RDA Practice Exam 1:RDA Law and Ethics Exam:RDA Written State Board Exam set 1:RDA Written Exam Preparation: RDA Boards Exam: RDA Exam: RDA Written Exam

RDA Practice Exam 1: Questions &
Answers
Direct Supervision refers to?
(Ans- Dentist on premises & examines the treatment performed by DA or
RDA before releasing patient
General Supervision
(Ans- Doctor/Dentist – is out of office, but has scheduled auxiliary to be at
work
Nitrous Oxide administration
(Ans- Dentist – must remain in the operator & Assistant may adjust controls
as directed by the dentist
A parent brings in child to office on the dentist’s day off, the child has a
large cavity. The dentist is unreachable by telephone. The “RDA” should do
or advise what?
(Ans- Refer to another dentist
Under General Supervision the RDA may perform?
(Ans1. Mouth Mirror

  1. Place and remove sedative dressings
  2. Expose radiographs
    An impression for a “Hawley Retainer” may legally be taken by who?
    (Ans- Dentist only
    Under Direct supervision the “RDA” may perform?
    (Ans1. Pulp Vitality test
  3. Cementation of temporaries
  4. Size Stainless steel bands, crowns, and orthodontic bands.
    Under Direct Supervision the dental assistant may perform what?
    (Ans1. Place topical anesthetic
  5. Monitor Vital signs
  6. Place rubber dam
    RDA CEU licensure renewal requirements
    (Ans- 1. Twenty-five units of continuing education every two years
    One continuing education unit is equivalent to a lecture or seminar of what?
    (Ans- One hour
    The RDA license is renewed when?
    (Ans1. The RDA’s birthday
  7. Odd or even year of birth
    How many continuing education units may be earned in Category 1 and
    Category II?
    (Ans- At least half must be Category II
    The maximum number of continuing education units which may be earned
    in “one day” are how many?
    (Ans- 8 units
    To qualify to the the RDA examination, one must meet any of the following
    criteria
    (Ans1. Graduate dental assisting program – accredited by the California Board
    of Dental Examiners
  8. Eighteen months – full-time work experience in a dental office

RDA Law and Ethics Exam: Question &
Answers
conditional duties of an RDA
(Ansa- remove excess cement with an ultrasonic scaler from supragivgival
surfaces of teeth undergoing ortho treatment
b- allowable duties of an ortho assistant permitholder
c- allowable duties of a dental sedation assistant permitholder
d- application of pit and fissure sealants
when can an RDA perform conditional duties?
(Ans- only when they have completed a board-approved educational
program or when they can provide evidence on completing a boardapproved course in the specific subject
what evidence does an RDA need to provide to accompany their first
license renewal (regarding conditional duties)?
(Ans- evidence of completion of a board-approved pit and fissure sealants
course; if not, license will be suspended
what duties may a DA/RDA/RDAEF perform while working for/at a primary
care clinic or specialty clinic?
(Ans- any extraoral duty, coronal polish, topical fluoride application, pit and
fissure sealants (if course completed) when under Direct Supervision of
RDH/RDHAP
dental auxillary
(Ans- a person who may perform dental supportive procedures under
specified supervision of a licensed DDS

dental assistant
(Ans- unlicensed person who may perform basic supportive procedures
under the supervision of a DDS
registered dental assistant
(Ans- a licensed person who may perform all authorized procedures in
addition to all basic supportive procedures a DA may perform
direct supervision
(Ans- supervision of dental procedures based of DDS instruction and the
DDS being physically present in treatment facility during the specified
procedure
general supervision
(Ans- supervision of dental procedures based on DDS instruction but where
DDS must not be physically present during time of specified procedure
basic supportive dental procedures
(Ans- dental procedures categorized by their technically elementary
characteristics, complete reversibility and inability to create potentially
hazardous conditions for the PT
continuing education
(Ans- a condition of license renewal, the submission if evidence of an
RDA/RDH/DDS continuing to stay educated on new and improving
developments in the practice of dentistry, as well as reviewing infection
control procedures, dental law, and BLS
how much of an RDAs contiuing education can the Board dictate?
(Ans- 7.5 hrs in the general areas of PT care, health and safety, and law
and ethics
(for DDS, 15 hrs)

