NSG 322 ( ALL TOPIC ) Topic 1 – 14 | New Full Questions and Answers ( Included ) 100% Correct ( Latest 2024 )
NSG 322 Topic 1 Foundations
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- What two big milestones were achieved in the 1950s?
Answer:
Psychotropic drugs
Psychiatric nursing was taught in schools - What act pushed clients towards community care rather than institutionalization?
Answer: 1963 Community Mental Health Center Act - What is the stigma regarding psych nurses?
Answer:
- They just talk
- They just give meds
- They don’t use “real” nursing skills
- What is the official manual for psychiatric medical diagnosis?
Answer: DSM-5 - Psychiatrist or Psychologist
Who can prescribe mediation?
Answer: Psychiatrist - Psychiatrist or Psychologist
Who cannot prescribe medication?
Answer: Psychologist - Who is the scope of practice regulated by?
Answer: Each states board of nursing - True or False
Normal RNs can conduct counseling and prescribe meds
Answer: False - Theory used to maintain a positive environment where holistic, patient-centered treatment
can occur
Answer: Therapeutic milieu - Term for brief excursions across professional lines. Mainly inadvertent
Answer: -Boundary crossings - Term for confusion between roles of the nurse and the patient, causingdistress for the
patient
Answer: Boundary violations - Term for the patient’s transfer to the analyst of emotions linked with otherrelationships
(such as love or hatred for a parent)
Answer: Transference - Term for when a psychoanalyst develops personal feelings about a client because of
perceived similarity of the client to significant people in the therapist’s life
Answer: Countertransference - What is the goal of trauma informed care?
Answer: To not re-traumatize - What is a key aspect of trauma informed care?
Answer: Client involvement - Term to describe fair treatment through the normal judicial system
Answer: Dueprocess - Term to describe a court order requiring jailers to explain to a judge whythey are holding
a prisoner in custody
Answer: Writ of habeas corpus - Termto describe how health care professionalsshould try the leastrestrictive alternative
FIRST
Answer: Least restrictive alternative - Mental health professional’s responsibility to break confidentiality and notify the
potential victim whom a client has specifically threatened
Answer: Duty towarn - True or False
RNs have the duty to warn
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NSG 322 Topic 2 Anxiety & Somatic Disorders
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- Anxiety is a feeling
Answer: Subjective - As a patients anxiety increases, their dysfunctional behavior
(in-crease/decreases), and vice versa
Answer: Increases - What type of anxiety is healthy and necessary for survival?
Answer: Normal - What type of anxiety is longer and more intense than normal anxiety?
Answer: -Pathological - What type of anxiety is short term and caused by a loss or threat?
Answer: Acute - What type of anxiety normally begins in childhood and is a long termresponse?
Answer: Chronic - A reaction to a specific danger or stressor
Answer: Fear - A subjective emotionalstatesresulting from a real or perceived threat
Answer: Anxiety - A change in the environment that is perceived as challenging or damagingto a person’s well
being
Answer: Stress - True or False
Those with anxiety are more likely to later develop psychiatric disorders
Answer: True - Clients with anxiety are most likely to get medical help when they develop
Symptoms
Answer: Physical
- What ethnical groups are the least likely to seek care?
Answer: African AmericansAsian Americans - Because anxiety can be caused by other medical conditions, everything that is not anxiety
must be ruled our first before diagnosing anxiety. This isknown as:
Answer: Differential diagnosis - True or False
Anxiety screening does not include a physical assessment
Answer: False - What type of anxiety am I?
- Positive work progress
- Alert
- Able to identify cause of anxiety
- Fidgeting
Answer: Mild anxiety
- What type of anxiety am I?
- Narrowed view
- Can problem-solve with the help of others
- Insomnia
- Urinary urgency/frequency
- Headache
- Muscle tension
- Shaking
- Pacing
Answer: Moderate anxiety
- What type of anxiety am I?
