The open system interconnection reference model (OSI/R<) Network layer serves which primary function?
It uses layer 3 addresses to create multiple routed networks
The address 68.56.189.17 belongs to which internet protocol IP class?
Class A
What happens to a datagram sent by a higher level protocol to a 127.x.y.z address?
The datagram loops back inside the host and never leaves the network interface card (NIC)
Which device evaluates and acts upon a packet’s internal protocol (IP) address?
Router
The network layer must do what to a recieved frame, in order to determine the route over which it will forward the datagram to the next network?
Decapsulate the packet
What network information can be determined from a logical internet protocol (IP) address?
The host portion and network portion
the physical address of a device is processed by which layer of the open systems interconnection reference model (OSI/RM)?
The data link layer
Which layer of the open system interconnection reference modle (OSI/RM) would you suspect as being the problem when packets arriving at the server but no information is being returned to the client?
The transport layer
All computers running on the transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) suite have which of the following in common?
Each computer is assigned its own internet protocol (IP) address
A repeater operates at which layer of the open systems interconnection reference model (OSI/RM)?
The physical layer.
Which of the following protocols allows email clients to download their messages from an email server?
Post office protocol version 3 (POP3)
Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is what type of protocol?
Stateless
On the file transfer protocol (FTP) server, what manages client requests for file retrieval or transmission?
A daemon
What are the primary requirements to connect a transmission control protocol/ internet protocol (TCP/IP) network?
Unique pairs of network layer and transport layer addresses and use of the TCP/IP protocol suit.
What type of delivery method uses an email server between the sender and the receiver of messages?
Store-and-forward
Host names and uniform resource locators (URL) are resolved to internet protocol (IP) addresses by which of the following?
Domain Name System (DNS)
What happens when the browser application finishes the downloading the files necessary to display a web page?
The browser server drop the connections, and the browser maintains th epage and its elements in local memory.
Which email protocol enables the messages to be viewed without first downloading them from the email server?
Internet Message AccessPprotocol version 4 (IMAP4)
What type of server maintains an access log to assist with troubleshooting and tracking down malicious users?
File transfer Protocol Server (FTP)
A store and forward email system will not deliver messages until
The host requests the information
What is the binary equivalent of decimal 136?
10001000
Convert the internet protocol (IP) address 172.68.10.2 from decimal to binary.
10101100.01000100.00001010.000000010
Convert the binary internet protocol (IP) address 01110011.11001000.00101100.00000010 to decimal.
115.200.44.2
Which is the result of ANDing the internet protocol (IP) address 23.176.224.18 with the subnet mask 255.224.0.0?
23.160.0.0
Which represents the prefix bits for the subnet mask 255.255.0.0
/16
if we borrow 3 bits from a class C network address, how many usable subnets have we created?
8
What isolates an internet protocol (IP) address’s network portion from its host portion?
A network mask
What is the best description if the internet protocol (IP) address prefix?
It is the shorthand notation for the combined network and subnet mask.
In a network mask address, what identifies the network and host portions of the address?
The network portion of the net mask is set to all ones, and the host is set to all zeros
Why is sub-netting used?
It allows network administrators to break up a single network address into smaller network addresses.
Which internet protocol (IP) packet fragmentation header field specifies where the fragment belongs in the original data gram?
Fragment offset
Which is the internet protocol (IP) header protocol number used to specify that the packets contents were created with transmission control protocol (TCP)?
6
Which protocol allows a disk-less workstation to contact a sever and obtain an internet protocol address?
Revers address resolution protocol (RARP)
What provides user data gram protocol (UDP) with the ability to demultiplex data for an application?
A UDP destination port number
Which user datagram protocol (UDP) port address enables connection to a device running secure shell?
22
Which transmission control protocol (TCP) header control bit represents that the message is initiating a connection?
SYN
Which of the following two ports are combined in the transmission control protocol (TCP) header?
destination and source
You know the logical address of an associates computer on the company’s local network and you want to learn the media access control (MAC) address of your associates computer. Which of the following tools could you use?
Address resolution protocol (ARP)
What is the primary difference between transmission control protocol (TCP) and user datagram protocol (UDP)?
TCP messages are tracked to ensure they are recieved; UDP messages are sent without tracking.
The five stages of (1) obtaining logical addresses, (2) obtaining physical addresses, (3) establishing a connection between applications, (4) the transfer of information, (5) the termination of the connection are necessary to accomplish what?
The transfer of information accross a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network
Where does the Domain Name System (DNS) namespace begin?
Root Domains
The maximum Domain Name System (DNS) domain name length is how many bytes?
255
Zones maintain domain name information in which record type?
Resource records
When Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) carries vendor specific options, what tells the client the vendor specific format?
Codes 128-256
At which point in the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) lease dos the client first attempt to renew its lease?
50%
Which is the correct destination of a user datagram protocol (UDP) port number for a DHCPDISCOVER message?
67
When network address translation (NAT) uses IP (internet protocol) address translation, it assigns external address to internal devices in which way?
it assigns the internal address to one of a pool of external addresses
Which statement best describes network address translation (NAT) masquerading?
it hides all internal addresses behind one external address
What does the Domain Name Systems (DNS) allow users to do?
Distinguish between two similar names
For Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) , what are the hosts requesting and supplying the configuration parameters called?
The client request parameters and the server provides the parameters
A router makes its packet forwarding decision based on what information?
The routers routing table
On which network type is a static route best used?
stub routing
Which network address represents a default route?
0.0.0.0/0.
Which router protocol type shares routing information within the autonomous system (AS)?
Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP).
Distance Vector Algorithms (DVA) operate in wihch manner?
They advertise their routing tables directly to directly connected neighbor routers.
What can cause routing loops in the flat router architecture?
The router receives data packets before it receives routing information, causing the router to generate additional address request messages for routing information
What are routers that belong to the same autonomous system (AS) called?
Interior neighbors
What is a benefit of using static routes?
No bandwidth usage passing updates between routers.
Why are routers known as neighbors or peers?
because they exchange routing information
When using multipath routing and multiple routes are available for a single destination address, how does the router make the route section?
it selects the route with the highest precedence.
Which of the following is a characteristic of static routing?
Static systems do not operate well in an environment of rapid growth or change.
When a client connects to a web browser, the first action is typically media access control (MAC) address resolution. Under what circumstance may address resolution be bypassed?
When the client has recently made a request to the same server
Which hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) message request from the client allows it to obtain additional information regarding options and requirements without initiating any actions on the part of the server?
options
What are some of the issues that can arise when making a file available for transfer to other users?
Data type, file structure, and transmission mode.
What are the common file extensions used to transfer image data in file transfer protocol (FTP)?
Bitmap (.BMP), graphics interchange format (GIF), and joint photography experts group (.JPG or .JPEG)
What is the name of the protocol by which management information for a network element can be inspected or altered by a management station?
Simple network management protocol (SNMP)
Why does simple network management protocol (SNMP) use unsolicited messages (traps) from the network elements to poll for appropriate information?
Using traps is consistent with the goal of simplicity and minimizing the amount of traffic generated by the network management function
What does the packet based multimedia communications systems, covered by the H.323, cover?
realtime audio, video, and data communications over internet protocol (IP) packet networks
Which version of the packet based multimedia communications system, covered be the H.323 standard, was the first to standardize requirements for communications between a pc based telephone and a telephone on the switched circuit network (SCN) of the public telephone system?
version 2
What component of the packet based multimedia communications system covered by the H.323 standard, is considered to be the brain of the network?
the gatekeeper
In simple network management protocol (SNMP), when do passive management agents take action on their own initiative?
when certain well-defined error conditions occur the generate an unsolicited message called a trap.
Which is the most important of the network troubleshooting steps?
Identify the exact issue.
Ipconfig displays which of the following elements of client configuration information?
Default gateway
Which of the following is used to verify whether another host on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network is reachable?
Ping
How would an operator find a list of options available for the ping utility?
type “ping” from a command line
Which ping option allows you to specify the packet buffer for each ping packet?
Ping -l
When troubleshooting, asking the question, has anything changed recently that might have had an impact?”, will aid you in :
Identifying the exact issue relating to a problem
Which utility should be run to verify that your windows client is configured to use the correct domain name system (DNS) sever?
ipconfig
Which of the troubleshooting utilities presented expects a reply when it sends a message to another computer?
ping
What entry would be made to log each hop along the way to a specific internet site?
enter “tracert” followed by a host name for the internet site
Which of the troubleshooting utilities presented is frequently used as starting point for transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network problem isolation to learn what network a device resides on?
Ipconfig
How does frequency division multiplexing (FDM) enable multiple signals to share a common medium
By assigning each a specific frequency or band of frequencies called a channel
What best describes orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM)?
It is a multicarrier transport scheme in which narrowband carriers (subcarriers) are modulated independently, and then multiplexed together
In what type of installation is wide wavelengh division multiplexing (WWDM) used?
It is used in passive optical networks (PON)
Coarse wavelengh division multiplexing (CWDM) applications were expanded to include use in large metropolitan networks, utilizing wavelengths in what band?
E-band
The most commonly used dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDN) channels in broadband cable networks are in which band?
The C-band
What determines the length of a time division multiplexing (TDM) frame?
The number of input channels to the multiplexer
What is an inefficient characteristic of synchronous time division multiplexing (TDM) that is addressed by statistical TDM?
Transport of empty time slots
in a synchronous optical network (SONET) what is the basis building block having a data transmission rate of 51.85 Mbps?