how many hours of continuing education does an RDA need to complete
for each renewal?
(Ans- 25 hours, with 2hrs Infection Control, 2 hrs Dental Practice Act, a
BLS course (no more that 4 hours)
standard precautions
(Ans- a group of infection control and prevention practices that apply to all
PTs equally, including the use of PPE, safe handling of sharps
critical vs. semi-critical vs. non-critical items
(Anscritical – penetrates bone and soft tissue, highest potential for disease
transmission
semi-critical – touches oral mucosa or non-intact skin but not penetrating
soft tissue or bone
non-critical – items used in PT care but not oral mucosa membranes, much
lower risk of transmission
levels of disinfection
(Anslow – kills some bacteria, microorganisms, viruses but not Tb or spores
intermediate – kills Tb, but not necessarily spores
high – kills Tb and some spores, but not guaranteed to kill all spores
germicide
(Anschemical agent used to disinfect items/surfaces based on level of
contamination
sterilization
(Ansvalidated process of rendering ALL viable forms of microorganisms inactive
(kills all spores)

RDA Written State Board Exam set 1
The RDA performing mouth mirror inspection should be able to:
(Ans – differentiate abnormal conditions from normal conditions.
The dental assistant may not perform what procedures without proof of
completion of a course approved by the Dental Board of California:
(Ans – Ultra sonic scaling for removal of cement from ortho bands and pit
and fissure sealants.
The RDA license renewal period with proof of education is required every?
(Ans – Two years (2)
What is not a requirement for RDA license renewal?
(Ans – course in Law and Ethics
Placement and cementation of temporary crowns is a duty permitted by:
(Ans – The RDA
In addition to using an explorer, another instrument used by the RDA
during oral examination is a:
(Ans – mouth mirror
The DA may NOT take impressions for:
(Ans – Toothborne prosthesis
Fitting and cementing gutta percha points is a duty of the:
(Ans – RDAEF under direct
Exposure of intraoral radiographs, with a CA Radiation Safety Cert, is a
duty of the:
(Ans – DA under general

Under general supervision the DA may NOT:
(Ans – Take facebrow transfers and bite registrations.
Non aerosol and caustic topical agents may be applied by the:
(Ans – DA under direct
The RDA may NOT:
(Ans – Adjust and cement permanent restorations.
A duty NOT delegated to the Dental Sedation Assistant permit holder is:
(Ans – Placement of intravenous lines.
How many hours of CE are required by the RDA every two years, for
licensure renewals:
(Ans – 25 hours
A duty of the orthodontic assistant permit holder is:
(Ans –
*size orthodontic bands
*cement ortho bands
*place and ligate archwires
A mother brings her child into the office when the dentist is not in. The child
was last seen 18 months prior and now has a toothache and an obvious lrg
cavity, you:
(Ans – Perform a mouth mirror oral inspection and reschedule the patient.
The administration of nitrous oxide is a duty of the:
(Ans – Dentist ONLY
What is not true in regards to “direct supervision”:
(Ans – The dentist must be present in the operatory during treatment

The placement and removal of a rubber dam may be leagally performed by
the:
(Ans – DA / direct
Placement of a temporary sedative dressing may be performed by the:
(Ans – RDA
All RDA’s may:
(Ans – perform all the duties of the DA
Coronal polishing may be performed by:
(Ans – RDA
This is not an act in violation of the Dental Practice Act:
(Ans – Failure to contact the patient at home after a surgical procedure
Who shall be responsible for ensuring that the dental assistant maintains
certification basic life support:
(Ans – the dentist
Who is NOT required to maintain current CPR in a dental office:
(Ans – Insurance coordinators
The mouth mirror, scaler or spoon excavator can be used by a dental
assistant to remove excess cement following the removal of orthodontic
bands?
(Ans – False
Who is allowed to place, contour and finish a composite restoration:
(Ans – ONLY the RDAEF licensed after Jan 1, 2010
Taking an impression for an ortho retainer is the duty of the:
(Ans – DA / direct