- Scattered attention
- Blocks out the environment
- Unable to problem solve
- Dizzy
- Nausea
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NSG 322 Topic 3 Stress
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- What are some relaxation techniques used forstressreduction?
Answer: meditation,prayer, mindfulness, deep breathing, perform physical activity, seek
social supportfrom family and friends, and aerobic exercises - What is eustress?
Answer: normal and beneficial stress. It motivates people to developthe skills they need to
solve problems and meet personal goals - What is reframing?
Answer: Reframing involves changing the way we look at and feelabout things (e.g., seeing
the glass as half full rather than half empty). - How does Substance Abuse and Mental Health Services Administration (SAMHSA)’s
Trauma and Justice Strategic Initiative define trauma?
Answer: Trauma resultsfrom an event,series of events, orset of circumstancesthat is
experienced byan induvial as physically or emotionally harmful or threatening and that has
lastingadverse effects on the individuals function and physical, social, emotion, or spiritual
well-being - Trauma generally overwhelms an individual’s or community’s resources to
, and it often ignites the ” , , or “
reaction atthe time of the event(s).
Answer: cope
“fight, flight, or freeze” - Trauma frequently produces a sense of , , and
Answer: fear, vulnerability, and helplessness. - Term to describe the exposure to multiple or simultaneous occurrences oftrauma, or
prolonged trauma
Answer: Complex trauma - What may complex trauma develop from?
Answer: maltreatment, neglect, physical orsexual abuse, and domestic violence - A emotional response refers to not acting outwardly immediately
Answer: Delayed - What are the three key elements of trauma-informed care?
Answer: (1) realizing theprevalence of trauma; (2) recognizing how trauma affects all
individuals involved with the program, organization, or system, including its own workforce;
and (3) responding by putting this knowledge into practice” - When does trauma-informed care begin?
Answer: The first contact a person has withthe agency.TIC requires all staff members - What ethical principle resonatesstrongly in the application ofTIC?
Answer: first, dono harm - Trauma- and stressor-related disorders are those disorders precipitatedby events or
circumstances that overwhelm the child or adolescent and thatoften threaten or cause serious
, , or
Answer: injury, neglect, ordeath. - What may reactive attachment disordersresemble?
Answer: autism spectrum disorder, depression, or disruptive mood dysregulation disorder - Attachment disorderin which a child with disturbed behavior neitherseeksout a caregiver
nor responds to offers of help from one
Answer: Reactive Attachment Disorder - What are the S/S of Reactive Attachment Disorder?
Answer: irritability, sadness,fearfulness, minimal social response, and flat affect (limited
positive affect), - What are some causes of Reactive Attachment Disorder?
Answer: inconsistent care,frequent changes in caregivers, and living in foster homes or
orphanages - True or False
Treatment for Reactive Attachment Disorder involvesthe child and his currentcaregivers
Answer: True - What are treatment options for Reactive Attachment Disorder?
Answer:
- Individual& Family Therapy
- Medication for underlying depression or anxiety
- Bibliotherapy (books that are related to the child’s situation)
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NSG 322 Topic 4 Depression
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- True or False
Women are 2x as likely to get depression then men
Answer: True - As family income decreases, the prevalence of depression
Answer: Increases - How old do children have to be to be able to be diagnosed for depression?
Answer: 3years old - What is unique about depression in children?
Answer: High recurrence rate - True or False
Children are often misdiagnosed or under diagnosed with depression
Answer: True - Inability to find pleasure in activities that were once pleasurable
Answer: Anhedonia - Lack of energy
Answer: Anergia - Lack of motivation
Answer: Avolition - What isthe most common presentation of depression in children?
Answer: Irritability - Theory that suggests that social, biological, and physiological factors either work for or
against the individual, causing disease
Answer: Biopsychosocialmodel - True or False
Individuals with a physical disorder are less likely to develop depression
Answer: -False - Theory that disorders are caused by different amounts of stress. If you have a higher
diathesis (predisposing cause), then less stress is needed tocause a disorder, and visa versa.
