BIO 101 FINAL EXAM NVCC 2 LATEST VERSIONS
(VERSION A & B) ACTUAL EXAM 200 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
VERSION A
A population in which an extreme phenotype is favored undergoes __ selection.
A. disruptive
B. directional
C. stabilizing
D. artificial
E. polynomial – ANSWER- B. directional
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of evolution?
A. mutation
B. natural selection
C. genetic drift
D. Hardy-Weinberg
E. gene flow – ANSWER- D. Hardy-Weinberg
Plato’s view of species:
A. was consistent with the modern concept of evolution
B. did not allow for evolutionary change
C. included species that do not actually exist
D. recognized that each individual in a species is unique
E. allowed for limited evolution within species – ANSWER- B. did not allow for
evolutionary change
Whose philosophy was based on the “ideal form”?
A. Darwin
B. Lamarck
C. Darwin and Wallace
D. Cuvier
E. Plato – ANSWER- E. Plato
- Which of these statements BEST illustrates the theory of catastrophism?
A. Species become extinct due to natural disasters, such as floods and volcanic
eruptions
B. Only plant species have become extinct
C. Only extinct species appear in the fossil record
D. There are no humans in early fossil records because they had not been created
yet
E. The fossil record is incomplete – ANSWER- A. Species become extinct due to
natural disasters, such as floods and volcanic eruptions - The concept that Earth’s present landscape is due to gradual geologic processes
was proposed by:
A. Lyell
B. Lamarck
C. Buffon
D. Malthus
E. Aristotle – ANSWER- A. Lyell
- Which statement illustrates Lamarck’s theory on the mechanism of evolution?
A. Fish with coloration that matches the river bottom they inhabit will survive to
reproduce
B. Plants that can survive in less light will become the dominant species in shaded
areas
C. Birds with bright colors will attract more mates and pass on the colorful
plumage
D. A man who routinely shaves the hair off his head will have sons who become
bald
E. Giraffes with longer necks survived and reproduced faster because they could
reach a better food source – ANSWER- D. A man who routinely shaves the hair off
his head will have sons who become bald
Which of the following is INCORRECTLY paired?
A.Buffon — suggested new species arise from a common ancestor
B.Hutton — theory of catastrophism that brief & violent global upheavals are
responsible for geological formations
C.Cuvier — recognized that lower layers of rock contain older fossils
D.Lyell — uniformitarianism that natural processes are slow and steady –
ANSWER- B.Hutton — theory of catastrophism that brief & violent global
upheavals are responsible for geological formations
What is an adaptation?
A.a genetic change over time
B.an increase in reproductive success by certain individuals
C.a trait that is heritable and confers reproductive success
D.differential reproductive success of a particular individual
E. B & D – ANSWER- C.a trait that is heritable and confers reproductive success
Why do birds with large beaks predominate over birds with small beaks in dry
seasons?
A.Birds with large beaks are better at defending territories.
B.Birds with large beaks have larger body sizes and survive better in a drought.
C.Birds with large beaks are betting at finding mates.
D.Birds with large beaks can open tough seeds that are more common in a drought
E.All of the above – ANSWER- D.Birds with large beaks can open tough seeds
that are more common in a drought
Which of the following individuals is the fittest?
A.a dandelion that produces 1000 seeds but only 4 survive to reproduce
B.a cat with 6 kittens of which 5 later reproduce
C.a large bull elk that successfully defends a large territory
D.an elephant that produces and cares for 1 offspring once every 5 years –
ANSWER- B.a cat with 6 kittens of which 5 later reproduce
In a population of dogs, long ears are dominant over short ears. If 50 of 200 dogs
in a population have short ears, how many of the long-eared dogs are homozygous
dominant? A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
E. 60 – ANSWER- B. 50
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BIO 101 EXAM 3 NVCC ACTUAL EXAM 100 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
Eukaryotic chromatin is composed of – ANSWER- DNA and proteins
What is produced if a cell completes mitosis but does not undergo
cytokinesis? – ANSWER- one cell with two nuclei, each identical to the
nucleus of the parent cell
Humans produce skin cells by mitosis and gametes by meiosis. The
nuclei of skin cells produced by mitosis will have – ANSWER- twice as
much DNA as the nuclei of gametes produced by meiosis
Compared to most prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells typically have –
ANSWER- more DNA molecules and larger genomes.
During mitosis in animal cells, at which phase do centrioles begin to
move apart? – ANSWER- prophase
Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in
animal cells? – ANSWER- centrosome
A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following
mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per
nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the
end of G2? – ANSWER- 16; 16
What is a cleavage furrow? – ANSWER- a groove in the plasma
membrane between daughter nuclei
Cells from advanced malignant tumors frequently have very abnormal
chromosomes as well as an abnormal number of chromosomes. What
might explain the association between malignant tumors and
chromosomal abnormalities? – ANSWER- Cell cycle checkpoints are
not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities.
Which is the first checkpoint in the cell cycle where a cell will be caused
to exit the cycle if this point is not passed? – ANSWER- G1
Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells? – ANSWERThey evade the normal controls that trigger programmed cell death
Most animal cells exhibit anchorage dependence, which means that in
order to divide – ANSWER- cells must be attached to a substrate or
extracellular matrix of a tissue.
Researchers began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary
observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either
density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they
conclude right away? – ANSWER- The cells show characteristics of
tumors.
Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop
across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell
plate. This cell is most likely __. – ANSWER- a plant cell in
the process of cytokinesis
If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant
with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would
be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such
plants? – ANSWER- Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical
one.
Which of the following descriptions correctly defines a genome? –
ANSWER- the complete set of an organism’s genes
Which of the following is a true statement about sexual versus asexual
reproduction? – ANSWER- In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit
50% of their genes to each of their offspring.
Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome
number of 2n = 16? – ANSWER- Each cell has eight homologous pairs.
Referring to a plant’s sexual life cycle, which of the following processes
leads directly to the formation of gametes? – ANSWER- gametophyte
mitosis
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BIO 101 EXAM 2 NVCC ACTUAL EXAM 100 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
What is ATP molecule consists of? Why is it unstable? – ANSWER- is
composed of ribose (a sugar), adenine (a nitrogenous base), and three
phosphate groupsThe triphosphate tail of ATP is the chemical equivalent
of a compressed spring
What is a catalyst? – ANSWER- is a chemical agent that speeds up a
reaction without being consumed by the reaction
What are the three things required for any reaction to occur? –
ANSWERHow does an enzyme lowers the activation energy of the substrate? –
ANSWER- Enzyme can speed up a reaction by lowering the EA barrier
without itself being consumed, also by right orientation of molecules.
Which factors affect enzyme activity? – ANSWER- temperature
pH
substrate concentration
How competitive and non competitive inhibitors differ from each other?
- ANSWER- Competitive inhibitors bind to the active site of an enzyme,
competing with the substrate
Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to another part of an enzyme, causing
the enzyme to change shape and making the active site less effective
What are the examples of inhibitors? – ANSWER- toxins, poisons,
pesticides, and antibiotics
What is a feedback inhibition? – ANSWER- the end product of a
metabolic pathway shuts down the pathway
What are the laws of thermodynamics? – ANSWER- the energy of the
universe is constant, Every energy transfer or transformation increases
the entropy (heat) of the universe,
What are the parts of an enzyme? – ANSWER- substrate, active site
What is the difference between oxidation and reduction? – ANSWER- In
oxidation, a substance loses electrons, or is oxidized
In reduction, a substance gains electrons, or is reduced (the amount of
positive charge is reduced)
What is the ultimate source of energy? – ANSWER- sun
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BIO 101 EXAM 1 NVCC ACTUAL EXAM 100 REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
chemical reaction – ANSWER- – the making and breaking of chemical
bonds, leading to changes in the composition of matter
- all chemical reactions are reversible; products of the forward reaction
become reactants for the reverse reaction
Reactants – ANSWER- A starting material in a chemical reaction
Products – ANSWER- The elements or compounds produced by a
chemical reaction.
Cohesive behavior – ANSWER- the ability for like molecules to “stick”
together
Cohesion – ANSWER- Attraction between molecules of the same
substance
Adhesion – ANSWER- An attraction between molecules of different
substances
surface tension – ANSWER- the force that acts on the surface of a liquid
and that tends to minimize the area of the surface
Ability to moderate temperature – ANSWER- The property of water that
causes cities near large bodies of water to be cooler than cities that are
inland
high specific heat – ANSWER- A property of water. Water can absorb
lots of heat before changing temperature
high heat of vaporization – ANSWER- many hydrogen bonds must be
broken for water to evaporate
evaporative cooling – ANSWER- The process in which the surface of an
object becomes cooler during evaporation, a result of the molecules with
the greatest kinetic energy changing from the liquid to the gaseous state.
Expansion upon freezing – ANSWER- ice floats in water because
hydrogen bonds in ice are more “ordered” making ice less density
versatility as a solvent – ANSWER- The property of water that allows it
to dissolve polar substances
Solvent – ANSWER- A liquid substance capable of dissolving other
substances
Solutes – ANSWER- substance dissolved in a solution
aqueous solution – ANSWER- a solution in which water is the solvent
Hydrophilic – ANSWER- Attracted to water
Hydrophobic – ANSWER- Having an aversion to water; tending to
coalesce and form droplets in water.
pH scale – ANSWER- – measurement system used to indicate the
concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in solution; ranges from 0 to 14
- acidic < 7
- basic > 7
- most biological fluids range from 6-8
Acids – ANSWER- compounds that form hydrogen ions when dissolved
in water
Bases – ANSWER- Compounds that reduce the concentration of
hydrogen ions in a solution.
buffer system – ANSWER- – the internal pH of most living cells must
remain close to pH 7 - minimize changes in concentration of H+ and OH- in a solution
- contain a weak acid and a corresponding base
organic molecules – ANSWER- molecules that contain carbon
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