{"id":110505,"date":"2023-07-26T20:53:11","date_gmt":"2023-07-26T20:53:11","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/blog\/?p=110505"},"modified":"2023-07-26T20:56:54","modified_gmt":"2023-07-26T20:56:54","slug":"nha-cbcs-exam-questions-and-answers-2022-2023-100-verified-answers-by-expert","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/2023\/07\/26\/nha-cbcs-exam-questions-and-answers-2022-2023-100-verified-answers-by-expert\/","title":{"rendered":"NHA CBCS Exam Questions and Answers (2022\/2023) (100% Verified Answers by Expert)"},"content":{"rendered":"\n<p>The attending physician<br>A nurse is reviewing a patients lab results prior to discharge and discovers an elevated glucose level. Which of the following health care providers should be altered before the nurse can proceed with discharge planning?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The patients condition and the providers information<br>On the CMS-1500 Claims for, blocks 14 through 33 contain information about which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Problem focused examination<br>A provider performs an examination of a patient&#8217;s throat during an office visit. Which of the following describes the level of the examination?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Reinstated or recycled code<br>The symbol &#8220;O&#8221; in the Current Procedural Terminology reference is used to indicate which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coinsurance<br>Which of the following is the portion of the account balance the patient must pay after services are rendered and the annual deductible is met?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Place of service<br>The billing and coding specialist should divide the evaluation and management code by which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Cardiovascular system<br>The standard medical abbreviation &#8220;ECG&#8221; refers to a test used to access which of the following body systems?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>add on codes<br>In the anesthesia section of the CPT manual, which of the following are considered qualifying circumstances?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>12<br>As of April 1st 2014, what is the maximum number of diagnosis that can be reported on the CMS-1500 claim form before a further claim is required?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Nephrolithiasis<br>When submitting a clean claim with a diagnosis of kidney stones, which of the following procedure names is correct?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Verifying that the medical records and the billing record match<br>Which of the following is one of the purposes of an internal auditing program in a physician&#8217;s office?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The DOB is entered incorrectly<br>Patient: Jane Austin; Social Security # 555-22-1111; Medicare ID: 555-33-2222A; DOB: 05\/22\/1945. Claim information entered: Austin, Jane; Social Security #.: 555-22-1111; Medicare ID No.: 555-33-2222A; DOB: 052245. Which of the following is a reason this claim was rejected?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Operative report<br>Which of the following options is considered proper supportive documentation for reporting CPT and ICD codes for surgical procedures?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Verify the age of the account<br>Which of the following actions should be taken first when reviewing delinquent claims?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claim control number<br>Which of the following components of an explanation of benefits expedites the process of a phone appeal?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Bloc 24D contains the diagnosis code<br>A claim can be denied or rejected for which of the following reasons?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Privacy officer<br>To be compliant with HIPAA, which of the following positions should be assigned in each office?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>encrypted<br>All e-mail correspondence to a third party payer containing patients&#8217; protected health information (PHI) should be<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>patient ledger account<br>A billing and coding specialist should understand that the financial record source that is generated by a provider&#8217;s office is called a<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coding compliance plan<br>Which of the following includes procedures and best practices for correct coding?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Health care clearinghouses<br>HIPAA transaction standards apply to which of the following entities?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Appeal the decision with a provider&#8217;s report<br>Which of the following actions should be taken if an insurance company denies a service as not medically necessary?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Accommodate the request and send the records<br>A patient with a past due balance requests that his records be sent to another provider. Which of the following actions should be taken?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>$48<br>A participating BlueCross\/ BlueShield (BC\/BS) provider receives an explanation of benefits for a patient account. The charged amount was $100. BC\/BS allowed $40 to the patients annual deductible. BC\/BS paid the balance at 80%. How much should the patient expect to pay?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Deductible<br>The physician bills $500 to a patient. After submitting the claim to the insurance company, the claim is sent back with no payment. The patient still owes $500 for this year.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>International Classification of Disease (ICD)<br>Which of the following is used to code diseases, injuries, impairments, and other health related problems?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Ureters<br>Urine moves from the kidneys to the bladder through which of the following parts of the body?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Angioplasty<br>Threading a catheter with a balloon into a coronary artery and expanding it to repair arteries describes which of the following procedures?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>To ensure the patient understands his portion of the bill<br>A patient&#8217;s portion of the bill should be discussed with the patient before a procedure is performed for which of the following reasons?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Performing periodic audits<br>Which of the following actions by the billing and coding specialists prevents fraud?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Name and address of guarantor<br>Which of the following information is required on a patient account record?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Invalid<br>A claim is submitted with a transposed insurance member ID number and returned to the provider. Which of the following describes the status that should be assigned to the claim by the carrier?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CMS-1500 claim form<br>Which of the following should the billing and coding specialist complete to be reimbursed for the provider&#8217;s services?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The electronic transmission and code set standards require every provider to use the healthcare transactions, code sets, and identifiers.<br>Which of the following is HIPAA compliance guideline affecting electronic health records?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Verification of coverage.<br>Which of the following is the purpose of precertification<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The entity to whom the information is to be released<br>Which of the following should the billing and coding specialist include in an authorization to release information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Report the incident to a supervisor<br>Which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take if he observes a colleague in an unethical situation?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Patient&#8217;s responsibility<br>When posting payment accurately, which of the following items should the billing and coding specialist include?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The parent whose birthdate comes first in the calendar year<br>A dependent child whose parents both have insurance coverage comes to the clinic. The billing and coding specialist uses the birthday rule to determine which insurance policy is primary. Which of the following describes the birthday rule?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Patient access to psychotherapy notes may be restricted<br>Which of the following statements is true regarding the release of patient records?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Denied<br>A patient&#8217;s employer has not submitted a premium payment. Which of the following claim statuses should the provider receive from the third-party payer?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Clearinghouse<br>Which of the following do physicians use to electronically submit claims?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>principal diagnosis<br>When coding on the UB-04 form, the billing and coding specialist must sequence the diagnosis codes according to the ICD guidelines. Which of the following is the first listed diagnosis code?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 9<br>A patient has AARP as secondary insurance. In which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form should this information be entered?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>NPI<br>According to HIPAA standards, which of the following identifies the rendering provider on the CMS-1500 claim form in Block 24j?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Oxygenating blood cells<br>Which of the following is the function of the respiratory system?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coordination of benefits<br>Which of the following provisions ensures that an insured&#8217;s benefits from all insurance companies do not exceed 100% of allowable medical expenses?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Consent agreement<br>Which of the following is the verbal or written agreement that gives approval to some action, situation, or statement, and allows the release of patient information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Fraud<br>A deductible of $100 is applied to a patient&#8217;s remittance advice. The provider requests the account personnel write it off. Which of the following terms describes this scenario?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Gross examination<br>A coroner&#8217;s autopsy is comprised of which of the following examinations?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claims are expedited<br>Which of the following is the advantage of electronic claim submission?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Title 2<br>A patient presents to the provider with chest pain and SOB. After an unexpected ECG result, the provider calls a cardiologist and summarizes the patient&#8217;s symptoms. What portion of HIPAA allows the provider to speak to the cardiologist prior to obtaining the patient&#8217;s consent?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Advanced beneficiary notice<br>A physician ordered a comprehensive metabolic panel for a 70 year old patient who has Medicare as her primary insurance. Which of the following forms is required so the patient knows she may be responsible for payment?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Assignment of benefits<br>Which of the following does a patient sign to allow payment of claims directly to the provider?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Military identification<br>All dependents 10 year of age or older are required to have which of the following for TRICARE?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Private 3rd party payers<br>Medigap coverage is offered to Medicare beneficiaries by which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Follow up of insurance claims by date<br>An insurance claims register (aged insurance report) facilitates which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Urethratresia<br>Which of the following describes an obstruction of the urethra?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Admitting clerk<br>A patient comes to the hospital for an inpatient procedure. Which of the following hospital staff members is responsible for the initial patient interview, obtaining demographic and insurance information, and documenting the chief complaint?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The patient demographics<br>On the CMS-1500 claim form, Blocks 1 through 13 include which of the following<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pumping blood in the circulatory system<br>Which of the following is the primary function of the heart?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Submit an appeal to the carrier with the supporting documentation<br>Which of the following actions should be taken when a claim is billed for a level four office visit and paid at a level three?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Delinquent<br>Which of the following types of claims is 120 days old?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Aging report<br>Which of the following shows outstanding balances?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Part D<br>Which part of Medicare covers prescriptions?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Dermatology<br>In which of the following departments should a patient be seen for psoriasis?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Patient information was disclosed to the patient&#8217;s parent without consent.<br>Which of the following is an example of a violation of an adult patient&#8217;s confidentiality?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Improper code combinations<br>Which of the following describes the reason for a claim rejection because of Medicare NCCI edits?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>History and physical<br>Which of the following sections of the medical record is used to determine the correct Evaluation and Management code used for billing and coding?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Blue shield\/ Blue cross<br>Which of the following is a private insurance carrier?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>National provider identification number<br>Which of the following information should the billing and coding specialist input into Block 33a on the CMS-1500 claim form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>UB-04<br>Which of the following forms should the billing and coding specialist transmit to the insurance carrier for reimbursement of inpatient hospital services?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pulmonary oncologist<br>A patient who has a primary malignant neoplasm of the lung should be referred to which of the following specialists?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>They streamline patient billing by summarizing the services rendered for a given date of service<br>Why does correct claim processing rely on accurately completed encounter forms?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Sagittal<br>Which of the following planes divides the body into left and right?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Inform the patient of the reason of the denial<br>A patient is upset about a bill she received. Her insurance company denied the claim. Which of the following actions is an appropriate way to handle the situation?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The claim is overdue for payment<br>Which of the following describes a delinquent claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Use Arial size 10 font<br>When completing a CMS-1500 paper claim form, which of the following is an acceptable action for the billing and coding specialist to take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pericardium<br>Which of the following medical terms refers to the sac that encloses the heart?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Adjudication<br>Which of the following is considered the final determination of the issues involving settlement of an insurance claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Encounter form<br>A form that contains charges, DOS, CPT codes, ICD codes, fees, and copayment information is called which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Using data encryption software on office workstations<br>Which of the following privacy measures ensures protected health information (PHI)?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>It indicates which claims are outstanding<br>Which of the following is the purpose of running an aging report each month?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Billing for services not provided<br>Which of the following actions by a billing and coding specialist would be considered fraud?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Paper claim<br>Which of the following claims is submitted and then optically scanned by the insurance carrier and converted to an electronic form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 12<br>Which of the following blocks requires the patient&#8217;s authorization to release medical information to process a claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 24D<br>Which of the following blocks should the billing and coding specialist complete on the CMS-1500 claim form for procedures, services, or supplies?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Guidelines prior to each section<br>The unlisted codes can be found in which of the following locations in the CPT manual?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>$40<br>A physician is contracted with an insurance company to accept the allowed amount. The insurance company allows $80 of a $120 billed amount, and $50 of the deductible has been met. How much should the physician write off the patient&#8217;s account?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Provider<br>On a remittance advice form, which of the following is responsible for writing off the difference between the amount billed and the amount allowed by the agreement?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Procedure descriptors<br>The &#8220;&gt;&lt;&#8221; symbol is used to indicate new and revised text other than which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The claim requires an attachment<br>Which of the following indicates a claim should be submitted on paper instead of electronically?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coinsurance<br>Which of the following terms describes when a plan pays 70% of the allowed amount and the patient pays 30%?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The number is needed to identify the provider<br>Claims that are submitted without an NPI number will delay payment to the provider because<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>UB-04 claim form<br>Ambulatory surgery centers, home health care, and hospice organizations use the<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Red<br>Which of the following color formats is acceptable on the CMS-1500 claim form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The deductible is the patient&#8217;s responsibility<br>Which of the following statements is correct regarding a deductible?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Adjustment column of the credits<br>A provider charged $500 to a claim that had an allowable amount of $400. In which of the following columns should the billing and coding specialist apply the non-allowed charge?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The billing and coding specialist sends the patient&#8217;s records to the patient&#8217;s partner.<br>A patient who is an active member of the military recently returned from overseas and is in need of specialty care. The patient does not have anyone designated with power of attorney. Which of the following is considered a HIPAA violation?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicaid<br>A patient&#8217;s health plan is referred to as the &#8220;payer of last resort.&#8221; The patient is covered by which of the following health plans?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claim adjudication<br>After a 3rd party payer validates a claim, which of the following takes place next?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Health care clearinghouse<br>HIPAA transaction standards apply to which of the following entities?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>First report of injury<br>Which of the following is the initial step in processing a workers&#8217; compensation claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coordination of benefits<br>The provision of health insurance policies that specifies which coverage is considered primary or secondary is called which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider&#8217;s office with fewer than 10 full-time employees<br>Medicare enforces mandatory submission of electronic claims for most providers. Which of the following providers is allowed to submit paper claims to medicare?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The 3rd party payer reimburses the patient, and the patient is responsible for reimbursing the provider.<br>When submitting claims, which of the following is the outcome if block 13 is left blank?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>accounts receivable<br>Patient charges that have not been paid will appear in which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Remittance advice<br>A billing and coding specialist needs to know how much Medicare paid on a claim before billing secondary insurance. To which of the following should the specialist refer?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A bilateral procedure<br>A billing and coding specialist should add modifier -50 to codes when reporting which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CMS<br>In 1995 and 1997, which of the following introduced documentation guidelines to Medicare carriers to ensure that services paid for have been provided and were medically necessary?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Billing using 2 digit CPT modifiers to indicate a procedure as performed differs from its usual 5 digit code<br>Which of the following is allowed when billing procedural codes?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Cold treatment<br>The destruction of lesions using cryosurgery would use which of the following treatments?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Code both acute and chronic sequencing the acute first<br>When a patient has a condition that is both acute and chronic how should it be reported?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>An overview of the practice&#8217;s outstanding claims<br>Which of the following describes the content of a medical practice aging report?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Fraud<br>After reading a provider&#8217;s notes about a new patient, a coding specialist decides to code for a longer length of time than the actual office visit. Which of the following describes the specialist&#8217;s action?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The claim will not be re submitted and the patient will be sent a bill<br>A claim is denied because the service was not covered by the insurance company. Upon confirmation of no errors on the claim, which of the following describes the process that will follow the denial?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A billing worksheet from the patient account<br>A prospective billing account audit prevents fraud by reviewing and comparing a completed claim form with which of the following documents?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Encryption<br>Which of the following security features is required during transmission of protected health information and medical claims to third party payers?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>HIPAA<br>Which of the following acts applies to the Administrative Simplification guidelines?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Immunizations<br>Z codes are used to identify which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-53<br>Which of the following modifiers should be used to indicate a professional service has been discontinued prior to completion?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Complete the information and re transmit according to the 3rd party standards<br>When an electronic claim is rejected due to incomplete information, which of the following should the medical billing specialist take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claims submitted via a secure network<br>Which of the following is an example of electronic claim submission?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>EEG<br>Test results indicated that no abnormalities were found in the brain and the brain&#8217;s electrical activity patterns are normal. Which of the following tests was used to conduct this exam?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>9a<br>When billing a secondary insurance company, which block should the billing and coding specialist fill out on the CMS-1500 claim form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Collect copayment from the patient at the time of service<br>Which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take to effectively manage accounts receivable?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>12<br>What is the maximum number of ICD codes that can be entered on a CMS-1500 claim form as of February 2012?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Internal monitoring and audting<br>Which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take to prevent fraud and abuse in the medical office?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>30 days<br>For which of the following time periods should the billing and coding specialist track unpaid claims before taking follow up action<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>0%<br>A beneficiary of a Medicare\/Medicaid crossover claim submitted by a participating provider is responsible for which of the following percentages?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Direct data entry<br>A biller will electronically submit a claim to the carrier via which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Review of systems<br>When a physician documents a patient&#8217;s response to symptoms and various body systems, the results are documented as which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>150 00<br>Which of the following is a correct entry of a charge of $140 in Block 24F of the CMS-1500 claim form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Services rendered by a physician whose opinion or advice is requested by another physician or agency<br>Which of the following situations constitutes a consultation?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Bones and bone marrow<br>If a patient has osteomyelitis he has a problem with which of the following areas?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>An authorization<br>Which of the following forms must the patient or representative sign to allow the release of protected health information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Referring physician&#8217;s national provider identifier (NPI) number<br>Block 17b on the CMS-1500 claim form should list which of the following information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>NCCI<br>Which of the following was developed to reduce Medicare program expenditures by detecting inappropriate codes and eliminating improper coding practices?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Denied<br>Which of the following describes the status of a claim that does not include required preauthorization for a service?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Lymphatic system<br>Which of the following parts of the body system regulates immunity?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Clearinghouse<br>Which of the following is used by providers to remove errors from claims before they are submitted to 3rd party payers?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Explanation of benefits<br>A provider receives reimbursement from a 3rd party payer accompanied by which of the following documents?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claims adjudication<br>Which of the following is the 3rd stage of the life cycle of a claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 10a<br>Which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form is required to indicate a workers&#8217; compensation claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Duplication of services<br>2 providers from the same practice visit a patient in the emergency department using the same CPT code. The claim may be denied due to which of the following reasons?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The patient was out of town during the emergency<br>A patient has an emergency appendectomy while on vacation. The claim is rejected due to the patient obtaining services out of network. Which of the following information should be included in the claim appeal?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Incomplete claim<br>Which of the following is a type of claim that will be denied by the 3rd party payer?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Internal monitoring and auditing<br>Which of the following steps would be part of a physician&#8217;s practice compliance program?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>$120<br>A patient has met a Medicare deductible of $150. The patient&#8217;s coinsurance is 20% and the allowed amount is $600. Which of the following is the patient&#8217;s out of pocket expense?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The age of the account<br>Which of the following is the primary information used to determine the priority of collection letters to patients?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A claim that is delinquent for 60 days<br>Which of the following claims would appear on an aging report?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Preauthorization form<br>Which of the following is a requirement of some 3rd party payers before a procedure is performed?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>HCPCS Level 2 manual<br>Which of the following coding manuals is used primarily to identify products, supplies, and services?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 23<br>A billing and coding specialist should enter the prior authorization number on the CMS-1500 claim form in which of the following blocks?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A signed release from the patient<br>Which of the following documents is required to disclose an adult patient&#8217;s information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Documenting the patient&#8217;s chief complaint, history, exam, assessment, and plan for care<br>Which of the following billing patterns is a best practice action?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Communicating with the front desk staff during a team meeting about missing information in patient files<br>Behavior plays an important part of being a team player in a medical practice. which of the following is an appropriate action for the billing and coding specialist to take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>$40<br>A physician is contracted with an insurance company to accept the allowed amount. The insurance company allows $80 of a $120 billed amount, and $50 of the deductible has not been met. How much should the physician write off the patient&#8217;s account?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The physician agrees to accept payment under the terms of the payer&#8217;s program<br>Accepting assignment on the CMS-1500 claim form indicates which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Any coinsurance, copayments, or deductibles can be collected from the patient<br>Which of the following statements is true when determining patient financial responsibility by reviewing the remittance advice?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Patient account record<br>In an outpatient setting, which of the following forms is used as a financial report of all services provided to patients?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Edema<br>Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis for a patient who has an abnormal accumulation of fluid in her lower leg that has resulted in swelling?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>TRICARE Prime<br>Which of the following types of health insurance plans best describes a government sponsored benefit program?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Recovery Audit Contractor (RAC)<br>Which of the following organizations identifies improper payments made on CMS claims?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The reason Medicare may not pay<br>Which of the following information is required to include on an Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 21<br>Which of the following blocks on CMS-1500 claim form is used to bill ICD codes?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claim adjustment codes<br>Which of the following terms is used to communicate why a claim line item was denied or payed differently than it was billed?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The name, address, and ZIP code of the facility where services were rendered goes in this block.<br>Block 32con the CMS form contains what?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider&#8217;s office requests a subpoena requesting medical documentation from a patient&#8217;s medical record. After confirming the correct authorization, which of the following actions should the billing &amp; coding specialist take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>12 months from the date of service<br>Which of the following is the deadline for a Medicare for claims submission?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CMS-1500<br>Which of the following forms does a 3rd party payer require for physician services?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Charging excessive fees<br>Which of the following is an example of Medicare abuse?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Adjustment<br>Which of the following terms refers to the difference between the billed and allowed amounts?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Durable medical equipment<br>Which of the following HMO managed care services requires a referral?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Advanced beneficiary notice (ABN)<br>Which of the following explains why Medicare will deny a particular service or procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Delinquent<br>What type of claim is 120 days old?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Photo copy both sides of the card<br>When reviewing an established patient&#8217;s insurance card, the billing and specialist notices a minor change from the existing card on file. Which of the following actions should the billing &amp; coding specialist take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The wife&#8217;s insurance<br>A husband and wife each have group insurance through their employers. The wife has an appt. with her provider. Which insurance should be used as the primary for this appt?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>An experimental chemotherapy medication for a patient who has stage 3 renal cancer.<br>Which of the following would most likely result in a denial on a Medicare claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Phone number<br>Which of the following pieces of guarantor information is required when establishing a patient&#8217;s financial record?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pleurocentesis<br>A provider surgically punctures through space between the patient&#8217;s ribs using an aspirating needle to withdraw fluid from the chest cavity. Which of the following is the name of this procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 9<br>A patient has AARP as secondary insurance. Which block on the CMS 1500 claim form should this information be entered?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>$230<br>A medicare non-participating provider&#8217;s approved payment for $200 for a lobectomy and the deductible was met. Which amounts is the limiting charge for this?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>add-on codes<br>In the anesthesia section of the CPT manual, which are considered qualifying circumstances?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>These codes must correspond to the diagnosis blocker in Block 24E<br>Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the diagnostic codes in Block 21?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Part C<br>Which of the following parts of Medicare insurance program is managed by private 3rd party insurance providers that have been approved by medicare?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Precertification<br>A billing &amp; coding specialist can ensure appropriate insurance coverage for an outpatient procedure by 1st using which of the following processes?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The billing and coding specialist unbundles a code to receive higher reimbursement<br>Which of the following is considered fraud?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Triangle<br>Which of the following symbols indicates a revised code?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Office inspector general (OIG)<br>Which of the following entities defines the essential elements of a comprehensive compliance program?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Prevent multiple insurers from paying benefits covered by other policies<br>Which of the following is the purpose of coordination of benefits?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Clean claim<br>A billing &amp; coding specialist submitted a claim to Medicare electronically. No errors were found by the billing software or clearinghouse. Which of the following describes the claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>An italicized code used as the first listed diagnosis<br>Which of the following would result in a claim being denied?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>HIPAA standard transactions<br>Which of the following standardized formats are used in the electronic filing of claims?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>professional component<br>Which of the following describes a 2 digit CPT code used to indicate that the provider supervised &amp; interpreted a radiology procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>837<br>Which of the following formats are used to submit electronic claims to a 3rd party payer?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Patient eligibility is determined monthly<br>Which of the following is true regarding Medicaid?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>4<br>Which of the following is the maximum # of modifiers that the billing &amp; coding specialists can use on a CMS-1500 claim form in Block 24D?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Ensure proper payment has been made<br>When the remittance advice is sent from the 3rd party payer to the provider, which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialists perform first?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Incorrectly linked codes<br>Which of the following would be a reason a claim would be denied?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The guidelines define items that are necessary to accurately code<br>The billing and coding specialists should follow the guidelines in the CPT manual for which of the following reasons?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>operative report<br>Which of the following options is considered proper supportive documentation for reporting CPT &amp; ICD codes for surgical procedures?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 27<br>Which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form is used to accept assignment of benefits?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Contractual allowance<br>Which of the following is an example of a remark code from an explanation of benefits document?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When an insurance company transfers data to allow coordination of benefits of a claim<br>Which of the following describes the term &#8220;crossover&#8221; as it relates to Medicare?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>block 24j<br>Rendering Provider ID Number goes on what block on the CMS-1500 claim form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The date of the last disclosure<br>Which of the following is included in the release of patient information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>History<br>Which of the following describes a key component of an evaluation &amp; management service?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Aging report<br>Which of the following reports is used to arrange the accounts receivable from the date of service?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medical standard of conduct<br>Which of the following best describes medical ethics?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Arthroscopy<br>An examination of a patient&#8217;s knee joint via small incisions &amp; an optical device. Which of the following terms describes this procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A product pending FDA approval is indicated as a lightning bolt symbol<br>Which of the following accurately describes code symbols found in the CPT manual?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>3rd party payer<br>Which of the following describes an insurance carrier that pays the provider who rendered services to a patient?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Stark law<br>Which of the following prohibits a provider from referring Medicare patients to a clinical laboratory service in which the provider has a financial interest?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Electronic remittance advice<br>Which of the following electronic forms is used to post payments?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Remittance advice<br>For non-crossover claims, the billing &amp; coding specialists should prepare an additional claim for the secondary payer &amp; send it with a copy of which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>18%<br>When coding a front torso burn, which of the following percentages should be coded?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>block 21<br>Which of the following blocks of the CMS-1500 claim form indicates an ICD diagnosis code?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Billing provider<br>Which of the following national provider identifiers (NPIs) is required from block 33A of a CMS-1500 claim form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>services require additional information<br>Which of the following causes a claim to be suspended?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Left upper quadrant<br>Which of the following terms is used to describe the location of the stomach, the spleen, part of the pancreas, part of the liver, &amp; part of the small &amp; large intestines?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Attach the remittance advice from the primary insurance along with the Medicaid claim.<br>Which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take when submitting a claim to Medicaid for a patient who has primary &amp; secondary coverage?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>17b<br>National provider #<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Signed release of information form<br>When a 3rd party payer requests copies of patient information related to a claim, the billing and coding specialists must make sure which of the following is included in the patient&#8217;s file?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Primary care provider<br>A patient who has an HMO insurance place needs to see a specialists for a specific problem. From which of the following should the patient obtain the referral?