Answer: Stress Diathesis Model - The three forms of negative thinking that Aaron Beck theorizes lead people to feel
depressed.The triad consists of a negative view of one’s experiences,oneself, and the future.
Answer: Cognitive Triad - Theory that suggest that after anxiety, the feelings to situations are de- pression if the
individual feels no control over the outcome of the situation
Answer: -Learned Helplessness - Assessment tool used to evaluate the urgency of referral to mental healthsources or
protective care
Answer: SAD PERSONS - A mnemonic used to assess for risk of suicide, includes “Availability,” asa section
Answer: SAD PERSONAS - 5-step suicide assessment tool
Answer: SAFE-T - What does SAD PERSONAS stand for?
Answer:
Sex (male)Age (<20 or >44)
Depression
Previous attempts / psych care
Extensive drug abuse
Rational thinking loss
Separated
Organized plan
No social support
Availability
Stated future intent - A behavior suggestive of suicide attempts, such as mild drug overdosing, mixing alcohol
and other drugs, or minor cutting of the wrists (Without actually killing oneself)
Answer: Parasuicidal behavior
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NSG 322 Topic 5 Neurodevelopmental Disorders
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- statistic for children in the U.S. who live with a condition that significantly impacts their
mental health
Answer: 1 in 5 - how do we know when a neurodevelopmental disorder has developed
Answer: whenthe changes persist and impact the ability of a child to grow, interact, function,
andcognitive processes - risk factorsfor neurodevelopmental disorders
Answer: genetics, neurobiological, andadverse childhood experiences (ACEs) - biological factors predisposing someone to a neurodevelopmental disorder
Answer: genetics (having family members with condition) and neurobiological factors
(substance exposure in utero) - environmental factors predisposing someone to have a neurobiological disorder
Answer: Adverse Childhood Experiences (ACEs): impact reaches into adulthood - communication disorders
Answer:
-language disorder
-speech sound disorder
-child-onset fluency disorder
-social communication disorder - specific learning disorders
Answer:
-dyslexia
-dyscalculia
-dysgraphia - intellectual disability
Answer:
-deficits in 3 areas
- different levels of severity
- language disorder
Answer:
-ranges from mild to severe
-presents before age 3
-people struggle to either produce language or to comprehend language that theyreceive
-cause is unknown
-2 types: expressive or receptive
- expressive language disorder
Answer: results in difficulty in finding the right words,forming clear sentences, and using the
right gestures and verbal signals - receptive language disorder
Answer: where they experience difficulty understandingor are unable to follow directions - speech sound disorder
Answer:
-difficult forming the sounds required for speech
-can lead to social distress for the child
-most children improve their articulation ability with treatment
-can lead to problems with social participation, academic achievement, and occupational
performance - child-onset fluency disorder
Answer:
-experience of persistent, distressing hesitationor stuttering beyond that seen in most children
during development and growth
-can lead to social distress for the child
-treatment is usually effective for this condition - social communication disorders
Answer:
-difficulty interacting with others using bothverbal and nonverbal methods
-struggle to effectively relate to others in written communication - what must be ruled out before social communication disorder can bediagnosed
Answer: autism spectrum disorder (ASD) - how is a specific learning disorder diagnosed
Answer: when a child demonstratespersistent difficulty in reading, mathematics, and/or
written expression - dyslexia
Answer: difficulty reading
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NSG 322 Topic 6 Bipolar and Impulse Disorders
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- bipolar disorders are (acute/chronic)
Answer: chronic - clients who have experienced at least 1 meet the DSM 5 criteria
forBipolar I
Answer: manic episode - clients who have experienced at least 1 manic episode meet the DSM 5criteria for what
disorder
Answer: bipolar I - Bipolar I disorder has a high rate with 5% for women and 10% formen
Answer: suicide - clients with bipolar I are a (high/low) risk and require
(frequent/rare) hospitalization
Answer: high, frequent - which bipolar type is more chronic and generally requires frequent hospitalizations
Answer: bipolar I - which bipolar disorder is less acute and often treated outpatient
Answer: bipolar II - what type of mania is often exhibited in BPII
Answer: hypomania - bipolar 2 has
Answer: hypomania, major depression - a client has had at least 1 hypomanic episode and at least 1 major depressive episode….
