CCHT: Certified Clinical Hemodialysis
Technician Exam Prep Version 1| Questions
and Verified Answers| 100% Correct (2023/
2024 New Update)
Q: the primary purification process of the dialysis water is
Answer:
filtering with activated carbon
Q: if the dialysis center uses hemoclips on dialysis tubing to prevent disconnection, what other
precautions should be utilized?
Answer:
visible access sites/line connections and documentation of integrity every 30 minutes
Q: if during hemodialysis, blood is evident in the used dialysate, this probably indicates
Answer:
tear in the membrane
Q: if a patient asks a question to which the technician does not know the answer, an appropriate
response is
Answer:
I ‘ll find out for you ”
Q: during routine hemodialysis, a patient’s blood pressure should monitored every
Answer:
30 to 60 minutes
Q: if a patient develops painful muscle cramps in the hands, feet, and abdomen shortly after
hemodialysis begins, the most likely interventions is
Answer:
saline bolus and/or decreased ultrafiltration rate.
Q: if a hemodialysis patient’s temperature per tympanic membrane thermometer is 37C in order
to reduce incidendence of intradialytic ( during dialysis ) hypotension, the temperature of the
dialysate solution should ideally be set at
Answer:
36.5 C
Q: foam in the venous bloodline of a dialyzer may indicate
Answer:
air embolism
Q: prior to initiating hemodialysis, the ph of the dialyste usually ranges from
Answer:
7.0 to 7.4
Q: the number one cause of kidney failure in the US is
Answer:
diabetes mellitus, type 2
Q: the use of topical anesthetic, such as EMLA, to reduce discomfort during cannulation is
contraindicated with
Answer:
buttonhole sites
Q: a patient who has been very alert and shown no sign of cognitive impairment seems
confused during dialysis and repeatedly asks the same question. the best initial response is to
Answer:
notify the nurse
Q: when determining if a new AV fistula is maturing the three factors to assess by palpation are
the
Answer:
thrill, vessel growth, and vessel firmness
Q: which of the following antiseptics used for skin pre for a fistula site has the broadest
spectrum antibacterial activity?
Answer:
2% chlorhexidine gluconate
Q: while a patient is undergoing hemodialysis, chloramine testing of the water system should
be conducted every
Answer:
4 hours
Q: if a patient is to undergo heparin-free dialysis, the optimal blood flow rate is
Answer:
300 to 400 ml/min
Q: before cannulating An AV fistula for a hemodialysis treatment, the technician examines the
patient’s access arm and finds that the access arm appears slightly edamatous, and the skin is
pale. on further examination, the technician notes that there are small purple veins evident on the
chest wall near where the arm meets the body. the technician should suspect
Answer:
stenosis
Q: in order to increase survival rates. the ultrafiltration rate for hemodialysis patients should be
maintained at least than
Answer:
12 ml/kg/m
Q: as part of fistula assessment before cannulation, the technician evaluates the thrill and then
applies acclusion by placing a finger across the body of the fistula. while the fistula is acceded,
the technician palpates and feels both a thrill and a pulse. this probably signifies a (n)
Answer:
accessory pathway ( collateral circulation )
CCHT 2023/ 2024 Exam: Certified Clinical
Hemodialysis Technician Exam | Questions
and Verified Answers| Graded A
Q: Germicide rebound occurs due to
Answer:
Inadequate dialyzer priming
Q: The organization that sets the standards and recommendations for dialyzer reprocessing
Answer:
…
Q: Blood path integrity test the drop should not exceed
Answer:
10 MM HG
Q: The purpose of countercurrent flow
Answer:
Increase the rate of waste removal
Q: The total pressure across the dialyzer membrane
Answer:
Transmembrane pressure
Q: Dialysate pH should be
Answer:
Between 7.0 and 7.4
Q: Dialysate that is too hot
Answer:
Hemolysis
Q: What is used to correct metabolic acidosis
Answer:
Bicarbonate
Q: Total chlorine levels in the water are tested
Answer:
Before each shift or every four hours
Q: Water softeners remove
Answer:
Calcium and magnesium
Q: AAMI standards for total microbial count
Answer:
200 CFU/ml
Q: The water softener
Answer:
Operates on the principle of ion exchange
Q: What water is safe for dialysis
Answer:
Dialysis quality water
Q: Patient exposure to chloramines may cause
Answer:
Hemolysis
Q: According to the AAMI Standard level for endotoxin
Answer:
Less then to EU/ml
Q: Feed conductivity – product conductivity divided by 100
Answer:
CCHT 2023/ 2024 Davita Exam: Certified
Clinical Hemodialysis Technician Exam |
Questions and Verified Answers| Graded A
Q: the most common complication in peritoneal dialysis is
Answer:
peritonitis
Q: the dextrose used in the dialysate for peritoneal dialysis can cause
Answer:
hyperglycemia
Q: if a patient develops an infection post transplant, the largest contributing factor would most
likely be:
Answer:
immunosuppressive medication
Q: the most frequent cause of death in the first year post transplant is
Answer:
infection
Q: total cell volume (TCV) is a indirect measure of the
Answer:
performance of the dialyzer
Q: the TCV should be no less than
Answer:
80%
Q: the manimum dwell time to achieve sterilization with the chemical renalin is
Answer:
11 hours
Q: the reprocessed dialyzer is carefully rinsed prior to patient use to remove
Answer:
residual sterilant
Q: germicide rebound occurs due to
Answer:
inadequate dialyzer priming
Q: which organization set the standards and recommendations for dialyzer reprocessing?