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Office inspector general<br>Which of the following organizations fights waste, fraud, and abuse in medicare and Medicaid?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The 3rd party payer reimburses the patient, and the patient is responsible for reimbursing the provider?<br>When submitting claims, which of the following is the outcome if block 13 is left blank?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The provider recieves payment directly from the payer<br>A billing &amp; coding specialists is reviewing a CMS-1500 claim form. &#8220;The assignment of benefits box&#8221; has been checked &#8220;yes&#8221;. The checked box indicates which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>0%<br>A bene<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>UROLOGIST<br>A <strong><em><strong><em>_________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> would be the provider who would perform an orchiopexy<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>EVALUATION AND MANAGEMENT CODES<br>The first section of the CPT manual is the <strong><em><strong><em>_________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ALLOWED AMOUNT<br><strong><em><strong><em>________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> means the amount of reimbursement an insurance payer and patient agrees to pay a provider.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>PLACE OF SERVICE<br>A billing and coding specialist should determine first, the <strong><em><strong><em>_________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> to determine an appropriate e\/m code.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>LOWER RIGHT QUADRANT<br>The appendix is located in the <strong><em><strong><em>_________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> of the abdomen.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>POLICY NUMBER<br>For a patient whose insurance coverage is from her partner, the <strong><em><strong><em>________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is required to bill her claim.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>V CODE<br>An exposure to tuberculosis requires a <strong><em><strong><em>__________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>GUARANTOR INFORMATION<br>A billing and coding specialist should use <strong><em><strong><em>___________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> when transmitting a claim for a minor without health insurance.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL<br>The <strong><em><strong><em>________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> investigates cases of fraud and prepares a referral for prosecution.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CLEAN CLAIM<br>An insurance claim is considered a <strong><em><strong><em>__________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> when further reviewed by the insurance company, is not necessary before submitting the claim.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>PERFORM INTERNAL AUDITS TO MONITOR THE BILLING PROCESS<br>A billing and coding specialist should ____________________________________________to identify areas of risk associated with billing compliance.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE BODY MAINTAINS NORMAL BALANCE AND FUNCTION<br>When <strong><em><strong><em>_______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>, then it is said to be in a state of homeostasis.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ANSI ASC X12 837<br>The <strong><em><strong><em>_______________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is an example of an electronic claim format.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>PATIENT&#8217;S DEDUCTIBLE<br>The ___________________________________information is included in an electronic remittance advice.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>EXCISION<br>The provider performed an <strong><em><strong><em>_________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> if a lesion needed to be removed with no pathology report and the billing and coding specialist is coding from the integumentary system.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SHOULD EMAIL AN ELECTRONIC FILE FORMAT OF THE SUPPORTING DOCUMENT<br>If a supporting document is to be submitted to the payer for a particular electronic claim the coding and billing specialist <strong><em><strong><em>_____________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL (OIG)<br>The ________________________________is tasked to conduct investigations and audits regarding patient privacy violations.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SERVICE FACILITY LOCATION<br>On the CMS 1500 form the provider&#8217;s name and address should be placed in the block for _______________________________________by the billing and coding specialist filling out the form for a satellite office.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CPT CODING MANUAL<br>The code 99214 place in the CMS 1500 form is found in the <strong><em><strong><em>_______________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> .<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>WORLD HEALTH ORGANIZATION<br>The ICD codes were initiated by the <strong><em><strong><em>___________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>E000<br>The supplemental classification of causes of injury and poisoning begins with the alphanumeric codes <strong><em><strong><em>____________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ABN FORM<br>The <strong><em><strong><em>__________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is required for a Medicare non-covered procedure.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE PAYMENT AMOUNT EQUALS THE BILLED AMOUNT<br>In an explanation of benefits (EOB), <strong><em><strong><em>_______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CALLING PATIENT BY INSURANCE NAME<br>The billing and coding specialist is allowed to make an incidental disclosure within HIPAA guidelines by <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ABN FORM<br>The patient signs an <strong><em><strong><em>____________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> when a -GA modifier is used on a patient claim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>NOTIFY THE PROVIDER<br>If an abuse occurs the billing and coding specialist should <strong><em><strong><em>____________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>MEDICAL NECESSITY<br>The code linkage in the charge capture process should be verified to ensure that there is <strong><em><strong><em>__________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>TO ASSIST PROVIDERS WITH PREVENTING HEALTH CARE FRAUD AND ABUSE<br>The primary purpose of HIPAA is <strong><em><strong><em>___________________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>NAME OF REFERRING PHYSICIAN OR OTHER SOURCE<br>The <strong><em><strong><em>___________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> in the CMS 1500 form can be left blank and still result in a clean claim.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>INSURANCE CARD<br>During an initial visit, the <strong><em><strong><em>________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> of the patient should be collected.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CENTERS FOR MEDICARE AND MEDICAID SERVICES<br>The ________________________________________sets the standards applicable to private insurance through its proposed and final rules<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>EXPIRATION DATE<br>The release of Information form always includes the <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CREDIT COLUMN<br>When posting the payment to an account, an insurance payment should be recorded on the <strong><em><strong><em>__________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>STONE IN THE GALLBLADDER<br>Cholelithiasis is associated with <strong><em><strong><em>_________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> causing abdominal pain.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>DATE OF SERVICE<br>A billing and coding specialist working on an aging report within the payer area should sort next by <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>UNITS OF SERVICE<br>No data on the <strong><em><strong><em>_________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> could delay claim processing.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SUPERIOR<br>The terminology when coding a directional area is <strong><em><strong><em>___________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>RHINOPLASTY<br>A patient with nasal deformity undergoes <strong><em><strong><em>___________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE ADJUSTMENT AMOUNT IS $75<br>Office Visit allowed amount is $175. Co-payment is $15. The insurance paid $85. <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>KIDNEY STONES<br>Nephrolithiasis is associated with <strong><em><strong><em>________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>NPI OF THE PROVIDER WHO PROVIDED THE SERVICE<br>The <strong><em><strong><em>_______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is the billing provider NPI.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>DEDUCTIBLE<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is the amount that the patient is responsible for before insurance provides coverage.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>EXAMPLE OF EDI<br>An <strong><em><strong><em>_________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is the exchange of personal health information via a standardized format through computer systems.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>EXAMPLE OF FRAUD<br>An <strong><em><strong><em>_________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is when a service not undertaken or done in an appointment is billed to the insurance company.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>EMERGENCY ROOM CHARGES<br>Medicare Part B covers <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CLAIMS SHOULD BE MAILED<br><strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> if the practice management software is not able to transmit claims electronically.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>GASTROENTEROLOGIST<br>An endoscopy is performed by a <strong><em><strong><em>___________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE PAYMENTS SHOULD BE APPLIED<br>After the billing and coding specialist receives an EOB, <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AN INFECTION FOLLOWING A SNAKEBITE<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is coded using an E code.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AN EMANCIPATED MINOR<br><strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is a patient under 18 years who is qualified to sign a consent form.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AN EXAMPLE OF ABUSE<br><strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is billing a Medicare patient using a higher fee schedule than a non-Medicare patient.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>DHHS<br>The <strong><em><strong><em>_____________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is the government agency that has launched a website where consumers can find sources of public and private insurance coverage.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A RUNNING BALANCE<br>If several patients have outstanding balances of greater than 90 days, <strong><em><strong><em>_______________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> will determine the outstanding balances.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A CREDIT<br>A payment by the third party payer which is more than the estimated amount is entered as <strong><em><strong><em>__________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ADD THE REQUIRED INFORMATION AND RETRANSMIT THE CLAIM<br>If a service or procedure charge is denied by the insurance company, the billing and coding specialist should <strong><em><strong><em>____________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AT THE TIME THE APPOINTMENT IS MADE<br>The physician-patient impled contract begins <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>MM DD YYYY<br>The DOB format on the CMS-1500 form is <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>INSURANCE COMPANY FILE<br>When appealing for a claim, the contact information can be found in the <strong><em><strong><em>________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>RELEASE OF INFORMATION FORM<br>The _________________________________________________should be signed before the release of documentation to a third-party payer<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>HE\/SHE DOES NOT HAVE A PCP<br>If a new patient has a PPO, he\/ she should pay out-of-pocket if <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>COLLECTING INSURANCE INFORMATION<br>The first step in the life cycle of a claim is <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>OFFICE OUTPATIENT CLAIMS<br>The CMS-1500 claim form is used for <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>PROCEDURES ARE NOT MEDICALLY NECESSARY<br>Other than a processing error, claims can be denied because the <strong><em><strong><em>________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE NATIONAL CORRECT CODING INITIATIVE<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> publishes the coding rules for Medicare and Medicaid.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>123456789A<br>THe Medicare ID number 123456789A should be entered in Block 1a in the CMS-1500 form as: <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A PREAUTHORIZATION<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is needed for a sinus procedure with an HMO.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SHOULD SUBMIT A NEW CLAIM TO THE CORRECT INSURANCE CARRIER<br>When a patient is found ineligible and a denied claim is returned to the provider, the billing and coding specialist <strong><em><strong><em>____________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>MANAGED CARE CONTRACT<br>If a third-party payer is awarded a <strong><em><strong><em>___________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> by the CMS, a provider can submit a claim to this third-party payer.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ENTERING ALL INFORMATION IN UPPERCASE LETTERS<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is the appropriate way to key in information in a form for ICR scanning.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AN OBSTETRICIAN<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> provides patient care for a full-term delivery of a healthy infant.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>TO FIND THE MAIN TERM IN THE DIAGNOSTIC STATEMENT LOCATED IN VOLUME 2<br>The most direct way of looking up an ICD code is <strong><em><strong><em>_________________________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>POLICY NUMBER<br>The field &#8220;Insureds ID Number&#8221; in the CMS-1500 form is <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>INSURANCE CLAIMS REGISTER<br>The billing and coding specialist should use an <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> to keep track of the status of each claim that is billed.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>FEWER ERRORS AND DENIALS<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is one advantage of electronic claims.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE PATIENT&#8217;S PRIVATE INSURANCE<br>A patient who was injured while working as a subcontractor should file a claim with <strong><em><strong><em>_________________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>MEMBER CONTRACT<br>After the CMS-1500 form, the next most important source of financial information about a patient is the <strong><em><strong><em>_______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ASSIGNMENT OF BENEFITS<br>A patient should sign the <strong><em><strong><em>__________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> so the provider can be paid.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>IF SERVICES WERE NOT PREAUTHORIZED<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>, a Medicare form may be denied.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>12 MONTHS FROM THE DATE OF SERVICE<br>Medicare claims should be submitted within <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE OFFICE OF WORKER&#8217;S COMPENSATION<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is a state-mandated third-party payer.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CONTACT THE INSURANCE PAYER<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> to verify a patient&#8217;s co-payment amount.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>TRENDS OF NONPAYMENT BY THE INSURANCE PAYER<br>The aging report also informs the billing and coding specialist <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> aside from immediate claims pending.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>TYPE OF PAYER<br>Aging reports should be sorted out by <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>STANDARD, EXTRA, AND PRIME<br>The three types of plans covered under TRICARE programs are_________________________________.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AMBULATORY CARE CENTER<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is where a patient undergoes a surgical procedure and returns home the same day<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AN INFORMED CONSENT<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is required before an appendectomy is performed.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AN AGING REPORT<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is used to review and track balances from an insurance company by date of service.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A REVIEW BY THE OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL<br>A provider committing abuse could result in <strong><em><strong><em>_____________________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>VERIFY THE COORDINATION OF BENEFITS<br>If a balance remains on a patient&#8217;s account who has insurance from her employer and from her spouse, the billing and coding specialist should <strong><em><strong><em>___________________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE RECOVERY AUDIT CONTRACTORS<br>____________________________________________________work with the CMS to prevent overpayment.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AN OMISSION OF THE DIAGNOSIS CODE<br><strong><em><strong><em>________________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> in the claim form can prevent a clean claim.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SHOULD DISCUSS POTENTIAL CODING PROBLEMS WITH THE PROVIDER AT LEAST ONCE A YEAR.<br>To prevent fraud and abuse, a billing and coding specialist_________________________________________.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE REMITTANCE ADVICE (RA)<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> contains the information regarding payments received for the dates of service provided.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE DEDUCTIBLE<br>On the first office visit of the year, <strong><em><strong><em>__________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> should be collected first from the patient.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>HMO<br>A provider accepts pre-established payments from an <strong><em><strong><em>________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>LOW BLOOD OXYGEN LEVEL<br>A bluish discoloration of the skin is usually associated with <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CPT AND ICD CODES<br>To process a medical claim, the______________________ are always required.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A RETROSPECTIVE AUDIT<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is performed after a payment is sent to a third-party payer.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>INDIVIDUAL HEALTH INSURANCES<br>Medicaid Medicare and Tricare are examples of <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>COMPLETE THE CMS-1500 WITH A COMPUTER<br>When submitting a hard copy of the CMS-1500 form <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>BLOCK 24J OF THE CMS-1500 FORM SHOULD BE LEFT BLANK<br>If a provider does not have an NPI, <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>FAMILY OF ACTIVE DUTY SERVICE PERSONNEL<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is eligible for TRICARE Prime.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SHOULD BE ENTERED AS A WRITE OFF<br>If the patient&#8217;s payment is uncollectible, the amount <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> on the patient&#8217;s ledger.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE E CODE ON ACCIDENT DUE TO NATURAL AND ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> should be used to code a patient&#8217;s fall in his yard at home and consequently breaks his arm.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>USE OF AN INSURANCE CLAIMS REGISTER<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> ensures that all claims are being submitted and received.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>TABULAR LIST OF DISEASES<br>The final ICD code is chosen from the <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>TO MONITOR CODING ACCURACY<br>Clearinghouse audits of medical records by insurance carriers are used <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ENDOCRINOLOGIST<br>A patient with thyroid issues should be referred to an <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> .<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>DURING THE GLOBAL PERIOD<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> all services related to a surgical procedure or not additionally reimbursed under CPT guidelines.