USPA B WRITTEN EXAM LICENSE EXAM 2023-2024 ACTUAL
EXAM 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |AGRADE
All persons participating in skydiving should be familiar with –
ANSWER- the Skydiver’s Information Manual and all federal, state, and
local regulationsand rules pertaining to skydiving
No skydive may be made in – ANSWER- violation of FAA regulations
FAA regulations include – ANSWER- the use of restraint systems in the
aircraftby all skydivers during movement on the surface, takeoff, and
landing
All persons engaging in skydiving must – ANSWER- 1 Posses a current
FAA Third-Class Medical Certificate
2 Carry a certificate of physical fitness for skydiving from a registered
physician
3 Have completed the USPA recommended medical statement
Any skydiver acting as parachutist-in-command on a tandem jump must
posses – ANSWER- a current Third Class Medical Certificate or
equivalent acceptable to USPA
For skydives made within the U.S. and its territories and possessions,
skydivers must be _ years old – ANSWER- 18 All skydivers who are 16 or older and licensed prior to _ are
exempt. – ANSWER- May 1, 2014
For skydives made outside the U.S. and its territories and possessions,
the minimum age is – ANSWER- specified by the country’s requirements
No person may make a parachute jump, or attempt to make a jump, if
that person is or appears to be under the influence of either – ANSWERalcohol or any drug that affects that person’s faculties in any way
contrary to safety
Maximum ground winds For all solo students – ANSWER- 14 mph for
ram-air canopies and 10 mph for round reserves
Maximum ground winds for licensed skydivers are – ANSWERunlimited
Minimum container opening Tandem jumps – ANSWER- 4,500 feet
AGL
Minimum container opening All students and A-license holders –
ANSWER- 3,000 feet AGL
Minimum container opening B-license holders – ANSWER- 2,500 feet
AGL
Minimum container opening C- and D-license holders – ANSWER2,500 feet AGL waiverable to a minimum altitude of 2,000 feet AGL
minimum radial distances to the nearest hazard solo students and Alicense holders – ANSWER- 100 meters
minimum radial distances to the nearest hazard B- and C-license holders
and all tandem skydives – ANSWER- 50 meters
minimum radial distances to the nearest hazard D-license holders –
ANSWER- 12 meters
Hazards are defined as – ANSWER- telephone and power lines, towers,
buildings, open bodies of water, highways, automobiles, and clusters of
trees covering more than 3,000 square meters
Manned ground-to-air communications – ANSWER- are to be present on
the drop zone during skydiving operations
The appropriate altitude and surface winds – ANSWER- are to be
determined prior to conducting any skydive.
Night, water, and demonstration jumps are to be performed only with –
ANSWER- the advice of the local USPA S&TA, Instructor Examiner, or
Regional Director.
pre-planned breakaway jumps are to be made by only – ANSWER- class
C- and D-licenseholders using FAA TSO’ed equipment
Demonstration jumps into Level 2 areas require – ANSWER- a D license
with a USPA PRO Rating for all jumpers, including both tandem jump
participants
Contact canopy formation activity is – ANSWER- prohibited on tandem
jumps
Tandem jumps into stadiums – ANSWER- are prohibited
Any person performing a wingsuit jump must have – ANSWER- at least
200 skydives, and hold a current USPA license
when performing night jumps, each skydiver must display a light that is
visible for at least – ANSWER- three statute miles from the time the
jumper is under an open parachute until landing
ll skydivers wearing a round main or reserve canopy and all solo
students must wear flotation gear when the intended exit, opening, or
landing point is within – ANSWER- one mile of an open body of water
USPA A WRITTEN EXAM LICENSE EXAM 2023-2024 ACTUAL
EXAM 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |AGRADE
If the pilot chute extracts the deployment bag from the parachute
container (backpack) but the deployment bag fails to release the
parachute canopy for inflation, what is the correct response – ANSWERCut away and deploy the reserve
If part of the deployed parachute is caught on the jumper or the
equipment (horseshoe),what is the correct response – ANSWER- Cut
away and deploy the reserve
What are the three legs of the canopy landing pattern with relation to the
wind direction – ANSWER- Downwind (with the wind), base (across the
wind but downwind of the target), and final (into the wind)
Why is it undesirable to land off the end of a runway – ANSWERApproaching and departing aircraft
How would you address the following routine opening problem: Slider
stops halfway down – ANSWER- Pump rear risers or steering controls at
the bottom of the stroke while watching altitude to 2,500 feet
In flat and stable freefall at terminal velocity, how long does it take an
average jumper to fall 1,000 feet – ANSWER- 5.5 seconds
What is the correct procedure for recovering from instability to the
belly-to-earth position – ANSWER- Altitude, arch, legs, relax
Which is better, to pull at the planned altitude or to fall lower to get
