2023 PUMPING APPARATUS DRIVER/ OPERATOR FINAL EXAM 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM 130 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (100% VERIFIED ANSWERS) |AGRADE

Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator – Pumper End of Course Exa

The lowest acceptable fuel gauge reading on a fire apparatus during inspection would be:
A. At least ½-full

B. At least ⅔-full

C. At least ¾-full (Correct Answer)

D. Full

The purchase acceptance test on a new fire apparatus should focus on:
A. Pump capacity

B. Road tests

C. Pump and foam operations

D. Bid specifications (Correct Answer)

All of the following are rescue tools EXCEPT:
A. Spreaders

B. Extensions rams

C. Drills (Correct Answer)

D. Shears

On the vacuum service test, the system vacuum and pump priming device should achieve a column of mercury of at least:
A. 10 Inches

B. 11 Inches

C. 16 Inches

D. 22 Inches (Correct Answer)

You may need to perform a confined space turnaround:
A. When entering a parking garage with the fire apparatus

B. For a reverse hose lay in a narrow street or intersection (Correct Answer)

C. When the roadway becomes narrower

D. If the fire apparatus needs to be parked in reverse

You should NEVER back a fire apparatus:
A. If it’s dark outside

B. Before letting the rest of your crew off the fire apparatus.

C. Into the fire house when there is snow or ice on the ground

D. If you don’t have at least one spotter (Correct Answer)

NFPA Standard 1002 requires that driver/operators operate a fire apparatus over a predetermined route on a public roadway that incorporates all of the following EXCEPT
A. An upgrade steep enough to require you to change gears in order to maintain speed

B. Two through-intersections and one intersection that requires you to stop (Correct Answer)

C. A downgrade steep enough to require you to downshift and brake

D. One underpass, low clearance area, or bridge

If you are driving a fire apparatus that is longer than you are used to, make sure you:
A. Are more cautious when judging clearance so you don’t run up on curbs and corners. (Correct Answer)

B. Slow down sooner at all traffic signals before proceeding

C. Speed up as you go around curves to compensate for the difference

D. Maintain a distance of at least 10 feet from the vehicle in front of you

Place the steps for completing the apparatus station parking maneuver in the correct order.

  1. Move past the area that is set back, which is on the left
  2. back the fire apparatus
  3. Make a left turn in reverse into the simulated bay
  4. Stop close to, but not hitting a marker placed 10 feet from any obstructions
  5. Perform steps 1-4 from the opposite direction

Identify the THREE steps for changing to the left lane on a limited access highway
A. Move the apparatus safely to the left lane (Correct Answer)

B. Check the side streets or roads

C. Check for oncoming traffic

D. Activate the turn signal (Correct Answer)

E. Check the left side view mirror (Correct Answer)

F. Check the side streets or roads

Identify FOUR skills demonstrated during the alley dock exercise
A. Moving the fire apparatus backward within a restricted area (Correct Answer)

B. Using side mirrors

C. Operating the fire apparatus safely

D. Maneuvering through a space that gets smaller and smaller

E. Interpreting spotter signals

F. Judging fire apparatus’ vertical clearance

Identify which factor is OPTIONAL during the diminishing clearance exercise:
A. Stopping at the finish line

B. Speed (Correct Answer)

C. Using a spotter(s)

D. Traveling backward

When performing the serpentine exercise, you would be penalized for:
A. Using your side view mirrors

B. Hitting or brushing one of the markers (Correct Answer)

C. Maneuvering through the marker in one continuous motion

D. Maneuvering through the markers in 1, 2, 3, then 3, 2, 1 order

For safety reasons, hand lines with solid stream nozzles cannot really be operated above:
A. 80 psi

B. 75 psi

C. 65 psi (Correct Answer)

D. 50 psi

The term specific heat refers to the:
A. Amount of heat needed to turn a liquid into a vapor

B. Amount of heat it takes to raise one pound of water one degree

C. Ability of any substance to absorb heat (Correct Answer)

D. Speed at which water absorbs heat

If water is flowing through 200 feet of 5 inch hose at 300 gpm, then the theoretical friction loss is approximately:
A. 1.44 psi (Correct Answer)

B. 5.48 psi

C. 5.96 psi

D. 8.98 psi

FL = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL = 0.08 x (300/100)² x (200/100)
FL = 0.08 x (3)² x 2
FL = 0.08 x 9 x 2
FL = 1.44

Using the Condensed “Q” formula, calculate the friction loss for 500 feet of 3-inch hose flowing at 300 GPM is approximately:
A. 1 psi

B. 3 psi

C. 45 psi (Correct Answer)

D. 66 psi

FL = Q(GPM/100)²
FL = Q(300/100)²
FL = Q(3)²
FL = Q(9)
FL = 9 x 5
FL = 45

Most flowmeters in use today have a design based on a(n):
A. Spring probe (Correct Answer)

B. Paddlewheel

C. Impeller wheel

D. Vane and needle

Using the condensed “Q” formula, calculate the friction loss for 300 feet of 3-inch hoseline, flowing 300 GPM.
A. 3.0 psi

B. 9.0 psi

C. 15.0 psi

D. 27.0 psi (Correct Answer)

FL = Q(GPM/100)²
FL = Q(300/100)²
FL = Q(3)²
FL = Q(9)
FL = 9 x 3
FL = 27

In a water distribution system, on OS&Y valve:
A. Is usually in a manhole or buried underground.