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CURRENT PROCEDURAL TERMINOLOGY<br>The healthcare common procedure coding system (HCPCS) manual includes the <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>PATIENT IS RESPONSIBLE FOR $40<br>Provider billed Medicare for $360. The allowable amount is $200. <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>EXCLUSIONS<br>Some third party payers withhold from coverage <strong><em><strong><em>___________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE PROVIDER RECEIVES THE PAYMENT<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> when the patient signs the assignment of benefits block on the CMS-1500 form<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE BILLING AND CODING SPECIALIST SHOULD CODE THE RIGHT TIBIA FRACTURE SECOND<br>A patient has a right tibia fracture and receives a cast upon x-ray the patient is also diagnosed tumor on his right patella patient is admitted to the facility for further treatment. <strong><em><strong><em>___________________________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE INSURANCE CARRIER WILL DENY THE CLAIM<br>If a provider continues with a patient&#8217;s appointment despite an expired pre-authorization, <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>PREDETERMINATION<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is the process a payer to determine if a claim should be paid.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AN ADD ON CODE<br><strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is indicated buy a + sign per CPT-4 coding conventions.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>VALID FOR A MAXIMUM OF 90 DAYS<br>A patient&#8217;s authorization for release of information is <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SUPPLEMENTAL DIAGNOSIS CODE<br>The V code is a <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>THE NEXT STEP IS TO FILE AN APPEAL<br>When a claim is denied, <strong><em><strong><em>______________________________________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>FLASH SYMBOL<br>THE _______________IS USED FOR PROCEEDURES WHICH ARE PENDING FDA APPROVAL<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>FIRST LISTED DIAGNOSIS<br>IN THE OUTPATIENT SETTING ____________IS USED<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medical Ethics<br>Standards of conduct based on moral principals. Acting within ethical behavior boundries means carrying out one&#8217;s responsibilities with integrity, decency, respect, honesty, competence, fairness and trust.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Compliance Regulations<br>Most billing related cases are based on HIPAA and the False Claims Act.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>HIPAA is an acronym for<br>Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Category 1 CPT codes<br>Medical Procedures.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Category 2 CPT codes<br>Supplemental Codes for Performance Measures.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Category 3 CPT codes<br>Emerging Technologies.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Add on Codes<br>Used for procedures that are always performed during the same operative session, as another surgery in addition to the primary service\/procedure and is never performed separately.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Anesthesia is found<br>00100-01999, 99100-99140.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Evaluation and Management (E&amp;M) codes<br>Are listed first in the CPT manual because they are used by all the different specialties.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Brackets<br>Used to enclose synonyms, alternative wording or and explanatory phrase.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Bullets<br>Represents a new procedure or service code added since the previous edition of the manual.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Chief Complaint (CC)<br>The reason the patient came to see the physician.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Circle with a line through it (\ud83d\udeab)<br>Exemption from modifier 51.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CPT<br>Used to report services and procedures by physicians.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>E&amp;M codes<br>99201-99499<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Guidelines are found<br>At the beginning of each section and used to provide specific coding rules for that section.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>History (HX)<br>The set of information the physician gathers from the patient concerning his\/her past.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>History of Present Illness (HPI)<br>A chronological account of the development of the complaint from the first sign or symptom that the patient experienced to the present.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Indented Codes<br>Listed under associate and stand alone codes.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>E Codes<br>For durable medical equipment for use in home.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Level 1 codes<br>Codes found in the CPT manual.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Level 2 codes<br>National codes for the physician and non-physician service not found in the CPT Level 1.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Level 3 codes<br>Used locally or regionally and have been eliminated by the CMS since the implementation of HIPAA.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The List of Modifiers is found where in the CPT<br>Appendix A and in the front of the book.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Modifier 50<br>Bilateral procedure.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Modifier 24<br>Attach to E\/M service code when service is provided during postoperative period to indicate that the service is not part of postoperative care and not included in the Surgical Package.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Modifier 26<br>Provider only provided the professional component.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Modifier 51<br>Used more than one procedure during the same surgical episode.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Modifier 57<br>Modifier 57 is used on E\/M services the day before or day of major surgery when the initial decision to perform the surgery is identified.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Modifier 78<br>Physician must return to Operating Room to address complication stemming from initial procedure.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Modifier 79<br>Procedure or service provided during postoperative period not associated with initial procedure.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Modifiers<br>Reporting indicators that indicate that the procedure or service has been altered by specific circumstance but has not changed in it&#8217;s definition of code.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Parentheses<br>Used to enclose supplementary words, non-essential modifiers.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Past, Family and Social History (PFSH)<br>Consists of patients personal experiences with illnesses, surgeries, and injuries; Information of illnesses predominant in family&#8217; Patients educational background, occupation, marital status and other factors.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pathology and Laboratory<br>80048-89356.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Plus sign indicates (\u2795)<br>Add on codes.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Radiology<br>77010-79999.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Review of Symptoms (ROS)<br>Inventory of the constitutional symptoms regarding the various body systems.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Stand Alone Codes<br>Contain full description to the procedure for a code.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Sideways triangle means ( \u25b6\ufe0f )<br>Change in wording between triangles.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Bullet means<br>New procedure codes.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Circle with a line through it means<br>Modifier 51 exempt code.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Six sections of CPT<br>E&amp;M, Anatomical Site, Condition or Disease, Synonym or Eponym, Abbreviation.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Three Components for E&amp;M Codes<br>1.History, 2.Physical Exam, and 3.Medical Decision-Making.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Three Categories for E&amp;M Codes<br>Category I: Procedures that are consistent with contemporary medical practice and are widely performed. Category II: Supplementary tracking used for performance measures. Category III: Temporary codes for emerging technology, services and procedures.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>4 contributing factors for E&amp;M Codes<br>New or existing patient, History, Physical Exam, Medical Decision making, Time spent can be a 5th factor.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Part A<br>Part A is hospital insurance provided by Medicare. Most people do not pay a premium for this coverage.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Part B<br>Part B is medical insurance to pay for medically necessary services and supplies provided by Medicare. (Doctors, Outpatient care, Physical and Occupational Therapist, etc.)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Part C<br>Part C is the combination of Part A and B. The main difference in Part C is that it is provided through private insurance companies approved by Medicare.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Part D<br>Part D is stand-alone prescription drug coverage insurance.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicaid<br>Free or low-cost health insurance coverage through the state.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicaid categorically needy<br>A distinction for individuals who fall into a specific category (or criteria) of mandatory Medicaid eligibility established by the federal government. These categories apply to every state Medicaid program.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicaid Medically Needy<br>Provide Medicaid to certain groups not otherwise eligible for Medicaid, must cover: \u25aa\ufe0fPregnant women \u25aa\ufe0fChildren under 18: States have option to cover: \u25aa\ufe0fChildren up to 21 \u25aa\ufe0f Parents and other caretaker relatives \u25aa\ufe0f Elderly \u25aa\ufe0f Individuals with disabilities.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Who is the Payer of Last Resort<br>Medicaid is always the payer of last resort.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Tricare<br>Health care program for Uniformed Service members, retirees and their families.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Tricare Standard<br>Option that provides the most flexibility to TRICARE-eligible beneficiaries. It is the fee-for-service option that gives beneficiaries the opportunities to see any TRICARE-authorized provider.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Tricare Extra (PPO)<br>A preferred provider option, rather than an annual fee, a yearly deductible is charged. Health care is delivered through a network of civilian health care providers who accept payments from CHAMPUS and provide services at negotiated, discounted rates.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Tricare Prime (HMO)<br>An HMO type plan in which enrollees receive health care through a Military Treatment Facilities PCM or a supporting network of civilian providers.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CHAMPVA<br>Comprehensive health care program in which the VA shares the cost of covered health care services and supplies with eligible beneficiaries.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Private payer vs Commercial payer<br>Private individuals are responsible for securing their own health insurance coverage. Commercial Government, Employer, Group health insurance coverage.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Group Health Plans<br>An insurance plan that provides healthcare coverage to a select group of people. Group health insurance plans are one of the benefits offered by many employers. These are generally uniform in nature, offering the same benefits to all members of group.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Indemnity Insurance<br>Health indemnity insurance is a fee for service insurance that is sometimes used when a person is in between health plans, and will cover some (but not all) expenses.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>HMO<br>Health Maintenance Organization. A form of health insurance combining a range of coverages in a group basis. A group of doctors and other medical professionals offer care through the HMO for a flat monthly rate with no deductibles.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>PPO<br>PPO is similar to an HMO, but care is paid for as received instead of in advance in form of a schedule. PPOs may offer more flexibility by allowing for visits to out-of-network professionals. Visits within network require only the payment of a small fee.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Point of Service<br>Feature of an insurance plan that allows a patient to choose between in-network care and out-of-network care every time he or she sees a doctor. The patient is allowed the freedom to go to whichever doctor is most convenient, although the cost will vary.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Disability Insurance<br>Policyholder becomes incapable of working.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Workman&#8217;s Comp<br>Workman&#8217;s compensation is a job benefit that provides money and services to employees that are injured or become sick on the job. Woker&#8217;s comp helps injured and sick workers to survive financially as they recover from health problems.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Usual Customary and Reasonable<br>Refer to the base amount that is treated as the standard or most common charge for a particular medical service when rendered in a particular geographic area.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Relative Value Payment Method<br>The payment amount for each service paid under the physician fee schedule is the product of three factors; a nationally uniform relative value for service; a geographic adjustment factor (GAF); a nationally uniform conversion factor for the service.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Resource Based Relative Value Unit (RVU) Payments\/Components<br>The schedule assigns certain values to procedures\/costs based upon Total RVUs. The total consists of three components; work, practice expense, and malpractice. Medicare adjusts payment by geographic price cost index (GPCI) and pays depending on locale.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Clean Claim<br>A completed insurance claim form submitted with the program time limit that contains all the necessary information without deficiencies so it can be processed and paid promptly.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Dirty Claim<br>A claim submitted with errors or one that requires manual processing to resolve problems or is rejected for payment.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Invalid Claim<br>Any Medicare claim that contains complete, necessary information but is illogical or incorrect (e.g., listing an incorrect provider member for a referring physician). Invalid claims re identified to the provider and may be resubmitted.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Rejected Claim<br>A rejected claim is an electronically submitted claim that is unprocessable due to missing or invalid information required by the payer.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ABN\/Advance Beneficiary Notice<br>A notice that a doctor, supplier, or provider gives a Medicare beneficiary before furnishing an item or service if the doctor, supplier, or provider believes that Medicare may deny payment.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Paper Claims\/CMS 1500<br>An insurance claim submitted on paper, including those optically scanned and converted to an electronic form by the insurance carrier.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Electronic Claim<br>An insurance claim submitted to the insurance carrier via a central processing unit (CPU), tape, diskette, direct data entry, direct wire, dial-in telephone, digital fax, or personal computer download or upload.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CMS 1500 Universal Claim Form<br>Developed by the AMA and the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS). Used by physicians and other professionals to bill outpatient services and supplies to Tricare, Medicare, some Medicaid programs and some private insurance\/managed care plans.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Basic Billing Reimbursement Steps<br>Patient Info, Verify Ins. Prepare encounter form, Code DX &amp; CPT, Review Linkage Protocol, Calculate physicians charges, Prepare claim, Transmit claim, Follow up on Reimbursement.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Review Linkage Protocol<br>Appropriateness of Codes, Payers rules about linkage, Documentation to support codes, Compliance with regulation and guidelines.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Life Cycle of a Claim<br>Submission, Processing, Adjudication, Non-covered, Unauthorized, Medical Necessity Checks, Payment\/RA\/ERA.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What does Mac stand for<br>Medicare Administrative Contractor<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Complication<br>&#8221; A condition that develops after, the outpatient care has been provided or during an inpatient admission.&#8221;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Comorbidity<br>&#8221; A concurrent condition that coexists with the first-listed diagnosis or principle diagnosis, has potential to affect treatment of the aforementioned diagnosis and is an active condition for which the patient is treated and\/or monitored.&#8221;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Preauthorization<br>The process by which the provider contacts the insurance carrier to see if the proposed procedure is covered by a specific patients insurance policy.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Accounts Receivable (A\/R)<br>Monies or Funds that are owed to the practice for services provided.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Accounts Payable (A\/P)<br>Monies being paid from the medical practice, for instance to pay for supplies, rent, utilities, payroll, etc.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Hypertension, Neoplasm, and Table of Drugs and Chemicals<br>What are the names of the three tables that appear in the Index to Diseases?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Remittance Advice<br>The explanation of payments received from the insurance company is often referred to or called the <strong><em><strong><em>__<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Balance Billing<br>Billing a patient for the difference between a higher usual fee and a lower allowed charge is called <strong><em><strong><em>__<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare<br><strong><em><strong>_<\/strong><\/em><\/strong> is the national health insurance program for Americans aged 65 and older.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicaid &#8220;payer of last resort&#8221;<br>A health-benefit program designed for low-income, blind, or disabled patients; needy families; foster children; and children born with birth defects.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the single largest healthcare program in the United States?<br>Medicare<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Affordable Care Act (ACA)<br>Signed into law in 2010, an act that resulted in improved access to affordable healthcare coverage and protection from abusive practices by healthcare insurance companies is what?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Guarantor<br>Person who is responsible for a patients debt is called?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medigap<br>Medicare beneficiaries can also obtain supplemental insurance called what?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What does Medigap do?<br>Helps cover costs not reimbursed by the original Medicare plan.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Subpoena<br>A writ requiring the appearance of a person at a trial or other proceeding is a <strong><em>_<\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When does the tertiary insurance pay?<br>After the primary and secondary insurers.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Health Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS)<br>A numeric and alphabetic coding system used for billing\/pricing of procedures, medical supplies, medications, and durable medical equipment (DME).<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)<br>A managed care organization that establishes a network of providers who care for their patients is called a\/an <strong><em><strong>_<\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Clearinghouse<br>A group that takes nonstandard medical billing software formats and translates them into the standard Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) formats is called a\/an?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Deductible<br>The out-of-pocket payment amount that a policyholder must meet before insurance covers the service(s) is called?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>National Provider Identifier (NPI) number<br>A unique 10-digit number assigned to providers in the U.S. to identify themselves in all HIPAA transactions.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is a capitation?<br>A payment structure in which a health maintenance organization prepares an annual set fee per patient to a physician.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Copayment<br>A fixed fee collected at the time of the patient&#8217;s visit.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coinsurance<br>A fixed percentage of covered charges applied to the patients bill after the deductible has been met.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Premium<br>The charge for keeping the insurance policy in effect.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Abuse<br>Coding and billing that is inconsistent with typical coding and billing practices.