stable before pulling – ANSWER- Pull at the planned altitude, regardless
of stability
What is the purpose of the wave-off before deployment – ANSWER- To
signal other jumpers
What is the purpose of the parachute landing fall (PLF), and why is it
important for skydivers – ANSWER- It protects against hard landings,
and all skydivers have hard landings
What part of the landing pattern is most dangerous to skydivers –
ANSWER- The intersection of the base and final approach legs
How do higher wind speeds affect the planned landing pattern as
compared to the pattern plan for a calm day – ANSWER- Shortens the
final approach, shortens the base leg, lengthens the downwind leg, and
places the planned pattern entry point farther upwind
In moderately strong winds, how far downwind of an obstacle would
you expect to find turbulence – ANSWER- 10-20 times the height of the
obstacle
What is the best procedure to use when flying your canopy in turbulent
conditions – ANSWER- Keep the canopy flying in a straight line at full
flight (or as directed by the owner’s manual)
Why is it important to protect your parachute system operation handles
when in and around the aircraft – ANSWER- Keeps them in place and
prevents accidental or premature deployment
What is the equipment pre-flight strategy to use before putting on your
gear – ANSWER- Top to bottom, back to front.
How does the three-ring main canopy release system disconnect the
main parachute from the harness – ANSWER- Pulls the cables to release
the cloth loop
How do you know if a reserve parachute has been packed by an FAA
rigger within the last 180 days – ANSWER- Information found on the
reserve packing data card
How do you know the reserve container has not been opened since the
FAA rigger last closed it – ANSWER- Rigger’s packing seal on the
reserve ripcord
USPA D WRITTEN EXAM LICENSE EXAM 2023-2024 ACTUAL
EXAM 50 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |AGRADE
1) What is the first priority of your pull priorities
pull—you must deploy the parachute
2) What is the second priority of your pull priorities?
pull at the proper altitude
3) What is the third priority of your pull priorities?
pull at the proper altitude while stable
4) You should check your altitude:
whenever uncertain of your altitude and at least every five seconds
during freefall,whenever you encounter any difficulty such as during
instability, malfunctions, or emergencies, before and after every
maneuver,all of the answers are correct
5) What is the first priority of your landing priorities?
land with the wing level
6) What is the second priority of your landing priorities?
land in a clear and open area
7) What is the third priority of your landing priorities?
flare to at least the half-brake position and prepare for a PLF
8) To prevent a collision with another jumper under canopy:
look before you turn
9) The jumper under canopy that has the right-of-way is:
the lower jumper
10) When approaching another jumper head-on under canopy, you
should:
turn right
USPA C LICENSE EXAM 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM 60
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |AGRADE
How do higher wind speeds affect the planned landing pattern as
compared to the pattern plan for a calm day? – ANSWER- shortens the
final approach, shortens the base leg, lengthens the downwind leg, and
places the planned pattern entry point farther upwind
In moderately strong winds, how far downwind of an obstacle would
you expect to find turbulence? – ANSWER- 10-20 times the height of
the obstacle
What is the best procedure to use when flying your canopy in turbulent
conditions? – ANSWER- Keep the canopy flying in a straight line at full
flight (or as directed by the owner’s manual).
What weather conditions and wind direction(s) are most likely to cause
turbulence at your drop zone? – ANSWER- according to the local
landing area and obstacles
Why is it important to protect your parachute system operation handles
when in and around the aircraft? – ANSWER- keeps them in place and
prevents accidental or premature deployment
Describe the equipment pre-flight strategy to use before putting on your
gear. – ANSWER- top to bottom, back to front
How does the three-ring main canopy release system disconnect the
main parachute from the harness? – ANSWER- Pull the cables to release
the cloth loop.
How do you know if a reserve parachute has been packed by an FAA
rigger within the last 180 days? – ANSWER- information found on the
reserve packing data card
How do you know the reserve container has not been opened since
the FAA rigger last closed it? – ANSWER- rigger’s packing seal on the
reserve ripcord
If the surface winds are blowing from west to east, which direction will
you face to fly the downwind leg of the landing pattern? – ANSWEReast
What is the wing loading of the
parachute you will use on your next
jump? – ANSWER- Divide the exit weight by the square footage.
Which canopy size (same model design) will exhibit quicker control
response?
a. 210-square feet with a 210-pound jumper (geared up)