Leave thTEAS 7 Science Practice Test Questions with rationALES
1. Which blood group is a universal donor?
Question:
Which blood group is a universal donor?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O
Answer:
d. O
Rationale:
Blood group O negative is considered the universal donor because it can be transfused to patients of any blood type without causing an immune response. This is because O negative blood lacks A, B, and Rh antigens on the surface of its red blood cells, which means it will not trigger an immune response in recipients with different blood types.
2. Blood oxygen levels are most likely low when blood:
Question:
Blood oxygen levels are most likely low when blood
a. leaves the aorta
b. fills the right atrium
c. reaches body tissues
d. flows through arteries
Answer:
b. fills the right atrium
Rationale:
Blood oxygen levels are low when blood fills the right atrium because this chamber receives deoxygenated blood from the body before it is pumped into the lungs for oxygenation. The right atrium is part of the pulmonary circulation, which is responsible for oxygenating the blood.
3. An intracellular chemical signal can be produced in the cell membrane. Once it is produced, where does it go?
Question:
An intracellular chemical signal can be produced in the cell membrane. Once it is produced, where does it go?
a. To a different cell
b. To another part of the cell
c. To a region right outside the cell
d. To an area with high ion concentration
Answer:
b. To another part of the cell
Rationale:
An intracellular chemical signal produced in the cell membrane typically moves to another part of the cell to relay information. These signals can affect various cellular processes, such as gene expression, metabolism, or cell growth, by interacting with specific intracellular targets.
4. After food has been masticated in the oral cavity, where does it go next?
Question:
After food has been masticated in the oral cavity, where does it go next?
a. Colon
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Pharynx
Answer:
d. Pharynx
Rationale:
After food is masticated in the oral cavity, it is swallowed and passes through the pharynx, a muscular tube that connects the mouth to the esophagus. The pharynx plays a crucial role in directing the food toward the esophagus and preventing it from entering the respiratory tract.
5. The diffusion of nutrients through the walls of the digestive system is critical to homeostasis in the body. Where does the majority of this diffusion take place in the digestive system?
Question:
The diffusion of nutrients through the walls of the digestive system is critical to homeostasis in the body. Where does the majority of this diffusion take place in the digestive system?
a. Stomach
b. Esophagus
c. Oral cavity
d. Small intestine
Answer:
d. Small intestine
Rationale:
The majority of nutrient diffusion takes place in the small intestine. The walls of the small intestine contain villi and microvilli, which increase the surface area for absorption, allowing for the efficient transfer of nutrients into the bloodstream.
6. As soon as an invader, known as a(n) ______________, enters the body, the body begins to fight.
Question:
As soon as an invader, known as a(n) ______________, enters the body, the body begins to fight.
a. antibody
b. pathogen
c. trigger
d. vaccination
Answer:
b. pathogen
Rationale:
A pathogen is an invader, such as a virus, bacterium, or other microorganism, that can cause disease. The immune system recognizes pathogens and mounts a defense response to eliminate them from the body.
7. Where is skeletal muscle found?
Question:
Where is skeletal muscle found?
a. Inside the heart
b. Attached to bone
c. Lining the walls of the bladder
d. Within the gastrointestinal tract
Answer:
b. Attached to bone
Rationale:
Skeletal muscle is attached to bones and is responsible for voluntary movements of the body. These muscles are striated and work in pairs to produce movement by contracting and relaxing.
8. If a person smells something sweet, what form of information is this initially perceived as in the nervous system?
Question:
If a person smells something sweet, what form of information is this initially perceived as in the nervous system?
a. Cognitive
b. Integrative
c. Motor
d. Sensory
Answer:
d. Sensory
Rationale:
The perception of a sweet smell is initially processed as sensory information in the nervous system. Sensory receptors in the nose detect the sweet odor and transmit this information to the brain, where it is interpreted.
9. While hiking, a person is startled after encountering a bear. Her palms get sweaty and her heart starts racing. Which part of her nervous system was directly stimulated?
Question:
While hiking, a person is startled after encountering a bear. Her palms get sweaty and her heart starts racing. Which part of her nervous system was directly stimulated?
a. Central
b. Parasympathetic
c. Somatic
d. Sympathetic
Answer:
d. Sympathetic
Rationale:
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the body’s “fight or flight” response. When a person is startled, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing physiological changes such as increased heart rate, sweating, and heightened alertness to prepare the body for action.
10. Which of the following types of tissues include cells of the immune system and of the blood?
Question:
Which of the following types of tissues include cells of the immune system and of the blood?
a. Connective
b. Epithelial
c. Muscle
d. Neural
Answer:
a. Connective
Rationale:
Connective tissue includes various types of cells, such as blood cells and immune cells. Blood is considered a specialized form of connective tissue, and immune cells are found within the blood and other connective tissues throughout the body.
11. Which best describes homeostasis?
Question:
Which best describes homeostasis?
a. A functional system of the body
b. Blood flow to every cell in the body
c. A relatively constant environment within the body
d. Neural pathways that have integrated into the body
Answer:
c. A relatively constant environment within the body
Rationale:
Homeostasis refers to the body’s ability to maintain a stable internal environment despite changes in external conditions. This involves regulating variables such as temperature, pH, and glucose levels to keep the body functioning optimally.
12. Fertilization (the fusing of one sperm and an ovum) results in a(n) _________.
Question:
Fertilization (the fusing of one sperm and an ovum) results in a(n) _________.
a. embryo
b. fetus
c. infant
d. zygote
Answer:
d. zygote
Rationale:
Fertilization results in the formation of a zygote, which is the initial cell formed when a sperm cell fuses with an ovum. The zygote undergoes several divisions and eventually develops into an embryo.
13. Which of the following are included in the male reproductive system?
Question:
Which of the following are included in the male reproductive system?
a. the penis and epididymis
b. the vas deferens and uterus
c. the penis and fallopian tubes
d. the penis, scrotum, and cervix
Answer:
a. the penis and epididymis
Rationale:
The male reproductive system includes organs such as the penis and epididymis. The epididymis is where sperm mature and are stored before ejaculation, and the penis is the organ used for delivering sperm during sexual intercourse.
14. What structure plays a role in air conduction?
Question:
What structure plays a role in air conduction?
a. Alveolus
b. Capillary
c. Lung
d. Trachea
Answer:
d. Trachea
Rationale:
The trachea, also known as the windpipe, plays a crucial role in air conduction by carrying air from the larynx to the bronchi and then into the lungs. The trachea is lined with cilia and mucus to help filter and clean the air before it reaches the lungs.
15. What body system is the skeletal system most closely associated with when hematopoiesis happens?
Question:
What body system is the skeletal system most closely associated with when hematopoiesis happens?
a. Urinary system
b. Digestive system
c. Muscular system
d. Cardiovascular system
Answer:
d. Cardiovascular system
Rationale:
Hematopoiesis, the process of blood cell formation, occurs in the bone marrow of the skeletal system. These blood cells, once formed, enter the circulatory system, making the skeletal system closely associated with the cardiovascular system.
16. What is the final structure through which urine must travel to empty out of the body?
Question:
What is the final structure through which urine must travel to empty out of the body?
a. Bladder
b. Kidney
c. Ureter
d. Urethra
Answer:
d. Urethra
Rationale:
The urethra is the final structure through which urine passes before being excreted from the body. It connects the bladder to the external environment, allowing for the elimination of urine.
17. Which sequence describes the hierarchy level of biological organization?
Question:
Which sequence describes the hierarchy level of biological organization?
a. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species
b. Genus, class, kingdom, species, order, phylum, and family
c. Family, species, genus, order, kingdom, class, and phylum
d. Species, kingdom, genus, class, family, phylum, and order
Answer:
a. Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species
Rationale:
The correct hierarchy of biological classification is: Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species. This system, developed by Carl Linnaeus, is used to categorize and organize living organisms based on their shared characteristics.
18. Which example is part of the scientific method?
Question:
Which example is part of the scientific method?
a. A student reads about a new way to harness energy from the sun.
b. A researcher studies the effects of car exhaust on how people breathe.
c. A researcher analyzes how many plants respond well to a new fertilizer.
d. A student discovers how insulin plays a role in the development of diabetes.
Answer:
c. A researcher analyzes how many plants respond well to a new fertilizer.
Rationale:
The scientific method involves making observations, forming hypotheses, conducting experiments, and analyzing data. The example of a researcher analyzing how many plants respond well to a new fertilizer reflects the experimental and analytical steps of the scientific method.
19. What standard is used to make comparisons in experiments?
Question:
What standard is used to make comparisons in experiments?
a. Sample size
b. Control group
c. Dependent variable
d. Independent variable
Answer:
b. Control group
Rationale:
The control group in an experiment serves as the standard for comparison. It is exposed to all the same conditions as the experimental group except for the variable being tested, allowing researchers to see the effects of the variable by comparing results with the control group.
20. Why did it take many years for the cell theory to be developed?
Question:
Why did it take many years for the cell theory to be developed?
a. Advancements in microscopy took place slowly.
b. Cells were difficult to isolate for experimental analysis.
c. Researchers believed a cell formed from preexisting cells.
d. Scientists already proved that cells were essential for life.
Answer:
a. Advancements in microscopy took place slowly
Rationale:
The development of the cell theory was delayed because early microscopes were not powerful enough to clearly observe and study cells. As advancements in microscopy were made, scientists were able to observe cells more clearly, leading to the development of the cell theory.
21. What organelle is only associated with plant cells?
Question:
What organelle is only associated with plant cells?
a. Cell wall
b. Ribosome
c. Cytoplasm
d. Golgi apparatus
Answer:
a. Cell wall
Rationale:
The cell wall is an organelle found only in plant cells and some prokaryotes. It provides structural support and protection. Unlike the plasma membrane, the cell wall is rigid and helps maintain the shape of plant cells.
22. Which of the following is supported by the cell theory?
Question:
Which of the following is supported by the cell theory?
a. Cells are alive and recognized as the building blocks for life.
b. Scientists can identify and differentiate cells by using a microscope.
c. Cells are produced from existing cells using meiosis instead of mitosis
d. Living things are composed of a single cell that remains undifferentiated.
Answer:
a. Cells are alive and recognized as the building blocks for life.
Rationale:
The cell theory states that all living organisms are composed of cells, which are the basic units of life. It also asserts that all cells arise from pre-existing cells, supporting the idea that cells are the fundamental building blocks of all living things.
23. What raw inorganic material would an autotroph most likely use to create chemical energy for growth?
Question:
What raw inorganic material would an autotroph most likely use to create chemical energy for growth?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Minerals in soil
c. Decaying matter
d. Sugar molecules
Answer:
a. Carbon dioxide
Rationale:
Autotrophs, such as plants, use carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight to create chemical energy through the process of photosynthesis. They convert these inorganic materials into glucose, which is used for growth and energy.
24. When would a cell most likely contain the most nucleotides?
Question:
When would a cell most likely contain the most nucleotides?
a. S
b. G1
c. M
d. G2
Answer:
a. S phase
Rationale:
During the S (synthesis) phase of the cell cycle, DNA replication occurs, leading to the production of a large number of nucleotides. These nucleotides are used to form new DNA strands as the cell prepares for division.
25. What is the correct order of the stages of the cell cycle?
Question:
What is the correct order of the stages of the cell cycle?
a. G1, S, G2, M
b. G2, S, G1, M
c. M, S, G2, G1
d. S, M, G1, G2
Answer:
a. G1, S, G2, M
Rationale:
The cell cycle progresses through the following stages: G1 (cell growth), S (DNA synthesis), G2 (preparation for mitosis), and M (mitosis). This sequence ensures that the cell grows, replicates its DNA, and divides properly.
26. A student notices a pattern of stripes on five tigers. Each of the five tigers has the same stripe pattern. Using his inductive reasoning, what does he logically assume based on this information?
Question:
A student notices a pattern of stripes on five tigers. Each of the five tigers has the same stripe pattern. Using his inductive reasoning, what does he logically assume based on this information?
a. The pattern continues to change over time.
b. Natural adaptations cause this pattern to occur.
c. Each offspring will have the same stripe pattern.
d. Ancestors of the tigers have different stripe patterns.
Answer:
c. Each offspring will have the same stripe pattern.
Rationale:
Inductive reasoning involves making generalizations based on specific observations. The student observes a consistent stripe pattern in five tigers and logically assumes that this pattern is hereditary and will be passed on to their offspring.
27. A researcher notices a positive correlation between the height of a plant and nutrient concentration over time. Based on this observation, what conclusion does he reach?
Question:
A researcher notices a positive correlation between the height of a plant and nutrient concentration over time. Based on this observation, what conclusion does he reach?
a. The height of a plant increases in the absence and presence of the nutrients.
b. When the amount of nutrients available to the plant decreases, its height increases.
c. The amount of nutrients available to a plant is independent of how tall the plant gets.
d. When the amount of nutrients available to the plant increases, its height also increases.
Answer:
d. When the amount of nutrients available to the plant increases, its height also increases.
Rationale:
A positive correlation between nutrient concentration and plant height suggests that as more nutrients become available to the plant, it grows taller. This conclusion is consistent with the idea that nutrients are essential for plant growth.
28. Which statement best represents Mendel’s experiments with garden peas?
Question:
Which statement best represents Mendel’s experiments with garden peas?
a. As a result, Mendel developed several theories that have since been disproved.
b. Mendel realized he was on an incorrect track, which led him to other experimental media.
c. As a result, Mendel developed foundational conclusions that are still valued and followed today.
d. Mendel collaborated with others interested in genetics to develop heredity guidelines we still use today.
Answer:
c. As a result, Mendel developed foundational conclusions that are still valued and followed today.
Rationale:
Gregor Mendel’s experiments with garden peas led to the discovery of the fundamental principles of heredity, including the concepts of dominant and recessive traits, which are still foundational in genetics today.
29. Which of the following is a component of a chromosome?
Question:
Which of the following is a component of a chromosome?
a. Centromere
b. Gamete
c. Homologue
d. Ribose
Answer:
a. Centromere
Rationale:
A centromere is the region of a chromosome where the two sister chromatids are joined together. It plays a crucial role during cell division, ensuring that each daughter cell receives an identical set of chromosomes.
30. What solution has a pH of 7?
Question:
What solution has a pH of 7?
a. Aniline
b. Pyridine
c. Pure water
d. Sodium hydroxide
Answer:
c. Pure water
Rationale:
A solution with a pH of 7 is considered neutral, meaning it is neither acidic nor basic. Pure water is an example of a neutral solution with a pH of 7.
31. Which is classified as a type of acid-base reaction that produces salt?
Question:
Which is classified as a type of acid-base reaction that produces salt?
a. Combination
b. Decomposition
c. Hydrolysis
d. Neutralization
Answer:
d. Neutralization
Rationale:
A neutralization reaction is an acid-base reaction in which an acid reacts with a base to produce a salt and water. This type of reaction is fundamental in chemistry and is used to understand how acids and bases interact.
32. Which of the following determines the strength of an acidic solution?
Question:
Which of the following determines the strength of an acidic solution?
a. Litmus paper that turns red.
b. Litmus paper that turns blue.
c. Measured pH value equal to 7.
d. Measured pH value less than 7.
Answer:
d. Measured pH value less than 7.
Rationale:
The strength of an acidic solution is determined by its pH value. A pH less than 7 indicates an acidic solution, and the lower the pH, the stronger the acid. Litmus paper that turns red can indicate an acidic environment, but the exact strength is determined by the pH value.
33. What type of bond forms between nitrogen and oxygen, and why?
Question:
What type of bond forms between nitrogen and oxygen, and why?
a. Ionic, because electrons are shared.
b. Covalent, because electrons are shared.
c. Ionic, because electrons are transferred.
d. Covalent, because electrons are transferred.
Answer:
b. Covalent, because electrons are shared.
Rationale:
A covalent bond forms when two atoms share electrons. In the case of nitrogen and oxygen, both elements are non-metals, and they form a covalent bond by sharing electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration.
34. Which of the following atoms is a cation?
Question:
Which of the following atoms is a cation?
a. 14 protons, 14 neutrons, 18 electrons
b. 34 protons, 45 neutrons, 36 electrons
c. 35 protons, 44 neutrons, 35 electrons
d. 82 protons, 125 neutrons, 78 electrons
Answer:
d. 82 protons, 125 neutrons, 78 electrons
Rationale:
A cation is a positively charged ion that forms when an atom loses electrons. In option (d), the atom has more protons than electrons (82 protons and 78 electrons), resulting in a net positive charge, making it a cation.
35. A spoonful of sugar is added to a hot cup of tea. All the sugar dissolves. How can the resulting solution be described?