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How does HIPAA define fraud?<br>An intentional deception of misrepresentation.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Intent<br>&#8220;The difference between fraud and abuse is <strong><em>__<\/em><\/strong>.&#8221;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes<br>Numeric codes developed by the American Medical Association (AMA) to standardize medical services and procedures.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Is abuse intentional?<br>No<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Roster Billing<br>What simplified process was developed to enable Medicare beneficiaries to participate in mass pneumococcal pneumonia virus (PPV) and influenza virus vaccination programs offered by public health clinics.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claimant<br>A person filing an appeal is called?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Liability Insurance<br>Covers injuries caused by insured that occurred on the insured&#8217;s property.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Remittance Advice (RA)<br>A detailed accounting of the claims for which payment is being made by an insurance company. The <strong>__<\/strong> accompanies the payment from the insurance company.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Assignment of Benefits<br>Authorization by a policyholder that allows a payer to pay benefits directly to a provider is called?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Inpatient<br>A\/An <strong><em>_<\/em><\/strong> is a person admitted to a hospital or long-term care facility (LTCF) for treatment with the expectation that the patient will remain in the hospital for a period of 24 hours or more.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is confidentiality?<br>Involves restricting patient information access to those with proper authorization and maintaining the security of patient information.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Principal diagnosis<br>The first listed diagnosis can also be referred to as <strong>__<\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Participating Providers<br>Physicians who enroll in managed care plans are called <strong>__<\/strong>. They have contracts with Managed Care Organizations (MCO)s that stipulate their fees.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Compliance Plan<br>A formal, written document that describes how the hospital or physician&#8217;s practice ensures rules, regulations, and standards that are being followed is known as a\/an <strong><em>_<\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The Medicare Catastrophic Coverage Act of 1988<br>What act mandated the reporting of ICD-9-CM diagnosis codes?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Electronic Data interchange (EDI)<br>Transmitting electronic medical insurance claims from providers to payers using the necessary information systems is called <strong><em>_<\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Malignant<br>&#8220;A severe form of hypertension with vascular damage and a diastolic pressure reading of 130 mm hg or greater.&#8221;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Benign<br>&#8220;Mild and\/or controlled hypertension, with no damage to the patient&#8217;s vascular system or organs.&#8221;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Unspecified<br>&#8220;No notation of benign or malignant status is found in the diagnosis or in the patient&#8217;s chart.&#8221;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Comorbidities and Complications<br>For Inpatient coding, the initials CC mean?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Insurance<br>What does policy mean?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Payer<br>A person who receives a check in payment is the <strong><em>_<\/em><\/strong>.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Policyholder<br>Insurer\/Insured, Subscriber, Member, Recipient are all terms that apply to the?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>True or False, Preferred Provider Organizations (PPO)s never allow members to receive care from physicians outside the network.<br>False, Policyholders may choose to go out of network, but the may have to pay greater expenses.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Confidential<br>Everything a medical claims specialist learns about a patient&#8217;s condition must remain.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following electronic forms is used to post payments?<br>Electronic remittance advice (ERA)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>If a clean claim is received March 1 of this year, which of the following is the allowable last day of payment in order to meet Medicare compliance requirements?<br>March 30<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Threading a catheter with balloon into a coronary artery and expanding it to repair arteries describes which of the following procedures?<br>Angioplasty<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The authorization number for a service that was approved before the service was rendered is indicated in which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form?<br>Block 23<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks of the CMS-1500 claim form indicates an ICD diagnosis code?<br>Block 21<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient who has an HMO insurance plan needs to see a specialist for a specific problem. From which of the following should the patient obtain an referral?<br>Primary Care Provider<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider surgically punctures through the space between the patient&#8217;s ribs using an aspirating needle to withdraw fluid from the chest cavity. Which of the following is the name of this procedure?<br>Pleurocentesis<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following standardized formats are used in the electronic filing of claims?<br>HIPAA standard transactions<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form is used to accept assignment of benefit?<br>Block 27<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>On the CMS-1500 claim form, blocks 14 through 33 contain information about which of the following?<br>The patient&#8217;s condition and the provider&#8217;s information<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The explanation of benefits states the amount billed was $80. The allowed amount is $60, and the patient is required to pay a $20 copayment. Which of the following describes the insurance check amount to be posted?<br>$40<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following should a billing coding specialist use to submit a claim with supporting documents?<br>Claims Attachment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When reviewing an established patient&#8217;s insurance card, the billing and coding specialist notices a minor change from the existing card on file. Which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take?<br>Photo copy both sides of the card<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following accurately describes code symbols found in the CPT manual?<br>A product pending FDA approval is indicated as a lightning-bolt symbol<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following Medicare policies determines if a particular item or service is covered by Medicare?<br>National Coverage Determination (NCD)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following options is considered proper supportive documentation for reporting CPT and ICD codes for surgical procedures? *<br>Operative report<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is an example of a remark code from an explanation of benefits document?<br>Contractual allowance<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following forms should the billing and coding specialist transmit to the insurance carrier for reimbursement of inpatient hospital services?<br>UB-04<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A claim is denied due to termination of coverage. Which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take next?<br>Follow up with the patient to determine current name, address, and insurance carrier for resubmission<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following national provider identifiers (NPIs) is required in Block 33a of a CMS-1500 claim form?<br>Billing provider<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a reason a claim would be denied?<br>Incorrectly linked codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The unlisted codes can be found in which locations in the CPT manual?<br>The guidelines prior to each section<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When the remittance advice is sent from the third-party payer to the provider, which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist perform first?<br>Ensure proper payment has been made<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following symbols indicates a revised code?<br>Triangle<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following terms is used to describe the location of the stomach, the spleen, part of the pancreas, part of the liver, and part of the small and large intestines?<br>Left Upper Quadrant<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When coding a front torso burn, which of the following percentages should be coded?<br>18%<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is true regarding Medicaid eligibility?<br>Patient eligibility is determined monthly<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes a key component of an evaluation and management service?<br>History<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is considered fraud?<br>The billing and coding specialist unbundles a code to receive higher reimbursement<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is an example of Medicare abuse?<br>Charging Excessive fees<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following privacy measures ensures protected health information (PHI)?<br>Using data encryption software on office workstations<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following organizations fights waste, fraud, and abuse in Medicare and Medicaid?<br>Office of Inspector General (OIG)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A billing and coding specialist should routinely analyze which of the following to determine the number of outstanding claims?<br>Aging Report<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following parts of the Medicare insurance program is managed by private, third-party insurance providers that have been approved by Medicare?<br>Part C<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient&#8217;s st employer has not submitted a premium payment. Which of the following claim statuses should the provider receive from the third-party payer?<br>Denied<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks should the billing and coding specialist complete on the CMS-1500 claim form for procedures, services or supplies?<br>Block 24 D<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following forms does a third-party payer require for physician services?<br>CMS-1500<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following reports is used to arrange the accounts receivable from the date of service?<br>Aging Report<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following provisions ensures that an insured&#8217;s benefits from all insurance companies do not exceed 100% of allowable medical expenses? *<br>Coordination of Benefits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A physician&#8217;s office fee is $100 and the Medicare Part B allowed amount is $85. Assuming the beneficiary has not met his annual deductible, the office should bill the patient for which of the following amounts?<br>$85<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the diagnostic codes in Block 21?<br>These codes must correspond to the diagnosis pointer in block 24E<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes an insurance carrier that pays the provider who rendered services to a patient?<br>Third-party payer<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following formats are used to submit electronic claims to a third-party payer?<br>837<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following entities defines the essential elements of a comprehensive compliance program?<br>Office of Inspector General (OIG)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following causes a claim to be suspended?<br>Services require additional information<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A Medicare non-partcipating (non-PAR) provider&#8217;s approved payment amount is $200 for a lobectomy and the deductible has been met. Which of the following amounts is the limiting charge for this procedure?<br>$230<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>For non-crossover claims, the billing and coding specialist should prepare an additional claim for the secondary payer and send it with a copy of which of the following?<br>Remittance Advice<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>As of April 1, 2014, what is the maximum number of diagnoses that can be reported on the CMS-1500 claim form before a further claim is required?<br>12<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>On a CMS-1500 claim form, which of the following information should the billing and coding specialist enter into Block 32?<br>Service facility location information<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following best describes medical ethics?<br>Medical standard of conduct<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient has AARP as secondary insurance. In which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form should this information be entered?<br>Block 9<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A billing and coding specialist can ensure appropriate insurance coverage for an outpatient procedure by first using which of the following processes?<br>Precertification<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When a third-party payer requests copies of patient information related to a claim, the billing and coding specialist must make sure which of the following is included in the patient&#8217;s file?<br>Signed release of information form<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>In the anesthesia section of the CPT manual, which of the following are considered qualifying circumstances?<br>Add-on codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes the term &#8220;crossover&#8221; as it relates to Medicare?<br>When an insurance company transfers data to allow coordination of benefits of a claim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider performs an examination of a patient&#8217;s knee joint via small incisions and an optical device. Which of the following terms describes this procedure?<br>Arthroscopy<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following qualifies as an exception to the HIPAA Privacy rule?<br>Psychotherapy notes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient has laboratory work done in the emergency department after an inhalation of toxic fumes from a faulty exhause fan at her palce of employment. Which of the following is responsible for the charges?<br>Workers&#8217; compensation<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>If both parents have full coverage for a dependent child, which of the following is considered to be the primary insurance?<br>The parent whose birthdate comes first in the calendar year is the primary insurance holder<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes the organization of an aging report?<br>By Date<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions by the billing and coding specialist prevents fraud?<br>Performing periodic audits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A billing and coding specialist has four past-due charges: $400 that is 10 weeks past due; $800 that is 6 weeks past due; $1,000 that is 4 weeks past due; and $2,000 that is 8 weeks past due. Which of the following charges should be sent to collections first?<br>$2000<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a federal government health insurance program?<br>TRICARE<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient who is an active member of the military recently returned from overseas and is in need of specialty care. The patient does not have anyone designated with power of attorney. Which of the following is considered a HIPAA violation?<br>The billing and coding specialist sends the patient&#8217;s records to the patient&#8217;s partner<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following documentation is a valid authorization to release medical information to the judicial system?<br>Supoena duces tecum<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The EOB states the amount billed was $170. However, the allowed amount is $150. The patient has an unmet deductible of $50 and a copayment of $20. Which of the following amounts is the patient&#8217;s responsibility?<br>$70<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the primary function of the heart?<br>Pumping blood in the circulatory system<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is used to code diseases, injuries, impairments, and other health related problems?<br>ICD<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A husband and wife each have group insurance through their employers. The wife has an appointment with her provider. Which insurance should be used as primary for the appointment?<br>The wife&#8217;s insurance<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the deadline for Medicare claim submission?<br>12 months from the date of service<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following prohibits a provider from referring Medicare patients to a clinical laboratory service in which the provider has a financial interest?<br>Stark Law<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following terms refers to the difference between the billed and allowed amounts?<br>Adjustment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient is preauthorized to receive vitamin B12 injections from January 1 to May 31. On June 2, the provider orders an additional 6 month of injections. In order for the patient to continue with coverage of care, which of the following should occur?<br>The provider should contact the patient&#8217;s insurance carrier to obtain a new authorization<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The &#8220;&gt;&lt;&#8221; symbol is used to indicate new and revised text other than which of the following?<br>Procedure descriptors<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following pieces of guarantor information is required when establishing a patient&#8217;s financial record?<br>Phone number<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a HIPAA compliance guideline affecting electronic health records?<br>The electronic transmission and code set standards require every provider to use the healthcare transactions, code sets, and identifiers<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following would result in a claim being denied?<br>An italicized code used as the first listed diagnosis<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Urine moves from the kidneys to the bladder through which of the following parts of the body?<br>Ureters<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following sections of the SOAP note indicates a patient&#8217;s level of pain to a provider?<br>Subjective<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions by a billing and coding specialist would be considered fraud?<br>Billing for services not provided<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following HMO managed care services requires a referral?<br>Durable medical equipment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The billing and coding specialist should follow the guidelines in the CPT manual for which of the following reasons?<br>The guidelines define items that are necessary to accurately code<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following explains why Medicare will deny a particular service or procedure?<br>Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider&#8217;s office receives a subpoena requesting medical documentation from a patient&#8217;s medical record. After confirming the correct authorization, which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take?<br>Send the medical information pertaining to the dates of service requested<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is included in the release of patient information?<br>The date of last disclosure<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take when submitting a claim to Medicaid for a patient who has primary and secondary insurance coverage?<br>Attach the remittance advice from the primary insurance along with the Medicaid claim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following terms is used to communicate why a claim line item was denied or paid differently than it was billed?<br>Claim adjustment codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient who has a primary malignant neoplasm of the lung should be referred to which of the following specialists?<br>Pulmonary Oncologist<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes a two-digit CPT code used to indicate that the provider supervised and interpreted a radiology procedure?<br>Professional component<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>In 1996, CMS implemented which of the following to detect inappropriate and improper codes?<br>National Correct Code Initiative (NCCI)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following planes divide the body into left and right?<br>Sagittal<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A billing and coding specialist is preparing a claim form for a provider from a group practice. The billing and coding specialist should enter the rendering provider&#8217;s NPI into which of the following block on the CMS-1500 claim form?<br>Block 24J<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following would most likely result in a denial on a Medicare claim?