Answer:
AAMI
Q: the blood path integrity is tested to eliminate the possibility of a blood leak. the drop in
pressure should not exceed:
Answer:
10 mmhg
Q: the purpose of using counter-current flow is to
Answer:
increase the rate of waste removal
Q: the total pressure that exists across the dialyzer membrane is called
Answer:
transmembrane pressure
Q: dialyser ph should be
Answer:
between 7.0 and 7.4
Q: dialyzer that is too hot will cause
Answer:
hemolysis
Q: which of the following component in dialysate is used to correct metabolic acidosis?
CCHT: Certified Clinical Hemodialysis
Technician Exam | Questions and Verified
Answers| A Grade (2023/ 2024 Update)
Q: A disadvantage of high-flux dialysate is:
Answer:
pyrogen reactions are common
Q: All of the following statements regarding home dialysis are true EXCEPT:
Answer:
it cannot be done during sleep
Q: In most dialysate systems, the temperature:
Answer:
is maintained by a thermistor-controlled heater
Q: Dialysate flow rate has which of the following properties?
Answer:
Low water pressure may set off an alarm
Q: Which of the following statements about blood leaks in the dialysis system is correct?
Answer:
They are detected by use of a light source and photocell
Q: Dialysate pH is kept within the following ranges?
Answer:
7.0-7.4
Q: Which of the following statements about fluid removal from the blood is correct?
Answer:
it depends on the transmembrane pressure (TMP)
Q: Dialysis machines control the rate of fluid removal by:
Answer:
volume control and flow control
Q: Drip chambers in the extracorporeal circulation do all the following EXCEPT:
Answer:
pump blood into the dialyzer
Q: Which of the following statements about extracorporeal circulation is correct?
Answer:
approximately 100-250 ml are outside the patient’s body at any time
Q: Which of the following statements about transducer protectors is correct?
Answer:
They use hydrophobic membranes to keep fluid from passing through
Q: Blood flow into the dialyzer is usually:
Answer:
done by manual hand cranking
Q: Which pressure in the dialysis circuit is usually negative?
Answer:
arterial pressure
Q: Which of the following will set off the prepump high-pressure alarm?
Answer:
a decrease in the blood pump speed
Q: A low-pressure alarm in the venous (postdialyzer) line is likely to be set off by?
Answer:
a blockage in the blood tubing before the monitoring site
Q: Which of the following statements about an air detector is correct?
Answer:
CCHT Exam (Latest 2023/ 2024): Certified
Clinical Hemodialysis Technician Exam |
Questions and Verified Answers| Graded A+
Q: What are 3 common causes of renal failure?
Answer:
1) Diabetes 2) Hypertension 3) Glomerulonephritis
Q: What are classic s/s of renal failure or uremia?
Answer:
Elevated serum levels of BUN/creatinine, phosphorus, and potassium, anemia, fluid overload,
lethargy, weakness, edema, high b/p
Q: Why are renal failure patients acidotic?
Answer:
Kidneys control acid/base balance of the blood by excreting hydrogen atoms and producing a
buffer (bicarbonate)
Q: What causes renal osteodystrophy (bone disease)
Answer:
Kidneys can no longer convert Vit D to its activated form.
Q: What needs to be considered when administering medications to patients with renal failure?
Answer:
Loss of renal function will decrease the elimination of medications and potentially cause toxicity.
Q: What is the purpose of a phosphate binder?
