NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 7
Question 1
5 / 5 pts
Multiple choice
The liver is responsible for each of the following EXCEPT:
Producing bile
Stores vitamins and minerals
Correct!
Releases insulin
Synthesizes protein
Question 2
5 / 5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Complications of gallstones include each of the following EXCEPT:
Correct!
Cirrhosis
Biliary obstruction
Pancreatitis
Cholecystitis
Question 3
5 / 5 pts
Multiple choice:
Treatments for gastroesophageal reflux include each of the following EXCEPT:
Losing weight
Sleeping with head elevated
Correct!
Caffeinated beverages
Proton pump inhibitors
Question 4
5 / 5 pts
What symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome would require further investigation?
Select all that apply.
Correct!
Blood in stool
Correct!
Weight loss
Nausea and anorexia
Bloating
Correct!
Anemia
Question 5
5 / 5 pts
Multiple choice
Risk factors for the development of peptic ulcer include each of the following EXCEPT:
pylori infection
Family history of PUD
NSAID use
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 9
Question 1
0 / 5 pts
Multiple Choice
If a patient is taking exogenous forms of corticosteroid hormones, what would their labs show?
You Answered
High levels of ACTH
Correct Answer
Low levels of
ACTH
Hyperkalemia
None of the above
Question 2
5 / 5 pts
Multiple Choice:
The following are common signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome EXCEPT:
Correct!
Hypoglycemia
Mood changes
Muscle weakness
Amenorrhea
Question 3
5 / 5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Primary adrenocortical deficiency (Addison’s disease) is most frequently caused by:
Correct!
Autoimmune mechanisms
Infection
True
False
Question 8
2.5 / 2.5 pts
The production and release of hormones by the hypothalamus requires stimulation by the pituitary gland.
True
Correct!
False
Question 9
5 / 5 pts
What hormone affects nutrient metabolism, regulates blood glucose levels, and has anti-inflammatory
actions?
Insulin
Correct!
Cortisol
Glucagon
T3, T4
Question 10
5 / 5 pts
The anterior pituitary releases which of the following hormones? Select all that apply.
Correct!
TSH
Calcitonin
Correct!
FSH
Correct!
LH
Somatostatin
Question 11
5 / 5 pts
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 8
Question 1
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Each of the following statements are true regarding control over the GFR except:
The kidney can maintain a constant GFR despite variations in the arterial blood pressure of the rest of the
body.
The sympathetic nervous system can supersede the renal autoregulatory system.
Correct!
The RAA responds when blood pressure rises above normal limits.
The RAA responds when blood pressure drops below normal
limits.
Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Which of the following statements is false regarding ADH?
Elevated levels of ADH will lead to a small volume of concentrated
urine. Correct!
Elevated levels of ADH will lead to dilute urine.
decreased levels of ADH will lead to dilute urine.
Alcohol inhibits ADH.
Question 3
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Which of the following statements is true regarding nephrons?
It is divided into an outer medulla and an inner cortex
It has 1 source of blood supply
Correct!
The glomerulus filters the blood while the tubule reabsorbs needed nutrients
Question 4
0 / 2.5 pts
Low Na+
levels in the plasma and interstitial compartment is characteristic of which of the following fluid
imbalances?
You Answered
Dehydration
Correct Answer
Water intoxication
Edema
Question 5
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Reabsorption in the PCT is characterized by the following except:
Na+ and water are reabsorbed in equal proportions
Correct!
Glucose and amino acids are minimally reabsorbed in the PCT
glucose and amino acids are almost completely reabsorbed in the
PCT
Sodium, chloride, potassium, and bicarbonate are 65%-80% reabsorbed from the filtrate
Question 6
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Which of the following is/are true regarding acid-base balance? (mark all that apply)
Correct!
Acid-base balance refers to the balance of the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 3
Question 1
5 / 5 pts Short answer
Explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders.
Your Answer:
Diagnosing is made by history, physical, and serological findings. Since some blood tests are more
generic, results can be imprecise. Markers can be elevated in the presence of other diseases.Criteria for
diagnosis: Evidence of an autoimmune reaction, immunological findings are not second to other
conditions, and no other causes are found.
There are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations. Many manifestations are
nonspecific and are seen in other non-autoimmune diseases. Blood testing isn’t perfect either, as
some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases.
Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which type of immunity is characterized by the development of a specific response to an antigen?
Innate immunity
Correct!
Adaptive immunity
Autoimmunity
Active immunity
Question 3
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
What allows the lymphocyte to differentiate between self and foreign molecules?
Antigen presenting cells
Regulatory cells
Correct!
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule
Effector cells
Question 4
0 / 3 pts
T lymphocytes produce what type of immunity?
Your Answer:
Adaptive immunity
Cell-mediated
Question 5
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 10
Question 1
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Each of the following are true of gout except:
Correct!