<br>An experimental chemotherapy medication for a patient who has stage III renal cancer<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>On a remittance advice form, which of the following is responsible for writing off the difference between the amount billed and the amount allowed by the agreement?<br>Provider<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A billing and coding specialist submitted a claim to Medicare electronically. No errors were found by the billing software or clearing house. Which of the following describes the claim?<br>Clean Claim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the purpose of coordination of benefits?<br>Prevent multiple insurers from paying benefits covered by other policies<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following does a patient sign to allow payment of claims directly to the provider?<br>Assignment of Benefits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the maximum number of modifiers that the billing and coding specialist can report on a CMS-1500 claim form in block 24D?<br>4<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>In which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form should the billing and coding specialist enter the referring provider&#8217;s NPI?<br>block 17b<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following types of claims is 120 days old?<br>Delinquent<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medical Billing &amp; Coding as a Career<br>Claims assistant professional or claims manager, Coding Specialist, Collection Manager, Electronic Claims Processor, Insurance Billing Specialist, Insurance Coordinator, Insurance Counselor, Medical Biller, Medical &amp; Financial Records Manager, Billing &amp; Coding Specialist<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are Medical Ethics?<br>Standards of conduct based on moral principle. They are generally accepted as a guide for behavior towards pt&#8217;s, dr&#8217;s, co-workers, the gov, and ins co&#8217;s.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What does acting within ethical behavior boundaries mean?<br>carrying out one&#8217;s responsibilities w\/ integrity, dignity, respect, honesty, competence, fairness, &amp; trust.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Legal Aspects of of Medical Billing &amp; Coding:<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Compliance regulations:<br>Most billing-related cases are based on HIPPA and False Claims Act<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Health Insurance Portability &amp; Accountability Act (HIPPA)<br>Enacted in 1996, created by the Health Care Fraud &amp; Abuse Control Program-enacted to check for fraud and abuse in the Medicare\/Medicaid Programs and private payers<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are the 2 provisions of HIPPA?<br>Title I: Insurance Reform<br>Title II: Administrative Simplification<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is Title I of HIPPA?<br>Insurance Reform-primary purpose is to provide continuous ins coverage for worker &amp; their dependents when they change or lose jobs. Also Limits the use of preexisting conditions exclusions Prohibits discrimination from past or present poor health Guarantees certain employees\/indv the right to purchase new health ins coverage after losing job Allows renewal of health ins cov regardless of an indv&#8217;s health cond. that is covered under the particular policy.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is Title II of HIPPA?<br>Administrative Simplification-goal is to focus on the health care practice setting to reduce administrative cost &amp; burdens. Has 2 parts- 1) development and implementation of standardized health-related financial &amp; administrative activities electronically 2) Implementation of privacy &amp; security procedures to prevent the misuse of health info by ensuring confidentiality<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the False Claims Act (FCA)?<br>Federal law that prohibits submitting a fraudulent claim or making a false statement or representation in connection w\/ a claim. Also protects &amp; rewards whistle-blowers.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI)?<br>Developed by CMS to promote the national correct coding methodologies &amp; to control improper coding that lead to inappropriate payment of Part B health ins claims.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How many edits does NCCI include?<br>2: 1)Column 1\/Column 2 (prev called Comprehensive\/Component) Edits<br>2) Mutually Exclusive Edits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Column 1\/Column 2 edits (NCCI)<br>Identifies code pairs that should not be billed together b\/c 1 code (Column 1) includes all the services described by another code (Column 2)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Mutually Exclusive Edits (NCCI)<br>ID&#8217;s code pairs that, for clinical reasons, are unlikely to be performed on the same pt on the same day<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are the possible consequences of inaccurate coding and incorrect billing?<br>delayed processing &amp; payment of claims reduced payments, denied claims fine and\/or imprisonment exclusion from payer&#8217;s programs, loss of dr&#8217;s license to practice med<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Who has the task of investigate and prosecuting health care fraud &amp; abuse?<br>The Office of Inspector General (OIG)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Fraud<br>knowingly &amp; intentionally deceiving or misrepresenting info that may result in unauthorized benefits. It is a felony and can result in fines and\/or prison.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Who audits claims?<br>State &amp; federal agencies as well as private ins co&#8217;s<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are common forms of fraud?<br>billing for services not furnished, unbundling, &amp; misrepresenting diagnosis to justify payment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Abuse<br>incidences or practices, not usually considered fraudulent, that are inconsistent w\/ the accepted medical business or fiscal practices in the industry.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are examples of Abuse?<br>submitting a claim for services\/procedures performed that is not medically necessary, and excessive charges for services, equipment or supplies.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is a method use to minimize danger, hazards, &amp; liabilities associated w\/ abuse?<br>Risk Management<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Patient Confidentiality<br>All pt&#8217;s have right to privacy &amp; all info should remain privileged. Only discuss pt info when necessary to do job. Obtain a signed consent form to release medical info to ins co or other individual.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When may providers use PHI (Protected Health Information) w\/o specific authorization under the HIPPA Privacy Rule?<br>When using for TPO, Treatment (primarily for the purpose of discussion of pt&#8217;s case w\/ other dr&#8217;s) Payment (providers submit claims on behalf of pt&#8217;s) &amp; Operations (for purposes such as training staff &amp; quality improvement)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is Employer Liability?<br>Means physicians are legally responsible for their own conduct and any actions of their employees (designee) performed w\/in the context of their employment. Referred to as &#8220;vicarious liability. A.K.A &#8220;respondent superior&#8221;-&#8220;let the master answer&#8221;. Means employee can be sued &amp; brought to trial<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is Employee Liability?<br>&#8220;Errors &amp; Omissions Insurance&#8221;-protection against loss of monies caused by failure through error or unintentional omission on the part of the indv or service submitting the claim. ***Some dr&#8217;s contract w\/ a billing service (clearinghouse) to handle claims submission, &amp; some agreements contain a clause stating that the dr will hold the co harmless from &#8220;liability resulting from claims submitted by the service for any account&#8221;, means dr is responsible for mistakes made by billing service, errors &amp; omissions is not needed in the instance. *****However, if dr ever asks the ins biller to do the least bit questionable, such as write of pt&#8217;s balances for certain pt&#8217;s automatically, make sure you have a legal document or signed waiver of liability relieving you of responsibility for such actions.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is a Medical Record &amp; what is it comprised of?<br>documentation of the pt&#8217;s social &amp; medical history, family history, physical exam findings, progress notes, radiology &amp; lab results, consultation reports and correspondence to pt- Is the foremost tool of clinical care and communication.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is a medical report?<br>part of the medical record &amp; is a permanent legal document that formally states the consequences of the pt&#8217;s exam or treatment in letter or report form. IT IS THIS RECORD THAT PROVIDES INFO NEEDED TO COMPLETE THE INS CLAIM FORM.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Reasons for Documentation<br>Important that every pt seen by dr has comprehensive legible documentation about pt&#8217;s illness, treatment, &amp; plans for following reasons:<br>*Avoidance of denied or delayed payment by ins co investigating the medical necessity of services<br>*Enforcement of medical record-keeping rules by ins co requiring accurate documentation that supports procedure &amp; diagnosis codes.<br>*Subpoena of medical records by state investigators or the court for review<br>*Defense of professional liability claim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Retention Of Medical Records<br>Is governed by state &amp; local laws &amp; may vary from state-to-state. Most dr are required to retain records indefinitely, deceased pt records should be kept for @ least 5 years<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Med Term<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Diagnosis suffixes:<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-algia<br>pain<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-emia<br>blood condition<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-itis<br>inflammation<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-megaly<br>enlargement<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-meter<br>measure<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-oma<br>tumor, mass<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-osis<br>abnormal condition<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-pathy<br>disease condition<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-rrhagia<br>bursting forth of blood<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-rrhea<br>discharge, flow<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-sclerosis<br>hardening<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-scopy<br>to view<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Procedural Suffixes:<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-centesis<br>surgical puncture<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-ectomy<br>removal, resection, excision<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-gram<br>record<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-graphy<br>process of recording<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-lysis<br>separation, breakdown, destruction<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-pexy<br>surgical fixation<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-plasty<br>surgical repair<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-rrhapy<br>suture<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-scopy<br>visual examination<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-stomy<br>opening<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-therapy<br>treatment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-tomy<br>incision, to cut into<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Common Prefixes:<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>a, an<br>without<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ante<br>before<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>anti<br>against<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>brady<br>slow<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>dys<br>painful, difficult<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>endo<br>inside, within<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>epi<br>upon, above<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>ex<br>out, out of<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>hemi<br>half, partial<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>hypo<br>below, deficient<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>infra<br>below<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>inter<br>between<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>neo<br>new<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>oligo<br>scanty, little<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>pan<br>all<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>para<br>beside<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>per<br>through<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>poly<br>many<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>pre<br>before, in front of<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>pseudo<br>false<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>sub<br>under<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>supra<br>above, beyond<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>tetra<br>four<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Common Root Words<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>arth<br>cartilage<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>cephal<br>head<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>cardi<br>heart<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>cholecyst<br>gall bladder<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>chondro<br>cartilage<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>colp<br>vagina<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>derm<br>skim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>enter<br>intestine<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>episi<br>vulva<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>gastro<br>stomach<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>gloss<br>tongue<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>hepato<br>liver<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>hyster<br>uterus<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>lapar<br>abdomen<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>lact<br>milk<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>lith<br>stone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>mast<br>breast<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>myo<br>muscle<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>nat<br>birth<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>oophor<br>ovary<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>oste<br>bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>pneum<br>lung<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>rhin<br>nose<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>salping<br>fallopian tubes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>stomat<br>mouth<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Directional Terms:<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Anterior, Ventral<br>front surface of the body<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Posterior, Dorsal<br>back side of the body<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Superior<br>above another structure<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Inferior<br>below another structure<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Proximal<br>near the point of attachment to the trunk<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Distal<br>far from the point of attachment to the trunk<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medial<br>pertaining to the middle of the body<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Lateral<br>pertaining to the side<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Frontal, Coronal<br>Vertical plane dividing the body into anterior &amp; posterior portions<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Sagittal<br>vertical plane dividing the body into right &amp; left sides<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Transverse, Cross-sectional<br>Horizontal plane dividing the body into upper &amp; lower portions<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Anatomy &amp; Physiology<br>A professional medical coder must have knowledge of anatomy &amp; physiology so that coding assignment is quick &amp; accurate.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the 1st body system for which medical procedures are described in the CPT manual?<br>The Integumentary System (the skin and it&#8217;s accessory organs) Integument means covering. It is a complex system of specialized tissues containing glands, nerves and blood vessels.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How much area does the skin cover?<br>an area of 22 sq ft (an average adult). It is the largest organ of the body<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the main function of the skin?<br>To protect the deeper tissues from excessive loss of minerals, heat &amp; water. It also provides protection form diseases by providing a barrier. It accomplishes its diverse functions w\/ assistance from the hair, nails and glands.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SEBACEOUS (OIL) GLANDS &amp; SUDDORIFERIOUS (SWEAT GLANDS)<br>produce secretions that allow the body to be moisturized or cooled.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How many layers to the skin?<br>3;<br>1) Epidermis (thin, cellular membrane layer that contains keratin)<br>2) Dermis (dense, fibrous, connective tissue that contains collagen)<br>3) Subcutaneous layer (thicker &amp; fatter tissue)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Hair, Nail &amp; Glands<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Hair<br>composed of tightly fused meshwork of cells filled w\/ hard protein called karatin. Has its roots in the dermis &amp; together w\/ their coverings, is called HAIR FOLLICES. Main function is to assist in regulating body temp. Holds heat when body is cold by standing on end &amp; holding a layer of air as insulation.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Nails<br>cover &amp; protect the dorsal surface of the distal bones of the fingers &amp; toes. Part that is visible is nail body, nail root is under skin @ the base of the nail and nail bed is the vascular tissue under the nail that appears pink when the blood is oxygenated or blue\/purple when it is oxygen deficient.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the moon like white area of the nail called?<br>lunula<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the eponychium?<br>the cuticle at the lower part of the nail sometime referred to as such<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SEBACEOUS GLANDS<br>located in the dermal layer of the skin over the entire body, expect for palm of hands and soles of feet. Secrete oily substance called SEBUM. SEBUM CONTAINS LIPIDS THAT HELP LUBRICATE THE SKIN &amp; MINIMIZE WATER LOSS. It is the overproduction of sebum during puberty that contributes to acne in some people<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>SUDDORIFEROUS GLANDS<br>sweat glands that are tiny, coiled gland found on almost all body surfaces. They are most numerous in the palms and soles of feet. Coiled sweat glands originate in the dermis and straighten out to extend up through the epidermis. Tiny opening at surface is called a PORE.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How many types of sweat glands?<br>2;<br>1) eccrine sweat glands (most common)<br>2) apocrine sweat glands (secrete orderless sweat)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What organ secretes hormones?<br>the adrenal glands, they secrete epinephrine &amp; steriods<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Integumentery Vocabulary<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Albino<br>deficient in pigment (melanin)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Collagen<br>structural protein found in the skin &amp; connective tissue<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Melanin<br>major skin pigment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Lipocyte<br>a fat cell<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Macule<br>discolored, flat lesion (freckles,, tattoo marks)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Polyp<br>benign growth extending from the surface of the mucous membrane<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Fissure-<br>groove or crack like sore<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Nodule<br>solid, round or oval elevated lesion more than 1 cm in diameter<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Ulcer<br>open sore on the skin or mucous membrane<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Vesicle<br>small collection of clear fluid; blister<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Wheal<br>Smooth, slightly elevated, edematous (swollen) area that is redder or paler than the surrounding skin<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Alopecia<br>absence of hair form areas where it normally grows<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Gangrene<br>death of tissue associated w\/ the loss of blood supply<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Impetigo<br>bacterial inflammatory skin disease characterized by lesion, pustules, and vesicles<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Multigravida<br>a pregnant woman who has had at least one previous pregnancy<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The Musculoskeletal System<br>includes bones, muscles &amp; joints. Acts as a framework for the organs, protects many of those organs, and also provides the body w\/ the ability to move<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are bones connected to one another by?