B. Can be operated with a socket and a reach rod

C. Has in indicator window that says OPEN or SHUT

D. Uses a threaded stem to control the valve (Correct Answer)

Determine the PDP for a siamesed layout in which there is an attack line of a 200-feet with a 1 ¼-inch solid stream nozzle operating at 45 psi. The friction loss from supply hoses is 30 psi. The friction loss from the attack hose is 25 psi. In addition, there is an elevation gain of 40 feet between pump and nozzle. Total flow is 350 GPM.
A. 85 psi

B. 105 psi

C. 130 psi (Correct Answer)

D. 155 psi

TFL = NP + EP + APL
TFL = (45+30+25) + 20 + 10
TFL = 130

To Raise the temperature of one pound of water from 100°F to 212°F Takes
A. 112 BTUs (Correct Answer)

B. 224 BTUs

C. 212 BTUs

D. 970 BTUs

Determine the approximate TPL for a hose assembly in which there is 500 feet of a 4-inch supply line wyed into two, 2 ½-inch attack lines that are 200 feet long. Each attack line is flowing 250 GPM.
A. 50 psi

B. 60 psi (Correct Answer)

C. 96 psi

D. 106 psi

FL (Supply Line) = C x (Q (Supply)/100)² x L/100
FL (Supply Line) = 0.2 x (500/100)² x 500/100
FL (Supply Line) = 0.2 x (5)² x 5
FL (Supply Line) = 0.2 x 25 x 5
FL (Supply Line) = 25

FL = 2 x (250/100)² x (200/100)
FL = 2 x (2.5)² x 2
FL = 2 x 6.25 x 2
FL = 25

TPL = FL + EP + APL
TPL = 50 + EP + 10
TPL = 60

Calculate the gpm flowing from a 1 3/4 inch solid master stream nozzle operating at a nozzle pressure of 80 psi.
A. 801 GPM

B. 464 GPM

C. 813 GPM (Correct Answer)

D. 406 GPM

Q(Total) = 29.7 x (d)² x (√NP)
Q(Total) = 29.7 x (1.75)² x (√80)
Q(Total) = 29.7 x 3.0625 x 8.9442
Q(Total) = 813.53

One of the principles of pressure says that the pressure on an amount of water:
A. Is always perpendicular to any surface it acts on (Correct Answer)

B. Is greatest in the direction of gravity

C. Is greatest at the bottom point of the water

D. Radiates from the point of contact with the force

In a constant pressure relay, first the flow, the number of pumpers needed, and hose size are determined. While the attack pumper starts with its internal tank, the largest capacity pumper is stationed at the hydrant and hooked-up, and all apparatus are connected. At that point, the next step for establishing a constant pressure relay is to have:
A. The source pumper start pumping water at 175 psi

B. The attack pumper adjust discharge pressure to supply attack lines

C. Each relay pumper close its discharge valve once a steady flow of water reaches it, then advance throttle to 175 psi

D. all pumpers, except the source pumper, open their discharge valves on dump line (Correct Answer)

When hooking up to a hydrant and additional lines are anticipated, it is best to install a:
A. Check valve on the larger hydrant discharge

B. Globe valve on the smaller hydrant discharge

C. Gate valve on the smaller hydrant discharge (Correct Answer)

D. Needle valve on the larger hydrant discharge

If the standpipe for a building with only one standpipe is totally unusable:
A. As a LAST resort, lay supply hose up an interior stairwell. (Correct Answer)

B. Use a valve from the next floor up

C. Charge the standpipe riser at the first floor level

D. Use a double male with a double female to make connections

Identify TWO ways in which the discharge pressure for pumping operations involving a sprinkler system can be found
A. checking the fire department connection plate (Correct Answer)

B. Checking the pre-incident plan (Correct Answer)

C. Checking the fixed pump pressure plate in the pumping station

D. Calculating the hydraulic pressure requirements using the formula FL=CQ³L

E. Calculating the hydraulic pressure requirements using the formula FL=C²QL

When drafting from a static water source, it may be necessary to “stop short” of your desired apparatus position and:
A. Make your connections before moving into position (Correct Answer)

B. Remain at least 20 feet from the water source

C. Remain on asphalt surfaces at all costs

D. Get into position before making your connections.

During service testing, it is important that the water temperature be between:
A. 50°F and 100°F

B. 35°F and 90°F (Correct Answer)

C. 50°F and 100°F

D. 50°C and 100°C

Place the steps for Part II of the pressure control test in the correct order

  1. Close the flowing valves one at a time
  2. The pump discharge pressure should rise no more than 30 psi when all valves are closed.
  3. Set the fire pump so that it is discharging its rated capacity at a net pump discharge pressure of 150 psi
  4. Reduce the pumping engine throttle until the net pump discharge pressure drops to 90 psi with no change to the discharge valve or nozzle setting(s)
  5. Set the pressure control device to maintain the discharge pressure at 90 psi

Not Correct

When a dry supply line is being charged, it is important to open the:
A. Control Valve

B. Bleeder Valve (Correct Answer)

C. Gate Valve

D. Drain Valve

An important consideration when determining the position of a fire apparatus is the:
A. Manpower available

B. Distance from staging

C. Method of attack (Correct Answer)

D. Location of parking lot

If the required application rate of a Class A foam for a 2000 square foot fire is 0.25 GPM/Square Foot, and the nozzle GPM is 200 GPM, then the nozzle will:
A. Fall short of the application rate by 0.15 GPM/Square Foot (Correct Answer)

B. Exceed the application rate by 9.75 GPM/Square Foot

C. Just meet the application rate

D. Fall short of the application rate by 0.25 GPM/Square Foot

GPM/SQ Feet
200/2000
.1
0.25 – .1 = 0.15

Identify THREE characteristics of small diameter hoses
A. Hard to handle

B. Have high friction loss (Correct Answer)

C. Are designed for positive pressure (Correct Answer)

D. Collapse under negative pressure (Correct Answer)

E. Act as good supply hoses

Match each type of hose lay to the statements with which it is associated
Forward Lay
A. A four-way hydrant valve is often used with this lay
B. Allows driver/operator to monitor the fire scene

Reverse Lay
C. Pumper moves away from fire incident to hydrant
D. Keeps the pumper at the hydrant
E. Forces fire personnel to unload equipment before hooking up to the hydrant

As salt water or water containing certain chemicals can corrode the apparatus pump, you should:
A. Never use static sources of water that are not potable

B. Attach a reverse osmosis (RO) filter to the intake hose before you attach the strainer to lessen the effects of salt or other chemicals

C. Flush the pump with fresh water after using it (Correct Answer)

D. Flush the pump with a neutralizer and fresh water after using it.

A priming device works by:
A. Centrifugal force

B. Creating a partial vacuum (Correct Answer)

C. Centripetal force

D. Creating compression within a rotating chamber

Place these steps for assembling a portable foam induction system in the correct order

All of the following are potential water sources for an apparatus fire pump EXCEPT:
A. Pressurized water from a hydrant