The synchronous transport signal (STS) frame
What is an X.25 network, whether public or private, typically built upon?
The leased-line facilities of the public telephone network.
What are the units called that transport asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) data?
Cells
Which of the following commonly is used to classify networks?
The distance between communicating computers
Which of the following best describes the difference between a process and a program?
A process is a subset of a program.
The interaction between processes and protocols forms which of the following?
A protocol stack.
Port addresses and network addresses are two types of :
Logical addresses
Transmitting messages to a from a sending computer process to a receiving computer process is the function of which layer of the open system interconnection (OSI) model?
The Transport layer.
Internet Protocol (IP) and x.25 are considered to be which of the following?
Protocols for the network layer.
Which of the following accurately describes a bus topology?
All devices are connected by a single electrical circuit.
What type of process is located on two computers that perform approximately the same services?
Peer
When an application is sending data to a distant computer, what process occurs on the sending node?
Encapsulation
By the time the message is transmitted across cable, where will you find an Internet protocol (IP) packet?
Inside a frame.
Which layer in the OSI reference model is the only layer that adds a trailer to the data it transmits?
Data Link Layer
What is Ethernet?
A Data link layer specification for media access control (MAC), which defines how network nodes can use a shared medium to transmit signals to one another.
How does IEEE 802.3 frame format differ from Ethernet version 2 frame format?
The type field is replaced by the length field.
What is the maximum length of 10GBase-T Ethernet connection using category 7 (CAT-7) shielded twisted pair (STP) cable?
100 m
What synchronous optical network (SONET) standard is 10GBase-EW/LW/SW compatible?
OC-192
How are store and forward Ethernet switches different from cut through switches?
Store and forward switches are more accurate, but cut through switches are faster.
Which layer two type reads the first 64 bytes of frame and then forwards it to hte destination interface?
Fragment free
What is the primary reason to build a virtual local area network (VLAN)?
To minimize broadcast traffic.
Virtual local area networks (VLAN) are typically implemented using which type of device?
A switch.
Devices connected to hub share the same:
Collision domain
Layer 3 switches do a good job of containing which of the following?
Broadcasts
Under what license is Linux released?
GNU General Public License (GPL)
What is the Linux Shell?
Command interpreter and scripting language.
Which Linux application supports centralized user authorization and directory services?
OpenLDAP
Which Linux distribution has the distinction of being the oldest surviving Linux distribution that is known for its stability?
Slackware
Which of the following is developed as a CD-based Debian like distribution, or design, to run off the CD drive?
Knoppix
What is one method of configuring Linux for networking?
Statically
What Linux tool is used for monitoring and changing network parameters?
IfConfig
Which application allows Linux to share files and printers with Microsoft Windows devices?
Samba
Which Linux tool allows you to run Windows applications natively on an x86 platform?
WINE
What file handles Samba Server Configuration in Linux?
Smb.conf
Where does Red Hat store networking parameters?
/etc/sysconfig directory
In the five layer hierarchy of Apple’s operating systems, Mac OS X/macOs, which layer is most complex?
Layer five, the application layer containing Cocoa and Carbon.
The Mac OS/macOS kernel includes which elements?
A Mach kernel, xnu kernel, and various Berkeley Software Distribution (BSD) system calls.
What are some of the common applications included with Mac Os X/macOS in an Apple computer?
iMovie, iTunes, and GarageBand.
What applications are available in Apple iWork?
Pages, a word processing application; Numbers, a spreadsheet application; and Keynote, a presentation application.
What server management services are installed on an Apple Mac OS X/macOS server?
Simple network management protocol version 3 (SNMpv3), Secure shell access, and server monitor.
What services on an Apple Mac OS X/macOS server enables multiple computers to work together on a single task?
Distributed computing with Xgrid.
What authentication and directory services does an Apple Mac OS X/macOS server employ?
OpenLDAP, Kerberos, Active Directory (AD) connector, and RADIUS.
What services are typically included with Apple’s Mac OS X/macOS server?
Services a company would need to operate a business.
What network and virtual private network (VPN) services does and Apple Mac OS X/macOS server employ?
Domain name system (DNS), dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP), network address translation (NAT), firewalling, and network time protocol.
What open source mail filter does an Apple Mac OS X/macOS server use for junk mail filtering?
SpamAssassin
The Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) Network Layer serves which primary purpose?
It uses Layer 3 addresses to create multiple routed networks.
The address 68.56.189.17 belongs to which Internet protocol (IP) class?
Class A
What happens to a datagram sent by a higher level protocol to a 127.x.y.z address?
The datagram loops back inside the host and never leaves the network interface card (NIC).
Which device evaluates and acts upon a packet’s Internet protocol (IP) address?
Router.
The Network Layer must do what to a received frame first, in order to determine the route over which it will forward the datagram to the next network?
Decapsulate the packet.
What network information can be determined from a logical Internet protocol (IP) address?
The host portion and network portion.
The physical address of a device is processed by which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM)?
The Physical Layer.
Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) would you suspect as being the problem when packets are arriving at the server but no information is being returned to the client?
The Data Link Layer.
All computers running on the transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) suite have which of the following in common?
Each computer is assigned its own Internet protocol (IP) address.
A repeater operates at which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM)?
The Transport Layer.
Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) network address allocation mechanism assigns a host a temporary IP address?
Dynamic
Which two choices are examples of trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) use? (Choose two.)
Download router upgrades. And
Software upgrades to IP telephones.
How does the Domain Name System (DNS) resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses?
By looking up the names in an address mapping database.
Which TCP/IP application allows us to transfer files either within a browser or at the command line?
File transfer protocol (FTP).
Which statement best describes Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)?
IMAP allows users to scan email headers and choose email messages to download from the email server.
To resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to binary IP addresses, resolvers contact which type of TCP/IP application server?
Domain Name System (DNS).
Which protocol allows clients to locate and download IP addressing and configuration information on an automatically renewable (lease) basis?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
Which TCP/IP application allows a network user to remotely log on and manipulate a network device?
Telnet.
Which three of the following are Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation mechanisms? (Choose three.)
Automatic, Dynamic, Manual
Internet email uses which two protocols? (Choose two.)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). And Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3).
If a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client fails to renew its lease at the 50-percent point, what happens next?
It attempts to obtain a lease at 87.5-percent lease time.
Of the five trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP) packet types, which three choices below are TFTP packet types? (Choose three.)
Read request, Write request, Acknowledgement
If you want to locate a previously saved Uniform Resource Locator (URL) so that you can quickly return to it as needed, where on the browser toolbar would you look?
Favorites
What happens when the browser application finishes downloading the files necessary to display a web page?
The browser and server drop the connections, and the browser maintains the page and its elements in memory.
Which best describes why an hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) server can handle multiple simultaneous connections?
HTTP is stateless, which means the server has no knowledge of previous connections after they are dropped.
For what purpose would you choose to run the Telnet application?
To configure a router
Which three of the following are common Telnet application uses? (Choose three.)
Connect to an online database, Connect remotely to run a specific application, Connect to a router for network information
Which file transfer protocol (FTP) command allows you to change directories within a file listing?
CD
For what application is file transfer protocol (FTP) an excellent choice?
To download large files.
A file transfer protocol (FTP) server administrator can control server access in which three ways? (Choose three.)
Make only portions of the drive visible, Control read and write privileges, Limit file access
Which is the best reason to use the file transfer protocol (FTP) application?
When you need to pass large files over a slow connection
The file transfer protocol (FTP) server process can run as which two of the following? (Choose two.)
Daemon, Windows service
As a result of issuing the file transfer protocol (FTP) DIR command, each file listing entry begins with a “-“; what does the “-” indicate?
The entries are files
Which two choices are TCP/IP email protocols? (Choose two.)
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP). , Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).
Which two protocols deliver email directly to the email client? (Choose two.)
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3).
Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4).
Why does Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) need additional protocols to carry non-text data as attachments?
SMTP only carries ASCII text characters.
Which two of the following are Multpurpose Internet Mail Extension (MIME)-supported data types? (Choose two.)
Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG). , Graphics interchange format (GIF).
How does secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME) protect email from forgery and interception?
It uses digital signatures and public-key encryption techniques.
Your network Help desk calls and asks you to help troubleshoot an email problem. Several users have complained that when they send email messages with attachments, the recipients reply that the attachments are unreadable. The message body is legible, however. You know that your users encode all attachments using Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (MIME). Which is the best solution to this problem?
Contact the recipients, and have them use MIME to decode attachments.
Which is a valid email address?
[email protected]
You are a networking consultant for a major telecommunications firm. They ask you to help them resolve a hacked email problem. It seems that someone is intercepting emails between district offices and inserting pornographic pictures in place of legitimate email attachments. How might you resolve this problem for them?
Implement Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension (S/MIME) encoding on all outbound email attachments.
Which two of the following are examples of email programs? (Choose two.)
Microsoft Outlook and UNIX Sendmail
Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is which type of message delivery system?
Direct delivery
Remote monitoring (RMON) uses which devices, placed on remote network segments, to gather network information?
Probes.
In which two ways does a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent respond to the management station? (Choose two.)
By responding to the management station’s requests for updated data
By trapping information that exceeds a set threshold and forwarding the data to the management station
Which two TCP/IP protocols are used for network management? (Choose two.)
Remote monitoring (RMON).
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
What results from trapping data with an Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent?
The managed device alerts the management station of a threshold violation.