Answer:
Binds with phosphorus (from foods) in the gut, and then eliminates the excess phosphorus
through the digestive system.
Q: What are Hectoral, Calcijex, and Zemplar?
Answer:
Helps patients absorb their dietary calcium in order to bone disease.
Q: What is anemia?
Answer:
Lack of RBC
Q: How is anemia treated?
Answer:
Epogen is a medication given to stimulate RBC production an keep the patients hemoglobin
levels at an acceptable level.
Q: What is the desired hemoglobin level for dialysis patients?
Answer:
10-11 g/dL
Q: How is hypertension treated?
Answer:
Dialysis treatment removes excess fluid which is a contributing factor or hypertension.
Antihypertensive medications may be prescribed for patients
Q: What is Diabetes?
Answer:
A disease in which the body either does not produce or does not properly use insulin and
therefore cannot properly regulate levels of glucose in the blood
Q: What are 3 s/s of low blood sugar?
Answer:
Double vision, hunger, thirst, restlessness, rapid pulse, confusion, seizures, and coma.
Q: Intracellular
Answer:
Inside the cell
Q: Extracellular
Answer:
Outside the cell
Q: Intravascular
Answer:
Inside the blood vessel
Q: Interstitial
Answer:
Between the cells
Q: What is homeostasis?
Answer:
Steady internal state of equilibrium in the body.
Q: What are electrolytes?
Answer:
Charged particles that can conduct an electrical current. Control motor, muscle, and nerve
function.
Q: What is pH?
Answer:
The measure of acidity or alkalinity of solution, based on the number of acid ions.
Q: What is the normal pH of blood?
CCHT: Certified Clinical Hemodialysis
Technician Exam Prep Version 2| Questions
and Verified Answers| 100% Correct (2023/
2024 New Update)
Q: Hives, itching, tightness of the chest and respiratory distress may be signs and symptoms of:
Answer:
Anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction)
Q: Hyperkalemia can lead to
Answer:
Cardiac arrest
Q: If the extracorporeal circuit clots and it must be discarded, it would be most important to
monitor the patient’s serum level of:
Answer:
Hemoglobin
Q: In reuse, the blood path integrity is tested to
Answer:
Check dialyzer for total cell volume
Q: Lidocaine is administered
Answer:
Subcutaneous
Q: Low albumin levels in the dialysis patient have been linked with:
Answer:
Higher hospitalization and death rates
Q: Medications that dialyze easily are all except
Answer:
Digoxin
Q: Mr. Jones demonstrates how to wash his aces. This is an example of which adult learning
principle?
Answer:
Psychomotor
Q: Mr. Jones suffers from constipation. He goes to the drug store to buy a laxative. Mr Jones
should avoid which medication?
Answer:
Milk of Magnesia
Q: Mr. Roberts verbalized how to hand crank his blood pump in the event of an emergency.
This is an example of which adult principle?
Answer:
Cognitive
Q: Mrs. Smith arrives for dialysis treatment complaining of shortness of breath. Her pre
dialysis weight is 4.7 kilograms above the last post treatment weight. The dialysis technician
reweighed and verified the weight. Which of the actions should the dialysis technician take next?
Answer:
Notify the nurse of the need for an assessment
Q: Mrs Smith dry weight is 62 kg. Her pretreatment weight when she came in for treatment on
Monday was 67 kg. The priming saline amount is 240 mL, the rinseback amount is 200mL, fluid
from medication is 100 mL, and she is not allowed any fluids during treatment. What is the total
amount of fluid weight to be removed during her treatment?
Answer:
5,540 mL
Q: Ms Foster complains of shortness of breath. While calling for the nurse the dialysis
technician notices there is air in the extracorporeal circuit she/he should place Ms Foster in:
Answer:
Trendelenburg position on left side
Q: One reason that normal saline is used to rinse and prime the extracorporeal circuit prior to
treatment is to remove:
Answer:
Air
Q: Normal body pH is
Answer:
7.0-7.25
Q: One disadvantage of a fistula is an increase in
Answer:
Time to mature
Q: One cause of aneurysms and pseudoaneurysms is
Answer:
Poor rotation of sites
Q: The air detector alarms during treatment. If the machine is working properly, the dialysis
technician should expect which of these events to have occurred?
Answer:
Blood pump has stopped
Q: Pain at the venous needle site, along with respiratory difficulty and chest pain could be an
indicator of:
Answer:
Sterilant infusion
Q: One sign and symptom of fluid overload is
Answer: