Air Methods Exam (2023/ 2024 Update)
Study Guide with Questions and Verified
Answers| 100% Correct
Q: What mission profile is covered by FAR 135.600?
Answer:
Subpart L – Helicopter Air Ambulance Equipment, Operations, and Training Requirements
Q: What factors are included in the definition of an Air Ambulance Operation?
Answer:
-Flight, or sequence of flights
-Patient or medical personnel on board
-For the purpose of medical transportation
-By a part 135 certificate holder authorized by the Administrator to conduct helicopter air
ambulance operations.
(FAR 135.601(b)1)
Q: What are the qualification requirements for a PIC performing HAAO in VFR conditions
IAW FAR 135.603?
Answer:
-PIC must meet the requirements of §135.243 and holds a helicopter instrument rating.
(FAR 135.603)
Q: What are the VFR weather minimums when operating in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace for
non-mountainous flights in the local area during the day? Night?
Answer:
Day- 800 / 2mi
Night- 1000 / 3mi
Q: What are the VFR weather minimums when operating in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace for
non-mountainous flights outside the local area during the day? Night?
Answer:
Day- 800 / 3mi
Night- 1000 / 5mi
Q: What are the VFR weather minimums when operating in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace for
mountainous flights in the local area during the day? Night?
Answer:
Day- 800 / 3mi
Night- 1500 / 3mi
Q: What are the VFR weather minimums when operating in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace for
mountainous flights outside the local area during the day? Night?
Answer:
Day- 1000 / 3mi
Night- 1500 / 5mi
Q: When must cross country weather minimums be utilized?
Answer:
When flight is located outside the local flying area or pilot is not qualified and current in the
local flying area.
(FAR 135.609)
Q: Regulatory speaking, the pilot must ensure that all terrain and obstacles along the route of
flight, except takeoff and landing, are cleared vertically by no less than _____
during the day and ____ at night?
Answer:
(1) 300 feet for day operations.
(2) 500 feet for night operations.
(FAR 135.615 (b))
Q: How wide is the preflight corridor?
Answer:
Q: What is the purpose of determining and documenting the highest obstacle and minimum
cruising altitude IAW FAR 135.615?
Answer:
Used to determine the minimum safe cruise altitude.
(FAR 135.615)
Q: How is the certificate holder required to identify risks associated with HAAO?
Answer:
(a) Each certificate holder conducting helicopter air ambulance operations must establish, and
document in its operations manual, an FAA-approved preflight risk analysis that includes at least
the following—
(1) Flight considerations, to include obstacles and terrain along the planned route of flight,
landing zone conditions, and fuel requirements;
(2) Human factors, such as crew fatigue, life events, and other stressors;
(3) Weather, including departure, en route, destination, and forecasted;
(4) A procedure for determining whether another helicopter air ambulance operator has refused
or rejected a flight request; and
(5) Strategies and procedures for mitigating identified risks, including procedures for obtaining
and documenting approval of the certificate holder’s management personnel to release a flight
when a risk exceeds a level predetermined by the certificate holder.
(b) Each certificate holder must develop a preflight risk analysis worksheet to include, at a
minimum, the items in paragraph (a) of this section.
(FAR 135.617)
Q: How does AMC comply with FAR 135.617 with respect to identifying risks associated with
HAAO?
Answer:
iPad PFRA and communications with OCC
Q: Prior to the first leg of each HAAO, what are the PIC preflight requirements with respect to
the Air Methods approved Pre-Flight Risk Analysis?
Answer:
-Must complete PFRA and have it approved by OCC IOT comply with Part 135.617.
(Prior to the first leg of each helicopter air ambulance operation, the pilot in command must
conduct a preflight risk analysis and complete the preflight risk analysis worksheet in accordance
with the certificate holder’s FAA-approved procedures. The pilot in command must sign the
preflight risk analysis worksheet and specify the date and time it was completed.)
(FAR 135.617)
Q: To prevent runway incursions, what must every pilot do prior to hover/taxi operations?
Air Medical Operations Critical Care Exam
(Latest 2023/ 2024 Updates) Questions and
Verified Answers| 100% Correct
Q: What are some Major equipment and meds needed to run AMT?