B. The onboard tank

C. Pressurized water from another fire pump

D. A municipal storm drain (Correct Answer)

E. A swimming pool

Identify THREE true statements about positive displacement pumps:
A. Many have been replaced by the centrifugal pump (Correct Answer)

B. The pump needs to be primed before it can operate

C. There is a piston type and a rotary gear type (Correct Answer)

D. Some piston positive displacement pumps can pump water on the forward stroke and on the return stroke (Correct Answer)

E. The fire stream is noted for its steady flow

Class B foams on hydrocarbons can be used in concentrations of up to:
A. 3% (Correct Answer)

B. 6%

C. 9%

D. 12%

Testing a flowmeter consist of:
A. Disconnecting all preconnected hoselines and screwing all caps onto their discharges

B. Closing all of the flowing valves one at a time

C. Closing the discharge valve without changing the throttle setting

D. Connecting a hoseline equipped with a solid stream nozzle to each discharge being tested (Correct Answer)

Identify the true statement about a multi-stage fire pump
A. The SERIES/PRESSURE position gives you maximum pressure for a short period (Correct Answer)

B. The SERIES/PRESSURE position gives you maximum flow over an extended period (Not Correct)

C. The PARALLEL/VOLUME position gives you maximum pressure over an extended period (Not Correct)

D. The PARALLEL/VOLUME position gives you maximum pressure for a short period

Most Jurisdictions prefer to draft from a static water source during service testing because it:
A. is a lot easier than connecting to a fire hydrant

B. Offers more privacy and makes it easier to concentrate

C. Is a true test of the pump’s ability (Correct Answer)

D. Is more convenient and saves time

The pump whose rotor is mounted off-center is the:
A. Rotary vane positive displacement pump (Correct Answer)

B. Rotary gear positive displacement pump

C. Centrifugal pump

D. Centripetal pump

One characteristic of discharge pressure relief valves is that they:
A. are impossible to operate from a remote switch

B. Are slow to close after being opened

C. Are slow to return to their open position after being closed

D. Can only maintain set pressure under 250 psi (Not Correct)

The preferred strategy for applying foam to a standing pool of fuel fire is to:
A. Sweep the foam stream along the back edge of the fire

B. Direct the foam stream into the center of the pool of fuel

C. Sweep the foam stream above the burning liquid and allow it to float down (Correct Answer)

D. Direct the foam stream at the base of the burning liquid.

NFPA rates all fire pumps to meet their capacity from a draft at:
A. 10 feet of lift (Correct Answer)

B. 10 Meters of lift

C. 25 feet of lift (Not Correct)

D. 25 Meters of lift

Match each service test with the correct information.
Vacumm Test – Checks for leaks in the priming device and pump

Pump Capacity Test – Checks the overall condition of the engine

Pressure Control Test – Verifies discharge pressures under varying conditions

Gauge and Flowmeter Test – Compares meter readings with actual pitot tube readings

Tank-to-Pump Flow Rate Test – Measures whether the piping between an apparatus’ water tank and fire pump meet minimum flow standards

Identify the THREE items that must have occurred prior to raising the cab?
A. Adequate front and overhead clearance has been ensured. (Correct Answer)

B. All cab doors have been securely closed (Correct Answer)

C. All loose items in the cab have been secured (Correct Answer)

D. Three spotters have taken their places

E. The engine has been started

All of the following are important reasons for maintaining inspection documentation on a fire apparatus EXCEPT:
A. Providing evidence during equipment accident investigations

B. Verifying that you are inspecting the correct apparatus (Correct Answer)

C. Providing proof for warranty and claims concerning the apparatus

D. Determining when the equipment is due for replacement

Identify the true statement about a fire apparatus with an automatic transmission:
A. Should be kept in low gear when going around corners

B. Will automatically downshift when the engine gets hot

C. Gives you the option of selecting a gear (Correct Answer)

D. Can carry more passengers than most manual transmission apparatus

Allowing the fire apparatus engine to idle over an extended period of time can lead to all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Fuel Waste

B. Engine fatigue (Correct Answer)

C. Engine wear

D. Engine debris build-up

The Total stopping distanceis:
A. The distance a fire apparatus travels from the time the brakes are applied until the fire apparatus comes to a complete stop

B. The sum of the driver/operator reaction distance and the fire apparatus’ braking distance (Correct Answer)

C. The distance a fire apparatus travels while a driver transfers his/her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal

D. The distance a fire apparatus travels from the time it is started until it reaches its destination

Identify THREE conditions where you should drive your fire apparatus in low gear
A. Climbing a hill

B. Crossing a bridge

C. Traveling under an overpass

D. Approaching an intersection

E. Traveling around a corner

Identify FOUR of the steps for completing a left turn on a four lane highway
A. Check for oncoming traffic (Correct Answer)

B. Sound apparatus horn to signal turn

C. Safely make the left turn (Correct Answer)

D. Check to see if the side street or road is clear (Correct Answer)

E. Activate the left turn signal (Correct Answer)

F. Check traffic in the right lane prior to turning

All of the following statements about driving a fire apparatus through areas of restricted horizontal and vertical clearances are true EXCEPT:
A. Use your side view mirrors

B. Make sure you can see your spotter

C. Judge your fire apparatus’ clearance around obstructions (Not Correct)

D. Use the appropriate turn signal

If a 3-inch hose is flowing 150 gpm, and a 2-inch hose is flowing at 150 gpm, then:
A. The 3-inch hose is flowing at a higher velocity (Not Correct)

B. The 2-inch hose is flowing at a higher velocity

C. The velocities of the two hoses are the same

D. The answer cannot be determined; velocity has no effect on GPM (Not Correct)

Calculate the capacity of this pool. The average depth is five feet

Pool is 40 feet by 150 Feet
A. 6,000 gallons

B. 30,000 gallons

C. 125,000 gallons

D. 225,000 gallons (Correct Answer)

Capacity in gallons = 7.5 (L) (W) (D)
Capacity in gallons = 7.5 (150) (40) (5)
Capacity in gallons = 225,000

Determine the TPL for a hose assembly in which there is 1,000 feet of 5-inch supply line that is wyed into two 100-foot sections of 1 ½-inch hand line. The hand lines are each flowing 150 GPM.
A. 32.5 psi

B. 52.23 psi

C. 61.2 psi (Correct Answer)

D. 72.4 psi

FL = C (Q/100)² (L/100)
FL = 0.08 (300/100)² (1000/100)
FL = 0.08 (3)² (10)
FL = 0.08 (9) (10)
FL (Supply) = 7.2

FL = 24 (150/100)² (100/100)
FL = 24 (1.5)² (1)
FL = 24 (2.25) (1)
FL (Attack) = 54

Match each type of pressure with its correct description
Head Pressures = Pressure caused by the height of a water supply above the discharge point

Static Pressure = Available pressure at discharge point

Flow Pressure = Forward velocity of water at the discharge point.