Which three of the following are devices manageable with simple network management protocol (SNMP)? (Choose three.)
Applications.
Bridges.
Routers.
Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) protocol data unit (PDU) notifies the management station of the occurrence of a significant event?
Trap
Which remote monitoring (RMON) group records and stores sample statistics for each monitored interface?
The History Control Group.
Which three of the following are network management model components for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)? (Choose three.)
Managed devices.
Network management station (NMS).
Network management protocol.
How does remote monitoring 2 (RMON2) differ from remote monitoring (RMON)?
RMON2 looks at Layer 3 traffic, while RMON only looks at Layers 1 and 2.
When a management station polls a device agent process to collect information, the network management system is operating in which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) network management mode?
Passive.
Which three of the following are examples of Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) router management categories? (Choose three.)
Configuration
Security
Performance
Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) management mode allows us to change a device’s characteristics and operating parameters?
Active management.
Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) remote monitoring (RMON) extension prepares reports about a group of devices that head a measured parameter’s statistical list?
The Host Top N Group.
A remote monitoring 2 (RMON2) probe can capture a network segment’s performance statistics based on which two of the following? (Choose two.)
IP address.
Application.
Which Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) sets object values on an agent with it’s protocol data units (PDU)?
SetRequest
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) gathers network information from what type of database?
Management information base (MIB).
Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP) allows TCP/IP users to perform which of the following?
Download news articles.
Which name resolution technique dynamically resolves Windows host names to IP addresses?
Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS).
Which TCP/IP UNIX specific application would allow us to connect to a remote database over the network, but restrict database activity to the remote host?
Rlogin.
Which TCP/IP protocol has us attach a remote device to the local file system by mounting it?
Network File System (NFS).
Which TCP/IP application allows users to display locally a remote UNIX host’s screen?
Rlogin
When might you use the rlogin TCP/IP application?
To remotely connect one UNIX workstation to another.
Which TCP/IP application distributes news articles read from a central database?
Network News Transfer Protocol (NNTP).
Which one of the following protocols allows email clients to download their messages from an email server?
Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3).
Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is what type of protocol?
Stateless.
On the file transfer protocol (FTP) server, what manages client requests for file retrieval or transmission?
A daemon.
What are the primary requirements to connect to a transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) network?
Unique pairs of Network Layer and Transport Layer addresses and use of the TCP/IP protocol suite.
What type of delivery method uses an email server between the sender and the receiver of messages?
Store-and-forward.
Host names and uniform resource locators (URL) are resolved to Internet protocol (IP) addresses by which of the following applications?
Domain Name System (DNS).
What happens when the browser application finishes downloading the files necessary to display a web page?
The browser and server drop the connections, and the browser maintains the page and its elements in local memory.
Which email protocol enables the messages to be viewed without first downloading them from the email server?
Internet Message Access Protocol version 4 (IMAP4).
What type of server maintains an access log to assist with troubleshooting and tracking down malicious users?
A file transfer protocol (FTP) server.
A store-and-forward email system will not deliver messages until:
The host requests the information.
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 129?
10000001
Convert the decimal IP address 206.190.36.45 to a binary IP address.
11001110.10111110.00100100.00101101
Convert the binary IP address 10101111.11001100.00010110.01010101 to a decimal IP address.
175.204.22.85
Which is another name for the binary number system?
Base 2
Which is another name for the decimal number system?
Base 10
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 254?
11111110
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 1010?
10
What is the decimal value of the binary number 1000?
8
If we borrow 3 bits from a Class C network address, how many usable subnets have we created?
8
If we borrow 12 bits from a Class B address, how many usable subnets have we created?
4,096
Which two of the following are reasons why an organization would choose to subnet their network? (Choose two.)
To build a more scalable network
To conserve network addresses
Which broadcast IP address limits packets to the local network segment only?
255.255.255.255
A subnet’s broadcast address has which portion’s bits set to all ones?
The host portion.
What is the binary equivalent of the subnet mask 255.248.0.0?
11111111.11111000.00000000.00000000
Using the default Class C subnet mask, 255.255.255.0, which two addresses will be able to communicate on the same network segment? (Choose two.)
192.200.129.179
192.200.129.18
Using the subnet mask 255.255.255.248, which two addresses are on the same subnet? (Choose two.)
194.212.56.20
194.212.56.18
Using the subnet mask 255.255.255.192, which sets of host addresses will be able to communicate on the same network segment?
210.68.165.65 to 210.68.165.120
Your customer owns a full Class C address, 220.14.56.0. They currently operate a flat network using the default Class C subnet mask, 255.255.255.0, and use a single router to connect to the Internet. What should the subnet mask number be changed to in order to segment their network into six subnets to better control broadcast traffic?
255.255.255.224.
Using the subnet mask 255.255.255.240, which two addresses are on the same subnet? (Choose two.)
200.193.15.49
200.193.15.61
In order for a host to communicate on a subnetted network segment, which two portions of its IP address must match those of the subnet address? (Choose two.)
The network portion
The subnet portion
In a set of subnet address ranges, which is the first wire address in the first subnet?
The default network’s wire address.
In a Class B network, if you borrowed 9 bits, how many usable subnets would you create?
512
When subnetting Class B addresses, what is the first subnet’s wire address equal to?
The default network wire address.
In a subnetted Class B network, in what state will the host bits be on each subnet’s broadcast address?
Each subnet’s host bits are set to all 1s.
If the number of hosts per subnet exceeds 255, how might you solve for the subnet incremental range?
Divide the number of hosts by 256.
If a Class B address’s subnet mask is 255.255.254.0, in which octet does our subnet portion increment?
Third
If a Class B address’s subnet mask is 255.255.255.192, in which octet does the subnet portion increment?
Third and fourth.
When written in binary, the first part of a subnetted Class B network’s wire address will show which bit pattern?
The network portion set as the default Class B network portion, the subnet portion to all 0s, and the host portion to all 0s.
With the subnet mask 255.255.255.128, how frequently will the Class B subnets increment, and in which octet?
Every 128 hosts; third and fourth octets.
How many total bits does a Class B subnet allow us to borrow from the host portion?
14
When subnetting Class A addresses, which two of the following is the first subnet’s wire address equal to? (Choose two.)
The default wire address.
Netid.0.0.0.
Given the IP address 67.89.124.189 and the subnet mask 255.224.0.0, which is the subnetted octet, and how frequently will it increment?
The second octet, by 32.
Given the subnet mask 255.255.254.0, and considering the trick you learned for identifying subnet masking patterns, in which octet will the subnet wire addresses increment?
Second
Why did the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) design classless interdomain routing (CIDR)?
To reduce routing table entries.
You need to integrate these six class C networks 201.36.35.0/24, 201.36.72.0/24, 201.36.78.0/24, 201.36.79.0/24, 201.36.80.0/24, and 201.36.141.0/24. Which of these networks would be in the classless interdomain routing (CIDR) network range 201.36.72.0/21?
201.36.72.0/24
201.36.78.0/24
201.36.79.0/24
How does a router determine where to send packets addressed to hosts on remote networks?
It looks in its routing table for an entry for the destination network.
Which two of the following result from implementing classless interdomain routing (CIDR)? (Choose two.)
Reduced network bandwidth utilization.
Conservation of available addresses.
What is the binary equivalent of decimal 136?
10001000.
Convert the Internet protocol (IP) address 172.68.10.2 from decimal to binary:
10101100.01000100.00001010.00000010.
Convert the binary Internet protocol (IP) address 01110011.11001000.00101100.00000010 to decimal:
115.200.44.2.
Which represents the prefix bits for the subnet mask 255.255.0.0?
/16.
If we borrow 3 bits from a Class C network address, how many useable subnets have we created?
8.
What isolates an Internet protocol (IP) address’s network portion from its host portion?
A network mask.
What is the best description of the Internet protocol (IP) address prefix?
It is the shorthand notation for the combined network and subnet mask.
In a net mask address, what identifies the network and host portions of the address?
The network portion of the net mask is set to all ones, and the host is set to all zeros.
Why is subnetting used?
It allows network administrators to break up a single network address into smaller network addresses.
Internet protocol (IP) provides which three of the following services to transmission control protocol (TCP)? (Choose three.)
Datagram routing.
Time-to-live (TTL).
Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP).
How many fragments will the transmitting device have to create to match the datagram to the segment’s 512 maximum transfer unit (MTU) size, having a 1,500-byte datagram, and a 20-byte IP header?
4
On an IP network, all hosts must be able to handle a packet size of at least how many bytes?
576
What happens to a datagram marked as “do not fragment” if it must be transmitted across a network segment with a maximum transmission unit field (MTU) smaller than the datagram?
The transmitting network device will drop the datagram, and notify the source.
Which best describes IP’s use of the time-to-live (TTL) field?
The TTL specifies the time a datagram is allowed to remain on the network.
Which IP packet frame field ensures that the gateways handling a datagram agree on the datagram’s format?
Version.
Which IP packet bits does open shortest path first (OSPF) use to provide Type of Service (ToS) routing?
Delay, throughput, reliability, and cost (D-T-R-C) bits.
Which address resolution protocol (ARP) feature allows the local host to maintain a mapping of recently discovered IP-to-media access control (MAC) addresses?
The ARP cache
A host on the local IP network segment has data to send to another host, located on another IP network. The source host needs to resolve the destination host’s IP address to a media access control (MAC) address. Which protocol might the gateway router run in order to answer the local host’s address resolution protocol (ARP) request?
Proxy ARP.
How does a diskless workstation identify itself when requesting an IP address using reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)?
By its media access control (MAC) address.
Address resolution protocol (ARP) requests are sent as which type of Ethernet frame?
Broadcast
What happens first when an IP host needs to resolve an IP address to a media access control (MAC) address?
The sending host looks in its address resolution protocol (ARP) cache for the necessary mapping.
Which IP protocol allows a diskless workstation to contact a server and obtain an IP address?
Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP).
Which network segment hosts respond to an address resolution protocol (ARP) request?
Only the target host responds
Which statement best describes proxy address resolution protocol (ARP)?
Proxy ARP allows a router to answer an ARP request on behalf of a remote host.
A client Domain Name System (DNS) resolver wishes to resolve a Web server fully qualified domain name (FQDN) to an IP address. It sends its first message to its designated DNS server, requesting name to IP address resolution. This message contains: 1) The LAN protocol Data Link Layer header and trailer. 2) The IP header. 3) The user datagram (UDP) header. 4) The DNS resolver request. Why did the resolver send the DNS request in the first packet, rather than send an initial empty SYN packet?
UDP does not use SYN and ACK packets.
Which best describes the user datagram protocol (UDP) demultiplexing process?
UDP uses port numbers to allow multiple applications to communicate simultaneously on the same host.
Match the well known user datagram protocol (UDP) port numbers with their associated application.
Port 53- Domain Name System (DNS)
Port 67- BOOTP Server
Port 68- BOOTP Client
Port 69- Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Port 123- Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Port 161- Simple Network Mgmnt Protocol (SNMP)
Which is a true statement concerning user datagram protocol (UDP)?
UDP servers must listen for service requests on well known ports, or else the transactions may fail.
Which three of the following applications utilize user datagram protocol (UDP)? (Choose three.)
Trivial file transfer protocol (TFTP).
Simple network management protocol (SNMP).
Domain Name System (DNS).
How does the user datagram protocol (UDP) support multiple application destinations on the same host?
It carries port numbers in its header, used to logically address a destination application.
How does the transmission control protocol (TCP) receiver control the data flowing from the source?
It sets the receive window size with each ACK segment it returns.
Which best describes transmission control protocol’s (TCP) use of the Window header field?
It is bidirectional, so both ends can control data flow.
Which statement best describes transmission control protocol’s (TCP) use of sequence numbers?
They identify the sequence number of the first data byte in the segment.
Which three parts of the transmission control protocol (TCP) header help the protocol ensure reliable communications between applications? (Choose three.)
ACK control bits
Sequence numbers
Checksum
The local transmission control protocol (TCP) process sends four segments, each 4 bytes long. The first sequence number is 7,806,002. Which is the acknowledgment number the receiving process returned to indicate it received segment one?
7,806,006
Which portion of the transmission control protocol (TCP) header specifies the next sequence number the receiver expects from the connection source?
Acknowledgment number.
Which three choices are transmission control protocol (TCP) features? (Choose three.)
Flow control.
Packet error recovery.
Demultiplexing multiple applications.
Which transmission control protocol (TCP) function forces data delivery before filling the transmit buffer?
Push
Which addresses combine to create a transmission control protocol (TCP) socket?
IP and port.
The destination transmission control protocol (TCP) process has set a 1,000-byte receive buffer window. The source TCP sequence number starts at 23,100 and sends the following segments, in order: Segment 1-200 bytes; Segment 2-300 bytes; Segment 3-200 bytes; and Segment 4-300 bytes. The last acknowledgment the source received was sequence number 23,600 saying the receive buffer can now hold 800-300 byte streams. The retransmission timer for sequence number 23,600 has expired, so what will the source TCP do next?
Resend segments 3 and 4.
Which types of transmission control protocol (TCP) segments contain window size advertisements?
ACK
Which two flags can a sending application set to force the transmission control protocol (TCP) process to send data before filling the transmit buffer? (Choose two.)
Urgent (URG)
Push (PSH).
Which statement best describes Handshake #1?
The initiator sends a SYN segment to the target host’s transmission control process (TCP) process.
Which type of packet does the receiving transmission control protocol (TCP) send to the source indicating its receipt of the source’s SYN packet?
SYN-ACK
What happens if the retransmission timer set by the sending transmission control protocol (TCP) times out before it receives an acknowledgment.
It retransmits the outstanding segments.
How does a transmission control protocol (TCP) process handle a failed connection?
It sends an RST segment when the maximum retry count is exceeded.
How does a sending transmission control protocol (TCP) process handle a zero receive window size?
It sends periodic probe segments and waits for an ACK with a nonzero window size.
At which Open Systems Interconnection reference model (OSI/RM) layer does the physical address reside?
Data Link
In TCP/IP, what does a network host use to find a physical address, given a logical address?
Address resolution protocol (ARP).
Transmission control protocol (TCP) establishes which type of circuit between applications?
Virtual
Which three of the following terms refer to a physical address? (Choose three.)
Media access control (MAC) address.
Adapter address.
Hardware address.
Which two of the following are examples of local area network (LAN) logical addresses? (Choose two.)
201.90.35.78
Port 23
Which Internet protocol (IP) packet fragmentation header field specifies where the fragment belongs in the original datagram?
Fragment Offset.
Which is the Internet protocol (IP) header protocol number used to specify that the packet’s contents were created with transmission control protocol (TCP)?
6
Which protocol allows a diskless workstation to contact a server and obtain an Internet protocol (IP) address?
Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP).
What provides user datagram protocol (UDP) with the ability to demultiplex data for an application?
A UDP destination port number.
Which user datagram protocol (UDP) port address do simple network management protocol (SNMP) agents use to send and receive management requests?
161.
Which transmission control protocol (TCP) header control bit represents that the message is initiating a connection?
SYN.
Which of the following two ports are contained in the transmission control protocol (TCP) header?
Destination and source.
nu9of12
You know the logical address of an associate’s computer on the company’s local network and you want to learn the media access control (MAC) address of your associate’s computer. Which of the following tools would you use?
Address resolution protocol (ARP).
What is the primary difference between transmission control protocol (TCP) and user datagram protocol (UDP)?
TCP messages are tracked to ensure they are received; UDP messages are sent without tracking.
The five steps of (1) obtaining logical addresses, (2) obtaining physical addresses, (3) establishing a connection between applications, (4) the transfer of information, and (5) the termination of the connection are necessary to accomplish what?
The transfer of information across a transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) network.
Which two mechanisms might a host use to resolve fully qualified domain names (FQDN) to IP addresses? (Choose two.)
Hosts table
Domain Name System (DNS)
Which of the following describes a Domain Name System (DNS) resolver?
It retrieves IP address information.
Which Domain Name System (DNS) record type specifies name to address translation, such as used in a glue record entry?
Address (A).
Which two of the following are examples of relative domain names in the ncti.com domain? (Choose two.)
telnet
telnet.ncti
The maximum Domain Name System (DNS) domain name length is how many characters?
255
A Domain Name System (DNS) start of authority (SOA) entry indicates which of the following?
The domain’s primary DNS
Which Domain Name System (DNS) record lists a zone’s name servers?
Name server (NS).
Where does the Domain Name System (DNS) namespace begin?
the root
Zones maintain domain name information in which record types?
Resource records (RR).
Which are the two control entries found in a master file resource record (RR) entry? (Choose two.)
Origin
Include
Which three of the following are typical resolver functions? (Choose three.)
Translation of host name to host address (IP address).
Translation of host address to host name.
General lookup function that returns all of a resource record’s (RR) content, rather than a processed form
A ping command uses which Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) message types? (Choose two.)
Echo Request
Echo Reply
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) supports which TCP/IP utility?
Ping
Why might we use Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) testing on an IP network?
To obtain feedback about various problems that might occur on the network.
Which IP protocol will a router use to inform neighbor routers of congestion on an interface?
Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Why might a device send an Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) source quench message?
The device does not have the buffering capacity to forward a datagram.
Why does Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) use identifier and sequence numbers?
To allow the sender to match ICMP reply messages with requests.
Which two statements concerning multicasting are true? (Choose two.)
User datagram protocol (UDP) uses IP multicast services.
IP multicast group membership is dynamic.
How would IP multicasting map address 224.0.0.1 to an Ethernet multicast address?
01:00:5E:00:00:01
For which three purposes might you use multicasting on an IP network? (Choose three.)
Online training
Teleconferencing
Software distribution
Which TCP/IP protocol allows a diskless workstation to discover its IP address, as well as download a boot file?
Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP).
When might a BOOTP client discard a BOOTREPLY message? (Choose three.)
If the destination port number is 67.
If the BOOTREPLY targets another media access control (MAC) address.
If the BOOTREPLY includes a transaction ID other than its own.
In which cases will a BOOTP relay agent discard a BOOTREQUEST message? (Choose three.)
When the destination port is 68.
If the OpCode is not 1 or 2.
If the Hop count field value exceeds 16.
Which best describes a BOOTP relay agent?
It forwards client BOOTREQUEST messages across subnet boundaries.
Why would you use a Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) relay agent on your network?
To pass BOOTP messages between subnets
Which best describes a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scope?
A range of addresses from which the server chooses a client address assignment
What does Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Overview and Objectives (DHCP) provide that Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) cannot?
DHCP assigns reusable addresses to any requesting host.
How many Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation steps are required to enable the client to successfully acquire a lease from a server?
4
Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) option code is used for specifying vendor specific options?
128
When can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server reuse an address offered in a DHCPOFFER message?
