WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 1 ,2,3,4,5 AND FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023 EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+

WEST COAST EMT FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023-
2024 REAL EXAM 200+ QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS|AGRADE

1. Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of
   training?
   A. EMR
   B. AEMT
   C. EMT
   D. Paramedic
2. National guidelines for EMS care are intended to .
   A. reduce expenses at the local and state levels
   B. provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the
   United States
   C. facilitate a national EMS labor group
   D. unify EMS providers under a single medical director
3. What is an EMT’s primary service area?
   A. The main area in which the EMS agency operates
   B. The only area the EMT is certified to provide patient care
   C. The location where the EMT provides essential care during a
   9-1-1 call
   D. The area serviced by the EMT’s medical director
4. The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is
   more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the
   field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on:
   A. EMS research.
   B. the lead EMT’s decision.

C. regional trauma guidelines.
D. local protocols.

5. The ability to understand others and have them understand you is
   known as .
   A. self-confidence
   B. communication
   C. scene leadership
   D. teamwork and diplomacy
6. You are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. She admits to
   drinking alcohol but orders you not to tell anyone. You should report
   the information to .
   a. law enforcement personnel
   b. the receiving nurse or doctor
   c. your medical director
   d. the state motor vehicle department
7. Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With
   Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?
   A. The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and
   well-documented physical disability.
   B. According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented
   disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.
   C. The minimum number of hours required to successfully
   complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are
   disabled.

D. The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and
equal employment to those who are disabled.

8. Prehospital patient care decisions should be based on .
   A. the experiences of EMTs
   B. EMS research
   C. an EMS agency’s fiscal resources
   D. the opinions of physicians
9. The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is
   called .
   A. patient empathy
   B. integrity
   C. time management
   D. patient advocacy
10. American Heart Association protocols are based on .
    A. trends in the EMS community
    B. opinions from a core group of cardiologists
    C. evidence-based research
    D. theories ready for field trial

2

1. After assessing a patient’s blood glucose level, you accidentally
   stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should:
   Select one:
   A. report the incident to your supervisor after the call.
   B. discontinue patient care and seek medical attention.
   C. get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible.
   D. immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.
2. General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the
   following phases?
   Select one:
   A. Reaction and resistance, euphoria, and physical exhaustion
   B. Immediate reaction, psychological exhaustion, and recovery
   C. Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery
   D. Delayed reaction, alarm response, and physical recovery
3. Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the
   harasser:
   Select one:
   A. touches another person without his or her consent.
   B. makes rude remarks about a person’s body parts.
   C. stares at certain parts of another person’s anatomy.
   D. requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.
4. The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among
   EMS personnel is:
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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 5 LATEST EXAM 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do
which of the following?
Select one:
A. Immediately write down your observations of the scene
before assessing the patient.
B. Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider.
C. Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may
have about the perpetrator.
D. All of these answers are correct. – ANSWER- D. All of these
answers are correct.
In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina,
bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer:
Select one:
A. often presents with acute pain.
B. is typically not as severe.
C. may be relatively painless.

D. can be controlled in the field. – ANSWER- C. may be
relatively painless.
It is common for young females who experience their first
menstrual period to:
Select one:
A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be
misinterpreted.
B. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate
suicide.
C. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours.
D. have a false positive home pregnancy test result. – ANSWERA. experience abdominal cramping, which may be
misinterpreted.
Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a
31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you
arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside
her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask
her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be
treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that
all she wants to do is clean up. You should:
Select one:
A. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or
relative.

B. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will
destroy evidence.
C. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect lifethreatening injuries.
D. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious
trauma. – ANSWER- D. provide emotional support and visually
assess her for obvious trauma.
Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal
discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the
following?
Select one:
A. Chlamydia
B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
C. Bacterial vaginosis
D. Gonorrhea – ANSWER- B. Pelvic inflammatory disease
Some women experience _ during ovulation.
Select one:
A. slight cramping
B. hypotension
C. severe abdominal pain
D. severe bleeding – ANSWER- A. slight cramping

The _ and are folds of tissue that
surround the urethral and vaginal openings.
Select one:
A. perineum; anus
B. fallopian tubes; uterus
C. labia majora; labia minora
D. vagina; cervix – ANSWER- C. labia majora; labia minora
The _ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus.
Select one:
A. fallopian tubes
B. cervix
C. egg
D. abdomen – ANSWER- A. fallopian tubes
The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _.
Select one:
A. taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic
evaluation
B. severe enough to warrant transport
C. controlled directly by the patient
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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 4 LATEST EXAM 450
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical.
He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does
not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should:
Select one:
A. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical.
B. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution.
C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.
D. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. –
ANSWER- C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain
water.
Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively
controlled with:
Select one:
A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
B. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point.
C. ice packs and elevation of the patient’s head.

D. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. – ANSWER- A. direct
pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a
severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient’s
clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
Select one:
A. a blowout fracture.
B. optic vessel compression.
C. a lacerated globe.
D. a ruptured eyeball. – ANSWER- A. a blowout fracture.
If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an
increased risk of __.
Select one:
A. altered LOC
B. vomiting
C. hypotension
D. GI trauma – ANSWER- B. vomiting
Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT’s index of
suspicion for a(n):
Select one:
A. displaced mandible.
B. spinal column injury.

C. airway obstruction.
D. basilar skull fracture. – ANSWER- B. spinal column injury.
The Adam’s apple is:
Select one:
A. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage.
B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
C. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.
D. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. –
ANSWER- B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid
cartilage.
The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is:
Select one:
A. damage to the eyes.
B. cervical spine injury.
C. airway compromise.
D. mandibular immobility. – ANSWER- C. airway compromise.
The superficial temporal artery can be palpated:
Select one:
A. just anterior to the tragus.
B. slightly above the ear.
C. at the angle of the jaw.

D. over the mastoid process. – ANSWER- A. just anterior to the tragus.
The upper jawbones are called the:
Select one:
A. mastoid.
B. mandible.
C. zygoma.
D. maxillae. – ANSWER- D. maxillae.
When a light is shone into the pupil:
Select one:
A. it should become smaller in size.
B. both pupils should dilate together.
C. it should become larger in size.
D. the opposite pupil should dilate. – ANSWER- A. it should become
smaller in size.
When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT’s
immediate priority should be to:
Select one:
A. wear gloves and facial protection.
B. consider the mechanism of injury.
C. manually stabilize the patient’s head.
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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 3 LATEST EXAM 360
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?
Select one:
A. Pancreas
B. Gallbladder
C. Spleen
D. Liver – ANSWER- A. Pancreas
Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct?
Select one:
A. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis.
B. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water.
C. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis.
D. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness. –
ANSWER- D. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with
weakness.

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is
correct?
Select one:
A. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague
and poorly localized.
B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that
becomes inflamed or irritated.
C. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the
gallbladder and liver.
D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma
to solid abdominal organs. – ANSWER- A. The initial pain associated
with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized.
Your patient complains of abdominal pain that occurs mostly at night or
after eating fatty foods. You should suspect __.
Select one:
A. cholecystitis
B. a hernia
C. appendicitis
D. kidney stones – ANSWER- A. cholecystitis
Your patient complains of chronic “burning” stomach pain that improves
after eating. You should suspect:
Select one:
A. pneumonia.

B. peptic ulcer disease.
C. aortic aneurysm.
D. kidney stones. – ANSWER- B. peptic ulcer disease.
A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive
urination and weakness of 2 days’ duration. Her blood glucose level
reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient’s condition is not promptly treated, she
will MOST likely develop:
Select one:
A. irreversible renal failure.
B. severe insulin shock.
C. hypoxia and overhydration.
D. acidosis and dehydration. – ANSWER- A. irreversible renal failure.
A 66-year-old woman experienced a sudden onset of difficulty
breathing. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and deep vein thrombosis
(DVT). On the basis of her medical history, which of the following
should the EMT suspect?
Select one:
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Severe hypoglycemia
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis
D. Congestive heart failure – ANSWER- A. Pulmonary embolism

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a
general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today
and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this
patient as though he is experiencing:
Select one:
A. hyperglycemia.
B. hypoglycemia.
C. a heart attack.
D. an acute stroke. – ANSWER- C. a heart attack.
A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states
that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that
his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours.
Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should:
Select one:
A. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.
B. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C. assess for the presence of a medical identification tag.
D. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum. – ANSWER- A.
open and maintain her airway and assess breathing.
A patient with an altered mental status; high blood glucose levels; and
deep, rapid breathing may have a condition known as __.
Select one:
A. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma
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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 1 LATEST EXAM 350
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel?
Select one:
A. Preventing insurance fraud
B. Controlling insurance costs
C. Protecting patient privacy
D. Ensuring access to insurance – ANSWER- C. Protecting patient
privacy
Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence?
Select one:
A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
B. Abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation
C. Duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation
D. Breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation –
ANSWER- A. Duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and
causation