Residual Pressure = Water pressure in a distribution system that is still available when a hydrant is flowing.

Normal Operation Pressure = Water pressure in a distribution system during normal consumption

The master stream device that is often called a deck gun is the:
A. Elevated master stream

B. Deluge set device

C. Turret pipe device (Correct Answer)

D. Monitor device

You figure pressure loss in a single-line hose flowing at 350 GPM to be 45 psi. Then, a coupling is added and the nozzle is taken to the 6th floor of a burning structure. The friction loss for this new layout is now:
A. 70 psi

B. 75 psi

C. 80 psi(CorrectAnswer)

D. 90 psi

TPL = 45 + 25 + 10
TPL = 80

Look at the manifold hose layout below. Based on this information, the total pressure loss in this hose layout is approximately:

500 Feet of 5-inch hose
Two 2-inch hoselines Each 400 feet flowing 200 GPM
Two 2-inch hoselines Each 200 feet Flowing 200 GPM
A. 92 psi

B. 189 psi

C. 164 psi (Correct Answer)

D. 219 psi

FL (Supply) = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL (Supply) = 0.08 x (800/100)² x (500/100)
FL (Supply) = 0.08 x (8)² x 5
FL (Supply) = 0.08 x 64 x 5
FL (Supply) = 25.6

FL (Attack 1) = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL (Attack 1) = 8 x (200/100)² x (400/100)
FL (Attack 1) = 8 x (2)² x 4
FL (Attack 1) = 8 x 4 x 4
FL (Attack 1) = 128

FL (Attack 2) = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL (Attack 2) = 8 x (200/100)² x (200/100)
FL (Attack 2) = 8 x (2)² x 2
FL (Attack 2) = 8 x 4 x 2
FL (Attack 2) = 64

TFL = FL + EL + APL
TFL = (25.6 + 128[most demanding line]) + 0 + 10 (Flowing more than 350 GPM)
TFL = 163.6

Fog nozzles are best used to aerate:
A. Foams used on polar solvent fires

B. All class B foams

C. All class A foams (Correct Answer)

D. AFAF foams

All of the following statements about static sources are true EXCEPT:
A. Pre-incident planning must be done to assess the accessibility of static waters sources

B. Weather can dramatically affect the accessibility and usability of static water sources

C. The static water sources that is closest to the incident should be always used first (Correct Answer)

D. Safety of the equipment and crew is paramount when choosing a static water source

If the FDC is totally unusable during a sprinkler or standpipe pumping operation, you should:
A. As a first step, lay supply hose up an interior stairwell (Not Correct)

B. Use a valve from the next floor up (Not Correct)

C. Charge the standpipe riser at the first floor level

D. Close any open valves on the floors above

Large diameter hoses are generally defined as hoses with a diameter of between:
A. 4 and 6 inches (Correct Answer)

B. 3 and 5 inches

C. 6 and 12 inches

D. 2 ½ and 5 inches

The first thing to do when you arrive at a property with an automatic sprinkler system is to:
A. Determine if there really is a fire and then supply the fire department connection

B. Make preparations to supply the FDC by connecting hoselines to the FDC and hydrant (Correct Answer)

C. Check to see if the control valve is open and if the fixed fire pump is operating correctly

D. Check the pre-incident plan to determine the required pressure for charging the system

The purpose of the priming test is to:
A. Check for leaks in the system vacuum pressure, priming device, and pump

B. Evaluate how quickly the priming device can create a vacuum to bring water to the pump (Correct Answer)

C. Check the overall condition of the pump

D. Check that the given discharge information is accurate when the pump is in operation

One of the dangers of using foam concentrates in fire pumps is that the solution can:
A. A overflow the pump housing

B. Strip the lubrication from valve seals (Correct Answer)

C. Foul the pump discharge

D. Create sediment in the pump housing

You arrive at a fire scene and are briefed on the situation. You conclude that a relay operation is needed. The officer tells you, “We’ve got a distance of about 3,000 feet from the hydrant to the fire with two, 4-inch lines.” The one piece of information that you still require for the maximum distance relay method is the:
A. Number of available pumpers

B. Number of applications

C. Number of personnel

D. Flow needed at scene (Correct Answer)

The “bank-down” method of foam application can best be described as:
A. Sweeping the foam stream along the front edge and allow it to roll over the fire

B. Sweeping the stream above the fire and allow it to float down to the surface of the burning liquid

C. Directing the foam stream on to the sides of the object and allow it to run down onto the surface of the burning liquid. (Correct Answer)

D. Driving the foam stream at the center of the banked fire and dispersing it

Foam in a foam induction system is drawn into the system through the effect of:
A. A venturi (Correct Answer)

B. Centrifugal force

C. Aeration

D. A Volute

The purpose of the gauge and flowmeter test is to:
A. Check the overall condition of the engine

B. Check that the given discharge information is accurate when the pump is in operation (Correct Answer)

C. Measure whether pressure control devices can maintain certain discharge pressures under varying conditions

D. Ensure that the fire apparatus is running at the same speed it was rated for when it was new

The rescue tool supply system equivalent of a junction box is called:
A. A PTO

B. A manifold (Correct Answer)

C. A rescue unit

D. An RTC

Identify the FOUR steps for passing through a straight section of a road or highway
A. Move the apparatus to left lane

B. Check the side streets or roads (Correct Answer)

C. Decelerate

D. Check the side view mirrors (Correct Answer)

E. Turn on the flashers

F. Maintain apparatus speed (Correct Answer)

G. Check for oncoming traffic (Correct Answer)

Before driving over a guarded railroad crossing during an emergency response:
A. Look both right and left and proceed cautiously (Correct Answer)