After the server times out waiting for a DHCPREQUEST message
How might a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client relinquish its current lease?
DHCPRELEASE message.
Which of the following choices is the correct order in which a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client initially obtains an IP address?
DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER, DHCPREQUEST, DHCPACK
Which Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) address allocation method assigns reusable addresses to DHCP clients?
Dynamic.
At which point in the lease period does the client first attempt to renew its lease?
50 percent
Which statement best describes network address translation (NAT) masquerading?
It hides all internal addresses behind one external address.
Which network address translation (NAT) address mapping technique maps internal IP addresses to a single, external IP address?
Network address and port translation (NAPT).
Network address translation (NAT) IP address translation assigns external addresses to internal devices in which way?
It assigns the internal address to one of a pool of external addresses
How does a network address translation (NAT) netmask work to map internal addresses to external addresses?
It works as an inverse mask, converting the internal network address portion to a public address.
How does network address translation (NAT) help secure a private network from outside attacks?
It allows networks to use private IP addresses on the internal network, and still access the Internet.
How does network address and port translation (NAPT) handle an IP packet’s source and destination port and IP addresses?
It leaves the destination port and address as is, and changes the source port and address to addresses from its address pool.
What happens when a dynamic network address translation (NAT) device runs out of addresses to assign?
The NAT device refuses new connections.
Which choice is the best solution for allowing externally initiated connections through a network address and port translation (NAPT) network address translation (NAT) device?
Use static address mappings for any internal services we wish to make externally available.
How does dynamic address translation enhance network security?
It only maps internal hosts to external addresses for the duration of the connection.
How long is an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address?
128 bits.
Which protocol works with Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) Quality of Service (QoS) mechanisms to provide video and other realtime data with reserved bandwidth across a data flow’s path?
Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP).
Where does the Domain Name System (DNS) namespace begin?
Root domains.
The maximum Domain Name System (DNS) domain name length is how many bytes?
255.
Zones maintain domain name information in which record types?
Resource records.
At which point in the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) lease period does the client first attempt to renew its lease?
At 50% of the original lease time.
What is the correct destination of a user datagram protocol (UDP) port number for a DHCPDISCOVER message?
67
When network address translation (NAT) uses IP (Internet protocol) address translation, it assigns external addresses to internal devices in which way?
It assigns the internal address to one of a pool of external addresses.
Which statement best describes network address translation (NAT) masquerading?
It hides all internal addresses behind one external address.
Which three choices are indirect routing types? (Choose three.)
Static.
Default.
Dynamic.
Which routing type allows network administrators to implement route load balancing and fault tolerance?
Dynamic.
Which statement is true concerning IP routing?
The destination and source media access control (MAC) addresses change at each hop.
What type of network communication does not require a router’s services?
Direct routing.
On which network type is a static route best used?
Stub.
Which two of the following are advantages gained from using static routes? (Choose two.)
Reduced network overhead
Added network security
Considering the default Cisco router default administrative distances (AD), which of the following routes will a router consider more trustworthy than the others?
Static route.
In which two ways might using static routes provide additional network security over other routing options? (Choose two.)
They can limit packet traffic to only a single, dedicated route.
They share no routing information with other routers.
A router makes its packet forwarding decisions based on what information?
The router’s routing table.
In order to automatically build a routing table, which type of indirect routing must a router use?
Dynamic.
Which router protocol type shares routing information within an autonomous system (AS)?
Interior gateway protocol (IGP).
Which of the choices below is an example of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)?
Border gateway protocol (BGP).
Which of the following protocols do autonomous systems (AS) use to exchange routing information between themselves?
Exterior gateway protocol (EGP).
Which two statements are true concerning distance vector algorithm (DVA) routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Slow convergence can cause such problems as routing loops and lost packets.
They usually require fewer router resources to compute the best path to a destination network than do other routing protocols.
Which of the following is another name for a distance vector algorithm (DVA)?
Bellman-Ford algorithm.
Which routing type allows networks to recover from failed routes?
Multipath routing.
Which three of the following are examples of dynamic routing protocol metrics? (Choose three.)
Line capacity.
Transmission delay.
Hop count.
Distance vector algorithms (DVA) operate in which manner?
They advertise their routing tables to directly connected neighbor routers.
Which of the following is the generic routing protocol type that routers use to communicate within an autonomous system (AS)?
Interior gateway protocol (IGP).
Which three of the following are interior gateway protocol (IGP) examples? (Choose three.)
Interior gateway routing protocol (IGRP).
Routing information protocol (RIP).
Open shortest path first (OSPF).
Which type of network architecture allows routers to perform different tasks depending on their functional position within an area?
Hierarchical.
Which two dynamic routing protocols create flat network topologies? (Choose two.)
Routing information protocol (RIP).
Interdomain routing protocol (IDRP).
IP routing information protocol (RIP) uses which of the following metrics to make path decisions?
Hop count
In which three of the following ways does RIPv2 differ from routing information protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
RIPv2 supports variable length subnet masks.
RIPv2 provides update message authentication.
RIPv2 adds a Route Tag routing table entry.
By default, how frequently do routing information protocol (RIP) routers send out response messages to neighbor routers?
Every 30 seconds
Router 1, a routing information protocol (RIP) router in a two-router network, informs its neighbor, Router 2, of a route to the new, directly connected Network A. Router 2 updates its routing table accordingly. Almost immediately, Router 1’s link to Network A fails. Router 1 prepares its regular update for Router 2, excluding the Network A entry from the update message. While Router 1 is waiting for its update timer to expire, Router 2 sends its regular update message to Router 1. This update tells Router 1 that Router 2 has a new route to Network A, with a hop count of 1. This route is through Router 2 back to Router 1, although Router 1’s link to Network A is still failed. Which RIP stability feature will prevent this problem?
Split horizons
You maintain an autonomous routing network that runs RIPv1 as its routing protocol. You calculate that at the workday’s busy hours, routing changes occurring on the nearest router take 45 seconds to propagate to the furthest router. In the past, this slow convergence has resulted in routing loops. How might you configure your routers to avoid creating routing loops when route changes occur within the network?
Set 50-second route update holddowns on all routers.
How does routing information protocol (RIP) resolve the count-to-infinity problem?
Hop-count limits.
Concerning routing information protocol (RIP), what is meant by the statement “maximum diameter of 15 hops”?
Any single network cannot be more than 15 hops away.
Which statement best describes split horizons?
It prevents a router from advertising a route out to the interface on which the route was learned.
How does RIPv2 authentication protect routing table information?
It password protects routing table updates between routers.
Which routing information protocol (RIP) stability feature sets a route’s hop count to 16, preventing further updates from setting an incorrect route to an unreachable network?
Poison reverse
Which would cause a router to update a route entry still in the holddown period set by a previously received update?
A triggered update with a lower hop count than previously received
Which three of the following are distance vector algorithm (DVA) stability features? (Choose three.)
Holddowns
Hop-count limits
Split horizons
What type of routing table update message does Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) send to quickly remove a route and place it in holddown?
Flash updates.
Which three choices are Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) stability features? (Choose three.)
Split horizons
Poison reverse updates
Holddowns
An Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) interior route is which of the following?
A path to a directly attached, subnetted route
Which two of the following are default Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) features? (Choose two.)
Route update period = 90 seconds
Maximum hop count = 100
Which metric does Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) use on a network with only one medium, such as one running 16-Mbps Token Ring exclusively?
Hop count.
In which instance could you use Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (IGRP) as a routing protocol?
Cisco routers in the same autonomous system (AS) as other Cisco routers.
A classful routing protocol can pass which three types of information in its routing table update messages? (Choose three.)
Metrics.
Network numbers.
Autonomous system (AS) numbers.
Which two of the following are the interior gateway routing protocol (IGRP) default metrics? (Choose two.)
Bandwidth
Delay
Which enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) routing table keeps a list of neighbors which are directly attached to one of the router’s interfaces?
The neighbor table.
Which of the following protocols scales better within a Cisco autonomous system?
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol.
In which instance could you use Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing protocol (EIGRP) as a routing protocol?
Cisco routers in the same autonomous system (AS) as other Cisco routers.
How does enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) avoid routing loops?
Diffusing Update Algorithm (DUAL).
What is the primary difference between active and passive destinations in an enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) topology table?
Passive tables are stable and trusted
Enhanced interior gateway routing protocol (EIGRP) was designed to replace or enhance which two previous routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Interior Gateway Routing Protocol
Routing Information Protocol
In what ways does open shortest path first (OSPF) improve upon the limitations of distance vector algorithm (DVA) protocols, such as routing information protocol (RIP)? (Choose three.)
Shortest Path First (SPF) technology resists routing loops.
Routers exchange routing table updates only.
All routing table exchanges are authenticate
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routers send which type of packet to locate their neighbors?
Hello.
Which statement best describes an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) virtual link?
It connects area border routes (ABR) over a nonbackbone area.
The broadcast packets used by link-state protocols to share routing information about neighbor routers are called what?
Link-state Algorithms (LSA).
Which statement best describes an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) area border router (ABR)?
It maintains a link-state database for each area to which it is connected.
Which two of the following result from using Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) routing areas? (Choose two.)
The development of a routing information hierarchy.
Greatly reduced routing information traffic within the entire autonomous system (AS).
In what three ways does Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) control network routing table update traffic? (Choose three.)
It provides for partitioning networks into subdomains, called area routes.
It supports multicast, rather than broadcast route update messages.
