,and
   maintenance?
   Answer: no specifications. a director of environmental services preferred to be over the last
   three departments
6. Define job
   Answer: collection of tasks that can be performed by an employee.
7. define job classification
   Answer: titles of jobs, ruse, aide, secretary
8. define job analysis
   Answer: first step is to identify |1. tasks|2. knowledge, skill, behaviors needed. |Best person to
   help determine is the employee. use to develop job description.
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2024 NAB NHA Exam
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. A physician who CAN serve as a resident’s attending is….
   Answer: Internist – Oncologist – Geriatrician
2. If a medication has a stop order, the nurse must…
   Answer: Notify the physician beforethe last dose is given.
3. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) requires that:
   Answer: All rehabilitationservices must be prescribed by a licensed physician.
4. The facility must deposit any residents’ personal fundsin excess of $ into an interest bearing
   account(s).
   Answer: $50
5. A residents individual financial record must be available through
   statements and upon request of the resident or legal rep.
   Answer: -Quarterly
6. A comprehensive assessment must be completed within days after
   admission, or the facility determines a significant COD.And no less often than
   months.
   Answer:
   a) 14 Days
   b) 12 Months
7. A facility must maintain all resident assessments within the last months to revise the
   comprehensive plan of care.
   Answer: 15 Months
8. A comprehensive care plan must be developed within days after
   completion of the comprehensive assessment.
   Answer: 7 Days
9. The development of a comprehensive care plan should include an interdisciplinary team made of
   whom?
   Answer: Attending Physician – Registered Nurse – The Resident/Family
10. An unnecessary drug is one that is used in….?
    Answer: Excessive doses/duration
11. The facility must ensure that it is free of medication error rates of %or greater.
    Answer: 5%
12. The DNS may serve as a charge nurse only when the facility has an (ADC)of or fewer residents.
    Answer: 60
13. A resident must be seen by a physician at least once every days for the first days after
    admission, and at least once every daysthereafter.: a) 30 Days
    b) 90 Days
    c) 60 Days
14. The drug regimen of each resident must be reviewed how often by alicensed pharmacist?
    Answer: At least once a month
15. Schedule I Drugs:
    Answer: Have no medical use (not legal)
16. Schedule II – IV Drugs:
    Answer: Need prescriptions
17. Schedule V Drugs:
    Answer: Over the counter
18. Bedrooms must measure at least square ft. in multiple resident rooms, and at least square
    ft. in single resident rooms.: a) 80 square ft.
    b) 100 square ft.
19. The governing body of a facility are persons who…?
    Answer: Are legally responsiblefor establishing and implementing policiesregarding the management
    and operationof the facility.
20. The primary purpose of medical records is to provide for…
    Answer: Continuity ofcare
21. The facility must complete a performance review of every nurse aid at least once everymonths.The in-services must be no less than hrs.
    per year.
    Answer: a) 12 Months
    b) 12 Hours
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2024 NAB Practice Exam
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. Who isresponsible for the national licensure examination for nursing homeadministrators?
   A. NHAP
   B. CAHF
   C. NAB
   D. PES
   Answer: C. NAB
2. What is the crucial element for doing well on the examination?
   A. Sound knowledge of federal regs.
   B. Sound understanding of state and fed regs.
   C. Memorizing the pertinent study material.
   D. Sound understanding of task required of an administrator and knowledge and skills needed
   to perform that task.
   Answer: D. Sound understanding of task requiredof an administrator and knowledge and skills
   needed to perform that task.
3. What Act in 1935 was eventually amended to require states to establishprograms for
   licensing nursing home administrators?
   A. Older Americans Act
   B. Social Security Act
   C. Wagner Act 1935
   D. Fair Labor Standards Act
   Answer: B. Social Security Act
4. What percentage of nursing homes are Medicaid facilities?
   A. 60%-70%
   B. 75%-80%
   C. 85%-95%
   D. 40%-50%
   Answer: B. 75%-80%
5. The field of study that examines the economic,social and psychologicalaspects of aging is
   called what?
   A. Psychology
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2024 NAB RCAL Exam
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. Breakeven Point?
   Answer: total cost = total revenue
2. Working capital ratio
   Answer: current assets / current liabilities
3. Acid-test (quick) ratio
   Answer: (cash + AR + short-term investments) / current liabilities
4. debt to assets ratio
   Answer: total liabilities/total assets
5. FTE (full time equivalent)
   Answer: total number of hours per employee in a week / 40(i.e. 12+14+40+30 div. by 40)
6. Profit margin
   Answer: NOI/Tot.Revenue.Defined as “income to sales.2 types, gross profmargin and net prof
   margin)
7. Net Operating Income (NOI)
   Answer: Total (gross) Revenue – operating expenses
8. Occupancy rate
   Answer: (# of resident days/facility beds) x 365
9. HCS
   Answer: Hazard Communication Standard. OSHA standard requiring employers toinform
   workers of potentially hazardous chemicals.