B. Look to the right, the gate will be up on the left

C. Look to the left, the gate will up on the right

D. Bring the apparatus to a complete stop

Determine the TPL for a hose assembly in which 400 feet of 5-inch hose is wyed into one 200-foot section of 2 ½-inch hose and one 300-foot section of 2 ½-inch hose. Each attack hose is flowing at 200 GPM
A. 19 psi

B. 29 psi

C. 39 psi (Correct Answer)

D. 54 psi

FL (Supply) = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL (Supply) = 0.08 x (400/100)² x (400/100)
FL (Supply) = 0.08 x (4)² x 4
FL (Supply) = 0.08 x 16 x 4
FL (Supply) = 5.12

FL (Attack 1) = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL (Attack 1) = 2 x (200/100)² x (200/100)
FL (Attack 1) = 2 x (2)² x 2
FL (Attack 1) = 2 x 4 x 2
FL (Attack 1) = 16

FL (Attack 2) = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL (Attack 2) = 2 x (200/100)² x (300/100)
FL (Attack 2) = 2 x (2)² x 3
FL (Attack 2) = 2 x 4 x 3
FL (Attack 2) = 24

TPL = (5.12 + 24 [Most demanding line]) + 0 + 10
TPL = 39.12

Using the hand method, the estimated friction loss for 300 feet of 2 ½-inch hose at 200 GPM is approximately:
A. 18 psi

B. 24 psi (Correct Answer)

C. 36 psi

D. 48 psi

4 x 2 (200 GPM)
8 psi per 100 feet
8 x 3
24 psi total

A pumper has two 300-foot sections of 3-inch hoses with 2 ½-inch couplings. They are siamesed into a 200 feet of 5-inch attack line. The attack line that ends in a master stream with a flow of 350 GPM. Given this hose layout, determine the total pressure loss for this hose assembly.
A. 19 psi

B. 22 psi

C. 44 psi (Correct Answer)

D. 78 psi

FL (Siamesed) = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL (Siamesed) = .2 x (350/100)² x (300/100)
FL (Siamesed) = .2 x (3.5)² x 3
FL (Siamesed) = .2 x 12.25 x 3
FL (Siamesed) = 7.35

FL (Attack 1) = C x (Q/100)² x (L/100)
FL (Attack 1) = .08 x (350/100)² x (200/100)
FL (Attack 1) = .08 x (3.5)² x 2
FL (Attack 1) = .08 x 12.25 x 2
FL (Attack 1) = 1.96

TPL = FL + EL + APL
TPL = (7.35 + 1.96) + 0 + (10 [appliance] + 25 [master stream])
TPL = 9.31 + 0 + 10
TPL = 44.31

A quantity of 16.66 pounds of water equals:
A. 16.66 gal

B. 8.33 gal

C. 6.78 gal

D. 2.0 gal (Correct Answer)

1 gal = 8.35 lbs

16.66/8.35 = 1.99

Bouncing water off the inside walls of the nozzle bore to create a fog pattern is called:
A. Periphery deflection (Correct Answer)

B. A broken stream

C. An impinging stream

D. A deluge stream

Each of these cups is filled with water to its top. Identify the cup with the least amount of pressure per square inch at the bottom of the liquid.
C

If you need to draft from a static water source, your primary consideration should be the:
A. distance from the fire scene

B. Type of water

C. Amount of required lift (Correct Answer)

D. Direction of approach

When controlling pump valves, push-pull handles:
A. Are inferior to quarter-turn handles because they cannot be locked into place

B. Can accurately control line pressure and be locked into place (Correct Answer)

C. are superior to quarter-turn handles because they can operate butterfly valves

D. Are best when applied only to butterfly and gate valves

Identify TWO correct statements about looping mains in a distribution grid.
A. They create a constant flow and less sediment forms in the pipes (Correct Answer)

B. They increase the losses due to friction

C. They are rarely used in a municipal water distribution system but are almost always found in private water systems

D. They ensure that water flows from two directions into hydrants (Correct Answer)

E. They divert the flow from one main to two mains that flow in opposite directions which lowers the overall capacity of each main

When assembling a portable foam induction system, all of the following apply EXCEPT:
A. Prepare enough concentrate for the duration of the incident

B. Ensure the eductor setting matches the foam concentrate

C. Ensure the eductor rating matches the nozzle flow

D. Monitor the use of foam sediment in the eductor (Correct Answer)

One of the drawbacks of a piston pos
A. Pump tends to overheat

B. Fire streams tends to pulsate (Correct Answer)

C. Seals on the discharge tend to leak

D. Pressures streams tends to be low

The discharge pressure for pumping operations involving a standpipe system can be found by:
A. Checking the fire department apparatus plate

B. Checking the pre-incident plan (Correct Answer)

C. Checking the fixed pump pressure plate in the pumping station

D. Calculating the hydraulic pressure requirements using the formula FL = C²QL

In a relay pumping operation, the pressure at which pumps achieve their maximum flow ( with higher pressures resulting in lower volumes) is:
A. 200 – 225 psi

B. 175 psi

C. 150 psi (Correct Answer)

D. 130 – 140 psi

The best type of strainer to use in a shallow stream is a:
A. Floating strainer (Correct Answer)

B. Traditional strainer

C. Low-level strainer

D. Stream filter

When conducting a service test using a static water source, you must have _ feet of hard intake hose for drafting.
A. 50

B. 40

C. 30

D. 20 (Correct Answer)

Identify TWO items that should be included on daily fire apparatus records
A. Auxiliary power fuel levels

B. Tire condition

C. Consumable foam use

D. Coolant levels

E. Fluid levels for brakes

NFPA Standard 1002 requires that driver/operators operate a fire apparatus over a predetermined route on a public roadway that incorporates all of the following EXCEPT
A. Four left and four right turns

B. Both a left and a right curve

C. At least one mile of a straight urban business street or two-lane rural road (Not Correct)

D. One through-intersection and two intersections that require you to stop. (Not Correct)

Identify THREE exceptions to the rule that all personnel should be seated and wearing seatbelts before an emergency vehicle begins moving.
A. Providing patient care in the back of an ambulance (Correct Answer)

B. Loading the hose back onto the fire apparatus (Correct Answer)

C. Performing training for personnel learning to drive the tiller portion of a tractor-drawn aerial apparatus (Correct Answer)

D. When there are too many personnel on board the fire apparatus

E. When the emergency is near the station

F. When time is short

When entering an intersection, you should:
A. always come to a complete stop, even at green traffic signals

B. Remember you have the right-of-way and don’t let off the accelerator

C. Make eye contact with the other drivers at or entering the intersection (Correct Answer)

D. Stop for at least one minute and make sure no other traffic is coming.

When performing the serpentine exercise, you:
A. should be sure that your spotter is wearing a reflective vest.