It passes only route table changes, rather than entire tables.
To reduce routing information traffic between adjacent networks, Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) networks elect which two devices? (Choose two.)
Backup designated router (BDR).
Designated router (DR).
An Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) autonomous system border router (ASBR) runs which two routing protocols? (Choose two.)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) on interfaces on other autonomous systems (AS).
OSPF on interfaces on its own autonomous system (AS).
In a link-state algorithm (LSA) shortest path first (SPF) tree, which three of the following are metrics the router uses to describe the cost to reach each destination network? (Choose three.)
Line delay.
Hop counts.
Line speed.
What does each link-state router build to describe the cost to reach each destination network?
Shortest path first (SPF) tree.
Border gateway protocol (BGP), though an exterior gateway protocol (EGP), operates as which type of routing protocol?
Distance Vector Algorithm (DVA).
Which three of the following cost factors might least cost routing use to calculate a minimum-cost path for a packet? (Choose three.)
Bandwidth.
Delay.
Cash costs.
What message type does border gateway protocol (BGP) send to test a connection’s state?
KeepAlive.
Which advanced routing function allows for redundant paths between networks?
Load splitting.
Quality of Service (QoS) routing uses which Internet protocol (IP) header field to make route decisions?
Type of Service (ToS).
A router that can receive packets from a neighboring router and forward them to at least one other router is called what?
Intermediate system (IS).
Which statement correctly describes Class of Service (CoS) routing?
It makes routing decisions based on the packet’s service category.
A router makes its packet forwarding decision based on what information?
The router’s routing table.
On which network type is a static route best used?
Stub routing.
Which network address represents a default route?
0.0.0.0/0.
Which router protocol type shares routing information within the autonomous system (AS)?
Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP).
Distance Vector Algorithms (DVA) operate in which manner?
They advertise their routing tables to directly connected neighbor routers.
What can cause routing loops in the flat router architecture?
The router receives data packets before it receives routing information, causing the router to generate additional address-request messages for routing information.
What are routers that belong to the same autonomous system (AS) called?
Interior neighbors.
Why are routers known as neighbors or peers?
Because they exchange routing information.
When using multipath routing and multiple routes are available for a single destination address, how does the router make the route selection?
It selects the route with the highest precedence.
A web browser client sends a web page request message to a hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) server. In which order will the server decapsulate the request message?
Network Interface Layer, Internet Layer, Transport Layer, Application Layer.
If a hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) client does not specify a document name in its HTTP request message, what will the HTTP server return in response?
Default document.
Before data can be sent between applications using transmission control protocol (TCP), which of the following must occur?
TCP connection must be established.
How does a transmission control protocol (TCP) application acknowledge the last message’s receipt?
It increments the received sequence number by one and sends it in the response message’s Acknowledgment Number field.
What is the first step in most client requests?
Address resolution.
Which combined information triggers a transmission control protocol (TCP) or user datagram protocol (UDP) application to respond to an information request?
The Internet protocol (IP) address and port number.
Which protocol reduces the number of client terminal protocols the remote host must support?
Virtual terminal protocol (VTP).
Which three of the following are advantages of remote terminal access (Telnet) over direct terminal-to-host access? (Choose three.)
Increased user productivity
Access to multiple, separate sites from the same terminal
Reduction in the number of physical terminals
Which best describes the Telnet single commands options Do (253) code?
It indicates that the sending Telnet desires the other party perform some specified option.
The Telnet default network virtual terminal (NVT) provides which fundamental characteristics? (Choose three.)
It embeds control commands in the data stream.
The keyboard generates 128 ASCII codes.
It transmits data as a 7-bit ASCII value in an 8-bit field.
Which best describes Telnet’s use of subnegotiations?
They can vary in length and format.
How does the Telnet network virtual terminal (NVT) support complex terminals?
It supports a 3-byte negotiation sequence.
How does virtual terminal protocol (VTP) support remote terminal access?
It provides generic terminal interfaces for data and control transfer.
The concept of a virtual terminal allows for which of the following? (Choose two.)
Multitasking host computers
Connectivity to multiple host computers
Which best describes using a remote terminal versus direct access to a number of different hosts?
Remote terminal access provides single terminal access to a number of remote hosts.
When do a Telnet terminal and remote host negotiate options?
After establishing the transmission control protocol (TCP) connection.
Which Telnet single command option code tells the requestor that the remote will not perform the option?
Won’t (252).
What is the Telnet character device responsible for displaying incoming data?
Printer.
Which are the well know transmission control protocol (TCP) ports for file transfer protocol (FTP) server control and data? (Choose two.)
TCP Port 20
TCP Port 21
Which is the file transfer protocol (FTP) command used to place files on an FTP server?
Put.
Which text file type is the file transfer protocol (FTP) default?
ASCII
A file transfer protocol (FTP) control port is used by an FTP server to perform which of the following?
Interpret requests from a client.
Which three modes does file transfer protocol (FTP) use to transfer data? (Choose three.)
Stream
Block.
Compressed.
Which three of the following are file transfer protocol (FTP) objectives? (Choose three.)
File sharing.
Transparent file storage technology
Reliable data transfer.
Which application protocols does file transfer protocol (FTP) use on its command channel?
Telnet
Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command designates that the message’s text follows?
DATA.
Which of the following statements concerning Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is correct?
SMTP delivers mail from one computer to another.
Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command identifies the sending host?
HELO
Which of the following services does Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) use?
Transmission control protocol (TCP).
How does the receiver Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) respond to the sender SMTP issued Data command?
354 start mail input.
The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) receiver accepts incoming email on which well known port?
TCP Port 25
Which Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) command does the sender process use to identify separate recipient mailboxes?
RCPT.
Which command does the sender Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) issue to terminate the transmission control protocol (TCP) connection?
QUIT.
Which of the following are the three Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) mail transfer phases? (Choose three.)
Connection closure.
Data transfer.
Connection establishment.
Which three of the following are typical network manager components? (Choose three.)
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) engine.
Transport/link.
Management information base (MIB) database.
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) structures management information base (MIB) information in which of the following trees?
A name tree.
Which protocol data unit (PDU) type requests that the management agent return attribute values for a list of managed objects?
GetRequest.
Which choice best describes a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) proxy agent?
Proxy agents translate between SNMP and proprietary management systems.
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) represents object syntax with a subset of which International Organization for Standardization (ISO) standard?
ASN.1
Which portion of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) architecture is responsible for implementing SNMP and exchanging messages between the management station and the managed elements?
The SNMP engine.
Which three of the following are typical management agent components? (Choose three.)
Transport protocol.
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) engine.
Management profile.
Which multimedia protocol specifies a multipoint conferencing transport?
T.120
Which of the following are H.323 audio codecs? (Choose two.)
G.711
G.728
Which two codecs support audio coding at 64 Kbps? (Choose two.)
G.711
G.722
Which Quality of Service (QoS( protocols could a network support to provide robust voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) services? (Choose two.)
Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP).
802.1p.
Which services does Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) provide to add reliability to packet voice networks? (Choose three.)
Delivery monitoring.
Sequence numbering.
Timestamping.
You wish to implement voice over Internet protocol (VoIP) services on your existing data network. Part of your plan is to allow telecommuters to call network users from their home public switched telephone network (PSTN) telephones. Which H.323 device must you install in your existing data network to allow for these remote connections?
A PSTN gateway.
Which H.323 recommendation protocol handles registration, admission, and status (RAS)?
H.225
Which protocols assist H.323 in controlling and monitoring connections? (Choose two.)
H.225
H.245
Which three of the following are H.323 gatekeeper functions? (Choose three.)
Admissions control.
Call signaling.
Bandwidth management.
An H.323 multipoint control unit (MCU) provides which service on a converged network?
Terminal conferencing.
When a client connects to a web browser, the first action is typically media access control (MAC) address resolution. Under what circumstance may address resolution be bypassed?
When the client has recently made a request to the same server.
Which hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) message request from the client allows it to obtain additional information regarding options and requirements without initiating any actions on the part of the server?
OPTIONS.
What are some issues that can arise when making a file available for transfer to other users?
Data type, file structure, and transmission mode.
What are the common file extensions used to transfer image data in file transfer protocol (FTP)?
Bitmap (.BMP), graphics interchange format (GIF), and joint photography experts group (.JPG or .JPEG).
What is the name of the protocol by which management information for a network element can be inspected or altered by a management station?
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
Why does Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) use unsolicited messages (traps) from the network elements to poll for appropriate information?
Using traps is consistent with the goal of simplicity and minimizing the amount of traffic generated by the network management function.
What does the packet-based multimedia communications systems, covered by the H.323, cover?
Realtime audio, video, and data communications over Internet protocol (IP) packet networks.
Which version of the packet-based multimedia communications system, covered by the H.323 standard, was the first to standardize requirements for communications between a PC-based telephone and a telephone on the switched circuit network (SCN) of the public telephone system?
Version 2.
What component of the packet-based multimedia communications system, covered by the H.323 standard, is considered to be the “brain” of the network?
The gatekeeper.
In Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), when do passive management agents take action on their own initiative?
when certain well-defined error conditions occur the generate an unsolicited message called a trap.
When troubleshooting, why is it important to recreate a problem?
To recognize that there is a problem.
To record the circumstances in which the problem occurred.
To help focus your efforts.
You are troubleshooting a name resolution problem on your local network. You run two internal Domain Name System (DNS) servers, and they resolve all local hostnames. Where would you look to verify that your Windows clients are configured to use the correct DNS servers?
