ACHE FACHE BOG Management with
Complete Answers
1) The purpose of management in a healthcare organization is to:
a. Oversee appointment of competent medical staff to render care for the service
area
b. Appoint an effective governing board based on the wishes of the medical staff
c. Implement the mission, strategies and goals established by the governing board
d. Implement stakeholder wishes on the future direction the organization should
take – Answer c. Implement the mission, strategies and goals established by
the governing board
2) An effective emergency disaster preparedness plan includes triaging arriving
injured, coordination with other community resources and:
a. Hours of operation
b. An active command structure
c. Payment for hospital personnel
d. Regulatory approval from CMS – Answer b. An active command structure
3) Committees are an important management tool primarily because:
a. They provide a mechanism for reconciling differing opinions and facilitating
decision making
b. They are the only way for providing for intrastaff communications
c. They keep staff up to date on new professional developments
d. They ensure self-expression and participation by staff – Answer a. They
provide a mechanism for reconciling differing opinions and facilitating decision
making
4) Which of the following is an output-related performance measure?
a. Provider productivity
b. Board satisfaction
c. Customer loyalty index
d. Paid nursing hours – Answer a. Provider productivity
ACHE FACHE BOG Healthcare IT and IM
1) Which of the following is an example of a strategic decision support category of computerized
information systems?
a. Computerized patient records
b. Office automation
c. Performance assessment
d. Regional/National database – Answer a. Computerized patient records
2) When developing an organization’s disaster plan to ensure system availability during the disaster
recovery phase, which of the following should be identified by information technology leadership?
a. Cost benefit analysis
b. Potential risks to system
c. Root cause analysis
d. Project plan – Answer b. Potential risks to system
3) Why is it important for the IT strategy to align with the organization’s goals and objectives?
a. To increase Medicare payments
b. To improve access to data for management, providers and consumers
c. To allow the CEO to control IT spending
d. To give the CIO a seat on the Executive Committee – Answer b. To improve access to data for
management, providers and consumers
4) Membership of the IT Steering Committee should comprise:
a. The CEO, CIO, CFO, Chief of the Medical Staff and chair of the governing board
b. Representatives of administration, physician leadership, information systems management and major
user departments
c. The CIO and senior systems analysts
d. The CIO and outside technical consultants – Answer b. Representatives of administration,
physician leadership, information systems management and major user departments
ACHE FACHE BOG Quality and
Performance
1) Which characteristic of a high-risk process would tend to increase the risk of a process failure?
a. Simplicity
b. Consistency
c. Variability
d. Automation – Answer c. Variability
2) A healthcare institution would use nationally accepted clinical benchmarks to:
a. Determine what services the institution should offer to meet the needs of the area
b. Obtain a comprehensive view of the state of the institution’s business
c. Evaluate the outcomes of a clinical process
d. Oversee the clinical structure of the institution – Answer c. Evaluate the outcomes of a clinical
process
3) In designing a risk management program for your organization, what approach would have the most
impact on reducing risk?
a. Developing a reporting system for medical errors and injuries to staff and visitors
b. Require assessments of high-risk areas or processes within each service, department and unit
c. Use task forces to address key Joint Commission standards that apply to risk management
d. Educate staff on potential risks and patient safety practices – Answer b. Require assessments of
high-risk areas or processes within each service, department and unit
4) In conducting a risk assessment, what would be the first action to take?
a. Identify the steps in the process of concern
b. Identify what could fail in the process
c. Identify causes of failure in the process
d. Identify priorities for action – Answer a. Identify the steps in the process of concern
BOG Practice Exam – FACHE | 230 Actual
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According to the ACHE’s Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare
executives can avoid or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest is
to:
a. Develop a public relations plan to address potential conflict-of-interest
scenarios.
b. Not participate in the specific decision where conflict may exist.
c. Ensure members submit annual lists of major activities and holdings for
inspections.
d. Make the conflict known to those in superior positions. – Answer d. Make
the conflict known to those in superior positions
The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executives change
their management philosophy from:
a. Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.
b. Finding fault with employees to involving them in the improvement of
processes.
c. Focusing on enhanced inspection techniques to focusing on variance.
d. Focusing on employees’ roles to focusing on process outcomes. – Answer a.
Finding fault with employees to finding problems in processes.
What type of problem arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the
organization to continue double billing?
a. An ethical problem for the healthcare executive, but may not be grounds for
dismissal if organizational policy is not clearly stated.
b. An actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the
healthcare executive.
c. An ethical problem for the employee if the healthcare executive receives direct
economic benefit.
d. An ethical problem if it clearly violates state or federal law. – Answer b. An
actual conflict of interest, even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare
executive.
Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used to determine
physicians’ clinical productivity?
a. RVU
b. CMS
c. IPO
d. CPU – Answer a. RVU
Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest
financial incentive for the provider to reduce cost?
a. Charge-based
b. Cost-based
c. Prospective payment
d. Per diem – Answer c. Prospective payment
Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and
retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all:
a. Publicly owned healthcare organizations.
b. Privately owned healthcare organizations.
c. Government owned healthcare organizations.
d. Faith-based owned healthcare organizations. – Answer a. Publicly owned
healthcare organizations.
Which of the following is an Example of a capital expenditure?
a. Land that is purchased for resale.
b. Surgical equipment with a useful life of six months.
c. A building with a useful life of 20 years.
d. Medical supplies used for patient care. – Answer c. A building with a useful
life of 20 years.
What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organization change?
a. Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation.
b. Planning, identifying, evaluation, implementation.
c. Evaluation, planning, implementation, identifying.
d. Planning, evaluation, identifying, implementation. – Answer a. Identifying,
planning, implementation, evaluation.
Boards make better strategic decisions if they use information that is:
a. Readily available on special board website.
b. Generated from computer studies of departmental activity reports.
c. Summarized in graphs for better understanding.
d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic vitality. –
Answer d. Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic
vitality.
The central role of the health services organization board includes all of the
following:
a. Setting the strategic plan and service values of the organization.
b. Support for assessing changing market needs.
c. Support in managing important service programs or departments.
d. Assuring the recruitment, hire, support and reward of the CEO. – Answer c.
Support in managing important service programs or departments
The first role of the governing body is to:
a. Manage inputs of the healthcare organization to achieve the output that are its
goals.
b. Recruit members who understand the health services field.
c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in achieving its
mission.
d. Develop the operating plan and monitor departmental performance. –
Answer c. Set objectives and develop policy to guide the organization in
achieving its mission.