Answer:
RSI Kit, Airway supplies, Oxygen, Drugs for cardiac episodes, Intubation, sedation, steroids,
Analgesics and for a suction unit. Must have IV pumps with tubing BMV’s, Monitors for vitals
and gases, and a stretcher. May have to do in flight tracheostomy or intubation.
Q: What are effects of altitude during flight on the human body.
Answer:
Decreased partial pressure of O2. Pb changes, decreased humidity, Volume expansion, Thermal
changes, Gastric distinction, Noise, vibration, fatigue, G force, These things can make it difficult
to fly.
Q: What is Boyles law and why is it important to flight?
Answer:
Pressure and volume are inversely related at a constant temperature. Gas in the human body and
in the equipment will expand depending on the altitude of the flight. Trapped air in certain
locations like the belly, ears , sinus and ETT cuff is common. Monitor is needed.
Q: What to do if O2 drops during the flight.
Answer:
Administer O2 , monitor breathing , check ETT pressure if incubated, as well as other
equipment, If nothing brings the O2 up bring the chopper to lower altitude
Q: What are some common signs of hypoxia
Answer:
ALOC , headache, blurred vision, and Dyspnea complains with increased WOB
Q: What happens to the stomach and GI tract during flight? Why does it occur
Answer:
The stomach and GI trac expand with the increase in saturated volume. This volume causes the
diaphragm to have pressure exerted on it which can have respiratory consequences.
Q: What happens to the ear pressure with a change in pressure and altitude
Answer:
When ear gas expands can block the ear off until cleared. Clearing happens by chewing,
Vasalvagal maneuver, yawning, or swallowing
Q: How does increased altitude effect humidity
Answer:
As air cools humidity Is lost. So temperature and humidity go down with increase in ATM. Can
lead to dehydration
Dehydration can lead to… dry sore throat , nasal passages, sputum viscosity, chapped lips, dry
mouth and hoarseness.; This can also lead tp respiratory issues if continued long enough
Q: What are some significant side effects of lack of humidity in the atmosphere?
Answer:
Air Methods Critical Care Exam (Latest
2023/ 2024 Update) Questions and Verified
Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A
Q: What type of blood should a pregnant trauma patient receive?
Answer: O-NEG
baybay.
Q: Initiate cardiotocography in any mother
Answer: 20 or more weeks gestation, must be monitored for at least 6 hours.
Q: What is the serum lab test that detects fetal red cells in the maternal circulation?
Answer: Kleinhauer Bette KB serum test. This lab is used to determine if hemorrhage of fetal
blood through the placenta and into maternal circulation. KB test is an important detector of
abruptio placentae, preterm labor and need to administer Rh negative globulin when mom is Rh
negative and fetus is Rh positive.
Q: Continue fetal monitoring for a minimum of —- hours for any viable preg- nancy and up to
hours if there is abdominal trauma
Answer: 6….. 24
Q: Sonography has for diagnosis placental abruption,
Answer: POOR…. they miss 50-80% of abruptions.
Q: In addition to routine labs a
Answer: Prothrombin (PT ) and PTT and serial coags should be drawn. Beta Human Chorionic
gonadotropin (BHCG)
Q: Measure and record fundal height every
Answer: 30 minutes.
Q: Pediatric Mechanisms of injury and biomechanics
Answer: Blunt trauma MVC >
suffocations > drownings > fires/burns. No. 1 cause of fatalities is TBI.
Q: Primary Survey/ Resuscitation
Answer: Survival rates in pediatric emergency can be directly correlated with
1.RAPID AIRWAY MANAGEMENT,
2.INITIATION OF VENTILATORY SUPPORT, AND
3.EARLY RECOGNITION OF AND EARLY RESPONSE TO INTRA abdominal AND
intracranial hemorrhages
Q: A STEMI is a resulting from a .
Answer: Complete Occlusion of a coronary artery
caused by a ruptured Plaque leading to blood clot formation in the coronary.
Q: STEMI diagnosis
Answer: Chest pain + positive cardiac enzyme (TROP. > segment ELEVATIONS greater than 1
mm in two or more contagious V1-V6
-Reciprocal (depressions) changes in leads II, III, AVF
Q: STEMI
EKG findings
Answer: STEMI
Q: STEMI
EKG findings more
Answer: -St elevations > 1mm in Limb leads: 1, II, III, avF, avL
-St elevations > 2mm in precordial leads (v1-v6) AND/OR
-NEW LBBB
Contiguous leads with reciprocal changes in opposite leads
Q: First degree Heart Block EKG
Answer: AV block
Prolonged PR Interval greater than 120-200 ms
Q: second degree heart block type 1 Wenkebach
Answer: AV block in which occasional electrical impulses from the SA node fail to be conducted
to the ventricles.