what do you think
Answer: bipolar II - hypomania is a less severe mania that lasts at least days
Answer: four - which clients are more likely to experience impairment in social or occu- pational
functioning
Answer: bipolar I - a period of intense mood disturbance with persistent euphoria, elevation,or expansiveness
lasting for at least one week for most ofthe day,nearly everyday
Answer: mania - a dangerous effect of manic episodes is that for the most part, the individuals do not have a
sense of being
Answer: tired - is a psychiatric emergency and requires hospitalization due to the number of
high risk behaviors that can occur
Answer: mania - hypomania alternates with symptoms of mild to moderate depression for at least 2 years
(in adults)
Answer: cyclothymic disorder - a low-level, less dramatic mania that does include euphoric feelings that increase
functioning and is usually accompanied by excessive activity and energy that is less likely to
impair social and occupational functioning
Answer: hypo-mania - a pattern in both types of bipolar disorders where there is at least fourmood episodes in
12 months such as 1 in a week or 24 hours
Answer: rapid cycling - rapid cycling has (severe/mild) symptoms
Answer:severe - rapid cycling is to conventional somatic treatments (resistant/compliant)
Answer: resistant - rapid cycling has a (high/low) recurrence rate
Answer: high - there are some forms of mania that are directly induced by a or medication and when
a person takesthese thingsthey induce a manic episodein a client with no prior history of manic
episodes
Answer: substance - substance/medication induced bipolar and related disorders causes
episodes in clients with no history of these types of episodes
Answer: manic
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NSG 322 Topic 7 Schizophrenia
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- what connectsthe 5 types ofschizophrenia spectrum disorders?
Answer: psychosis - psychosis
Answer: altered cognition, perceptions, and ability to realize what’s real or not - brief psychotic disorder duration
Answer: 1 day to 1 month - brief psychotic disorder symptoms include at least one of the following
Answer: –
-delusions
-hallucinations
-disorganized speech
-disorganized or catatonic (severely decreased motor activity) behavior. - brief psychotic disorder is more prominent in
Answer: females - delusional disorder duration
Answer: at least 1 month - delusional disorder symptoms
Answer:
-delusions that are usually not severe enoughto impact functioning
-do not behave strange or bizarre - schizophreniform disorder duration
Answer: less than 6 months - schizophreniform disorder symptoms
Answer:
-same as schizophrenia, shorter dura-tion
-can return to previous level of functioning, others can have recurrent psychosis - schizoaffective disorder duration
Answer: longer than 6 months - schizoaffective symptoms
Answer:
-involves a major depressive, manic, or mixedepisode concurrent with symptoms that meet the
criteria for schizophrenia.
-symptoms must not be caused by any substance use or general medical condition. - what are risk factors for schizophrenia?
Answer:
-family history of schizophrenia
-generational family trauma
-prenatal illness
-environmental factors:
-high stress levels
-exposure to toxins
-abuse or trauma
-substance use - what happens in the brain in schizophrenia?
Answer:
neurotransmitter imbalancedopamine, glutamate, serotonin, GABA, ach
alterations in brain structure
-reduced connectivity
-pruning errors
-reduced hippocampal volume & shape changes
-reduced blood flow & glucose to prefrontal cortex - what is the typical onset of schizophrenia in males?
Answer: 15-25 y/o - what is the typical onset of schizophrenia in females?
Answer: 25-35 y/o - what is the typical onset for schizophrenia disorders?