<br>by fibrous bands of tissues called LIGAMENTS<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are muscles attached to the bone by?<br>tendons<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the fibrous covering of muscles called?<br>the fascia and the aricular cartilage, covers the end of many bones and serves as a protective function.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Bones<br>complete organs made up of connective tissue called OSSEOUS. Inner core of bones is comprised of HEMATOPOIETIC tissue. This is where the red bone marrow manufactures blood cells. Other parts of the bones are storage areas for minerals necessary for growth, ie; calcium and phosphorous<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How are bones categorized?<br>as belonging to either the AXIAL SKELETON or the APPENDICULAR SKELETON.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Axial Skeleton<br>consist of the skull, rib cage &amp; spine<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Appendicular Skeleton<br>made up of the shoulder, collar, pelvic, arm &amp; legs<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Long Bones<br>typically very strong, are broad at the ends and have large surfaces for muscle attachment. IE: HUMERUS &amp; FEMUR.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Short Bones<br>are small w\/ irregular shapes, they are found in wrist and ankle<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Flat Bones<br>are found covering the soft body parts, IE; SHOULDER BLADES, RIBS AND PELVIC BONES<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Sesamoid Bones<br>small, rounded bones that resemble a sesame seed. they are found near joints and increase the efficiency of muscles near a joint. IE, KNEE CAP<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The Axial Skeleton-Skull, Rib Cage, Spine<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Skull<br>made up of 2 parts, the cranium and the facial bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Cranium<br>includes following bones<br>*Frontal Bone- forms the anterior part of the skull &amp; forehead<br>*Parietal Bone- Forms the sides of the cranium<br>*Occipital Bone- forms the back of the skull, there is a large hole at the ventral surface in this bone, called the foramen magnum, which allows the brain communication w\/ the spinal cord<br>*Temporal Bone- forms the 2 lower sides of the cranium<br>*Ethmoid Bone- forms the roof of the nasal cavity<br>*Sphenoid Bones- anterior to the temporal bones<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Facial Bones<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Zygoma<br>cheekbone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Lacrimal Bones<br>paired bones at the corner of each eye that cradle the tear ducts<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Maxilla<br>upper jaw bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Mandible<br>lower jaw bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Vomer<br>bone that forms posterior\/inferior part of the nasal septal wall between the nostrils<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Palatine bones<br>Make up part of the roof of the mouth<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Spinal\/Vertebral Column<br>is divided into 5 regions from the neck to the tailbone. There are 26 bones in the spine &amp; are referred to as the VERTABRAE<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Cervical<br>Neck Bones<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Thoracle<br>Upper Back<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Lumbar<br>Lower Back<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Sacral<br>Sacrum<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coccygeal<br>Coccyx (tailbone)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Rib Cage<br>There are 12 pairs of ribs. The 1st 7 pairs join the sternum anteriorly through the cartilaginous attachments called COSTAL CARTILAGE. The TRUE RIBS #&#8217;s 1-7 attach directly to the sternum in the front of the body. The FALSE RIBS, #&#8217;s 8-10 are attached to the sternum by cartilage. Ribs 11 &amp; 12 are FLOATING RIBS, b\/c they are not attached at all<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The Appendicular Skeleton<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Upper Appendicular Skeleton<br>includes the shoulder girdle which is made up of the SCAPULA, CLAVICLE, &amp; UPPER EXTREMITIES<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Scapula<br>or shoulder blades are flat bones that help support the arms<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Clavicle<br>or collarbone, is curved horizontal bones that attach to the upper sternum at one end, these bones help stabilize the shoulder<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Upper Extremities<br>consist of the following:<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Humerus<br>upper arm bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Ulna<br>lower medial arm bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Radius<br>lateral lower arm bone (in line w\/ the thumb)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Carpals<br>Wrist bones, there are 2 rows of 4 bones in the wrist<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Metacarpals<br>the 5 radiating bones in the fingers. These are the bones in the palm of the hand.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Phalanges<br>finger bones, each finger has 3 phalanges, except for the thumb. The 3 phalanges are the proximal, middle and a distal phalanx. The thumb has a proximal and distal<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Lower Appendicular<br>can be divided into the pelvis and the lower extremities<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pelvis<br>superior &amp; widest bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Ischium<br>lower portion of the pelvic bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pubic Bone<br>lower anterior part of the bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Lower Extremeties<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Femur<br>thighbone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Patella<br>kneecap<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Tibia<br>shin<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Fibula<br>smaller, lateral leg bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Malleolus<br>ankle<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Tarsal<br>hind foot bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Metatarsal<br>midfoot bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Phalanx<br>toe bones, 14 in all (2 in great toe, 3 in each of the other toes)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Joints<br>parts of the body where 2 or more bones of the skeleton join. Different joints have different ROM (range of motion), ranging from no movement at all to full range of movement<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>No ROM<br>most synarthroses are immovable joints held together by fibrous tissue<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Limited ROM<br>amphiathroses are joints joined together by cartilage that is slightly moveable, such as the vertebrae of the spine or the pubic bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Full ROM<br>diathroses are joints that have free movement, Ball-and-socket joints (hip) and hinge joints (knees) are common diathroses joints (synovial joints)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Synovial Joints<br>free moving joints, are surrounded by joint capsules. Many of the synovial joints have BURSAE-SACS OF FLUID THAT ARE LOCATED BETWEEN THE BONES OF THE JOINT AND THE TENDONS THAT HOLD THE MUSCLES IN PLACE.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Muscles<br>Muscle is tissue comprised of cells. Have the ability to contract &amp; relax.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are the 3 different functions of the human muscles?<br>1) allow the skeleton to move<br>2) responsible for movement of organs<br>3) to pump blood to the circulatory cystem<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How are muscles attached to bones?<br>by strong, fibrous bands of connective tissues called tendons.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Muscle Actions<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Extension<br>to increase the angle of the joint<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Flexion<br>to decrease the angle of the joint<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Abduction<br>movement away from the midline<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Adduction<br>movement towards the midline<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Supination<br>turning the palm or foot upward<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pronation<br>turning the palm or foot downward<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Dorsiflexion<br>raising the foot, pulling the toes toward the shin<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Plantar Flexion<br>lowering the foot, pointing the toes away form the shin<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Eversion<br>turning outward<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Inversion<br>turning inward<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Protraction<br>moving a part of the body forward<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Retraction<br>Moving a part of the backward<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Rotation<br>revolving a bone around its axis<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Fractures<br>broken bone, most occur as a result of trama, however some disease such as cancer or osteoporosis can also cause spontaneous fractures. Can be classified as simple or compound. Simple fractures don&#8217;t rupture the skin as compound fractures split open the skin allowing for an infection to occur.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Communicated Fracture<br>the bone is crushed and\/or shattered<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Compression Fracture<br>the fractured area of the bone collapses on itself<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Colles Fracture<br>the break of the distal end of the radius at the epiphysis often occurs when the pt has attempted to break his\/her fall<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Complicated Fracture<br>the bone is broken and the ends are driven into each other<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Hairline Fracture<br>a minor fracture appears as a thin line on x-ray; and may not extend completely through the bone<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Greenstick Fracture<br>the bone is partially bent &amp; partially broken, this is a common fracture in children b\/c their bones are still soft<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pathologic Fracture<br>any fracture occurring spontaneously as a result of disease<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Salter-Harris Fracture<br>a fracture of the epiphyseal plate in children<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Sprains, strains and dislocation\/subluxation<br>SPRAIN is a traumatic injury to the joint involving the soft tissue, soft tissue includes the muscles, ligaments and tendons.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Strain<br>lesser injury, usually this is a result of overuse or overstretching<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Dislocation<br>is when the bone is completely out of place<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Subluxation<br>bone is partially out of joint<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Evaluations &amp; Management Review<br>The E&amp;M section include codes that pertain to the nature of the physicians work. Codes depend on type of service, pt status, and place where service was rendured. The E&amp;M section is divided into broad categories such as office visit, hospital visits, and consultations<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Basic Format of the levels of E&amp;M services<br>1) a unique code # is listed<br>2) the place &amp; type of service is specified<br>3) the content of the service is defined<br>4) the nature of the presenting problem(s) usually associated w\/ a given level is (are) described<br>5) time is typically specified in the descriptor of the code<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>New Patient<br>defined as one who has not received medical services w\/in the last 3 years<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Established Patient<br>defined as someone who has recieved medical services w\/in the last 3 years from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Chief Complaint<br>brief statement describing the symptom, problem, diagnosis, or condition that is the reason the pt seeks medical care<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How many Volumes to ICD manual?<br>3;<br>*Volume 1- Disease: Tabular List<br>*Volume 2- Disease: Alphabetic Index<br>*Volume 3- Procedures: Tabular list and Alphabetic Index<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Volume 1-Index to Diseases, Tabular List<br>contains the disease and condition codes and the descriptions, also contains the V codes and E codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Volume 2-Index to Diseases, Alphabetic Index<br>the is the alphabetic index of Volume 1; use this first then volume 1 to confirm codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Volume 3-Procedures<br>contains codes for surgical, therapeutic, and diagnosis procedures, used primarily in hospitals<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which volume(s) are used in the inpatient and outpatient settings (physician office)?<br>Volume&#8217;s 1 &amp; 2<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How to ensure you have chosen the correct code?<br>First locate the code in the alphabetic index (Volume 2) then cross-reference this code in the Tabular List (Volume 1)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Supplementary Classification Codes<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are V codes?<br>Supplementary Classification of Factors Influencing Health Status and Contact of Health Services-supplementary classification code used to identify health care encounters that occur for reasons other that illness or injury or to indentify pt&#8217;s whose illness is influenced by special circumstances or problems. Can be found in both Volume 1 &amp; Volume 2<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are circumstances when V codes are used?<br>*When a person who is not currently sick encounters health services for some specific reason such as to act as an organ donor or receive a vaccination. (IE; V59.3 is the code for donor of bone marrow)<br>*When a person w\/ a resolving disease or chronic condition presents for specific treatment of that disease or condition. (IE; V56.0 is used for extracorporeal dialysis)<br>*When a circumstance may influence the pt&#8217;s health status but is not a current illness (IE; V16.3 is used for family history of coronary artery disease)<br>*To indicate the birth status of a newborn (IE; V30.0 is uused for a newborn male born in the hospital by c-section)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are E codes?<br>Supplementary Classification of External Causes of Injury and Poisoning-supplementary classification codes used to describe the reason of EXTERNAL CAUSE of injury, poisoning and other adverse effects. Can be found in both Volumes ! &amp; 2.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What codes are used to classify environmental events, circumstances, and conditions as the cause of injury, poisoning &amp; other adverse effects and capture how the injury or poisoning happened, the intent and the place where the event happened?<br>E codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>\/When is the ICD manual updated<br>Annually, Usually in October<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How many chapters does the Tabular List(Volume 1) contain?<br>17; based on either body system or cause or type of disease<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What do the codes range from? (ICD-Volume 1)<br>001-999<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Chapters<br>are the main division on the ICS-9-CM, they are divided into secctions<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Sections<br>composed of a group of 3 digit categories representing a group of conditions or related conditions, they are divided into categories<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Categories<br>are composed of 3 digit codes representing a single disease or condition. the 3 digit code is used only if it is not further subdivided. There are about 100 category codes and most requires a 4th digit (subcategory code) Ex; 242<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Subcategories<br>provide a 4th digit code (one digit after the decimal point) which is more specific that category code (3 digit) in terms of causes, site, manifestation of the condition. This must be used in available. Ex; 242.0<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Subclassification<br>provides a 5th digit code which gives the highest specificity of description to a condition. Use of it is mandatory when available. A code not reported to the full # of digits required is invalid ex; 242.01<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Level of detail in coding<br>a category code is used only if it is not further subdivided. Where subcategory and subclassifaction codes are provided, their assignment is mandatory. A code is invalid if it has not been coded to the level of specificity required for that code.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Sequencing the diagnosis<br>the diagnosis, condition, or other reason for the encounter or visit shown in the medical record to be chiefly responsible for the services provided is listed first. Coexisting conditions that were treated or medically managed or influenced by the pt during the encounter are listed as additional codes. (Conditions that were previously treated and no longer exist are not coded.) If personal history or family history has an impact on current care or influence treatment, history code may be assigned as a secondary code<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Alphabetic Index (Volume 2)<br>Everything in the Index is listed by condition-that is, diagnosis, signs, symptoms, and conditions such as pregnancy or admission<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Nonessential Modifers<br>the main term may be followed by these in paranthesis, their presence or absences does not have an effect on the the selection of the code listed for the main term<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Essential Modifiers<br>Terms indented two spaces to the right below the main term called subterms. Are essential modifiers b\/c they have bearing on the right selection of the code.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Hypertension table<br>found in the Index under the main term &#8220;Hypertension&#8221; and it contains a list of conditions that are due to or associated with hypertension. The Table classifies the conditions as:<br>-Malignant; an accelerated sever form of hypertension w\/ vascular damage and a diastolic pressure of 130mmHg&gt;<br>-Benign; Mild or controlled hypertension &amp; no damage to the vascular system or organs<br>-Unspecified; This is not specified as benign or malignant in the diagnosis or medical record<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Neoplasm Table<br>this is located in the Index under the main term &#8220;Neoplasm&#8221; and is organized by anatomic site. Each site has 6 columns w\/ 6 possible codes determined by whether the neoplasm is malignant, benign, of uncertain behavior or of unspecified nature<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Describe the 6 columns of the neoplasm table<br>\u2026<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Malignant<br>further classified as to primary, secondary or carcinoma in situ<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Primary Malignancy<br>the original cancer site. Malignant tumors are considered primary unless documented as secondary or mastastic<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Secondary Malignancy<br>cancer that has metastasized (spread) to a secondary site either adjacent or remote region of the body<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Carcinoma (Ca) in Situ<br>cancer that is localized and has not spread to adjacent tissues or distant parts of the body<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Benign<br>noninvasive, non-spreading, nonmalignant<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Uncertain Behavior<br>uncertain whether benign or malignant, borderline malignancy<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Unspecified Nature<br>a neoplasm is identified; however, no nature of the tumor is documented in the diagnosis of the medical record<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Choose the code that represents the current status of the neoplasm<br>a neoplasm code is assigned if the tumor has been removed and pt is still receiving chemotherapy tx or radiation. A V code is assigned if the tumor is no longer present or if the patient is not receiving treatment, but is returning for follow-up care<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>3 sections to Alphabetic Index<br>Section 1) Index to diseases<br>Section 2) Table of drugs and chemical<br>Section 3) Index to External Cause of Injury (E Codes)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Section 1: Index to diseases<br>each term is followed by the code or codes that apply to that term<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Section 2: Table of Drugs and Chemicals<br>contains a list of drugs &amp; chemicals w\/ the corresponding poisoning code and E codes. The E codes are used to explain the circumstances surrounding the poisoning which may be:<br>-Accident: Poisoning was due to accidental overdose, wrong substance taken, accidents in use of drugs and biologicals, external causes of poisoning classifiable to 980-989<br>-Therapeutic Use: instances when a correct substance properly taken is the cause of an adverse effect<br>-Suicide Attempt: the poisoning was self-inflicted<br>-Assault: poisoning was inflicted by another person w\/ intent to kill or injury<br>-Understand: poisoning cannot be determined whether intentional or accidental<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Section 3: Index to External Cause of Injury (E codes)<br>this is the index for the E codes. It classifies in alphabetical order, environment events and other conditions as the cause of injury and other adverse effects.