B. Can travel forward and in reverse as many times as necessary

C. Shouldn’t stop traffic to perform multiple maneuvers

D. Should only travel in one direction without striking the obstruction (Correct Answer)

Traveling at high speeds on a curvy road may cause your fire apparatus to:
A. Kick up rocks onto the car behind it.

B. Leave the road surface and roll over (Correct Answer)

C. Shake really badly and cause nausea to the driver

D. Require a shorter stopping distance

One of the major disadvantages of large diameter hoses is:
A. That they are hard to handle (Correct Answer)

B. Their high friction loss

C. That they are not designed for positive pressure

D. Their collapsibility

Identify the true statement about centrifugal pumps
A. As flow increases, discharge pressures decreases; and as impeller speed increases, discharge pressure increases. (Correct Answer)

B. As flow increases, discharge pressures decreases; and as impeller speed decreases, discharge pressure increases.

C. As flow decreases, discharge pressures decreases; and as impeller speed increases, discharge pressure increases.

D. As flow decreases, discharge pressures increases; and as impeller speed increases, discharge pressure decreases.

Fire pump service tests are conducted at a minimum:
A. Every Day

B. Once a week

C. Once a month

D. Once a year (Correct Answer)

A hose has a flow rate of 50 gpm with a friction loss of 2 psi. If the flow rate increases to 200 gpm, then the friction loss will increase to:
A. 32 psi (Correct Answer)

B. 24 psi

C. 16 psi (Not Correct)

D. 8 psi

GPM is 16 times greater = 2 x 16

When determining your own friction loss coefficients, the water flow discharged from the nozzle is usually measured with a(n):
A. In-line gauge

B. Pump discharge meter

C. Pitot gauge (Correct Answer)

D. Spring-loaded flowmeter

Your fire fighting team is about to use a 1-inch solid stream nozzle. You tell them they can’t expect a “nozzle reaction,” which in layman’s terms means:
A. The reaction that occurs once water from the nozzle reaches its intended target

B. The time it takes from the point at which the nozzle is opened until water flows

C. The time it takes from the point at which the discharge valve at the pump is opened until water flows

D. The counter force to the force of water discharged from the nozzle (Correct Answer)

A major advantage of small diameter hoses is their:
A. Use as supply lines

B. Use in drafting from static water supplies

C. ease of relocation and movement (Correct Answer)

D. Inflexibility, allowing fire apparatus to drive over them

The correct hose layout for the FDC at a property with a sprinkler system should be:
A. A minimum of two 1½-inch (38 mm) hoselines or one 2-inch (51 mm) hoseline

B. A minimum of one 2-inch (51 mm) hoselines or two 3-inch (77 mm) hoseline

C. A minimum of one 2½-inch (65 mm) hoselines or two 3-inch (77 mm) hoseline

D. A minimum of two 2½-inch (65 mm) hoselines or one 3-inch (77 mm) hoseline (Correct Answer)

One of the assumptions of a maximum distance relay method is that:
A. There is 40 psi of residual pressure at each relay pumper

B. To pump 500 GPM, a pumper’s rated capacity must be 1,000 GPM

C. There is 20 psi of residual pressure at each relay pumper (Correct Answer)

D. To pump 750 GPM, a pumper’s rated capacity must be 1,000 GPM

According to NFPA® 1901, fire department pumpers should have a water tank capacity of at least:
Select one:
a. 100 gallons (400 liters).
b. 250 gallons (1 000 liters).
c. 300 gallons (1 200 liters).
d. 750 gallons (3 000 liters).

See page 14
c. 300 gallons (1 200 liters).

What is the function of mobile water supply apparatus?
Select one:
a. Transport water to areas where a water system is nonexistent or inadequate
b. Limit the amount of hose necessary to fight fires in highly populated areas
c. Transport water to areas where more than one apparatus is needed for suppression
d. Act as a backup water supply system to conventional sources of water at structural fires

See page 17
a. Transport water to areas where a water system is nonexistent or inadequate

When a mobile water supply apparatus is parked in close proximity to the fire scene and pumpers are using its supply during suppression operations, the water tender is being used:
Select one:
a. as an intermittent source.
b. as a secondary operation.
c. in a mobile shuttle operation.
d. as a stationary reservoir or “nurse tender.”
See page 18
d. as a stationary reservoir or “nurse tender.”

Which apparatus is MOST likely to have a pump and roll system that allows apparatus to be driven while discharging water?
Select one:
a. Wildland fire apparatus
b. Aircraft rescue and fire apparatus
c. Aerial apparatus equipped with fire pumps
d. Rescue apparatus equipped with fire pumps
See page 19
a. Wildland fire apparatus

Which statement about the driver/operator and maintenance responsibilities is MOST accurate?
Select one:
a. All maintenance is generally contracted out to a service shop.
b. The driver/operator is often able to correct minor deficiencies.
c. The driver/operator performs all maintenance of the apparatus.
d. A certified mechanic must perform all maintenance on the apparatus.

See page 30
b. The driver/operator is often able to correct minor deficiencies.

What should a driver/operator do when a piece of equipment onboard is found broken, defective, or in need of any type of repair?
Select one:
a. Immediately take the apparatus out of service
b. Contact the department mechanic or contract service shop
c. Remedy the situation, if possible, so documentation is not required
d. Follow the established policy of the AHJ for documenting, reporting, and following up on status of repair
See page 31
d. Follow the established policy of the AHJ for documenting, reporting, and following up on status of repair

When performing a walk-around inspection, the driver/operator begins inspection at the:
Select one:
a. rear of the apparatus and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern.
b. front of the apparatus and works around apparatus in a counterclockwise pattern.
c. driver’s door on the cab and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern.
d. passenger’s door on the cab and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern.
See page 36
c. driver’s door on the cab and works around apparatus in a clockwise pattern.