10. Balance sheet formula
    Answer: Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders Equity
11. EBITDA
    Answer: Earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization
12. Amortization
    Answer: the reduction of a loan balance through payments made over aperiod of time
13. revenue cycle management
    Answer: resident needs->service planning->staffing->billing/collections->
14. FICA SSTax and MedicareTax
    Answer: 6.2% and 1.45%
15. 4 elements of a valid contract
    Answer: agreement, consideration, contractual capacity,legality (in writing) “ACCL”
16. Liability insurance usually covers..
    Answer: Bodily injury and property damage
17. Lock out tag out
    Answer: For all electrical equipment
18. safe electrical practices
    Answer: National Electrical Code or NEC
19. Following NFPA Life Safety Code
    Answer: fire plan, regular fire drills, detectors, training on procedure, non combustable
    furnishing/draperies
20. Extinguisher class A
    Answer: ordinary combustibles such as wood/paper
21. Extinguisher Class B
    Answer: For flammable liquids and gas fires (grease, paint)
22. Extinguisher class C
    Answer: Live electrical equipment (panelling)
23. Extinguisher class D
    Answer: Combustable metals (aluminum)
24. Extinguisher class K
    Answer: Commercial cooking equipment (cooking oil, animalfats)
25. PASS (Fire Safety)
    Answer:
    P – Pull the pin.
    A – Aim at the base of the fire, not at the flames.
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2024 NAB Exam Regulatory And Laws
Latest Questions With Complete Grade A Answers

1. Medicare is what title of the SSA Act of 1935?
   Answer: Title 18
2. Year Medicare and Medicaid were enacted
   Answer: 1965
3. Medicare Part A
   Answer: Hospitalization/ Skilled nursing, for all beneficiaries
4. Medicare Part B
   Answer: Non institutional care, elective
5. Part A non-covered services
   Answer: liver transplant, prescription drugs, custodial care,outpatient diagnostic tests,
   dental/dentures, TV/Phone
6. Part B Covered Services
   Answer: Non-routine exams and diagnostic exams, DME, Home health care, LabTestsoutpatient, podiatrist, hearing exams, outpatient rehab,home health
7. Part B Non-Covered Services
   Answer: Routine exams and lab tests, prescription drugs,dental, eye exams
8. Medicaid title of SSA
   Answer: Title 19
9. Covered Services of Medicaid
   Answer: Custodial care in NF, Burial expense, foodstamps, health for the poor, Long term
   care benefit, semi-private room
10. Non-covered services Medicaid
    Answer: Skilled services, prescriptions, dental care,social services, restorative nursing, eye
    exams/glasses, tv/telephone
11. OSHA
    Answer: Occupational Health and Safety Administration
12. Who is OSHA governed under?
    Answer: U.S. Dept. of Labor
13. OSHA administers what ACT?
    Answer: Occupational Health and Safety Act of 1970
14. OSHA is responsible for what?
    Answer: Worker safety and infection control
15. Facility safety committee must meet how often?
    Answer: Monthly
16. OSHA regulatory program includes
    Answer:safety standards, records of illnesses/in-juries, cooperation with inspectors, Access to
    MSDS, display of OSHA poster
17. Must provide workers training in new OSHA standards within how long of
    implementation
    Answer: 90 days
18. Employees must receive OSHA training how often
    Answer: upon hire, every 12months or since last OSHA training session.
19. The main purpose of OSHA Hazard communication standard is to
    Answer: informemployers/employees of hazardous chemicals in teh worksplace
20. Materials Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) location/ availability
    Answer: centerpiece toinforming employees of risks of chemicals, must make MSDS available
    to all employees, post in breakroom or near time clock.
21. Lockout/tagout program
    Answer: preventsinjury by disabling devicesthat can produceunexpected hazardous energy by
    using isolating devices.
22. Blood borne pathogens
    Answer: require written plan that identifies workers potentiallyexposed and a schedule of how
    and when the program will be implemented, plan must specify action to be taken if worker
    exposed to pathogens, must train exposedworkers in BBP safety and if a worker’s duties
    change
23. OSHA Reports
    Answer: OSHA 300 Summary log, Form 301, Form 300A
24. OSHA 300 Summary Log
    Answer: log all injuries and illnesses within 7 days
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