RDA Written Exam Preparation
Questions & Answers
The patient record is a permanent document of whom
(Ans- The patient
The dental history portion of a patient record provides a dental team with
information regarding
(Ans- Previous dental care and treatment
Which of the following describes the best way to remain approachable to
an anxious patient
(Ans- Encourage questions
Who legally owns a patient’s dental radiographs
(Ans- The dentist
What charting symbol best indicates a tooth that is not visible in the mouth
(Ans- X through the tooth
A base is placed
(AnsAs a measure of protection for the pulp.
Because decay or trauma was close to the pulp.
On the floor of the tooth preparation
Calcium hydroxide is used in dentistry as a
(Ans- Liner
Which of the following products contains calcium hydroxide
(Ans- Dycal

According to California regulations, Who is legally allowed to place a BASE
during restorative procedure
(AnsDentist
RDA
What is a temporary sedative dressing
(Ans- A temporary filling
According to California regulations, who is legally allowed to place a LINER
during a restorative procedure
(AnsDentist
RDA
The two types of temporary sedative dressing materials are
(AnsIRM
Cavit
When using Etchant, how long is it left on the tooth structure
(Ans- 15-20 seconds
The smear layer is
(Ans- A protective secretion produced by the layers of the teeth
Etchant material is
(AnsTypically electric blue in color
37-39% phosphoric acid
Very bitter tasting
What benefit does etchant provides during the bonding procedure
(Ans- Roughen up the enamel and or dentinal layers in preparation for
bonding

A self etching adhesive eliminates the need to
(Ans- Rinse Etchant from the tooth
According to California regulations, who is legally allowed to place Etchant
on tooth structure for purposes of a restoration or dental sealants
(Ans

  • Dentist
    RDA
    The term polymerization means to
    (AnsCure
    Set
    Harden
    If a material notes that it is “dual cure” that means
    (AnsThe material will enter the initial setting phase on its own, but needs the
    curing light to complete the setting process
    A provisional coverage also could be called
    (Ans- A temporary restoration
    The two types of temporary crowns are
    (AnsCustom
    Preformed
    A custom temporary is made out of
    (Ans- Acrylic material
    According to California regulations, Who is legally allowed to Fabricate and
    cement a provisional restoration

RDA Boards Exam: Questions &
Answers
according to the CDC, which infection control measure is considered the
most critical for reducing the transmission of microbes in the healthcare
setting?
(Ans- hand washing
In a dental setting, the clinical supply refrigerator may be used for the
preservation of?
(Ans- bonding materials
a used dental anesthetic needle is an example of?
(Ans- regulated waste
employees must receive training regarding hazardous chemicals at which
interval?
(Ans- upon hire and whenever a new hazard is introduced
the OSHA hazard communication standard is based on the premise that an
employee has the right to know
(Ans- chemicals in the office
which set of precautions is intended to prevent exposure to all body fluids
(Ans- standard
the majority of the spray produced by dental hand pieces consists of
(Ans- saliva
which of the following viral infection can be prevented through
immunization
(Ans- hepatitis B

according to the occupational safety and health administration (OSHAP), a
blood-borne pathogens training program should include a general
explanation of
(Ans- the modes of disease transmission
routine hand washing removes
(Ans- most of the transient microbes and some of the resident microbes
which of the following greatly reduces or eliminates bio-film in the dental
unit water system
(Ans- properly using chemical treatment
which of the following modes of disease transmission best describes a
human bite
(Ans- parenteral
the primary reason a surgical face mask must be used during dental
procedure is to
(Ans- protect the DHCP from exposure to spatter
instrument cassettes should be wrapped
(Ans- after cleaning and before sterilization
used radio-graph fixer solution is usually considered
(Ans- hazardous waste
which party is responsible for ensuring a Material Safety Data sheet is
available in the work place for each hazardous material
(Ans- employer
which of the following statements most accurately defines engineering
controls
(Ans- materials and devices that prevent employee exposure to hazardous
of infectious substances

when using the air water syringe during treatment, which of the following
personal protective equipment are recommended by the CDC
(Ans- gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection
according to the Centers of Disease Control and Prevention, patient-care
items that penetrate soft tissue are categorized as
(Ans- critical
the purpose of holding solution is to
(Ans- prevent hardening of debris and body fluids on instruments
which barrier should be removed before temporarily leaving a patient to
retrieve supplies
(Ans- gloves
the majority of organisms that make up dental unit waterline biofilm
consists of
(Ans- water bacteria
material safety data sheet (MSDS) are required by OSHA’s
(Ans- Hazard Communication Standard
besides alcohol, which of the following is common antimicrobial agent
found in hand hygiene products
(Ans- Chlorohexidine
the accessibility of the exposure control plan for employees is the
responsibility of the
(Ans- employer
high level disinfectants should be used
(Ans- according to the manufacturer’s direction

