Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated
gingivitis found? – Correct Answer-Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by
systemic factors
A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue
movement affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? –
Correct Answer-Ankyloglossia
When is tooth eruption complete? – Correct Answer-Tooth has made contact with its
antagonists in opposing jaw
When does mixed dentition begin? – Correct Answer-Eruption of first permanent tooth
How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? – Correct Answer-20
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique
ridge of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge. – Correct Answer-The
first statement is true and the second is false
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? – Correct Answer-reduced
permeability
Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second
premolar? – Correct Answer-Distolingual
Which is true regarding the height of contour? – Correct Answer-Greatest elevation of
tooth either incisocervically or occlusocervically
How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? –
Correct Answer-14 primary; 10 permanent
Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? – Correct Answer-line angle
Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including
the incised edge or angle? – Correct Answer-IV
Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? – Correct AnswerOblique
Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? –
Correct Answer-Mandibular
Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? –
Correct Answer-VII
Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? – Correct Answermandibular foramen on medial surface of mandible
Which salivary gland is encapsulated? – Correct Answer-Sublingual
Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? – Correct Answer-Synovial
Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of
salivary gland secretion? – Correct Answer-autonomic; sympathetic
Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated
enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva?
- Correct Answer-First statement is true second statement is false
Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? –
Correct Answer-Aciduric
Anaerobe bacteria – Correct Answer-grow only in the absence of oxygen
Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? – Correct Answer-capsule
Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? – Correct Answer-Psychrophils
Endotoxin is a virulence property of – Correct Answer-gram-negative bacteria
When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses – Correct Answer-enter host cells before
they can multiply
Which is treated with nystatin? – Correct Answer-Candidiasis
Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the
hepatitis B vaccine? – Correct Answer-Anti-HBs
Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination
gloves? – Correct Answer-I
Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and
pharyngitis? – Correct Answer-Streptococcus
Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Nizoral
D. Rifampin – Correct Answer-C. Nizoral
Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? – Correct Answer-Repaired
congenital heart disease
It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic
heart disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require
antibiotic predication? – Correct Answer-Renal dialysis shunt
A patient’s prescription has the abbreviation “qid” meaning? – Correct Answer-take
medication four times a day
Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states “NO
REFILLS” – Correct Answer-schedule II controlled substance
Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide? –
Correct Answer-Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION? – Correct Answer-Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces
high blood pressure)
Which food is a good source of vitamin K? – Correct Answer-Kale!
;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin
c
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? – Correct
Answer-Albuterol
short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Lipitor is a/an – Correct Answer-statin
(lowers cholesterol levels)
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D
helps absorb calcium. – Correct Answer-Both the statement and reason are correct but
not related.
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help
absorb calcium.
Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? – Correct Answer-Steak, brown rice,
and corn