Uric acid dissolves readily in synovial fluid
Typically occurs at the first metatarsophalangeal
joint Anyone can get gout
Uric acid is a byproduct of purine metabolism
Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following would a patient likely report if you suspect they have OA?
Stiffness in the morning that lasts longer than 30 minutes
Pain that is alleviated with activity
Correct!
A “grinding feel” with movement
Pain in their MCP joint
Question 3
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Which of the following are true regarding synovial joints? (mark all that apply)
Ball and socket joints are characterized by limited range of motion
Correct!
Condyloid joints allow gliding of irregular joint surfaces
Correct!
They are freely moving
The synovium lines articulating surfaces of the joint
Correct!
The synovium surrounds the joint margins
Question 4
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Cancellous bone receives its blood supply by what means?
Arteries branching from the medullary cavity
Arteries branching inward from the periosteal
arteries Correct!
Diffusion through the endosteal surface of the bone and the canaliculi
Question 5
0 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Which of the following drugs is most commonly prescribed to treat osteoporosis?
Raloxifene
Correct Answer
Alendronate
You Answered
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 4
Question 1
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Which of the following increases the chance of clotting? Select all that apply.
Vitamin K deficiency
Von Willebrand factor deficiency
Correct!
Protein C deficiency
Thrombocytopenia
Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts
A deficiency in which of the following would lead to a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply.
Correct!
Protein C
Correct!
Protein S
Factor II
Factor VII
Factor IX
Factor X
Correct!
Antithrombin III
Question 3
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Which of the following is a hypercoagulable state? Select all that apply.
Hemophilia A
Correct!
Congestive heart failure
Correct!
Smoking
Thrombocytopenia
Correct!
Postsurgical state
Question 4
0 / 2.5 pts
Which of the following is FALSE of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Select all that apply.
Microthrombi cause vessel occlusion and tissue
ischemia You Answered
NURS 231 Pathophysiology
FINAL EXAM
Score for this quiz: 190.5 out of 200
Question 1
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Metaplastic cells are not better prepared to survive under stressful circumstances.
True
Correct!
False
Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions.
Correct!
True
False
Question 3
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice
Which are true of the mitochondria? Select all that apply.
Correct!
It is involved in cellular respiration
They are found far from the site of energy consumption
Correct!
They play a role in apoptosis
They control free radicals
Question 4
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that
apply. Correct!
Controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within
The main structural component is made of proteins
Correct!
Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells
Correct!
Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation
Question 5
10 / 10 pts
Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis.
Your Answer:
Dry gangrene occurs when blood supply is slowly reduced to an area. The area is dehydrated and
becomes dark or black in color. Commonly seen in patients with diabetes. It is not very painful,
but tissues eventually die.
Wet gangrene is casued with a sudden reduction in blood flow. The area is cold and swollen, with
no pulse. This can occur from trauma. Bacteria is involved and is very painful. It has the
appearance of pus, becasue it looks wet. There is also a foul smell.
In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its
color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from
a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene,
the
affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension.
Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial
action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid.
Question 6
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types.
True
Correct!
False
False, cell differentiation
Question 7
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division.
True
Correct!
False
False, cell proliferation
Question 8
2.5 / 2.5 pts
What are two important properties that stem cells possess?
Your Answer:
Stem cells possess potency and self-renewal.
Potency and self-renewal
Question 9
2.5 / 2.5 pts
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 5
Question 1
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Both carbon dioxide and oxygen are able to bind with hemoglobin.
Correct!
True
False
Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Exercise, allergens, and emotion can all contribute to an asthma attack.
Correct!
True
False
Question 3
2.5 / 2.5 pts
The breathing rate is determined by input from that monitor oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH
levels in the blood.
Your Answer:
chemorecpetors
chemoreceptors
Question 4
2.5 / 2.5 pts
The are the actual sites of gas exchange between the air and
blood. Your Answer:
alveoli
alveoli
Question 5
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Asthma is considered reversible airway
bronchoconstriction. Correct!
True
False
Question 6
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Intrapleural pressure is always negative in relation to alveolar pressure in a normal inflated lung.
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 1
Question 1
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
A bodybuilder’s muscles will display hyperplasia.
True
Correct!
False
It will display hypertrophy.
Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia.
True
Correct!
False
It’s metaplasia.
Question 3
0 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the number of cells
You Answered
True
Correct Answer
False
Question 4
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Hypertrophy can occur under normal and pathological conditions.
Correct!
True
False
Question 5
10 / 10 pts
Match the following:
Deals with the cause of death in a population a.
Incidence
Number of new cases in a population at risk during a specified time b.
Prevalence
Number of people with the disease in a population in a given time c.
Morbidity
The effect of an illness on one’s life
d. Mortality
Question 6
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice
Which is NOT true of the cytoskeleton?