Tire selections for fire apparatus are based on:
Select one:
a. gross axle weight ratings for the apparatus.
b. projected number of miles driven on the tires.
c. minimum and maximum speeds for the apparatus.
d. condition of roadways and highways in the jurisdiction.
See page 38
a. gross axle weight ratings for the apparatus.

Which skill or ability is needed to connect an intake hose to a hydrant?
Select one:
a. Visual acuity
b. Reading skills
c. Physical fitness
d. Adequate hearing
See page 82
c. Physical fitness

Which is the most common place for accidents to occur?
Select one:
a. Parking lots
b. Intersections
c. Undivided highways
d. Bridges or overpasses
See page 85
b. Intersections

Who should advise a driver/operator who may be mentally or physically impaired to seek appropriate assistance?
Select one:
a. Any firefighter
b. Shift supervisor
c. Union representative
d. Human resources personnel
See page 89
a. Any firefighter

What is a guideline for loading hose while driving an apparatus?
Select one:
a. Drive apparatus only in a forward direction.
b. Drive apparatus only forward or backward; do not turn.
c. Put out caution cones for other traffic driving in the area.
d. Members may stand on apparatus only to reposition themselves.
See page 91
a. Drive apparatus only in a forward direction.

When should fire departments identify suitable drafting sites in their response district?
Select one:
a. During preincident planning
b. En route to the incident scene
c. After occupants/owners request
d. After arriving at the incident scene
See page 141
a. During preincident planning

Which statement about positioning for wildland fire attack is MOST accurate?
Select one:
a. Wildland positioning is similar to structural positioning.
b. Apparatus should be moved a maximum of three times.
c. Apparatus are positioned in a single location and rarely move from that position.
d. Apparatus are seldom positioned in the same location for the duration of an incident.
See page 146
d. Apparatus are seldom positioned in the same location for the duration of an incident.

Driver/operators should not attempt to ford streams with a vehicle unless:
Select one:
a. the stream depth will not reach the top of the tires.
b. there is not another route to reach the intended destination.
c. It has been specifically designed to operate in such conditions.
d. the driver/operator has witnessed another vehicle crossing the stream.
See page 148
c. It has been specifically designed to operate in such conditions.

Which term refers to any pressure less than atmospheric pressure?
Select one:
a. Vacuum
b. Head pressure
c. Static pressure
d. Perfect vacuum
See page 175
a. Vacuum

Which term refers to absolute zero pressure?
Select one:
a. Vacuum
b. Head pressure
c. Static pressure
d. Perfect vacuum
See page 175
d. Perfect vacuum

Which term refers to the pressure found in a water distribution system during normal consumption demands?
Select one:
a. Head pressure
b. Static pressure
c. Residual pressure
d. Normal operating pressure
See page 176
d. Normal operating pressure

Rates of consumption allow engineers and fire protection personnel to determine:
Select one:
a. size of pumpers.
b. charges for consumers.
c. mutual aid agreements.
d. adequacy of the water distribution system.
See page 188
d. adequacy of the water distribution system.

Which manner of producing fog streams occurs by deflecting water around an inside circular stem in the nozzle?
Select one:
a. Circular stream nozzles
b. Impinging stream nozzles
c. Pressure-deflected streams
d. Periphery-deflected streams
See page 196
d. Periphery-deflected streams

In the metric formula for nozzle reaction for a fog stream nozzle, what does Q stand for?
Select one:
a. Nozzle reaction in Newtons (N)
b. Nozzle pressure in kilopascals (kPa)
c. The sum of nozzle reaction and nozzle pressure
d. Total flow through the nozzle in liters per minute (L/min)
See page 204
d. Total flow through the nozzle in liters per minute (L/min)

Which method of determining friction loss involves the use of in-line gauges to measure friction loss at various flows through specific hose layouts?
Select one:
a. Performing tests
b. Using calculations
c. Historical information
d. Manufacturer guidelines
See page 211
a. Performing tests

Which BEST describes friction loss for master stream appliances?
Select one:
a. 25 psi (175 kPa) for all appliances
b. 10 psi (70 kPa) loss for each appliance
c. Generally considered to be insignificant
d. Generally considered to be one-half of rated loss
See page 213
a. 25 psi (175 kPa) for all appliances

Which is the correct formula for Net Pump Discharge Pressure?
Select one:
a. Pump Discharge Pressure ÷ Total Pressure
b. Pump Discharge Pressure + Intake Reading
c. Pump Discharge Pressure – Intake Reading
d. Pump Discharge Pressure – Residual Pressure
Feedback
See page 219
c. Pump Discharge Pressure – Intake Reading

Flowmeters are especially advantageous when automatic nozzles are employed with handlines or master stream devices because automatic nozzles may lead driver/operators to:
Select one:
a. allow the discharge pressure to vary excessively.
b. allow the discharge pressure to quickly overtake the water supply.
c. supply excessive discharge pressures, creating a high gallon (liter) per minute flow.
d. supply insufficient discharge pressures, creating a low gallon (liter) per minute flow.
See page 282
d. supply insufficient discharge pressures, creating a low gallon (liter) per minute flow.

A flowmeter should be accurate to a tolerance of plus or minus:
Select one:
a. 1 percent.
b. 3 percent.
c. 6 percent.
d. 10 percent.
See page 282
b. 3 percent.

The gpm flowing method may be used:
Select one:
a. for various diameter hose.
b. only on small diameter hose.
c. for 3-inch hose manufactured within the past 5 years.
d. for 5-inch hose manufactured within the past 7 years.
See page 288
a. for various diameter hose.

Modern versions of quarter-turn handles lock by:
Select one:
a. clipping the handle.
b. pushing downward.
c. rotating the handle in a clockwise direction.
d. rotating the handle in a counterclockwise direction.
See page 316
c. rotating the handle in a clockwise direction.