Question:
A spoonful of sugar is added to a hot cup of tea. All the sugar dissolves. How can the resulting solution be described?
a. Saturated and homogeneous
b. Saturated and heterogeneous
c. Unsaturated and homogeneous
d. Unsaturated and heterogeneous
Answer:
c. Unsaturated and homogeneous
Rationale:
When all the sugar dissolves in the tea, the solution is unsaturated, meaning it can still dissolve more solute. The solution is also homogeneous, meaning the sugar is evenly distributed throughout the tea, creating a uniform mixture.
36. In the following single-replacement reaction, _________ replaces ___________.
Question:
Cl₂ + 2NaI → 2NaCl + I₂
In the following single-replacement reaction, _________ replaces ___________.
a. sodium, iodine
b. chlorine, iodine
c. chlorine, sodium
d. sodium, chlorine
Answer:
b. chlorine, iodine
Rationale:
In this single-replacement reaction, chlorine (Cl₂) replaces iodine (I) in sodium iodide (NaI) to form sodium chloride (NaCl) and iodine (I₂). This is typical of a single-replacement reaction, where a more reactive element replaces a less reactive one in a compound.
37. What type of reaction is described by the following equation?
Question:
ZnBr₂(aq) + 2KOH(aq) → Zn(OH)₂(s) + 2KBr(aq)
What type of reaction is described by the following equation?
a. Synthesis
b. Decomposition
c. Single-Replacement
d. Double-Replacement
Answer:
d. Double-Replacement
Rationale:
A double-replacement reaction occurs when the cations and anions of two different compounds exchange places, forming two new compounds. In this reaction, Zn²⁺ from ZnBr₂ and K⁺ from KOH swap partners, forming Zn(OH)₂ and KBr.
38. ___________ is dependent not only on the temperature, but also on the amount of substance available.
Question:
___________ is dependent not only on the temperature, but also on the amount of substance available.
a. Condensation
b. Deposition
c. Evaporation
d. Melting
Answer:
c. Evaporation
Rationale:
Evaporation is a process that depends on both the temperature and the surface area of the substance. As the temperature increases, more molecules have enough energy to escape the liquid phase and become vapor. The amount of liquid available also influences the rate of evaporation.
39. During which of the following phase changes will the cohesion between particles in a substance decrease?
Question:
During which of the following phase changes will the cohesion between particles in a substance decrease?
a. Condensation
b. Deposition
c. Freezing
d. Vaporization
Answer:
d. Vaporization
Rationale:
During vaporization, the substance changes from a liquid to a gas, which results in a decrease in the cohesion between particles. In the gas phase, particles move freely and are much farther apart than in the liquid phase, reducing their cohesive forces.
40. In which state of matter are the intermolecular forces between particles in a substance the strongest?
Question:
In which state of matter are the intermolecular forces between particles in a substance the strongest?
a. Gas
b. Liquid
c. Plasma
d. Solid
Answer:
d. Solid
Rationale:
In a solid state, particles are closely packed together in a fixed arrangement, and the intermolecular forces between them are the strongest. This strong cohesion between particles gives solids their definite shape and volume
41. Mendel discovered the pattern associated with ____________ after developing a series of rules in genetics.
Question:
Mendel discovered the pattern associated with ____________ after developing a series of rules in genetics.
a. Epigenetics
b. Heredity
c. Heterogeneity
d. Taxonomy
Answer:
b. Heredity
Rationale:
Gregor Mendel is known as the father of genetics for his work on heredity, which involved discovering patterns in the way traits are inherited from one generation to the next. His experiments with pea plants led to the formulation of key principles of heredity, now known as Mendelian inheritance.
42. The sequence of amino acids in a gene determines
Question:
The sequence of amino acids in a gene determines
a. The primary structure of a codon.
b. The primary structure of a protein.
c. The primary structure of a nucleotide.
d. The primary structure of a nucleic acid.
Answer:
b. The primary structure of a protein
Rationale:
The sequence of amino acids in a gene determines the primary structure of a protein. This sequence dictates how the protein will fold into its functional three-dimensional structure and, ultimately, its function within the organism.
43. Which is true regarding the urinary system? (Select all that apply.)
Question:
Which is true regarding the urinary system? (Select all that apply.)
a. Kidneys make urine.
b. As a person ages, kidney tissue and filtration capacity increase.
c. Kidneys help regulate water balance.
d. Regulates levels of electrolytes such as sodium and potassium.
e. Eliminates metabolic wastes.