It controls shape and movement
Cilia and flagella are microtubule-filled cellular extensions
Correct!
It includes peroxisomes and proteasomes
Peroxisomes and proteasomes are not part of the cytoskeleton.
Question 7
1.67 / 2.5 pts
Which of the following move across the cell membrane via diffusion? Select all that apply.
Correct!
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 2
Question 1
3 / 3 pts
True/False:
Blood tests for tumor markers are the single best screening tool for cancer. Why or why not?
Your Answer:
False. Tumor markers, which can be used for establishig prognosis, monitoring treatment and detecting
recurrent disease, have limitiations. Under benign situations, tumor markers can still be elevated.
Whereas in early stages of malignancy, not elevated. They have a lack of specificity and are then limited
in their ability to screen or diagnose accuratley.
False, they are elevated in benign conditions, most are not elevated in the early stages of
malignancy.
Question 2
3 / 3 pts
Tissue biopsy is of critical importance in what role?
Your Answer:
Play a critical role in histologic and cytologic studies for diagnosis of cancers.
Diagnosing the correct cancer and histology.
Question 3
4 / 4 pts
- List two signs or symptoms a patient may present with that might indicate a cancer diagnosis:
- What are two side effects commonly experienced by cancer
patients? Your Answer:
1) Bleeding and/or weight loss
2) Anorexia, hair loss - Bleeding; sore that doesn’t heal; fluid in the pleural, pericardial, or peritoneal spaces; chest
pain, shortness of breath, cough, abdominal discomfort or swelling. Other possible answers
can include a mass or lump, pain (need to be specific), fatigue, fevers, weight loss - Weight loss, wasting of body fat and muscle tissue, weakness, anorexia, and anemia,
fatigue, sleep disturbances
Question 4
10 / 10 pts
Explain the TNM system:
Your Answer:
TNM system is a detailed staging system, created by AJCC, is used by cancer facilites. It classifies
cancers into stages using 3 tumor components; Tumor, Nodes, Metastasis. T is size and spread of the
primary tumor. N is how involved the lymph nodes. M is the extent of metastatic involvement.
Classification:
Tx, T0, Tis, T1-
4 Nx, N0, N1-3
Mx, M0, M1
T is the size and local spread of the primary tumor.
N is the involvement of the regional lymph nodes.
M is the extent of the metastatic involvement.
Question 5
10 / 10 pts
- When would surgery be appropriate in the treatment of cancer?
- Most chemotherapeutic drugs cause pancytopenia due to bone marrow suppression. What are the
3 possible adverse outcomes of this?
Your Answer: - Surgery can be used if the tumor is solid and small with well-defines margins. Also can be used to treat
oncologic emergencies and be used as prophylactic measures. - 3 possible adverse outcomes are neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia.
- Surgery is often the first treatment for solid tumors. If the tumor is small with well-defined
margins, it can be removed completely. It is also used for oncologic emergencies and prophylactic
surgery in high risk patients.
2.
Neutropenia- risk for infections
Anemia- causing fatigue
Thrombocytopenia- risk for
bleeding
Question 6
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types.
True
Correct!
False
False, cell differentiation
Question 7
2.5 / 2.5 pts
True/False:
Cell differentiation is the process of increasing cell numbers by mitotic cell division.
True
Correct!
False
False, cell proliferation
Question 8
2.5 / 2.5 pts
What are two important properties that stem cells
possess? Your Answer:
Stem cells possess self-renewal and potency.
Self renewal means that they can undergo mitotic divisions while maintaining undifferentiated state.
Potency is the differentiation potential of stem cells.
Potency and self-renewal
NURS 231 Pathophysiology 2022 Module 6
Question 1
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
A patient has experienced a seizure affecting the left temporal lobe. The family reports that the patient
exhibited repetitive lip smacking and hand rubbing followed by a period of great fear and insecurity.
They have experienced which type of seizure?
Focal seizure without impairment of consciousness or
awareness Correct!
Focal seizure with impairment of consciousness or
awareness Generalized tonic/clonic seizure
Question 2
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
A patient is having difficulty tracking their eye laterally. Which cranial nerve is affected?
CN II.
CN III.
CN IV.
Correct!
CN VI.
Question 3
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
You are seeing a patient with Parkinson’s disease in your office. You notice they are repetitively rubbing
their right thumb and forefinger. This is an example of what physical manifestation of the disease?
Correct!
Pill-rolling
Cogwheeling
Bradykinesia
Rigidity
Question 4
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
Sleep spindles are characteristic of which stage of sleep?
Stage 1
Correct!
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
Question 5
2.5 / 2.5 pts
Multiple Choice:
A person reports feelings of worthlessness and guilt as well as difficulty sleeping. As they are speaking,
you notice a repetitive, accentuated blinking of their eyes. What type of depression are they
experiencing?
Melancholic depression
Atypical depression