Which primer is a simple device that makes use of the vacuum already present in the intake manifold of any gasoline-driven engine?
Select one:
a. Air primer
b. Exhaust primer
c. Vacuum primer
d. Positive displacement primer
See page 323
c. Vacuum primer

When priming the pump and beginning drafting operations, a two-stage pump:
Select one:
a. must have the transfer valve in the series (pressure) position.
b. must have the transfer valve in the parallel (volume) position.
c. can have the transfer valve in either the series (pressure) or parallel (volume) position.
d. must initially have the transfer valve in the series (pressure) position but then switch to the parallel (volume) position.
See page 358
b. must have the transfer valve in the parallel (volume) position.

After successfully priming the pump, the throttle setting should:
Select one:
a. slowly be decreased before attempting to open any discharges.
b. quickly be decreased before attempting to open any discharges.
c. slowly be increased before attempting to open any discharges.
d. quickly be increased before attempting to open any discharges.
See page 360
c. slowly be increased before attempting to open any discharges.

Which statement about dry pipe systems is MOST accurate?
Select one:
a. It will take at least 5-10 minutes before water flows freely.
b. They may be used as soon as the hoseline is stretched and the valve opened.
c. They may be used as soon as the hoseline is stretched and the valve closed.
d. They must be charged with water from a source such as the fire department pumper.
See page 364
d. They must be charged with water from a source such as the fire department pumper.

Maximum lift at a given altitude:
Select one:
a. will be less than theoretical lift.
b. will be the same as theoretical lift.
c. will be greater than theoretical lift.
d. may be either greater or less than theoretical lift.
See page 404
a. will be less than theoretical lift.

Which situation is MOST likely to make it necessary to position portable pumps at the supply source during drafting operations?
Select one:
a. When it is a mutual aid incident
b. When personnel are limited in number
c. When the fire is limited in scope and size
d. When fire apparatus cannot make required approach
See page 411
d. When fire apparatus cannot make required approach

Which water source is MOST likely to require specially threaded adapters or other tools to operate the system?
Select one:
a. Cisterns
b. Private water storage tank
c. Agricultural irrigation systems
d. Large indoor or outdoor pools
See page 418
c. Agricultural irrigation systems

When drafting, water is forced in and continues to rise until the pump is full of water or pressure within the pump and intake hose:
Select one:
a. begins to vary.
b. equals atmospheric pressure.
c. is less than atmospheric pressure.
d. is greater than atmospheric pressure.
See page 404
b. equals atmospheric pressure.

Which would be the MOST likely concern after traversing frozen ground in order to reach a drafting site?
Select one:
a. Ice may build up on apparatus parts.
b. Chocking wheels is not possible in icy conditions.
c. Thawing may occur from an increase in air temperature.
d. Temperatures will decrease resulting in ground becoming even more solid.
See page 411
c. Thawing may occur from an increase in air temperature.

Which water source is MOST likely to have access that may be difficult because of their backyard location and the presence of fences?
Select one:
a. Cisterns
b. Ground reservoirs
c. Swimming pools
d. Private water storage tanks
See page 415
c. Swimming pools

In a relay operation, which pumper receives water from the source pumper, raises the pressure, and supplies water to the next apparatus?
Select one:
a. Relay pumper
b. Primary pumper
c. Secondary pumper
d. Water supply pumper
See page 427
a. Relay pumper

Putting a relay into operation begins with:
Select one:
a. the largest capacity pumper working from the water source.
b. the smallest capacity pumper working from the water source.
c. a pumper with average capacity working from the water source.
d. the pumper with the most experienced crew working from the water source.
See page 432
a. the largest capacity pumper working from the water source.

When pressure relief valves are preset to allow a predetermined amount of pressure into the fire pump and then the incoming pressure exceeds the preset level, the valve will:
Select one:
a. automatically close.
b. initiate a warning light that is seen in the cab.
c. close slowly and remain closed until excess pressure/water is stabilized.
d. open and dump excess pressure/water until water is entering the pump at the correct pressure.
See page 435
d. open and dump excess pressure/water until water is entering the pump at the correct pressure.

Which proportioning method uses an external pump to force foam concentrate into the fire stream at the proper ratio in comparison to the flow?
Select one:
a. Injection
b. Induction
c. Premixing
d. Batch mixing
See page 483
a. Injection

The minimum amount of foam solution that must be used on a fire per minute per square foot (square meter) of fire is called the:
Select one:
a. eduction rate.
b. injection rate.
c. application rate.
d. proportioning rate.
See page 488
c. application rate.

Which statement is true about the adequate and/or inadequate production of foam when an in-line proportioner is used?
Select one:
a. A nozzle placed too far above the eductor will result in excessive foaming.
b. Too long an attack line on the discharge side of the eductor will diminish the Venturi effect.
c. A partially closed nozzle will result in a flow rate that will not allow the creation of a Venturi effect.
d. It is acceptable to mix foam concentrates from different manufacturers as long as they are the same class.
See page 505
c. A partially closed nozzle will result in a flow rate that will not allow the creation of a Venturi effect.

Which statement about batch mixing is accurate?
Select one:
a. It is very complex.
b. It is potentially inaccurate.
c. It is most effective during large incidents.
d. It uses the pressure of a water stream to draft foam.
See page 483
b. It is potentially inaccurate

Because it forms a rigid coating that adheres well and is slow to drain, the best consistency of Class A foam for vertical surfaces is:
Select one:
a. dry foam.
b. wet foam.
c. hard foam.
d. medium foam.
See page 488
a. dry foam.

The process of foam decomposition results in the consumption of:
Select one:
a. oxygen.
b. aquatic life.
c. fresh water.
d. carbon dioxide.
See page 508
a. oxygen

Which test is performed to ensure that the pumps and associated piping are capable of withstanding high pressure pumping demands?
Select one:
a. Hydrostatic testing
b. Hydrophobic testing
c. Pumping output testing
d. Pumping overload testing
See page 517
a. Hydrostatic testing

During service testing, personnel should operate the engine throttle slowly in order to help prevent which potentially dangerous situation from occurring?
Select one:
a. Sudden speed changes
b. Gradual speed changes
c. Sudden pressure changes
d. Gradual pressure changes
See page 523
a. Sudden speed changes

Reduced water volume or pressure from hydrants can result from:
Select one:
a. open water mains.
b. open isolation valves.
c. greater demand than the system can provide.
d. the use of both wet-barrel and dry-barrel hydrants in the same system.
See page A-57
c. greater demand than the system can provide.

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