The ipconfig response.
Typing ipconfig in the Windows command line interface (CLI) displays which three of the following pieces of client configuration information? (Choose three.)
IP address.
Lease expiration.
Adapter address.
Which TCP/IP tool allows you to display a workstation’s network configuration values?
ipconfig.
Which of the following commands shows the addresses configured on a Microsoft PC?
ipconfig.
Which of the following helps to determine local addressing information?
ipconfig.
Which key combination will terminate a continuous Ping issued with the Ping -t option?
Ctrl+C.
Which of the following echoes information back from an IP process?
ping.
Which two of the following might cause a ping across network boundaries to fail? (Choose two.)
Firewalls on the router ports.
Internet Control Message Filters (ICMP) filters on the router ports.
Which TCP/IP troubleshooting tool is the fastest and easiest method to evaluate whether a host is available across a TCP/IP network?
ping.
To determine the path your IP packets take to reach a remote office router, you issue the tracert command from a local network host, targeted at the remote office router’s outside interface. Previous tracert replies showed the router nine hops away, so you set the tracert command’s maximum hops option to 10. You ping the remote router interface, 191.67.17.2, and it succeeds. You issue the command tracert -h 10 191.67.17.2, but the tracert result does not list the router interface’s IP address. Which might be a reason why this occurred?
Your Internet service provider (ISP) has added routers between your local and remote network.
Tracert uses which of the following commands and IP fields to carry out its operation?
Ping and time-to-live (TTL).
Which of the following troubleshooting tools tells how many hops to the destination computer?
tracert.
How many Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) packets does the tracert utility send per hop?
3
Which of the following commands shows the path between source and destination in a TCP/IP network?
tracert.
Which command uses Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) to display protocol statistics on a local host?
nbtstat.
Which utility displays a host’s current Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) over a TCP/IP connection?
nbtstat.
Which command can we use in conjunction with the address resolution protocol (ARP) command to determine the hostname of a cached NetBIOSover-IP address?
Nbtstat -A .
You are running an active browser session with your employer’s Human Resources intranet web server. You issue the netstat command from your local workstation’s command prompt. The resulting screen shows several connections to the web server, each using a separate transmission control protocol (TCP) port. Why does your client workstation have multiple active port connections open to the same web server?
Hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) sessions often open multiple connections between the client and the server.
Can the “arp” command be used to determine your own media access control (MAC) address?
No
Which address resolution protocol (ARP) command option shows the contents of the local ARP cache?
arp -a.
When troubleshooting a network, we begin by performing which of the following?
Identify the issue.
How would we verify that TCP/IP is working on the local host?
Ping the local loopback address.
How can we verify that name resolution is working correctly?
Ping one or more network hosts by both name and address.
Which ping tests would indicate that TCP/IP is working correctly on a network segment? (Choose three)
Ping the local IP address.
Ping other local segment hosts by IP address.
Ping the local network segment router port.
Which are TCP/IP network troubleshooting tools? (Choose three.)
Netstat.
Ping.
Tracert.
Which troubleshooting step is likely to require the most time?
Isolate the cause.
When troubleshooting a problem crossing network responsibilities, why is it best to start with the local network and work out? (Choose three.)
It allows us to eliminate and resolve any internal problems first.
It provides information we can use to support our case, if the problem proves to be external to our network.
It breaks up the troubleshooting effort to specific areas of responsibility.
Which TCP/IP client/server service would allow an administrator to quickly reconfigure host configuration information?
Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP).
Which is the most important of the network troubleshooting steps?
Identify the exact issue.
Ipconfig displays which of the following elements of client configuration information?
Default gateway.
Which of the following is used to verify whether another host on a transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) network is reachable?
Ping
How would an operator find a list of options available for the ping utility?
Type “ping” from a command line.
Which ping option allows you to specify the packet buffer size for each ping packet?
Ping -l.
When troubleshooting, asking the question, “Has anything changed recently that might have had an impact?”, will aid you in:
Identifying the exact issue relating to a problem.
Which utility should be run to verify that your Windows client is configured to use the correct Domain Name System (DNS) server?
Pathping.
Which of the troubleshooting utilities presented expects a reply when it sends a message to another computer?
Ping
What entry would be made to log each hop along the way to a specific Internet site?
Enter “tracert” followed by a host name for the Internet site
Which of the troubleshooting utilities presented is frequently used as a starting point for transmission control protocol/Internet protocol (TCP/IP) network problem isolation to learn what network a device resides on?
Ipconfig
What makes time division multiplexing (TDM) ideal for applications that use circuit and packet switching protocols?
Time slot allocation.
Time division multiplexing (TDM)
Most suitable for applications where the transmitted signal is of a non-continuous duration.
Orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM)
A multicarrier transport scheme in which narrowband carriers (subcarriers) are modulated independently, and then multiplexed together.
Frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
Each signal is assigned to a specific frequency or band of frequencies called a channel.
optical fiber. Which element transports most of the optical signal?
Core
Which element keeps most of the optical signal internally reflected within the core?
Cladding
Which of the following is true about time division multiplexing frames?
The number of input channels to the multiplexer determines the length of a TDM frame
The multiplexer systematically switches between each input, long enough for 1 byte from each input to be placed in a time slot at the output of the multiplexer.
What is the overall data rate of a T1 circuit?
1.544 Mbs
What is the overall data rate of a fractional T1 circuit with six voice circuits?
384 kbps
What are the attributes of Carrier Ethernet
Reliability
Scalability
Quality of service
Service management
Standardized services
What best describes orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM)?
It is a multicarrier transport scheme in which narrowband carriers (subcarriers) are modulated independently, and then multiplexed together.
Coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM) applications were expanded to include use in large metropolitan networks, utilizing wavelengths in what band??
E-band.
In a synchronous optical network (SONET) what is the basic building block having a data transmission rate of 51.84 Mbps?
The synchronous transport signal (STS) frame.
What are the units called that transport asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) data?
Cells.
Which of the following best describes a local area network (LAN)?
It is confined to a single building or a single floor of a building
A hub may be used to provide connectivity in both a star and star ring network. True or False?
True
An organization may use more than one type of topology in a single network. True or False?
True
What type of device is used with unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable to create a star network configuration?
Hub
Which of the following best describes a metropolitan area network (MAN)?
It spans a single city and uses local telephone company facilities for connectivity
A group of computers in the south side of a city are connected to another group of computers downtown. This would be considered what type of network?
A metropolitan area network (MAN).
A group of computers are connected in a multistory building. This would be considered what type of network?
A local area network (LAN).
Which communication process typically is the least intelligent?
Slave
In a client/server arrangement, where are requests normally generated?
Client
What types of processes are located on two computers that perform approximately the same services?
Peer
Which of the following best describes the function of a media access control (MAC) layer address?
Identifies the destination device’s physical address
A peer-to-peer network is a practical solution in which of the following applications? (Choose two.)
Building a simple network supporting a few clients accessing a shared printer
Creating an inexpensive solution for a small business just starting out
What three addresses are needed to move data from one application to another across a network?
Network address, network interface card (NIC) address, process address
Encapsulation means that each layer on the sending node does which of the following?
Adds its protocol header to the data
What is the primary purpose of a Transport Layer protocol?
Transmit messages from process to process
Which of the following is the lowest layer?
Physical Layer
Which of the following layers is only concerned with the physical signals that represent data bits?
Physical Layer
If segmentation occurs on the sending node, what must occur on the receiving node?
Reassembly
What is the primary purpose of a Physical Layer protocol?
Transmit bits across a physical link
What is the primary purpose of a Data Link Layer protocol?
Transmit frames across a physical link
What is the primary purpose of a Network Layer protocol?
Transmit packets across a network
Which of the choices below is a Transport Layer protocol?
User datagram protocol (UDP)
Which of the following commonly is used to classify networks?
The distance between communicating computers.
Which of the following best describes the difference between a process and a program?
A process is a subset of a program.
The interaction between processes and protocols forms which of the following?
A protocol stack.
Port addresses and network addresses are two types of:
Logical addresses.
Transmitting messages from a sending computer process to a receiving computer process is the function of which layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model?
The Transport Layer.
Internet protocol (IP) and X.25 are considered to be which of the following?
Protocols for the Network Layer.
Which of the following accurately describes a bus topology?
All devices are connected by a single electrical circuit.
What type of process is located on two computers that perform approximately the same services?
Peer
When an application is sending data to a distant computer, what process occurs on the sending node?
Encapsulation.
According to the Ethernet 5/4/3 rule, how many 10Base2 segments may have nodes attached?
3
Which of the following statements are true concerning Ethernet networks? (Choose two.)
Media access control (MAC) frames are transmitted across the physical media.
Ethernet can use thicknet, thinnet, or twisted pair cable at the Physical Layer.
What is the most widely installed local area network (LAN) technology?
Ethernet.
What is the primary reason an Ethernet network interface card (NIC) transmits a jamming message?
To warn other stations that a collision has been detected.
What does an Ethernet frame addressed with a “1” as the first bit of destination media access control (MAC) address do?
It allows all frames to be multicast to a select group of nodes.
What layer of software is normally loaded on the network interface card (NIC)?
Data Link Layer
What is the preamble used for?
To synchronize Ethernet network interface cards (NIC) so the bits that make up the frames are received correctly.
The network interface card (NIC) in an Ethernet node receives from the Internet protocol (IP) a packet 12 bytes long. What must the NIC do in order to prepare the packet for transmission across the physical network?