Answer:
a. Kidneys make urine.
c. Kidneys help regulate water balance.
d. Regulates levels of electrolytes such as sodium and potassium.
e. Eliminates metabolic wastes.
Rationale:
The urinary system, particularly the kidneys, plays a crucial role in producing urine, regulating water balance, maintaining electrolyte levels, and eliminating metabolic wastes from the body. However, as a person ages, kidney tissue and filtration capacity typically decrease, not increase.
44. During the aging process, not all hormone levels decrease; some actually increase. Which of the following is a hormone that may increase as a person ages?
Question:
During the aging process, not all hormone levels decrease; some actually increase. Which of the following is a hormone that may increase as a person ages?
a. Cortisol
b. Insulin
c. Luteinizing
d. Thyroid
Answer:
c. Luteinizing
Rationale:
Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels can increase as a person ages, particularly in women as they approach menopause. While some hormones decrease with age, such as growth hormone and estrogen, LH is among those that may increase.
45. What phase is the cell cycle part of?
Question:
What phase is the cell cycle part of?
a. Interphase
b. Metaphase
c. Prophase
d. Telophase
Answer:
a. Interphase
Rationale:
Interphase is the phase of the cell cycle where the cell grows, replicates its DNA, and prepares for mitosis. It is the longest phase of the cell cycle and includes the G1, S, and G2 phases.
46. In which state of matter do the particles of iron have the lowest amount of cohesion?
Question:
In which state of matter do the particles of iron have the lowest amount of cohesion?
a. Solid iron particles have the lowest of cohesion.
b. Liquid iron particles have the lowest amount of cohesion.
c. Gaseous iron particles have the lowest amount of cohesion.
d. The particles have the same amount of cohesion in all states of matter.
Answer:
c. Gaseous iron particles have the lowest amount of cohesion.
Rationale:
In the gaseous state, the particles of iron have the lowest amount of cohesion because they are farthest apart and move freely. The intermolecular forces are weakest in gases compared to liquids and solids.
47. A person is diagnosed as having acidosis, a condition in which the blood pH is below 7.45. What does the doctor most likely conclude?
Question:
A person is diagnosed as having acidosis, a condition in which the blood pH is below 7.45. What does the doctor most likely conclude?
a. Too much carbon dioxide is found in the blood.
b. Highly oxygenated blood circulates through the body.
c. A blockage prevents blood from leaving the pulmonary artery.
d. The nasal cavity has a difficult time clearing particles from the air.
Answer:
a. Too much carbon dioxide is found in the blood.
Rationale:
Acidosis is often caused by an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, which leads to a decrease in blood pH. The excess CO2 forms carbonic acid, lowering the pH and leading to an acidic environment.
48. An atom has 28 protons, 32 neutrons, and 28 electrons. What is the name of this isotope?
Question:
An atom has 28 protons, 32 neutrons, and 28 electrons. What is the name of this isotope?
a. Nickel – 32
b. Nickel – 60
c. Germanium – 56
d. Germanium – 60
Answer:
b. Nickel – 60
Rationale:
The isotope is identified by its atomic number (number of protons) and its mass number (sum of protons and neutrons). With 28 protons and 32 neutrons, the mass number is 60, and since the element with 28 protons is nickel, the isotope is Nickel-60.
49. The physical appearance or ___________ of an organism is determined by a set of alleles.
Question:
The physical appearance or ___________ of an organism is determined by a set of alleles.
a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
c. Transcription
d. Translation
Answer:
b. Phenotype
Rationale:
The phenotype of an organism refers to its physical appearance and is determined by the interaction of its genotype (the set of alleles) with the environment. The genotype provides the blueprint, while the phenotype is the actual expression of traits.
50. Arrange the path of food through the digestive system.
Question:
Arrange the path of food through the digestive system.
a. Oral cavity
b. Esophagus
c. Large intestine
d. Pyloric sphincter
e. Colon
f. Small intestine
g. Pharynx
Answer:
a. Oral cavity
g. Pharynx
b. Esophagus
d. Pyloric sphincter
f. Small intestine
c. Large intestine
e. Colon
Rationale:
The correct order of food passage through the digestive system starts in the oral cavity (mouth), then moves to the pharynx, esophagus, passes through the pyloric sphincter into the small intestine, then to the large intestine, and finally to the colon where waste is prepared for excretion.