Internal members of the healthcare organization’s governing body:
a. Serve on an ad hoc basis and are rarely voting members.
b. Are kept to a minimum due to concerns regarding confidentiality.
c. Often include the CEO, medical director and CFO.
d. Often include the executive staff in planning and information management –
Answer c. Often include the CEO, medical director and CFO.
ACHE BOG Exam Sample Test -100 Questions
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CEO Compensation should be based on:
a. the compensation arrangement with prior CEO
b. executive compensation in local corporations with similar gross revenues
c. present day salary plus cost-of living adjustment
d. what the institution would have to pay for a similarly prepared person if that
person were employed elsewhere – Answer d. what the institution would
have to pay for a similarly prepared person if that person were employed
elsewhere
An essential function of the governing board is to:
a. approve the mission, vision, and long-range plan
b. focus on strategic planning
c. prepare the operating plan
d. review the performance of departmental managers – Answer a. approve
the mission, vision, and long-range plan
The key to enhancing board effectiveness is:
a. getting the right people to serve on the board
b. supporting and selecting the right CEO
c. orientating and training the CEO
d. organizing the board’s work – Answer d. organizing the board’s work
Members of the medical staff are eligible for full membership on the governing
board in the same manner as other individuals:
a. when not legally prohibited
b. when they do not actively practice in the organization
c. when they are not full-time employees
d. if they are not foreign nationals – Answer a. when not legally prohibited
The Chief Executive Officer:
a. is a member of the board
b. represents the board internally and externally
c. is not a member of the board
d. has a contract with the board – Answer b. represents the board internally
and externally
Regarding the budget, the board:
a. does not use the budget exercise as a way to improve quality and productivity
b. gets involved in preparing budgets for all operational units
c. decides which personnel are needed in top management
d. establishes guidelines and makes final choices among competing opportunities
- Answer d. establishes guidelines and makes final choices among competing
opportunities
The individual or group responsible for establishing policy, maintaining quality of
care, and providing for institutional management planning is the:
a. COO
b. Medical Staff Medical Committee
c. Governing Body
d. CEO – Answer c. Governing Body
A correct statement regarding trustee serving as fiduciaries is that they can:
a. be indicted for alleged theft of facility funds and improper expenditures of
facility funds for personal reasons.
b. be released from responsibility by giving the audit committee final authority in
high risk areas of financial matters, without any action by the whole board
c. be held personally liable for wrongful acts or omissions by corporate officers or
co-trustees by virtue of their position as trustees
d. waive their fiduciary responsibility as a community organization – Answer a.
be indicted for alleged theft of facility funds and improper expenditures of facility
funds for personal reasons.
Ultimate responsibility for the mission statement rests with the:
a. CEO and medical staff
b. Governing Board
c. Community and CEO
d. CEO – Answer b. Governing Board
A key reason for choosing board members is because:
a. other board members want to listen to their opinions.
b. of what they can do for the organization
c. have high status in the community
c. physicians will listen to them they can – Answer b. of what they can do for
the organization
The bylaws of healthcare organization should include which of the following?
a. Committee scope and function
b. The privileges of the medical staff
c. The names of the stockholders in the organization
c. Composition of the governing board, committee, and officers – Answer c.
Composition of the governing board, committee, and officers
Successful approaches to strategic planning include:
a. a well-written mission statement, long-range plane, and fiscal plan plus the
history and discussion surrounding them
b. avoidance of high risk decision
c. not paying attention to competitor’s activity
d. using rules and past experiences as a guide to future action – Answer a. a
well-written mission statement, long-range plane, and fiscal plan plus the history
and discussion surrounding them
The primary challenge facing a prospector is:
a. protecting and increasing current services (product) or market share through
technical efficiency, cost improvements, or differentiation strategies
b. managing diversification successfully, to guard against expanding too rapidly or
into areas they have little knowledge
c. managing simultaneously the difficult task of pursuing new markets and
services while avoiding erosion of current services in existing markets
d. creating stability by sticking with strategic plan long enough to accumulate
experience and to develop consistent leadership avoiding random diversification
efforts. – Answer b. managing diversification successfully, to guard against
expanding too rapidly or into areas they have little knowledge
In the introductory stage of a product life cycle:
a. the introductory stage can be short
b. the introductory stage can be long
c. sales and revenue growth is slow
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For the routine service cost center, an increase in the number of patient days over
the budgeted number of patient days will result in:
- A higher average cost per patient day.
- A lower average cost per patient day.
- An increase in the budgeted fixed costs for the routine service cost center.
4.No change in the average cost per patient day. – Answer 2.
Which of the following balance sheet items would differ between a for-profit and
a not-for-profit healthcare organization?
1.Retained earnings.
2.Plant, property, and equipment.
3.Real estate.
4.Investments. – Answer 1.
Which of the following leadership actions most clearly supports organizational
transformation toward total quality management?
1.Convening and chairing the Quality Council.
2.Changing the name of the quality department from QA to CQI.
3.Requiring all direct reports to attend an introductory course in TQM.
4.Hiring a customer service representative. – Answer 1.
In the healthcare field, the accountability of management is best measured by
the:
1.Balance maintained between service quality and operational efficiency.
2.Results shown on the annual expense and income statement.
3.Balance maintained between physician satisfaction and patient needs.
4.Degree to which management’s needs are met – Answer 1.
Consumer “report card” development and distribution has become a high priority
for managed care organizations because:
1.Measurements of performance have now become well established,
standardized, and accepted by all parties.
2.Purchasers are pressuring for disclosure of meaningful performance information
for use by buyers and consumers.
3.Consumers in healthcare are now well organized, and managed care
organizations feel a need to satisfy them.
4.Physicians are increasingly encouraging their patients to evaluate managed care
organizations based on these report cards. – Answer 2.
Which of the following is not required for managing strategic adaptation?
1.Development of integrated continuums of care.
2.Development of successful hospital-physician partnerships.
3.Vertical and horizontal integration with out-of-area providers.
4.Programs of strategic leadership development for board members, managers,
physicians, and nurse leaders. – Answer 3.
What is an important advantage of physician participation in Independent Practice
Associations (IPAs) versus other affiliation arrangements with HMOs?