RDA Law and Ethics Exam Study Guide
conditional duties of an RDA
(Ansa- remove excess cement with an ultrasonic scaler from supragivgival
surfaces of teeth undergoing ortho treatment
b- allowable duties of an ortho assistant permitholder
c- allowable duties of a dental sedation assistant permitholder
d- application of pit and fissure sealants
when can an RDA perform conditional duties?
(Ansonly when they have completed a board-approved educational program or
when they can provide evidence on completing a board-approved course in
the specific subject
what evidence does an RDA need to provide to accompany their first
license renewal (regarding conditional duties)?
(Ansevidence of completion of a board-approved pit and fissure sealants
course; if not, license will be suspended
what duties may a DA/RDA/RDAEF perform while working for/at a primary
care clinic or specialty clinic?
(Ans- any extraoral duty, coronal polish, topical fluoride application, pit and
fissure sealants (if course completed) when under Direct Supervision of
RDH/RDHAP
dental auxillary
(Ans- a person who may perform dental supportive procedures under
specified supervision of a licensed DDS

dental assistant
(Ans- unlicensed person who may perform basic supportive procedures
under the supervision of a DDS
registered dental assistant
(Ans- a licensed person who may perform all authorized procedures in
addition to all basic supportive procedures a DA may perform
direct supervision
(Ans- supervision of dental procedures based of DDS instruction and the
DDS being physically present in treatment facility during the specified
procedure
general supervision
(Ans- supervision of dental procedures based on DDS instruction but where
DDS must not be physically present during time of specified procedure
basic supportive dental procedures
(Ans- dental procedures categorized by their technically elementary
characteristics, complete reversibility and inability to create potentially
hazardous conditions for the PT
continuing education
(Ans- a condition of license renewal, the submission if evidence of an
RDA/RDH/DDS continuing to stay educated on new and improving
developments in the practice of dentistry, as well as reviewing infection
control procedures, dental law, and BLS
how much of an RDAs contiuing education can the Board dictate?
(Ans7.5 hrs in the general areas of PT care, health and safety, and law and
ethics
(for DDS, 15 hrs)

how many hours of continuing education does an RDA need to complete
for each renewal?
(Ans- 25 hours, with 2hrs Infection Control, 2 hrs Dental Practice Act, a
BLS course (no more that 4 hours)
standard precautions
(Ans- a group of infection control and prevention practices that apply to all
PTs equally, including the use of PPE, safe handling of sharps
critical vs. semi-critical vs. non-critical items
(Ans- critical – penetrates bone and soft tissue, highest potential for
disease transmission
semi-critical – touches oral mucosa or non-intact skin but not penetrating
soft tissue or bone
non-critical – items used in PT care but not oral mucosa membranes, much
lower risk of transmission
levels of disinfection
(Ans- low – kills some bacteria, microorganisms, viruses but not Tb or
spores
intermediate – kills Tb, but not necessarily spores
high – kills Tb and some spores, but not guaranteed to kill all spores
germicide
(Ans- chemical agent used to disinfect items/surfaces based on level of
contamination
sterilization
(Ans- validated process of rendering ALL viable forms of microorganisms
inactive (kills all spores)
PPE
(Ans- specialized clothing or equipment used to protect against a hazard
(general work attire NOT included)

RDA Exam Study Guide: Questions &
Answers
The dental assistant is solely responsible for any acts or procedures
performed in the dental office: True or False?
(Ans- False
A dental assistant’s registration may be revoked for all EXCEPT the
following:
A. Violation of the rules of the SBDE
B. Violation of the Texas Dental Practice Act
C. Other applicable rules or statuses affecting radiological procedures in
Texas
D. Violations do not apply to dental assistants
(Ans- D. Violations do not apply to dental assistants
Which of the following would be considered “Unprofessional Conduct?”
A. Collect fees by fraud
B. Orally soliciting dental business to a particular dental practice
C. Claiming superiority in providing dental care
D. All of the above
(Ans- D. All of the above
In the occupational code, “Under Direct Supervision” is defined as the
dentist does not need to be in the building when delegating duties. True or
False?
(Ans- False
All dental assistants must be registered in the state of Texas by September
1, 2007. True or False?
(Ans- False

Under which of the following circumstances may a licensed dentist
delegate a dental assistant to apply Pit & Fissure sealants?
A: Assistant is employed by the dentist and performs the procedure under
direct supervision
B: Assistant is not employed by dentist but performs the procedure under
direct supervision
C: Dentist is a Medicaid provider or Services are being performed in an
area determined to be under served by the Department of Human Services
D: None of the above
(Ans- C: Dentist is a Medicaid provider or Services are being performed in
an area determined to be under served by the Department of Human
Services
A visual dental health inspection is performed by:
A: A dentist only
B: A registered dental assistant
C: By a dentist using a mouth mirror and explorer
D: Can be performed by a DHCW using only a tongue depressor and light
(Ans- D: Can be performed by a DHCW using only a tongue depressor and
light
The Dentist is responsible for any delegated act. True or False? (Ans- True
A dentist MAY delegate to a dental assistant which which of the following
procedures:
A: Removal of calculus
B: Comprehensive evaluation
C: Cutting hard or soft tissue
D: Processing of dental x-rays
(Ans- D: Processing of dental x-rays
The board can refuse to issue a license to a person who has been
convicted of a felony. True or False?
(Ans- True

A visual dental health inspection is performed by:
A: A dentist only
B: A registered dental assistant
C: By a dentist using a mouth mirror and explorer
D: can be performed by a DHCW using a tongue depressor and light
(Ans- D: can be performed by a DHCW using a tongue depressor and light
Under what circumstances can a licensed dentist delegate a dental
assistant to use a rubber prophylaxis cup and polishing materials on a
patient’s teeth?
A: for the purpose of removing extrinsic enamel stains
B: to prepare the smooth surface of the tooth sealants; cleanse the tooth
surface prior to bonding orthodontic bracket
C: Remove calculus
D: to remove plaque formation above and just below the gingival
(Ans- B: to prepare the smooth surface of the tooth sealants; cleanse the
tooth surface prior to bonding orthodontic bracket
The term ‘reversible” means:
A: Unable to be reverted or corrected
B: May only be performed under direct supervision of a licensed dentist
C: Able to be reversed or corrected
D: May be performed by non-registered dental assistant
(Ans- C: Able to be reversed or corrected
Which of the following would be considered a “Professional Conduct”
violation and receive disciplinary action from the board:
A: obtaining or attempting to collect a fee by fraud or misrepresentation
B: Employing, directly or indirectly, or permitted an unlicensed person to
perform dental services on a person, except as authorized by law.
C: Making a false statement or misusing a legal; document related to the
practice of dentistry
D: All the above
(Ans- D: All the above

RDA Exam: Questions & Answers
Supernumerary teeth are best detected using what type of image receptor?
(Ans- panoramic
The most common radiographic exposure used to evaluate a dental implant
on an adult is:
bitewing.
panoramic.
occlusal.
periapical.
(Ans- periapical
Compared to a dentulous patient, radiographic exposure time on an
edentulous adult patient should:
remain unchanged
decrease
be doubled
increase
(Ans- decrease
Which image would be best utilized to see the relationship of the alveolar
bone?
Periapical
Vertical bitewing
Horizontal bitewing
Occlusal
(Ans- vertical bitewing
Where is the most common area in the oral cavity for a dentigerous cyst?
Around the third molars
Around the canines
Between the central incisors
Between the premolars (Ans- around the third molars

After using a lead apron on a patient for digital radiograph exposure, it
should be:
sprayed with high level disinfectant.
covered with a barrier.
wiped with intermediate disinfectant.
folded and stored in a closed cupboard for future use.
(Ans- wiped with intermediate disinfectant
The total destruction of microorganisms and spores on reusable
instruments is accomplished by:
disinfecting.
sterilizing.
ultrasonic immersion.
spraying with a germicide.
(Ans- sterilizing
A panoramic image appears to have a “reverse smile” when the:
Frankfort plane is angled upward.
midsagittal plane is angled to the right.
midsagittal plane is angled to the left.
Frankfort plane is angled downward.
(Ans- Frankfort plane is angled upward
On a full mouth series with eighteen images, how many anterior images are
exposed?
5
6
7
8
(Ans- 6
To view an abscess on tooth #25, the best radiographic exposure is a/an
occlusal.
panoramic.