Add padding, a header and a trailer.
Where are Ethernet frames processed?
By the network interface card (NIC) at the Data Link Layer
What is the purpose of the frame check sequence (FCS) field? (Choose two)
To check the Ethernet frame for errors using a cyclic redundancy check (CRC).
To ensure the Ethernet frame does not get processed if an error has occurred.
Which Ethernet frame format includes a length field in the media access control (MAC) header?
IEEE 802.3
What is the difference between the frame formats of 10 Mbps Ethernet and 100 Mbps Ethernet?
The 10 Mbps Ethernet frame is exactly the same and contains the same fields as the 100 Mbps frame.
What is the maximum cable length for 100BaseTx Ethernet?
100m
A small company’s chief technology officer (CTO) wants to upgrade their existing network to Fast Ethernet. The existing network consists of the following:• 10/100 Network interface cards (NIC) in the server and workstations• 10/100 Hubs• Category 3 and 5E cabling• A 10/100 routerWhich component must be upgraded to support Fast Ethernet?
The Category 3 cabling
How is Fast Ethernet similar to standard Ethernet?
The same frame format is used.
Cat 5E cabling can be used for both.
Star configurations are used in both types.
Which of the following is a Gigabit Ethernet specification for copper cable?
1000BaseCX
Which of the following is NOT a Gigabit Ethernet Physical Layer function?
Media access control (MAC) address assignments
Which of the following is NOT a Gigabit Ethernet fiber cabling specification?
1000BaseFX
Which of the statements below is incorrect when comparing Gigabit Ethernet to Fast Ethernet technology?
Gigabit Ethernet uses the same speed as Fast Ethernet
Gigabit Ethernet uses a different frame format than 10 Mbps Ethernet and Fast Ethernet. True or False?
False
The IEEE 10GBaseT networks operate over which type of cabling?
Category 6 unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).
Which statement is true concerning 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) Multi-Source Agreements (MSA)?
They describe vendor-developed pluggable optics for interconnecting 10GbE devices.
What is the maximum length of a 10GbE segment through single-mode fiber (SMF) cable?
40 km
With what SONET standard is 10GbE compatible?
OC-192
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Ethernet?
Ethernet can only be used with Category 5E unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) cable
Which 10GbE interfaces operate over multimode fiber (MMF) cabling? (Choose two.)
10GBaseSR
10GBaseLX4
Which interfaces are NOT considered parts of the IEEE 802.3ae standard?
10GBaseCX4
Which statement best describes 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE)?
It can be used in place of Fiber Channel (FC) as a storage attachment technology.
Why would you replace a hub with a switch?
Increase local area network (LAN) performance.
How are store-and-forward switches different than cut-through switches?
Store-and-forward switches are more accurate, but cut-through switches are faster.
What is the difference between a switch and a hub?
A switch allows a dedicated path between two ports.
What is the advantage of a switch over a standard hub? (choose two)
Switches can improve network performance by keeping individual workgroup traffic local.
Switches isolate traffic per port.
You are shopping for a new Ethernet switch. You want maximum switch throughput, but also want to avoid passing frames damaged by collisions. Which type of switch should you choose?
Fragment-free
Which Layer 2 switch type reads the first 64-bytes of a frame and then forwards it to the destination interface?
Fragment-free
How does a Layer 2 switch differ from a Layer 3 switch?
A Layer 2 switch makes decisions based on media access control (MAC) addresses.
How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a router?
A Layer 3 switch checks the first packet in each stream; a router checks each packet.
Why do routers take more time to process frames than Layer 3 switches do? (select two)
Routers check both frame addresses and packet addresses.
Routers make decisions in software; switches make decisions in hardware.
Which capability is NOT provided by Layer 3 switching
Internet protocol (IP) to name resolution for forwarding.
Which of the following best describes the functionality of a virtual local area network (VLAN)?
Grouping nodes logically that may be physically separated
Virtual local area networks (VLAN) are typically implemented using which type of device?
Switch
Virtual local area networks (VLAN) can be created using a variety of switch vendor products in the same network. True or False
True
Which IEEE standard describes vendor-neutral virtual local area network (VLAN) tagging on bridged networks?
IEEE 802.1Q
A user’s personal computer (PC) is connected to a virtual local area network (VLAN) trunk link. What will most likely happen as the switch forwards tagged frames to the PC?
The switch will identify improperly tagged frames as invalid and drop them.
Which IEEE 802.1p traffic class represents standard data (best effort) traffic?
0
What is Ethernet?
A Data Link Layer specification for media access control (MAC), which defines how network nodes can use a shared medium to transmit signals to one another.
How does IEEE 802.3 frame format differ from Ethernet Version 2 frame format?
The type field is replaced with the length field.
What is the maximum length of a 10GBase-T Ethernet connection using category 7 (CAT-7) shielded twisted-pair (STP) cable?
100m
With what synchronous optical network (SONET) standard is 10GBase-EW/LW/SW compatible?
OC-192.
How are store-and-forward Ethernet switches different from cut-through switches?
Store-and-forward switches are more accurate, but cut-through switches are faster.
Which Layer 2 switch type reads the first 64 bytes of a frame and then forwards it to the destination interface?
Fragment-free.
Virtual local area networks (VLAN) are typically implemented using which type of device?
A switch
What is the primary reason to build a virtual local area network (VLAN)?
To minimize broadcast traffic.
Devices connected to hubs share the same:
Collision domain.
Layer 3 switches do a good job of containing which of the following?
Broadcasts.
When was Linux first created?
1991
Under what license is Linux released?
General Public License (GPL).
In the Linux filesystems, where must the boot images reside?
Within the first two gigabytes of the hard drive
Which of the following are protocol analyzer applications available for use on the Linux platform? (Choose two.)
Wireshark.
Kismet.
You want to use a Linux server as a network device management station. Which protocol can be installed on the server to support this functionality?
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
What are the most common types of applications that run on Linux?
Network applications.
Which Linux application supports firewall functionality in the version 2.4 and greater kernel versions?
iptables.
You wish to host a corporate web site on a Linux server. Which application adds web server functionality to Linux?
Apache.
Which of the following is not a branch of the Debian development tree?
Released.
What two popular Linux distributions use installation mechanisms other than Red Hat and Debian?
Slackware.
Gentoo.
What does Red Hat’s Bluecurve technology do?
Smooths over the differences between KDE and GNOME.
What are the competing Linux desktop environments? (Choose two.)
GNOME
KDE
What is Linus networking based upon?
Text commands and configuration files
Which firewalls are supplied in modern Linux distributions? (Choose two.)
nftables.
iptables.
What does Linux use for automatically configuring a client personal computer (PC) Internet protocol (IP) address?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
What are the two methods for configuring Linux network addressing? (Choose two.)
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
Static (ifconfig).
Which application allows Linux to share files and printers with Windows?
Samba.
What Linux tool allows you to run Windows applications natively under Linux on an x86 platform?
Windows Emulator (WINE).
Under what license is Linux released?
GNU General Public License (GPL).
What is the Linux shell?
Command interpreter and scripting language.
Which Linux application supports centralized user authorization and directory services?
OpenLDAP.
Which Linux distribution has the distinction of being the oldest surviving Linux distribution that is known for its stability?
Slackware.
Which of the following is developed as a CD-based Debian-like distribution, or design, to run off the CD drive?
Knoppix.
Which Linux tool is used for monitoring and changing network parameters?
Ifconfig.
Which application allows Linux to share files and printers with Microsoft Windows devices?
Samba.
Which Linux tool allows you to run Windows applications natively on an x86 platform?
WINE
Which file handles Samba Server Configuration in Linux?
Smb.conf.
What is the name of Apple’s graphical user interface?
Aqua
What open source operating system is the foundation of Apple macOS?
Darwin.
Which of the following functions is not represented by code stored in the /Library directory?
Printer Drivers
What is the default shell for macOS 10.3 and up?
bash
What is the purpose of a Boot Camp installation?
To allow newer Microsoft operating systems to boot on Apple hardware
Which program displays all current desktop windows across the desktop?
Expose’
Which of the following applications is not part of the Apple iLife Suite as included with the macOS operating system?
iTunes
Which of the following services is not included in Mac OS X server?
Dual Boot.
In the five-layer hierarchy of Apple’s operating systems, Mac OS X/macOS, which layer is most complex?
Layer five, the application layer containing Cocoa and Carbon
The Mac OS X/macOS kernel includes which elements?
A Mach kernel, XNU kernel, and various Berkeley Software Distribution (BSD) system calls.
What applications are available in Apple iWork?
Pages, a word processing application; Numbers, a spreadsheet application; and Keynote, a presentation application.
What server management services are installed on an Apple Mac OS XmacOS server?
Simple network management protocol version 3 (SNMPv3), Secure Shell access, and server monitor.
What service on an Apple Mac OS X/macOS server enables multiple computers to work together on a single task?
Distributed computing with Xgrid.
What authentication and directory services does an Apple Mac OS X/macOS server employ?
OpenLDAP, Kerberos, Active Directory (AD) connector, and RADIUS.
What services are typically included in Apple’s Mac OS X/macOS server?
Services a company would need to operate a business.
What network and virtual private network (VPN) services does an Apple Mac OS X/macOS server employ?
Domain name system (DNS), dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP), network address translation (NAT), firewalling, and network time protocol (NTP).
What Open Source mail filter does an Apple Mac OS X/macOS server use for junk mail filtering?
SpamAssassin.