1.IPA arrangements normally pay physicians better than staff or group model
arrangements.
2.Physicians participating in IPAs can limit their dependence on any single HMO.
3.IPA arrangements avoid the serious tensions that arise between primary care
and specialty physicians.
.IPAs rarely use utilization management mechanisms like primary care gatekeeping
and preadmission certification. – Answer 2.
The point-of-service product is the fastest growing managed care product in the
contemporary marketplace because:
1.It allows consumers to place a direct value on how important provider choice is
to them.
FACHE Practice Test | 114 Questions and
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According to ACHE’s Code of Ethics, one way that healthcare executives can avoid
or minimize the negative implications of conflict of interest – Answer Make
the conflict known to those in superior positions
The principles of quality improvement require that healthcare executive change
their management philosophy from – Answer Finding fault with employees to
finding problems in processes
What type of problems arises when a healthcare executive knowingly allows the
organization to continue double billing – Answer An actual conflict of interest,
even absent a direct economic benefit to the healthcare executive
Which of the following is a unit of measure commonly used it determine
physicians’ clinical productivity – Answer Relative Value Units (RVUs)
Which of the following third-party reimbursement methods provides the largest
financial incentives for the provider to reduce cost – Answer Prospective
payment (PPS)-Medicare payment based on predetermined-fixed amount
Statements of earnings, financial positions, changes in financial position and
retained earnings are required to be submitted yearly by all – Answer Publicly
owned healthcare organizations
Which of the following is an example of a capital expenditure – Answer A
building with a useful like of 20 years
What is the correct order of stages for accomplishing organizational change –
Answer Identifying, planning, implementation, evaluation
Boards make better strategic decisions of they use information that is – Answer
Focused on measurable outcomes of service quality and economic a validity
The central role of the health services organization’s board includes all of the
following – Answer Support in managing important service programs of
departments
the first role of the governing body is to – Answer Set objectives and develop
policy to guide the organization in aching its mission
Internal members of the healthcare organization’s governing body – Answer
Often include the CEO, medical director, and CFO
In assessing the advantage of using a focus group over a survey in evaluating a
program, one could say that focus groups: – Answer Are more useful in
designing improvements to a program
From a marketing viewpoint, the development of standards of practice, clinical
pathways, clinical guidelines and protocols can all be viewed as efforts to deal
with which unique aspect of delivering services – Answer Heterogeneity
What purpose do market plans fulfill for the healthcare organization – Answer
Provide specific objectives for utilization attainment the next fiscal year
The five functions of marketing are – Answer Identifying markets, promoting
the organization, managing external relationship, convincing patients to select the
organization, attracting capable workers
Forecasting organizational need for human resources by focusing on specific
position openings that are likely to occur and using these for planning called –
Answer Demand-pull approach
A health services organization should use which of the following sequential
processes to help establish human resources objectives and policies – Answer
Analyze the current HR situation, forecast HR demand, reconcile with the budget,
forecast supply
FACHE Exam | 63 Questions and Answers
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Sarbanes Oxley – Answer US federal law that set new or expanded
requirements for all US public company boards, management and public
accounting firms. Cover responsibilities of a public corporation’s board of
directors, adds criminal penalties and required SEC to create regulations
FMLA – Answer 1993: law requiring covered employers to provide employees
with job-protected and unpaid leave for qualified medical family reasons
Purpose of any HCO – Answer to provide care to individual patients and is
usually stated in organization’s “mission”
Population Health – Answer defining the population (by geography,
sociodemographic factors, disease state, risk, insurance coverage or in some other
way), measuring the current state of health in the population, setting goals for
improvement and directing resources to making improvements. US HSS specifies
national goals and objectives for population health in the Healthy People 2020
program
Caregiving/Clinical/Logistic/Strategic Teams – Answer Caregiving Teams:
Provide care to patients with similar needs (PCP, ACUTE, rehab)
Clinical Support Teams: provide specific clinical services to Caregiving Teams
(clinical laboratory, pharmacy, imaging, cardiopulmonary)
Logistic Support Teams – provide trained personnel, information, facilities,
accounting, cash, management and supplies
Strategic Support Teams: provide marketing, governance, internal consulting,
finance, stakeholder relations management and strategic positioning
Service Lines – Answer Patient care teams coordinated around a set of similar
diseases or patient needs
Premise of a Healthy Community – Answer Costs tend to rise and benefits to
decline as care moves away from the healthy state. Therefore, optimum care
maximizes use of prevention, health maintenance, and health improvement
PCP, Acute inpatient or specialty outpatient care, rehab, continuing care in home
or nursing home setting, continuing care in home or nursing home setting,
palliative care and death
Stakeholders – Answer Individuals or groups who have a direct interest in the
organization’s success and shape its mission and strategies. Include buyers,
workers, suppliers, regulators and owners. Patients are the MOST important HCO
stakeholders. They expect and deserve care that meets the goals summarized in
IOM’s report: Crossing the Quality Chasm
Patient-centered care – Answer care that is respectful of and responsive to
individual patient preferences, needs and values and involving patients and
families in care planning and decision making
Fiscal intermediaries – Answer Outside contractor that processes claims for US
government programs such as medicare and medicaid and provide most of the
revenue to HCOs, making them essential stakeholders
Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) – Answer A federal law
providing for a fundamental reform of the US healthcare and health insurance
system, signed by President Obama in 2010. It includes: increase insurance
coverage for many patients, new approaches to support those with chronic
disease, and a greater accountability for the cost and quality of care. Part of the
“Triple Aim” – improving the individual patient experience with healthcare,
improving the health of the population, and reducing per capita cost of care
Value-based purchasing – Answer Linking financial incentives to the quality of
care provided – reward HCOs for quality and sustained patient health
Certificate-of-need laws – Answer Certificate or approval of new services and
construction and renovation of hospitals or related facilities; issued in many
states. Require that HCOs seek permission for construction or expansion.
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Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a Federal Law
designed to facilitate the electronic exchange of information in health care. Which
of the following does not pertain to this law?
a) Privacy protection components of the law limit non-consensual use as a release
or private health information
b) Patients must receive notice of privacy rights
c) Restrictions on access to and use of information is required
d) Criminal and civil sanctions do not exist for improper use and disclosure –
Answer D
Separate computer systems are often linked together in order to share data and
information. When all components of the network are located within close
proximity of one another, perhaps within a single facility, the network known as a:
a) Wide Area Network (WAN)
b) World Wide Web (WWW)
c) Local Area Network (LAN)
d) Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) – Answer C
Healthcare organizations had established standards to maintain data security and
protect the privacy and confidentiality of patients’ records information. Which one
of the following answers does not describe its data security elements:
a) Protect against system failures
b) Protect against external catastrophic events
c) Facilitate access to computer files to authorized personnel
d) Control access to computer files by unauthorized personnel – Answer C
W Client/server architecture back-end (server) functions include all of the
following except:
a) Printing
b) Applications program execution
c) Decision support
d) Communication – Answer C
Star networks have an advantage of:
a) Relative ease of wiring the network and relatively fast communications
b) Facilitating construction of high spend networks that operate over large
distances
c) Ease with which nodes can be added to an existing network
d) Require less cabling than networks using other topologies – Answer C. 1-
refers to Bus networks, 2 refers to ring networks, and 4 is incorrect because Star
networks require more cabling than other networks
Advantages of outsourcing include all of the following except,
a) Staffing reductions
b) Increased implementation time
c) Smaller capital investments
d) More predictable costs – Answer B
Although purchasing or leasing commercial software is most common, what is
becoming a viable source of information technology and systems for smaller
healthcare organizations?
a) In house design and programming
b) Outsourcing
c) ASP-applications service provider
d) Combining Outsourcing and in-house design – Answer C
Which of the following is NOT one of the three general categories of information
systems used in healthcare organizations:
a) Clinical Information Systems
b) Composite Healthcare Systems
c) Administrative/Financial Systems
d) Decision Support Systems for Strategic Management – Answer B
A comprehensive information security policy should include all of the following
elements except:
a) Management Policies
b) Data back up and recovery
c) Physical security
d) Technical controls – Answer B
Which of the following is NOT part of the System Development Life Cycle?
a) System Analysis
b) System Adjustment
c) System Implementation
d) System Acquisition – Answer B
The Information Services Advisory Committee provides insight into user needs and
helps gain acceptance of information systems. Which of the following is NOT a
charge of the committee:
a) Encouraging appropriate use of information services
b) Ranking information services investment opportunities and recommending a
rank-ordered list of proposals to the governing board.
c) Providing technical support to implement an integrated information system.
d) Monitoring performance of the department and suggesting possible
improvements – Answer C
One of the functions of an IS system is to ensure the integrity, quality, and security
of data. Which of the following does not fall in this content area?
a) Defines measures and terminology
b) Captures historic as opposed to current data
c) Improves the process for data input
d) Guards against data loss – Answer B
In the IT System Development Life Cycle, which is the most important step:
a) System Analysis
b) System Design
c) System Acquisition
d) System Implementation – Answer A
Which of the following is not an actual active IT policy and Procedure
components?
a) Procedures against system failure and catastrophic events
b) Control against viruses
c) Quality of Software
d) Confidentiality for authorized users – Answer C
The importance of the Intranet vs. the Internet is that employees could:
a) Evaluate Policies, Procedure, Protocols and organizational manuals
b) Receive education sessions
c) Communicate and interact with patients
d) All – Answer D
The type of computer network that allows multiple workstations to share the data
contained in files on a server is called:
a) Peer Network
b) File/Server
c) Terminal Host Systems
d) Client/Server Computing – Answer B
Which is not example of a Strategic Decision Support Application?
a) Strategic planning
b) Disease management
c) Marketing
d) Resource allocation – Answer B
Which of the following is not a key part of HIPAA Implementation:
a) Establishment of enhanced privacy protection policies
b) Establishment of compliance committees and private offices
c) Establishment of clinical guidelines for patient care
d) Use of HIPAA compliant software – Answer C
Which is not a role of the Information Service Advisory Committee?
a) Participation in the development of the IS plan, resolving the strategic priorities,
and recommending the plan to the governing board.
b) Encouraging appropriate use of information services
c) Ranking IS investment opportunities and recommending a rank-ordered list of
proposals to the governing board.
d) Management of communication hardware – Answer D
The role of the CIO includes:
a) Advise executive team on use of information
b) Oversee IT Department for Information Technology
c) Oversee IT Department for Telecommunications
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From the “Management & Managers” chapter in “Managing in the Health Services
Environment”, one conceptualization of the roles of managers views them as
playing a “trinity” of roles; those three roles are described as:
a) Designer, leader, and strategist
b) Developer, despot, and diviner
c) Creator, coordinator, and theorist
d) Educator, expert, and evaluator – Answer A
The following executive’s role has an inside, implementation focus that
complements the CEO. They are accountable to deliver on the short-term
expectations for cost, demand, quality, patient satisfaction and quality of work
life:
a) CNO
b) COO
c) CFO
d) VP of Human Resources – Answer B
Key organization design concepts that guide the formal structure of most
HSOs/HSs were developed by a group of general administrative theorists. Which
of the following theorist utilizes 14 Principles of Management:
a) Adam Smith
b) Max Weber
c) Henri Fayol
d) Nicolo Machiavelli – Answer C
Which of the following is not an executive function?
a) Lead
b) Support
c) Train
d) Organize – Answer C
Which of the following is not an Executive Office Function?
a) Lead
b) Support
c) Control
d) Represent
e) Organize – Answer C
All of the following are the advantages of informal relationships in organizations
except:
a) Provide social values and stability
b) Provide additional channel of communication
c) May simplify managers’ job
d) Their inflexible characteristic prevents deviations from organizational policies –
Answer D; in fact the flexibility & spontaneous nature permit deviations that
contribute to organizational objectives
The dual capability to accurately assess the impact of public policies on the
performance of the manager’s domains of responsibility and to influence public
policy making at state and federal levels is known as __.
a) Interpersonal/Collaborative Competence
b) Commercial Competence
c) Governance Competence
d) Political Competence – Answer D
If management functions are seen as being interrelated like the pieces of a puzzle,
which piece below does not fit:
a) Direct work; does the front line work the staff can not perform
b) Planning; deciding in advance what is to be done
c) Staffing; acquiring, maintaining, and retaining human resources
d) Organizing; developing intentional patterns of relationships among people and
other resources – Answer A; Management is general not doing front line work
and instead concerns themselves with planning, organizing, decision making,
controlling, directing, and staffing
Match the correct definition for each of the five management functions. 1.
Planning – c 2. Organizing – b 3. Staffing – e 4. Directing -d 5. controlling – a
a) Collecting information about and monitoring activities and performance,
comparing actual with expected results, and intervening as necessary
b) Developing intentional relationships among staff and other resources
c) Deciding prospectively what to do or determining a course of action for the
organization
d) Initiating action by leading, motivating, and communicating with staff
e) Acquiring, retaining, and maintaining human resources – Answer ??
Which of the following statements related to mediation is not true?
a) Useful when both parties wish to have a continued relationship
b) Legally binding
c) Uses a neutral third party
d) The first step in a process to find a solution – Answer B. The agreement that
results from mediation is not legally binding. An agreement which results from
arbitration is legally binding.
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) leads the executive office with the senior
management team. Which one of the following best describes the role of the
CEO?
a) Assigns accountability for operations
b) Makes organizational decisions as the chief decision maker
c) Serves as an organizational stakeholder
d) Deals directly with actions – Answer A. Assigns accountability for
operations and allows decisions of great importance to be made at every level of
the organization. The CEO is an agent of the stakeholder consensus established by
the governing board. The CEO deals with design methods by which questions are
decided rather than dealing directly with actions
Differentiation is the extent to which units produce the same complementary or
disparate scope of services. Structures that combine similar organizations have a
low differentiation and are said to be:
a) Vertically integrated
b) Horizontally integrated
c) Diversified
d) Technically integrated – Answer B
All of the following, according to Mint berg, are important implications to
grouping (or departmentalization) for workers and their organizations except:
a) Sets up a system of common supervision
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Weighted average cost of capital model (WACC) – Answer Method to measure
the costs of various service of capital and the impact of the capital structure
Weighted average cost of capital model (WACC) – Answer The relative amount
of debt and equity in the capital structure and the cost of WACC source in the
marketplace are used to determine weighted costs
Evaluation techniques – Answer Economic evaluation techniques & accounting
evaluation techniques
Net present value & internal rate of return – Answer Economic evaluation
techniques (adjusted for he time value of money)
Accounting rate of return & pay back – Answer Accounting evaluation
techniques (not adjusted for the time value of money)
Net working capital – Answer On the balance sheet, what does the difference
between total current assets and total current liabilities indicate?
Infrastructure – Answer Budgets for new capital expenditures include requests
for…
Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) – Answer An equilibrium model that
describes the relationship between market risk and required rate of return
Full-time equivalents per adjusted averaged daily census – Answer The most
common operating indicator used to measure overall staff productivity
The following are considered part of the labor budget – Answer Staff salaries,
hourly wages, employee benefits
Contract staff expenses – Answer Are NOT considered part of the labor budget
claim denial – Answer Claim denial is a major impediment to prompt payment
in the revenue cycle process
FTE – Answer 20.8
Expense ratio – Answer Best indicator of operating leverage when evaluating
capital budgeting performance
Analysis of proposed capital investment includes – Answer Cost of capital,
cash flow projections, rush assessment
Revenue cycle billing management typically includes – Answer Activities
before services are rendered, activities that occur simultaneously with the
services and activities after services are rendered.
Drug prescriptions – Answer An example of direct costs
Demand, cost, and output/productivity – Answer 3 basic categories of
quantitative performance measures used in conventional accounting systems
Under a capitated payment system… – Answer The risk sharing arrangements
involve hospitals and insurers
Net Present Value (NPV) – Answer A profitability measure that uses
discounted cash flow
Opportunity costs – Answer Must be included when determining a capital
project’s incremental cash flow
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) – Answer Ensures that
financial information that is reported to outsiders is consistent across businesses
and presented in a manner that facilitated interpretation and judgements
Internal rate of return measures – Answer Discount rate at which net present
value is zero
FACHE – Healthcare (Wk8&9 Study
Questions)
Purpose of the Physician Organization – Answer To recruit and retain physicians necessary to provide
excellent care to the community
6 Functions of a Physician Organization – Answer 1) Achieve excellent care
2) Credentialing and delineating Privileges
3) Plan and implement physician recruitment
4) Continuing Education for physicians and other clinical professionals
5) Communicate and resolve unmet needs
6) Negotiate and maintain compensation arrangements
2 Purposes of the Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 – Answer 1) Reduce the chance of
an incompetent physician moving to a new location
2) Reduce the chance of an incompetent physician misrepresenting his skills
What does the Health Care Quality Improvement Act of 1986 mandate? – Answer The reporting of
loss of credentials or other disciplinary action to a federal information bank (National Practitioner Data
Bank)
3 market/societal forces that is moving HC delivery from a fee-for-service to a managed care model: –
Answer 1) Increased cost to employers
2) Societal belief that optimal use of limited resources is more appropriate than maximal use
3) need to increase efficiency in the overall health system
Defn Licensure – Answer An approval granted by Government that allows someone to engage in an
occupation after finding the applicant to acheive a certain minimum competency
FACHE Flash Cards – Healthcare Questions
and Answers
activities of daily living (ADLs) – Answer Measures a person’s ability to function in 6 activities:
- Eating
- Bathing
- Dressing
- Toileting
- Maintaining continence
- Getting in and out of a bed or chair
Acute Condition – Answer A condition that has been present for a short period of time – a few days
Sub-acute condition – Answer A condition that has been present for 1-3 weeks
Chronic Condition – Answer A condition that has been present for several weeks to months – often
associated with debilitation
Debilitation – Answer Weak, feeble or infirm
Length of Stay (LOS) – Answer Number of days a patient stays in the hospital and counted by the
number of nights spent in the hospital.
Case Mix Index (CMI) – Answer A measure of the clinical severity or resource requirements of the
patients in a particular hospital or treated by a particular clinician during a specific time period.
Medical Home – Answer enhanced model of primary care that provides whole-person, accessible,
comprehensive, ongoing, and coordinated patient-centered care
Sub-acute condition Questions and Answers
Triage – Answer The evaluation of patient conditions for urgency and
seriousness and the establishment of a priority list to direct care and ensure the
efficient use of medical and nursing staff and facilities
Urgent Care – Answer Care for injury, illness, or another type of condition
(usually not life threatening) that should be treated within 24 hours; also refers to
after hours care and to a health plan’s classification of hospital admissions as
urgent, semiurgent, or elective.
Academic health center – Answer An institution that encompasses all of the
health-related components of a university, including its health professions school,
patient care operations, and research enterprise.
Acute care hospital – Answer A hospital (typically a community hospital) that
delivers services designed to meet the needs of patients who require short-term
care for a period of less than 30 days.
Ambulatory care – Answer Medical care provided on an outpatient basis.
Value-based purchasing – Answer Linking financial incentives to the quality of
care provided.
US Department of Health and Human Services – Answer A department of the
US federal government that aims to protect the health and well-being of all
Americans.
Ancillary Services – Answer Services that relate to a patient’s care, such as lab
work, X-rays, and anesthesia.
Average length of stay (ALOS) – Answer The average number of days each
patient stays in the hospital; varies by type of admission, age, and sex and is
calculated by dividing the total number of bed days by the number of discharges
for a specified period.
Bundled pricing – Answer The act of placing several products or services
together in a single package and selling for a lower price than would be charged if
the items were sold separately; in healthcare, usually means one price for all of
the services provided for a given diagnosis or procedure, such as total joint
replacement.
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) – Answer the federal
government agency that administers Medicare, Medicaid, and the State Children’s
Health Insurance Program.
Community benefit – Answer Charitable care, educational services, and other
benefits that a healthcare organization provides to its community to qualify as a
tax-exempt charity under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code.
Community-acquired infection rates – Answer The measure of infections
acquired from a community, in contrast to those acquired in a hospital.
Continuum of care – Answer The full spectrum of healthcare, including
preventive, ambulatory, acute, post-acute, long-term, palliative, and hospice
Critical access hospital – Answer A rural community hospital that receives
cost-based reimbursement.
Disproportionate share hospital – Answer A hospital that receives Medicare
funding for treating a higher proportion of indigent patients (calculated by a
formula); the Affordable Care Act would decrease this funding over time.
Epidemiological planning model – Answer A statistical analysis and forecast of
the health needs of the community a healthcare organization serves.
evidence-based management – Answer A management approach that relies
heavily on performance measurement, identification of best practices, and formal
process specification.
Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) – Answer A health insurance
organization licensed at the state level to which subscribers pay a predetermined
FACHE Healthcare | 46 Questions and
Answers with Complete Solutions
Community Health – Answer A focus on sustaining all members of a
community at their highest possible level of functioning for their individual
happiness and their collective benefit
Community Hospital – Answer A short-stay general or specialty (e.g. Women’,
children’s, eye, orthopedic) hospital, excluding those owned by the federal
government
Healthcare system – Answer Healthcare organization’s that operate multiple
services units under a single ownership
Types of Ownership – Answer State and Local Government
Religious not-for-profit
Other not-for-profit
For-profit
Federal
Vertical Integration – Answer The affiliation of organization’s that provide
different kinds of services, such as hospital care, ambulatory care, long-term care,
and social services
Horizontal Integration – Answer Integration of organization’s that provide the
same kind of service such as a hospital and two clinics
Transformational Management – Answer The history of organization’s in all
industries suggest that stakeholders must build a cultural foundation that consists
of 5 major elements: shared values, empowerment, communication, service
excellence, and rewards for success.
Highly satisfactory for both consumer and association stakeholders
3 Major Components of Excellence – Answer Cultural
Operational
Strategic
Acute Care – Answer Acute care is a branch of secondary health care where a
patient receives active but short-term treatment for a severe injury or episode of
illness, an urgent medical condition, or during recovery from surgery. In medical
terms, care for acute health conditions is the opposite from chronic care, or longer
term care.
Ambulatory Care – Answer Ambulatory care or outpatient care is medical care
provided on an outpatient basis, including diagnosis, observation, consultation,
treatment, intervention, and rehabilitation services. This care can include
advanced medical technology and procedures even when provided outside of
hospitals.
Post Acute Care – Answer refers to a range of medical care services that
support the individual’s continued recovery from illness or management of a
chronic illness or disability. Following a hospitalization for injury or illness, many
patients require continued medical care, either at home or in a specialized facility.
Long-term Care – Answer range of services and supports you may need to
meet your personal care needs. Most long-term care is not medical care, but
rather assistance with the basic personal tasks of everyday life, sometimes called
Activities of Daily Living (ADLs), such as:
Bathing
Dressing
Using the toilet
Transferring (to or from bed or chair)
Caring for incontinence
Eating
Federal Managed Care regulations at 42 CFR 438 recognize four types of managed
care entities: – Answer Managed Care Organizations (MCOs)
Primary Care Case Management (PCCM)
Prepaid Inpatient Health Plan (PIHP)
Prepaid Ambulatory Health Plan (PAHP)
FACHE WK 1 Governance and Organizational
Structure | 55 Questions and Answers
The voting rights of “Ex Officio” members is determined by:
a) The CEO
b) The Board Chair
c) The By-laws
d) The Governance Committee – Answer C
Which of the following is not a reason for sanctions to be brought against members of a governing
board?
a) Unreasonable compensation
b) Revenue based compensation
c) Participation in bargain sales
d) Assumption of management verses governance role – Answer D
The most effective number of members of a Board of Directors is:
a) 16-25
b) 10-15
c) 8-10
d) 5-8 – Answer B
Which of the following is not a managerial function of the Board:
a) Ensure the quality of medical care
b) Approve long range plans and the annual budget
c) Select and supervise employees of the organization
d) Appoint or terminate the chief executive – Answer C
Which of the following is not a common board committee?
a) Executive
b) Finance
c) Medical Bylaws
d) Quality – Answer C
What are the five Managerial Functions of the Governing Board?
a) Est. Mission/Vision–Appoint CEO–Approve long rang plans–Monitor quality of medical care—Est
Organizational Values
b) Appoint CEO–Monitor Performance against plans–Ensure quality of care–approve long range plans–
establish mission/vision
c) Appoint CEO–Establish mission/vision/values–Approve long range plans and annual budget–Ensure
quality of medical care–monitor performance against plan and budget.
d) Establish mission/vision–approve long range plans–quality assurance–appoint CEO–community
spokesperson – Answer C
The board chair should not demonstrate which of the following qualities:
a) Mentor others on the board
b) Be decisive and move the board to action
c) Commandeer the Board
d) Cultivate an effective working relationship with the CEO – Answer C
As CEO, one must do the following, except:
a) Be visionary and inspire the board
b) Avoid springing information on the board
c) Communicate effectively and frequently
d) Avoid calculated risks – Answer D
The Board of Directors obligations include:
a) The duty of care, the duty of loyalty, the duty of disclosure
FACHE Finance | 53 Questions and
Answers 100% correct
Controllership – Answer Transaction Accounting
Financial Accounting
Managerial Accounting
Goal Setting and Budgeting
Financial Management – Answer Financial Planning
Pricing Clinical Services
Financial Structures
Securing and Managing Liquid Assets
Managing Multi Corporate Accounting
Auditing – Answer Internal Audits
Compliance Review
External Audit
Continuous Improvement of the Accounting & Finance Functions – Answer
Stakeholder Satisfaction
Improve Performance
Reporting Financial Information (Standard for HCOs) – Answer Balance Sheet
Income or Profit-and-Loss Statement
Statement of sources and uses of funds
Statement of changes in fund balances
Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) – Answer Provides public the right to
request access to records from any federal agency. pubic should have general
access to information
General Ledger – Answer Technically, the record of all the firm’s transactions;
the term often refers to the fixed and collective assets, such as depreciation, that
must be allocated to operational functions
Not-for-profit HCO have substantial obligations to report their financial activities
through the the IRS Form 990 mainly for – Answer Community Benefit and to
Justify Tax Exempt Status
Net Revenue – Answer Income actually received as opposed to that initially
posted; equal to gross revenue – adjustments for bad debts, charity, and discounts
to third parties
Gross Revenue – Answer An entry into the patient to the patient ledger of the
charge for a specific healthcare service; no longer a meaningful measure
Bad Debts – Answer Cost for patients who are unable to pay for care
Charity Care – Answer Care given to the needy without expectation of
payment
Operating Budget – Answer The aggregate of accountability-center
expenditure budgets and the corporate revenue budget
budgets must forcast – Answer At least 18 months into the future. well-run
institutions budget a second or event third year in the yearly budget cycle
Operating Budget includes – Answer Accountability-unit budgets by report
period and kind of resource (cost are negotiated with the other five dimensions of
financial scorecards)
Aggregate expenditures budgets, or “roll ups,” that summarize larger sections of
the organization that parallel the accountability hierarchy (similar experience
aggregates are made of the goals for the other operational dimensions)
Revenue budgets that show expected income and profits for DRGs at organization
levels that parallel the payment aggregate (leading institutions report revenues
only at aggregates that can be help accountable)
Financial Budgets – Answer Expectation of future financial performance,
composed of income and expense budget, budgeted financial statements, cash
flow budget, and capital and new programs budget; parallel the required financial
reports.
FACHE – Business Questions and
Answers
Mean – Answer Arithmetic Average of all scores
Mode – Answer The most common or frequent score or number
Variability – Answer The spread or distribution of scores
Range – Answer Distance b/w the Highest and Lowest score in a group
What term represents the best variability of scores? – Answer Standard Deviation (around the mean)
Control Chart – Answer – Tool used to monitor, control, and improve process performance by
examining variation over time
- Shows the process mean (centerline) and the fluctuation or variation of data
- Upper and lower control limits are set to indicate “statistical control” wherein normal variation is
expected - Points outside the control limits may indicate problems that should be studied
Regression Analysis – Answer – Uses mathematical equation to show the relationship b/w sets of
data or variables - Relationship is depicted by a regression line that, when extended out into the future, can be used for
health planning (forecasting patient demand)
4 Phases of Strategic Planning – Answer “APIE”
1) Assessment
2) Planning
3) Implementation
FACHE Healthcare Technology and
Information Management
Purpose of Knowledge Management (KM) – Answer to translate the HCO’s complete knowledge
resource to improvement of strategic performance
Healthcare Technology and Information Management is – Answer A massive integration system that
supports the entire health system; usually includes patient information, clinic information, Ancillary
information, and financial information.
Health Information Technology (Health IT or HIT) – Answer Deals with storage, retrieval, sharing, and
use of healthcare information, data and knowledge for communication and decision making
Health Information Management – Answer “Medical Records Department” until 1991; according to
AHIMA, HIM is the practice of acquiring, analyzing and protecting digital and traditional medical
information vital to providing medical care; Responsibly for records, coding, documentation, policy, and
guidelines, administration, and compliance
Health Informatics – Answer Intersection of people, information, and technology; sometimes
referred to as the intersection of information science, computer science and healthcare; focused on
clinical workflows and end user; specialties: Medical/Bio Informatics, Public Health Informatics, Nurse
Informatics, and Applied Informatics; Intersection of HIT and HIM
Health Analytics – Answer An examination of data with the intent of drawing a conclusion; should be
predictive and prescriptive
There are ways to determine health analytic maturity in hospitals – Answer Example: Health Catalyst
Analytics Model
Health Catalyst Analytics Model – Answer Way of determining the health analytic maturity of a
hospital:
Eight Levels of the Analytics Adoption Model:
Level 8 – Personalized Medicine & Prescriptive Analytics
Level 7 – Clinical Risk Intervention & Predictive Analytics
Level 6 – Population Health Management and Suggestive Analytics
Level 5 – Waste & Care Variability Reduction
Level 4 – Automated External Reporting
Level 3 – Automated Internal Reporting
Level 2 – Standardized Vocabulary & Patient Registries
Level 1 – Enterprise Data Warehouse
Level 0 – Fragmented Point Solutions
HITECH Act 2009 – Answer enacted as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009,
was signed into law on February 17, 2009, to promote the adoption and meaningful use of health
information technology. Subtitle D of the HITECH Act addresses the privacy and security concerns
associated with the electronic transmission of health information, in part, through several provisions
that strengthen the civil and criminal enforcement of the HIPAA rules.
Meaningful Use – Answer is using certified electronic health record (EHR) technology to: Improve
quality, safety, efficiency, and reduce health disparities. Engage patients and family. Improve care
coordination, and population and public health. Maintain privacy and security of patient health
information.