bitewing.
periapical.
(Ans- periapical
Which of the following regulates the manufacturing and installation of x-ray
equipment?
American Dental Association
Federal Government
Local Government
State Government
(Ans- Federal Government
During radiographic exposures, semi-critical items that must be sterilized or
disposed of include:
sensor positioning devices.
tubehead.
exposure buttons.
PID.
(Ans- sensor positioning devices
ALARA is primarily concerned with the radiation that is
terrestrial.
artificial.
environmental.
cosmic.
(Ans- artificial
On an anterior image, the anterior alveolar crest normally appears:
flat and smooth
as a triangular-shaped radiopacity
as a dense radiopaque line
pointed and sharp
(Ans- pointed and sharp

Prior to exposing dental radiographs on a visually impaired patient, the
dental assistant should:
set the exposure time to increase radiation.
ask the caregiver to stabilize the image receptor.
use touch to explain the equipment and procedure.
set the exposure time to decrease radiation.
(Ans- use touch to explain the equipment and procedure
Which of the following would cause elongation on a radiograph?
Excessive horizontal angulation
Excessive vertical angulation
Insufficient vertical angulation
Insufficient horizontal angulation
(Ans- Insufficient vertical angulation
The most important step the dentist can take in protecting patients from xradiation is to:
avoid filtration.
properly use collimation.
avoid positioning devices.
properly prescribe radiographs.
(Ans- properly prescribe radiographs
For x-ray machines operating in ranges at or below 70 kVp, the total
aluminum equivalent filtration must be a minimum of
1.0 mm.
1.5 mm.
2.0 mm.
2.5 mm.
(Ans- 1.5 mm
Which of the following errors occur when the vertical angulation is
incorrect?
Blurred image
Elongation

RDA Written Exam: Questions &
Answers
the patient record is a permanent document of whom
a. the dentist
b. a court of law
c. the patient
d. the dental practice
(Ans- c
the dental history portion of a patient record provides the dental team with
information regarding
a. previous dental care and treatment
b. necessary dental care and treatment
c. dental procedures that are legal for the dental assistant to complete
d. information about the previous dentist
(Ans- a
which of the following describes the best way to remain approachable to an
anxious patient
a. work slowly
b. encourage questions
c. encourage quiet
d.work quickly (Ans- b

who legally owns a patient’s dental radiographs
a. the patient
b. the radiologist
c. the dentist
d. the physician
(Ans- c
what charting symbol best indicates a tooth not visible in the mouth
a. circle around the tooth
b. outline with diagonal lines
c. x through the tooth
d. diagonal line
(Ans- c
a base is placed __
a. as a measure of protection for the pulp
b. because decay or trauma was close to the pulp
c. on the floor of the tooth preparation
d. all of the above
(Ans- d
calcium hydroxide is used in dentistry as a
a. base
b. liner

c. matrix
d. all of the above
(Ans- b
which of the following products contain calcium hydroxide
a. dycal
b. zpc
c. zoe
d. polycarboxylate
(Ans- a
according to california regulations, who is legally allowed to place a base
during a restorative procedure
a. dentist
b. rda
c. da
d. a and b
(Ans- d
what is a temporary sedative dressing
a. a temporary crown
b. a permanent restoration
c. a temporary filling
d. gauze placed after a surgery (Ans- c

according to california regulations, who is legally allowed to place a liner
during a restorative procedure
a. dentist
b. rda
c. da
d. a and b
(Ans- d
the two types of temporary sedative dressing materials are
a. zoe and zpc
b. vitrebond and dycal
c. irm and cavit
d. polycarboxylate and zoe
(Ans- c
when using etchant, how long is it left on the tooth structure
a. 10 seconds
b. 1 minute
c. 15-20 seconds
d. 20-25 seconds
(Ans- c
the smear layer is _
a. oil left behind during placement of restoration