PR interval progressively lengthens greater than 120-200ms + dropped beats.
Q: Maternal cardiopulmonary arrest…If any moribund patient is 24 weeks or more perimortem
c section must be considered. AHA recommends c section
initiation within…
Answer: 4 minutes… delivery with in 5 minutes of any unsuccessful maternal resuscitative
attempts.
Q: Second Degree Heart Block (Mobitz II)
Answer: = Damage AT av node – moderate
- PR-interval is normal; QRS complexes are dropped erratically
- ALL must have a pacemaker in the next 72 hrs.
Q: STEMI Nitro gtt
Answer: 5-10 mcg per minute
Titrate by 10 mcg
max dose 300 mcg per minute
Q: How do you mix epi?
Answer: Mix 1 mg in 1 L NS or D5W or LR for a concentration of
1 mcg/ ml
Q: What’s the epi dose for hypotension s/p arrest?
Answer: 0.1 – 0.5 mcg/kg/min
Q: What is the epi dose for anaphylaxis?
Answer:
Q: Pediatric Epinephrine dose
Answer:
Air Methods Critical Care Exam Review
(Latest 2023/ 2024 Update) Guide with
Questions and Verified Answers| 100%
Correct| Grade A Guaranteed
Q: Blood loss from humerus fracture
Answer: 750 ml
Q: blood loss from femur fracture
Answer: 1500 ml
Q: PAWP (pulmonary artery wedge pressure)
Answer: – Looks at the left side of the heart
- If elevated can indicate pulmonary congestion, CHF, cardiogenic shock
- Do not keep wedged for more than 30 seconds
- Make sure balloon is deflated and have patient cough forcefully
-Normal: 8-12
Q: Adult ETT depth
Answer: 3 x ETT size or average 19.23 cm
Q: Peds ETT depth
Answer: 10 + age in years (cm)
Q: Neonate ETT depth
Answer: 6 + wt in kg (cm)
Q: Adjust vent to change Co2
Answer: adjust rate and tidal volume
Q: Adjust vent to change oxygenation
Answer: adjust PEEP, PAP
Q: infant rule of nines
Answer: Head and neck – 21% Each arm – 10%
chest/stomach – 13% back – 13% butt/genitals – 6% each leg – 13.5%
Q: Sodium Bicarbonate
Answer: -acidosis
-drug choice for cyclic antidepressant OD
-KG/4 x base deficit = mEq needed
Q: Digoxin
Answer: -cardiac glycoside
-can cause hypokalemia
-inotropes
-pediatric dose: 0.1 mg/ml
-adult 0.25 mg/ml
Q: treatment for fetal distress
Answer: -Left lateral recumbent position
-O2
-Correct contributing factors
-keep reassessing
Q: CHF considerations
Answer: -many are relatively hypovolemic
-be careful with diuretics
Q: CVP catheter placement outside line markers
Answer: RA/CVP: 25-30 cm
RV: 35-45 cm
PA: 50-55 cm
Q: Central Cord Syndrome
Answer: -loss of function in upper extremities caused by injury to the middle portion of the
spinal cord
-varying degrees of sensory loss
Q: Brown-Sequard Syndrome
Answer: Hemi-section of the cord
- ipsilateral (same side) spastic paralysis and loss of position sense
- contralateral (opposite side) loss of pain and thermal sense
Q: Anterior Cord
Answer: -loss of motor function, pain, pinprick, and temp bilaterally below lesion
-proprioception and light touch are preserved
Q: Autonomic Dysreflexia
Answer: -urinary retention, massive increase in sympathetic tone which can cause HTN
-treated by foley
Q: Adult urine output per hour
Answer: 30-50 ml
Q: Peds Urine output per hour
Answer: 1-2 ml/kg/hr
Q: Normal adult blood volume
Answer: 70 ml/kg
Q: Peds blood volume
Answer: 80 ml/kg
Q: Mild Hypothermia
Answer: -32-36 degrees Celcius
-decreased HR