Barriers to HIT/EMR Adoption – Answer Wrong incentives
Silo Information
Lack of Strategy
Cost Rollout
Time and Financial Communication
Workforce Training
Competing Priorities
Securities
HIPAA in HIM – Answer Privacy Rule
FACHE Management & Leadership
Questions and Answers
Senior Managers – Answer Establish objective
Provide Conditions for Success
Decisions by senior managers have most dramatic results
Heavily use conceptual skills
Managers at All Levels – Answer Lead by example
Shape values and culture through decisions
5 Management Functions – Answer Planning
Organizing
Controlling
Directing
Staffing
Conceptual Skills – Answer ability to think creatively and understand complicated or abstract ideas.
Decision Making – Answer Is a subset of problem solving
Binds together and enables 5 management functions
Problem Solving Framework – Answer Problem analysis
Course of action development
Decision Making
Evaluation of results using explicit + measurable criteria
Managers – Answer Care taking, status quo/transactional?
Leader – Answer Visionary, dynamic/transformational?
Skills by level – Answer Conceptual Skills
Interpersonal Skills
Technical Skills
Interpersonal Skills – Answer The skills used by a person to properly interact with others. In the
business domain, the term generally refers to an employee’s ability to get along with others while getting
the job done. Interpersonal skills include everything from communication and listening skills to attitude
and deportment. Good interpersonal skills are a prerequisite for many positions in an organization.
Technical Skills – Answer A quality describes behavioral or competency-based criteria logically
associated with the successful accomplishment of important tasks/responsibilities in a particular job.
Required technical skills are sometimes found on the job description
Successful Leader/Managers integrate all these roles smoothly – Answer Interpersonal Roles
-Figure Head
-Influences
Informational Roles
-Monitor Spokesperson
Decisional Roles
-Entrepreneur
-Negotiator
Conceptual competency – Answer the ability to envision a big picture goal and strategy and
subsequently offer direction and leadership in task implementation to achieve it
Technical Competency – Answer the ability to perform the activities within an occupation to a
defined standard, consistently and over time.
FACHE Healthcare Technology and
Information Management II
Recommendations from the IOM for Healthcare IT – Answer STEEP
- Safe
- Timely
- Effective
- Efficient
- Equitable
- Patient Centered
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA) – Answer includes federal tax relief,
expansion of unemployment benefits and other social welfare provisions and domestic spending in
education, health care, and infrastructure, including the energy sector. $19 Billion was allocated for
Health Information Technology.
Meaningful use is using certified electronic health record (EHR) technology to (5 broad goals of the ARRA
in meanful use): – Answer 1. Improve quality, safety, efficiently, and reduce health disparities - Engage patients and family
- Improve care coordination and population and public health
- Maintain privacy and security of patient health information
Why is it important for the IT strategy to align with the origination’s goals and objective’s – Answer
To improve access to data for management, providers, and consumers
What competencies do not matter in selecting a CIO? – Answer Personal relationship with the board
How do CIO and CEO job responsibilities differ? – Answer Fundraising and development
responsibilities
Strategic information systems planning is – Answer The process of identifying and assigning priorities
to portfolio of computer-based systems that will assist an organization in achieving strategic goals and
executing business plans
Elements of a strategic plan (IT) – Answer -corporate and IT goals and objectives
-applications priorities lsit
-systems architecture and infrastructure
-software development plan
-IT management and staffing
-statement of resource requirements
Elements of a IMPLEMENTATION plan (IT) – Answer -taks, schedule, responsibilites, and budget
-examination of data, network, informaiton, and telecommunications
-process redigns
-project management idendified
-project team identified
-quality control plan
Membership of the IT Steering Committee should compromise – Answer Representatives of
administration, phycisain leadership, information systems management and major departments
One of the major elements of a strategic IT plan is – Answer Priorities for individual computer
applications to be aligned with the stratefic objecives of the organziation
Selection of an information system in a healthcare organization should begin with – Answer
Development of an informaiton systems plan that supports the organization’s existing strategic
objectives
Privacy Act – Answer Protects records that can be retrieved by personal identifiers such as a name,
social security number, or other identifying number or symbol. An individual is entitled to access to his
or her records and request correction of these records, if applicable.
FACHE Quality and Performance II
Which characteristic of a high risk process would tend to increase the risk of process failure? – Answer
Variability
A healthcare institution would use nationally accepted clinical benchmarks to – Answer Evaluate the
outcomes of a clinical process
In designing a risk management program for you organization, what approach would have the most
impact on reducing risk? – Answer Require assessments of high-risk areas of processes within each
service, department, or unit
In conducting a risk management assessment, what would be the first action to take? – Answer
Identify steps in the process of concern
Your medical staff on the general medicine unit has been complaining about the delays in the
administration of medications. You study the processing times on other units and indeed find that the
general medical unit times are considerably longer. What would be your first step? – Answer
Organize a process improvement team on the general medical unit.
What tool is most appropriate in identifying priorities of action? – Answer Pareto chart
What approach best ensures loyalty (returned visits) by patients to your organization? – Answer
Patient engagement
What action should you take to ensure that all critical activities associated with care of a patient are
being carried out in the right sequence in you organization? – Answer Develop clinical pathways
used to identify you quality or performance problems by comparison of the “Best” – Answer
benchmarking
FACHE – Professionalism and Ethics
Advance Care Directive – Answer A legal document that specifies a person’s preferences for
treatments, life-sustaining technology, and other medical care; written before and used after the person
is incapacitated
Authorized users – Answer Individuals who need to access a patient’s record to fulfill their official
job-related duties and responsibilities
Autonomy – Answer The ethical principle of making decisions independently or for oneself
Belmont Report – Answer Ethical foundation for biomedical and behavioral research in the US;
published in 1979 under the formal title Ethical Principles and Guidelines for the Protection of Human
Subjects of Research
Beneficence – Answer The ethical principle of acting to help or benefit others
Best interests standard – Answer A standard whereby a patient’s surrogate makes healthcare
decisions based on the patient’s best interests
Case consultation – Answer The institutional ethics committee process of hearing and reviewing an
ethical conflict and then advising all the parties involved on the next most appropriate steps to take
Casuistry – Answer An ethical decision-making approach that relies on a case’s facts, complexity,
relevant laws, and unusual circumstances to determine a judgement on that case
Common rule – Answer Uniform set of regulations on the ethical conduct of research involving
human subjects established by the federal agencies that fund such research; formally Federal Policy for
the Protection of Human Subjects
Culturally competent and sensitive care – Answer Healthcare that is aware considerate, and
respectful of patient’s cultural and ethnic backgrounds and practices.