RDA written Exam: Questions &
Answers
according to the CDC which infection control measure is considered the
most critical for reducing the transmission of microbes in the health care
setting?
(Ans- hand washing
in a dental setting the clinical supply refrigerator may be used for the
preservation of
(Ans- bonding materials
A used dental anesthetic needle is an example of
(Ans- regulated waste
Employees must receive training regarding hazardous chemicals at which
interval?
(Ans- upon hire and whenever a new hazard is introduced
The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard is based on the premise that
an employee has the right to know about
(Ans- chemicals in the office
Which set of precautions is intended to prevent exposure to all body fluids?
(Ans- Standard
The majority of the spray produced by dental hand pieces consists of
(Ans- saliva
which of the following viral infections can be prevented through
immunization?
(Ans- Hepatitis B

According to the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHAP),
a bloodborne pathogens training program should include a general
explanation of
(Ans- the modes of disease transmission
Routine hand washing removes
(Ans- most of the transient microbes and some of the resident microbes
Which of the following greatly reduces or eliminates biofilm in the dental
unit water system?
Ans- properly using chemical treatments
which of the following modes of disease transmission best describes a
human bite?
(Ans- parenteral
the primary reason a surgical face mask must be used during a dental
procedure is to
(Ans- protect the DHCP from exposure to spatter
Instrument cassettes should be wrapped
(Ans- after cleaning and before sterilization
Used radiograph fixer solution is usually considered
(Ans- hazardous waste
Which party is responsible for ensuring a Material Safety Data Sheet is
available in the work place for each hazardous material?
(Ans- Employer
Which of the following statements most accurately defines engineering
controls?
(Ans- Materials and devices that prevent employees exposure to
hazardous or infectious substances

When using the air water syringe during dental treatment which of the
following personal protective equipment are recommended by the CDC?
(Ans- gloves, mask, gown, and eye protection
According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention, patient-care
items that penetrate soft tissue are categorized as
(Ans- critical
The purpose of a holding solution is to
(Ans- prevent hardening of debris and body fluids on instruments
Which barrier should be removed before temporarily leaving a patient to
retrieve supplies?
(Ans- gloves
The majority of organisms that make up dental unit waterline biofilm
consists of
(Ans- water bacteria
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) are required by OSHA’S
(Ans- Hazardous Communication Standard
Besides alcohol, which of the following is a common antimicrobial agent
found in hand hygiene products?
(Ans- Chlorohexidine
The accessibility of the exposure control plan for employees is the
responsibility of the
(Ans- employer
High- level disinfectants should be used
(Ans- according to the manufacturer’s directions

RDA Written and Law Exam: Questions
& Answers
What charting symbol best indicates a tooth that is not visible in the mouth?
a. Circle around the tooth
b. Outlined with diagonal lines
c. X through the tooth
d. Diagonal lines
(Ans- C.
A base is placed __:
a. as a measure of protection for the pulp
b. when decay or damage is too close to the pulp
c. on the floor of the tooth preparation
d. A, B, and C are all correct
(Ans- D.
According to the Dental Board regulations, how long should sterilization
monitoring records be stored?
a. three years from the date the load was originally processed
b. one week after the load was originally processed
c. one year
d. one year after each sterilizer involved was first monitored
(Ans- C.
Which one of the following is an example of an OSHA required sharp with
engineered injury protection?
a. A cardboard needle guard added to a dental anesthetic needle
b. A butterfly needle used to administer IV sedation
c. A self-sheathing needle attached to a dental anesthetic syringe
d. A needle cap holder built into an instrument cassette
(Ans- C.

The air/water syringe is primarily used during the coronal polishing
procedure to :
a. irrigate the oral cavity
b. dry the tooth surfaces
c. encourage drying of the mucosa
d. remove the remaining paste
(Ans- D.
Which of the following should be preformed FIRST if an adult patient does
not has a pulse?
a. call for an emergency assistance
b. administer oxygen
c. call the patients medical doctor
d. administer CPR
(Ans- A.
Oral surgical procedures require the use of _
:
a. chemical agents to disinfect the water and water lines
b. sterile irrigating solutions using a sterile delivery system
c. water that meets the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) surface water
standards
d. water that meets Environmental Protective Agency (EPA) drinking water
standards
(Ans- B.
When setting up an instrument tray or cassette, the instruments should be
set up _:
a. from right to left
b. from left to right
c. from top to bottom
d. from bottom to top
(Ans- B.
Who legally owns a patient’s dental radiographs?
a. the patient