Answer: fast onset (1-12months) - what are rare onsets for schizophrenia?
Answer: child onsetlate onset
slow onset (greater than 2 yearsZ) - what are factors affecting recovery of schizophrenia?
Answer:
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NSG 322 Topic 8 Crisis Nursing
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- An acute, time-limited occurrence experienced as overwhelming emotionsreactions to a
stress event
Answer: Crisis - What are the two responses to crisis?
Answer:
1) Fall apart
2) Problem solve - In regards to best outcomes for clients, what is a key concept?
Answer: They needto find ways to help themselves - Type of crisis related to predictable transitions of human development(Maturational)
Answer: Developmental - Type of crisis related to unexpected threats to physical,social, or psycho-logical integrity
Answer: Situational - Type of crisis that is rare and unexpected (Ex: IPV and disasters)
Answer: Adventitious - Type of crisis that refers to inner conflicts,such as a mid-life crisis orspirituality
Answer: Existential - Psychological crisis phase where the client is confronted by a conflict andresponds with
increased anxiety
Answer: Phase 1 - Psychological crisis phase where the clients usual defensive response failsand the threat
persists.Trial-and-error begins
Answer: Phase 2 - Psychological crisis phase where trial and error fails and anxiety escalatesto panic levels
Answer: Phase 3 - Psychological crisis phase where the problem is not solved and can leadto risk to
themselves or serious illness
Answer: Phase 4 - Type of crisis intervention where the strategy is to promote mental healthBEFORE a
crisis, with the goals of increasing coping ability and decreasing incidence
Answer: Primary
- Type of crisisintervention where the strategy isto prevent prolong anxietyDURING acute
crisis, with the goals of ensuring client safety
Answer: Secondary - Type of crisis intervention where the strategy is to provide support duringrecovery, with
the goals of preventing further disruption and help with coping
Answer: Tertiary - What does CISD stand for?
Answer: Critical Incident Stress Debriefing - How do we include best outcomes for clients undergoing CISD?
Answer: Integrateexisting community crisis support services - Phase # ofCISD where membersintroduce themselves and an introductionis performed
Answer: 1 - Phase # of CISD where brief overviews of the facts are requested (highdetail is
discouraged)
Answer: 2 - Phase # of CISD where clientsshare their first thoughts about the situation(This is not their
only thought: If they believe this there is a high suicide risk!)
Answer: 3 - Phase # of CISD where the impact and reaction of the clientsisthe focus
Answer: 4 - Phase # of CISD where the symptoms of the clients (How it is showing upin their life) is
the focus
Answer: 5 - Phase # of CISD where the team begins teaching
Answer: 6 - Phase # of CISD where participants may ask questions or make finalstatements
Answer: 7 - True or False
Abuse and neglect has an equal rate of occurrence among all populations
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NSG 322 Topic 9 Neurodev & Neurocog
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- What page of the textbook is children interventions?
Answer: 414 - Abnormally developed socializing and communication skills can lead towhat?
Answer: Isolation - Term for when a developmental milestone is not being developed on sched-ule
Answer: Neurodevelopmental disorders - What disorder requires 3 or more of the following 7 items to meet criteria?
Deficits:
- Social reciprocity (Wanting to reciprocate sociality)
- Joint attention (Wanting to share an interest)
- Nonverbal communication
- Social relationships
Others: - Repetitive behaviors
- Fixed routines
- Restricted thinking
Answer: Autism Spectrum Disorder
- What is the best treatment approach for Autism Spectrum Disorder?
Answer: Inter-disciplinary treatment with family involved - What ASD severity level includes the following characteristics?
- Speaks in full sentences but has trouble with conversations
- Has difficulty changing activities
- Minimal support
- Can be managed in normal classroom
Answer: 1
- What ASD severity level includes the following characteristics?
- Deficit in nonverbal and verbal socialization
- Observable repetitive behaviors
- Changes in route = DISTRESS
- Moderate support
- May require specialized classrooms
Answer: 2
- What ASD severity level includes the following characteristics?