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?
Select one:
A. A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated.
B. Patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse
treatment.
C. All patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or
transport.
D. Expressed consent is valid only if given in writing by a family
member. – ANSWER- A. A patient can consent to transport but can
legally refuse to be treated.
Which of the following statements about the patient care report is
correct?
Select one:
a. It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included
on the report.
b. EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented.
c. Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation.
d. Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS. – ANSWER- a.
It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included on
the report.
Which type of consent is involved when a 39-year-old mentally
competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the
hospital?
Select one:

A. Formal
B. Implied
C. Expressed
D. Informed – ANSWER- C. Expressed
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash.
The driver, a young male, is severely entrapped in his car. He has an
open head injury and massive facial trauma. He is unresponsive, is not
breathing, and does not have a palpable carotid pulse. You should:
Select one:
A. ventilate the patient for 5 minutes and then stop if there is no
response.
B. stop any active bleeding and advise dispatch to send a paramedic
crew.
C. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that the patient is
deceased.
D. request the fire department to extricate the patient so you can begin
CPR. – ANSWER- C. have your partner check for a pulse to confirm that
the patient is deceased.
You are called to attend to an elderly patient with an extensive medical
history who is now in cardiac arrest. The patient’s family tells you that
the patient has a DNR order. There is no paperwork available but the
patient does have a MedicAlert bracelet indicating Do Not Resuscitate.
You should:
Select one:
A. initiate resuscitation in the absence of paperwork.

B. transport with minimal care.
C. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the
MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.
D. confirm the patient’s identity and honor the DNR order. – ANSWERC. confirm the patient identity and then confirm the DNR by calling the
MedicAlert Foundation number on the bracelet.
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle-versus-pedestrian accident.
The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple
injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises
you that the child’s parents will be at the scene in approximately 15
minutes. What should you do?
Select one:
A. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for
treatment.
B. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the
hospital.
C. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the
hospital.
D. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give
consent. – ANSWER- B. Transport the child immediately and have the
parents meet you at the hospital.
You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious; has
slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the
patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated.
They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are
unable to locate it. You should:
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WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 2 LATEST EXAM 350
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who
collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and
pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You
should:
Select one:
A. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.
B. have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.
C. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.
D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible. –
ANSWER- D. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as
possible.
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a
blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly.
You should:
Select one:
A. administer high-flow supplemental oxygen.
B. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist.
C. apply pressure to the brachial artery.
D. wrap the towel with pressure bandages. – ANSWER- B. apply a
tourniquet proximal to the wrist.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her
chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She
has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of
intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide
this patient with the greatest chance for survival?
Select one:
A. High-flow oxygen administration
B. Rapid transport to a trauma center
C. Full immobilization of her spine
D. Intravenous fluid administration – ANSWER- B. Rapid transport to a
trauma center
As you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe
severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be?
Select one:
A. Check for a pulse.
B. Control the bleeding.
C. Administer oxygen.
D. Open the airway. – ANSWER- B. Control the bleeding.
Distributive shock occurs when:
Select one:
A. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the
organs faster.

B. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its
pumping function.
C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply
to the brain.
D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the
vascular beds. – ANSWER- D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels
causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.
Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of __.
Select one:
A. anaphylactic shock
B. septic shock
C. neurogenic shock
D. psychogenic shock – ANSWER- A. anaphylactic shock
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:
Select one:
A. plasma.
B. platelets.
C. whole blood.
D. red blood cells. – ANSWER- A. plasma.
In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied
by:
Select one:

A. tachycardia.
B. hypovolemia.
C. diaphoresis.
D. hypothermia. – ANSWER- D. hypothermia.
Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called .
Select one:
A. perfusion
B. hypoxia
C. hypotension
D. shock – ANSWER- D. shock
Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:
Select one:
A. septic shock.
B. neurogenic shock.
C. cardiogenic shock.
D. anaphylactic shock. – ANSWER- C. cardiogenic shock.
Shock due to severe infection is called .
Select one:
A. anaphylactic shock
B. septic shock
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