b. the radiologist
c. the dentist
d. the physician
(Ans- C.
Calcium hydroxide is used in dentistry as a .
a. base
b. liner
c. matrix
d. all of the above answers are correct
Ans- B.
Prior to sterilization, loose contaminated instruments are processed in an
ultrasonic cleaner to
:
a. clean then disinfect
b. remove all microorganisms
c. remove debris and bioburden
d. disinfect then clean
(Ans- C.
A critical step for healthcare workers I preventing the spread of disease is
proper hygiene of one’s _:
a. hair
b. eyes
c. face
d. hands
(Ans- D.
The purpose of dental sealants is _______
:
a. to prevent decay from spreading
b. to prevent decay in the pits and fissures of teeth.
c. to promote good oral health
d. to prevent decay from interproximal spaces.
Ans- B.

Elevating the patient’s feet above the head to increase blood flow to the
brain is the response to what medical condition?
a. heart problems
b. syncope
c. allergic reaction
d. diabetes
(Ans- B.
Angle’s Classifications are used to classify and describe _ :
a. natural teeth in the dentition
b. types of dental caries
c. malocclusion
d. hand instruments
(Ans- C.
The portion of a dental instrument held by the operator is called the
____
:
a. shank
b. working end
c. tip
d. handle
(Ans- D.
Which of the following describes the best way to remain approachable to
an anxious patient?
a. work slowly
b. encourage questions
c. encourage quiet
d. work quickly
(Ans- B.
The patient chart is a permanent record in the dental office and is the
property of whom?
a. the dentist
b. a court of law

RDA State Board Exam-Infection control
A group of infection prevention practices that apply to all patients
regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status, in any setting in
which healthcare is delivered. These include; hand hygiene, use of gloves,
gown, mask eye protection, or face shield depending on the anticipated
exposure and the safe handling of sharps.
(Ans- Standard Precautions
Confer a high risk for infection if they are contaminated with any
microorganism. These include all instruments, devices and other items
used to penetrate soft tissue or bone.
(Ans- Critical items
Instruments, devices and other items that are not used to penetrate soft
tissue or bone, but contact oral mucas membranes, non- intact skin or
other potentially infectious materials (OPIM)
(Ans- Semi-critical items
Instruments, devices, equipment and surfaces that come in contact with
soil, debris, saliva, blood, OPIM and intact skin, but not oral mucas
membranes
(Ans- NON-critical items
Is the least effective disinfection process. It kills some bacteria, some
viruses and fungi, but does not kill bacterial spores or mycobacterium
tuberculosis var bovis, a laboratory test organism used to classify the
strength of disinfectant materials.
(Ans- Low-level disinfectant
kills mycobacterium tuberculosis var bovis indicating that many human
pathogens are also killed. This process does not necessarily kill spores.
(Ans- Intermediate-level disinfectant

kills some, but not necessarily all bacterial spores. This process kills
mycobaterium tuberculosis var bovis, bacteria, fungi, and viruses.
(Ans- High-level disinfectant
is a chemical agent that can be used to disinfect items and surfaces based
on the level of contamination.
(Ans- Germicide
is a validated process used to render a product free of all forms of viable
microorganisms.
(Ans- Sterilization
is the removal of visable soil debris and OPIM from objects and surfaces
and shall be accomplished manually or mechanically using water with
detergents or enzymatic products.
(Ans- Cleaning
is specialized clothing or equipment worn or used for protection against a
hazard.
(Ans- PPE’s
(personal protective equipment)
means any one of the following:
human bodily fluids.
any unfixed tissue or organ (other than intact skin) from a human living or
dead. or any of the following if known or rerasoably known to contain or be
infected with HIV, HEP B, OR HEP C:cell, tissue, or organ cultures from
humans or experimental animalsa, blood organs, or other tissues from
experimental animals, or culture medium or other solutions
(Ans- Other Potentially Infectious Materials (OPIM)
Are all paid and non-paid personnel in the dental healthcare setting.who
might be occupationally exposed to infectious materials, including bodily
substances and contaminated supplies, equipment, enviornmental

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