- Few spoken words
- Rarely interacts
- Resistant to change
- Impairment on every day life
- Substantial support is needed
- May not be able to live with parents(when they are adults) due to aggressionAnswer: 3
- What medications are used for clients with autism spectrum disorder?
Answer: -Atypical antipsychotics – for aggressive or self harm
SSRIs / Beta blockers – For anxiety and obsessions - What is the most effective atypical antipsychotic for ASD clients?
Answer: Risperidone - What are the categories of ADHD? (S/S over last 6 months)
Answer:
- Inattentive
- Hyperactive
- Combined types
- When is ADHD most commonly identified?
Answer: Elementary school - What is the diagnostic method for ADHD?
Answer: Vanderbilt Assessment Scale - As a client with ADHD becomes an adult,how do the S/S change?
Answer: Hyperactivity disappears, but inattentiveness remains (Explains why adults may not
realizethey have ADHD if the weren’t diagnosed when they were a child) - What disorder has the following S/S?
- Difficult concentrating / focusing
- Lack of follow through
- Fidgeting
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NSG 322 Topic 10 substance abuse
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- Substance =
Answer: Mind altering drug - Opioids are
Answer: medications that relieve pain
they reduce the intensity of the pain signalsreaching the brain and affect those brainareas
controlling emotion - Examples of opioids
Answer:
Hydrocodone
Oxycodone
Hydromorphone
Morphine
Codeine - The 4 Cs of addiction
Answer:
Compulsive behavior (finding or taking the substance)
Craving
Chronic relapsing brain disorder
Cognitive impairment - The neurobiology of addiction
Answer: -Vicious cycle of drug effects on dopamine &other neurotransmitters:
•Tolerance
•May lead to dependence
•May lead to addiction
•May lead to overdose
-Alcohol and other CNS depressants (e.g., benzodiazepines, barbiturates):
•Act on GABA
•Cross-tolerance - Comorbidity tends to go
Answer: hand in hand with substance abuse - Since the brain is not fully developed until the mid 20s
Answer: early drug abusenegatively impacts brain development - Nurse’s Responsibilities for alcohol abuse
Answer:
Knowledge of prevalence
Assessforsubstance use using age appropriate screening tools and communicationtechniques
Provide prevention education
Provide treatment and recovery education
Make referrals as appropriate - Alcohol is the most
Answer: teratogenic substance during pregnancy - Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)
Answer: Life long effects (mental retardation, delayedgrowth and development and distinctive
facial abnormalities) - Alcohol and Aging
Answer:
Tolerance for alcohol is decreased due to:
Slower emptying of stomach
Slower metabolism (including hepatic)
Increased sensitivity to alcohol in the brain
Body is less resilient.
Decline in lean muscle mass and increased fatty tissue contribute to increased bloodalcohol
levels (BALs).
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NSG 322 Topic 11 Substance abuse other drugs
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- The 10 classes of Psychoactive substance in the DSM-5
Answer:
Alcohol
Caffeine
Canabis
Hallucinogens
Inhalants
Opioids
Sedative
Hypnotics
Anxiolytics
stimulants tobacco and other substance - Marijuana is still the most
Answer: Commonly used illicit drug in the United States - CNS depressants include
Answer:
Barbiturate
Benzodiazepines
Alcohol - Intoxication symptoms of CNS depressants
Answer:
Slurred speech
Incoordination
Unsteady
Gait
Drowsiness
Hypotension
Sexual or aggressive disinhibition
Impaired judgment
Impaired social or occupational function
Impaired attention or memory - Overdose symptoms of opioids
Answer: Cardiovascular or respiratory depression,coma, shock, convulsions, death - Overdose treatment if they are awake on opioids
Answer: If awake KEEP AWAKE
Indique vomiting
Administer activated charcoal (absorption of the drug)
Check vitals every 15 minutes
- Coma interventions for CNS depressants overdose
Answer:
Clear airway, insert endotracheal tube
Administer IV fluids
Gastric la age with activated charcoal
Frequent vital signs check continue after patient is stable
Implement seizure precautions
Hemodialysis may be needed
Administer IV flumazenil for benzo overdose - Opiates
Answer:
Morphine
Heroin
Codeine
Fentanyl
Methadone
Meperidine - Intoxication effects of opiates
Answer:
Constricted pupils
Decreased respiration
Decreased blood pressure
Slurred speech
Drowsiness
Psychomotor retardation
Initial: euphoria
Later: dysphoria
Impaired concentration judgment memory - Withdrawal effects of opiates
Answer:
Rhinorrhea
Diaphoresis
Chills and fever
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NSG 322 Topic 12 Feeding Eating Disorders
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- True or False
A key way to treat eating disorders is through addressing the cognitivedistortions
Answer: True - A cognitive distortion where a single event affects unrelated situations (Ex:He didn’t ask me
out because I am fat)
Answer: Overgeneralization - A cognitive distortion where reasoning is absolute or extreme, thinking in a black or white
or a good or bad mindset (Ex: If I have one popsicle I need toeat 5)
Answer: All or nothing thinking - A cognitive distortion where consequences of an event are magnified (Ex:If I gain weight
my whole weekend will be ruined)
Answer: Catastrophizing - A cognitive distortion where events are over interpreted as having personalexperience (Ex: I
know everyone is watching me eat)
Answer: Personalization - A cognitive distortion where subjective emotions determine reality (Ex:I amfat because I feel
fat)
Answer: Emotional reasoning - True or False
Female relatives with EDs are up to 12x aslikely to develop one was well
Answer: True - What is a common personality trait among individuals with EDs?
Answer: Perfection-ism - What disorder combination hasthe highestsuicide mortality rate?
Answer: EDs andpersonality disorders - What is the typical onset for anorexia nerviosa?
Answer: Early to middle adolescence - What is the typical onset for bulimia nervosa?
Answer: Late adolescence - When do clients with Eds usually seek treatment?
Answer: 30-40s - What are some medical admission criteria for EDs?
Answer:
- Rapid weight loss(>30% over 6 months)
- Inability to gain weight outpatient
- Hypothermia (<96.8)
- HR < 40
- Systolic BP < 70
- Hypokalemia
- EKG changes
- What are some psychiatric admission criteria for EDs?
Answer:
- Suicide attempt orSI
- Drug abuse
- Failure to comply with treatment
- Depression
- Psychosis
- Family crisis
- If a client requires medical admission for an ED what unit will they goto?
Answer: ICU - If a client meets medical admission and psychiatric admission requirements, what unit
will they enter?
Answer: ICU - Therapeutic rapport is harder to develop with which ED, anorexia nervosaor bulimia
nervosa?
Answer: Anorexia nervosa - What phase of client education is associated with helping the client makenew skills?
Answer: 1
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NSG 322 Topic 13 – Eating Disorders
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- What are the three main eating disorders?
Answer: anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa,and binge-eating disorder - What are the main characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa?
Answer:
- Intense fear ofweight gain
- Distorted body image
- Restricted calories with significantly low BMI
- Subtypes:
Restricting (no consistent bulimic features)
Binge/eating/purging type (primarily restriction, some bulimic behaviors)
- What are the main characteristics of Bulimia Nervosa?
Answer:
- Recurrent episodesof uncontrollable binging
- Inappropriate compensatory behaviors: vomiting, laxatives, diuretics, or exercise
- Self-image largely influenced by body image
- What are the main characteristics of Binge Eating?
Answer:
- Recurrent episodes ofuncontrollable binging without compensatory behaviors
- Binging episodes induce guilt, depression, embarrassment, or disgust
- Anorexia pts have an intense fear of
Answer: weight gain - BMI is below in Anorexia
Answer: 18 - Anorexia has abnormal experiences of
Answer: taste, appetite fullness - Anorexia feels when eating
Answer: panic, fear and depression - Anorexic behavior may be combined with
Answer: purging of food via self-inducedvomiting, laxatives or diuretics = LOW BMI - What occurs in bulimia?
Answer: large food binges followed by purging occur but theclient maintains a relatively
normal weight - Anorexia, Restricting type is diagnosed if
Answer: during the last 3 months, the individual has not engaged in recurrent episodes of
binge-eating or purging behavior(i.e., self-induced vomiting or the misuse of laxatives,
diuretics, or enemas). This subtype describes presentations in which weight loss is
accomplished primarily through dieting, fasting, and/or excessive exercise. - Anorexia, Binge-eating/purging type is diagnosed if
Answer: during the last 3 months, the individual has engaged in recurrent episodes of bingeeating or purgingbehavior(i.e.,self-induced vomiting orthe misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or
enemas). - What are the comorbidities with anorexia?
Answer:
- Bipolar disorder
- Anxiety disorders
- Depressive disorders
- OCD
- Trauma-related disorders
- Substance abuse
- What are the genetic factors for anorexia?
Answer: 50-60% heritability - What are the neurobiological factors of anorexia?
Answer:
- Tryptophan—serotoninsynthesis
- Restricted eating— temporary reductions in anxiety
- Prolonged restriction—dysphoria
- Patients with anorexia obtain a sense of
Answer:
- control over losing weight andrestricting food
- achieving perfection when able to avoid food and weight gain
= very difficult to treat
- What are the cognitive risk factors for anorexia?
Answer:
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NSG 322 Topic 14 Sleep Disorders
New Full Questions and Answers ( Included ) 100% Correct ( Latest 2024 )
- Healthy People 2030 and sleep
Answer:
•Achieving sufficient quality sleep is a key forhealth and well-being
•Sleep is a national health priority.
•Reduce sleep related motor vehicle accidents
•Increase screening for sleep apnea
•High school students: get sufficient sleep;start school later
•Infants:sleep in safety and on their back.
•All ages: get sufficient sleep - recommended sleep: newborn less than 3 months
Answer: 14-17 hr - recommended sleep: infants 4-11 months
Answer: 12-15 hr - recommended sleep: toddlers 1-2 y/o
Answer: 11-14 hr - recommended sleep: preschoolers 3-5 y/o
Answer: 10-13 hr - recommended sleep:school aged 6-13 y/o
Answer: 9-11 hr - recommended sleep: teenagers 14-17 y/o
Answer: 8-10 hr - recommended sleep: young adults 18-25
Answer: 7-9 hr - recommended sleep: adults 26-64
Answer: 7-9 hr - recommended sleep: older adults 65+
Answer: 7-8 hr - short term consequences of sleep deprivation
Answer:
-increased stress
-responsivity
-somatic pain
-reduced quality of life
-emotional distress and mood disorders
-cognitive, memory, and performance deficits. - long term consequences of sleep deprivation
Answer:
-cardiovascular disease
-weight-related issues
-metabolic syndrome
-type 2 DM
-colorectal cancer
-All-cause mortality is also increased with sleep disturbances. - irregular sleep could lead to metabolic problems such as….
Answer:
-lowerhigh-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
-higher waist circumference
-increased blood pressure
-total triglycerides
-fasting glucose - Too much sleep
Answer:
-9+ hrs for adults
-90 minute mid day naps (25% increased stroke risk)
-9+ hrs and 90 minute naps
(85% stroke risk)
-adults who sleep 10 or more hours have a much higher risk for metabolic syndrome
-related to childhood obesity
-linked to depression, headaches, and a greater risk of dying from a medicalcondition. - sleep is measured through…
Answer: electroencephalogram (EEG)consists of two distinct physiological states:
-non-rapid eye movement (NREM)
-sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.
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