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Health Care Financing Administration Common Procedure Coding System<br>HCPCS Reference Manual<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Who assigns NPI#&#8217;s &amp; what are they?<br>The CMS assigns a standard unique identifier known as National Provider Identifier (NPI).<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Who developed HCPCS &amp; What is it?<br>The CMS developed Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) which is a collection of codes for procedures, supplies, products, and services that may be provided to Medicare\/Medicaid beneficiaries and also to those enrolled in a private health ins program. Codes are divided into 2 levels:<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Level I Codes<br>Consist of codes found in the CPT manual. They have five position numeric codes used to report physicians services rendered to patients.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Level II Codes (National Codes)<br>codes formulated thru the joint efforts of the CMS, the health insurance association of america, and the bcbs association.they are five position alpha-numeric codes for physician and non-physician services not found in the cpt(level 1), start w\/ a letter followed by 4 #&#8217;s and make up more than 2,400 5 digit alphanumeric codes divided into 22 sections, each covering a related group of items. Most of these items are supplies, materials or injections that are covered by medicare. Some codes are for physicians &amp; non-physician services not found in the CPT (Level I) Ex; E section is for the Durable Medical Equipment category which covers reusable medical equipment ordered by the physician for use in the home, such as wheelchairs or portable oxygen tanks.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Level III Codes<br>codes that were used locally or regionally have been eliminated by the CMS since the implementation of the HIPPA. Some of the codes are now in the Level II<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CPT<br>Current Procedural Terminology- codes from CPT code book used to report services and procedures by dr&#8217;s. The CPT coding system uses a 5 digit numeric system for coding services rendered by dr&#8217;s. Some codes use a 2 digit modifier to five a more accurate description of the services rendered<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Who publishes CPT and updates it?<br>The American Medical Association (AMA) and they update it annually withe a new one coming out each November &amp; becoming effective on January 1st of the following calender year<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Category I Codes<br>represents services and procedures widely used by many health care prof in clinical practice in multiple locations and have been approved by the FDA<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Category II Codes<br>supplemental codes used for performance measures. Although these codes are intended to facilitate data collection about the quality of care, their use is optional. Cat II codes are published twice a yr, Jan 1st and July 1st<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Category III Codes<br>temp codes for emerging technology, services and procedures. If a Cat III code is available, it is reported instead of Cat I unlisted code<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How many sections to the CPT Manual?<br>8; each section begins w\/ guidelines that provide specific coding rules for that section. Guidelines at the beginning of the section are applicable to all codes in the section, while notes that pertain to specific codes appear before or after such codes. Guidelines usually contain definitions of terms, applicable modifiers, subsection info, unlisted services, special reports of info, or clinical samples. The 8 sections are<br>1)Evaluation &amp; Management (E&amp;M) 2)Anesthesia 3)Surgery 4)Radiology 5)Pathology and Laboratory 6) Medicine 7) Category I codes 8)Category III codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What format does CPT coding system use and why?<br>Indented format, to save space<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>2 types of CPT Codes<br>*Stand Alone Codes; contain the full description of the procedure for the code<br>*Indented Codes- these are codes listed under associated stand-alone codes. To complete the the description for indented codes, one must refer to the portion of the stand alone code description before the semi-colon<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Other CPT Codes<br>*Add-on codes- used for procedures that is always performed during the same operative session as another surgery in addition to the primary service\/procedure and is never performed separately<br>*Modifiers-provide the means by which the reporting physician can indicate that a service or procedure that has been performed has been altered by some specific circumstance but not changed by the definition of the code<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How do you know if an update has been made to the CPT manual?<br>**A triangle- represents a change in the code description since the last edition. The change may be minor or significant and it could be an addition, deletion, or revision<br>**2 triangle symbols-represent changes in the text or definition between the triangles<br>**A bullet-represents a new procedure or service code added since the previous addition of the manual<br>**A plus sign-indicates add-on codes<br>**A circle w\/ a line through it- represents exemption from use of modifier<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How many parts to CPT Manual?<br>t3; the main text, the appendices and the alphabetic index and is divided into 6 sections; these sections are subdivided into<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Evaluation &amp; Management<br>99201-99499 (going to dr feeling 99% leave getting high 5)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Anesthesia<br>00100-01999, 99100-99140 (knocked out=0)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Surgery<br>10021-69990 (Surgery always want to feel 100%)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Radiology (including nuclear medicine and diagnostic ultrasound)<br>77010-79999 (RPM-789)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pathology and Laboratory<br>80048-89356 (RPM-789; P=8)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicine (except anesthesiology)<br>90281-99199, 99500-99602 (RPM-789, M=9)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Add-on codes<br>some procedures are carried out in addition to the primary procedure performed. Designated as &#8220;add-on&#8221; codes w\/ a &#8220;+&#8221; sign and they apply only to procedures performed by same dr to describe additional intra-service work provided. Are never used alone, rather they are always reported in addition to the primary procedure code. All add-on codes are modifier -51 (multiple procedures) exempt<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Location Methods<br>The CPT Index is arranged in alphabetic order by main terms which are further divided by subterms. There are 5 location methods;<br>1)Service or Procedure<br>2)Anatomic Site<br>3)Condition or Disease<br>4)Synonym\/Eponym<br>5)Abbreviation<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CPT Modifiers<br>these are 2 digit add-ons attached to regular codes to tell 3rd party payers of circumstances in which the services or procedures were altered. All modifiers are listed in CPT appendix A. Modifiers relevant to each of the CPT sections are also found in the section guidelines. One must use the modifier that depicts the circumstances most accurately.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-24 Unrelated E\/M Service by the same physician during a postoperative period<br>this is attached to the code of the E\/M service provided to a pt during the postop period to indicate that the service is not part of the postoperative care which is usually part of the package of services of the surgery performed. Major surgical procedures will usually have a postop period of 90 days, minor, 10 days. Used only w\/ E\/M codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-26 Professional Component<br>Most procedures have both professional (physician) and technical components. This modifier is attached to the procedure to indicate that the dr provided only the professional componenet<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-32 Mandated Services<br>used to indicate that the service provided was required by 3rd party payer, gov, legislative or regulatory body. this does not include second opinion requested by a pt, family member, or another physician<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-50 Bilateral Procedure<br>used when the same procedure is performed on a mirror-image part of the body<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-51 Mulitple Procedure<br>used when<br>-more than 1 procedure is performed in the same surgical episode<br>-one code does not describe all of the procedures performed<br>-the secondary procedure is not minor or incidental to the major procedure<br>Ex; same operation, different site, multiple operations, same operative session, *procedure performed multiple times<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-58 Staged or Related Procedure or Service by the same Physician during the Postoperative Period<br>used to explain that the procedure or service done during a postop period was planned at the time of the original procedure. also used if a therapeutic procedure is performed b\/c of the findings from a diagnostic procedure<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-78 Return to Operating Room for a Related Procedure During the Postoperative Period<br>to report a circumstance in which the dr returns to the operating room to address a complication stemming from the initial procedure (third party payers usually pay the surgery portion of the complications surgical package b\/c the pt remains in the postop period of the initial procedure. documentation must clearly indicate the reason for the return to the operating room)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>79 Unrelated Procedure or Service by the same physician during the postoperative period<br>used to indicate that the procedure or service provided during the postop period was not associated w\/ the period. payment for the full fee of the subsequent procedure is requested and a new global period starts<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-90 reference (outside) laboratory<br>used to indicate that the procedure was done by outside lab and not by reporting facililty<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>-99 Multiple Modifiers<br>used to report a procedure or service that has more than one modifier but the payer does not allow the addition of multiple modifiers to the code. is attached to the procedure code and the multiple modifier are listed in block 19 of claim form<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Evaluation and Management (E\/M Codes)<br>these are listed 1st in the CPT manual b\/c they are used by all different specialties. they cover physician services that are performed to determine the best course for pt care.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are the key components of E\/M?<br>a; history<br>-chief complaint<br>-History of present illness (HPI)<br>-review of systems (ROS)<br>-Past, family and social history (PFSH)<br>b;physical examination<br>c;medical decision making complexity<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Unlisted Procedures<br>Procedures considered experimental, newly approved, or seldom used may not be listed in the CPT manual. Can be coded as unlisted procedures. they are located at the end of the subsections or subheadings. when unlisted procedure code is reported must be described in the accompanying documentation<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Surgical Package<br>also called &#8220;global surgery&#8221; includes a variety of services rendered by a surgeon which includes the following:<br>-surgical procedure performed<br>-local infiltratration, metacarpal\/metatarsal\/digital block or topical anesthesia<br>-Preoperative E\/M services; on day immediately prior to the day of the procedure<br>-immediate postoperative care<br>-Normal, uncomplicated postop care<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is Health Insurance?<br>A contract between a policyholder (one who purchases the contract) and an insurance carrier to reimburse the policyholder of all or most medical expenses<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What 3 ways can an individual obtain health insurance?<br>1)Group Ins-when a group of employees &amp; their dependents are insured under 1 group policy issued to the employer. Generally the employer pays the premium or portion of premium and the employee pays the difference.<br>2)Personal Insurance- an insurance plan issued to an individual. premium rates are usually higher than group rates and service availability is lessened w\/ this type of coverage<br>3)Pre-paid health plan- pre-determined set of benefits covered under one set annual fee<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Indemnity Insurance<br>also known as a fee-for-service. under this plan, the services that are paid for are listed in the policy and payments are based on the physicians charge for the service. there are no restrictions as to the physicians or hospital the beneficiaries may use and pre-approval of medical visits are not required. Each yr the beneficiary must meet a deductible, after which the benefit may cover for all or part of the charge. Usually a co-insurance for each service applies<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>HMO<br>Health Maintenance Organization- managed care plan that provides wide range of services to individuals that are enrolled. Generally least costly but most restrictive. Uses a gatekeeper (primary care physician) whom the pt is required to visit initially for any case. If the pt goes to another physician w\/o prior approval pcp pt will be responsible for all costs. Physician-Hospital Organization is when physicians, hospitals, and other health care providers contract w\/ one or more HMO&#8217;s or directly w\/ employers to provide care.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>PPO<br>Preferred Provider Organization- basically same as HMO however PPO&#8217;s charge a higher premium than HMO&#8217;s in exchange for more flexibility &amp; more options for beneficiaries, No gatekeeper and pt choose dr they want to see as long as they are in network, if pt chooses to see dr not in network they will shoulder all costs.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>POS<br>Point-of-service- managed care plan that gives beneficiaries the option whom to see for service. If the beneficiary see provider w\/in network they will receive benefits similar to HMO but if they choose to see a provider not in the network, the POS will still pay for the services but at a rate significantly lower than the in-network dr and difference will be billed to pt<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Preferred Provider Plan<br>the type of plan a patient may have where they can see providers outside their plan, the pt is responsible for higher portion of the fee<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How is a fee schedule determined?<br>UCR method, the usual, customary, and reasonable- the carrier compare the dr&#8217;s most frequent charge for a given service (the usual) the average charge of all providers of similar training\/experience in a given geographical area (the customary) <em>the actual charge submitted on a claim (must be reasonable to the provider) <\/em>the lowest amount is used as the basis for payment (the allowed charge)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Relative Value Payment Schedule Method<br>involves the use of relative value scales which assign a relative weight to individual services according to the basis for the scale. Services that are more difficult, time consuming, or resource intensive to perform typically have higher relative values than other services<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare&#8217;s Resource Based Relative Vale Scale (RBRVS) Payment Schedule<br>under this schedule a procedure&#8217;s relative value is the sum total of 3 elements<br>1) Work; represents the amount of time, intensity of effort, and medical skill required of the dr<br>2) Overhead; practice costs related to the performing of the service<br>3) Malpractice: cost of medical malpractice insurance<br>-medical malpractice insurance that covers the insured only for those claims made while the policy is in force is called claims-made coverage<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How are payments determined under Medicare&#8217;s RBRVS?<br>by multiplying a code&#8217;s relative value by constant dollar amount called the conversion factor (multiplier). The conversion factors are determined annually by the CMS in cooperation with congress. The conversion factor varies according to the type of service provided such as medical, surgical, non-surgical<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A geographic practice cost index is applied to account for the economic variation across the different area of the country<br>true<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What % does Medicare pay?<br>80%<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What portion of services do the beneficiary pay?<br>20%, deductible, premiums, and for non-covered services<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The St. Anthony Relative Value for Physicians (RVP)<br>unlike the RBRVS the RVP has no geographical adjustment factor or individual RVU component to calculate. However, for each category of procedures, a separate conversion factor must be developed<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Contracted Rates w\/ MCO&#8217;s<br>physicians agree to provide services at a discount of their usual fee in return for a pool of existing pt&#8217;s<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Capitated Rates<br>the dr provides a full range of contracted services to covered pt&#8217;s for a fixed amount on a periodic basis. While guaranteed a fixed amount the dr assumes the risk that the cost of providing the care the pt&#8217;s may exceed the payment amount. the only additional charge may be a co-payment and a deductible co-insurance<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare<br>is the federall gov&#8217;s health ins program created by Social Security Act of 1965 titled &#8220;Health Insurance for the Aged &amp; Disabled&#8221; It is administered by the CMS, formally known as Health Care Financing Administration (HFCA)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Who is Medicare available to?<br>-persons aged 65 or older, retired on Social Security Benefits<br>-spouses of a person paying into the Social Security System<br>-those who received social security disability payments for 24 months<br>-those diagnosed w\/ end stage renal disease (ERSD)<br>-kidney donors to ERSD pt&#8217;s (all expenses related to kidney transplant are covered)<br>-retired federal employees of the Civil Service Retirement System (CSRS)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are Medicare Health Insurance Claim Numbers (HCIN&#8217;a)?<br>issued by CMS and are usually SS #&#8217;s with letter (alpha) or letter\/number (alphanumeric) suffixes.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Common Suffixes used by Medicare:<br>A-Wage earner (upon retirement)<br>B-Spouse of wage earner<br>C-Disabled Child<br>D-Widow<br>HaD- Disabled Adult<br>M- Part B benefits only<br>T- Uninsured and entitled only to health ins benefits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Part A<br>aslo called the Hospital Insurance for the Aged and Disabled. It covers institutional providers for inpatient, hospice, and home health services, such as the following<br>-a bed pt in a hospital<br>-pt&#8217;s in a pysch hospital<br>-bed pt&#8217;s in a nursing facility<br>-pt&#8217;s receiving home health care services<br>-terminally ill pt who has &lt;6 to live and needs hospice care<br>-terminally ill pt who needs respite care<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How do individuals that are not eligible for Social Security Obtain Medicare Part A?<br>By paying a premium and they must enroll in Part B this is however limited to applicants 65+ and US resident. A deductible is req for each episode of illness and a co-insurance applies for hospitalizations of more than 60 days<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Part B<br>referred to as Supplementary Medical Insurance (SMI). coverage is a supplement of Part A, which covers medical expenses, clinical lab services, home health care, outpatient hospital treatment, blood, and ambulatory surgical services.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What out of pocket costs for beneficiaries are associated w\/ Medicare part B?<br>Contains an annual deductible that must be met b4 benefits begin, beneficiaries pay 20% of the Medicare-approved amount for services after the deductible has been met. Premiums are usually deducted from the monthly SS check.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How are services paid to physicians associated w\/ Medicare Part B?<br>services are paid according to a fee schedule which is based on the relative value multiplied by the geographical adjustment and conversion factors. All dr&#8217;s in a given area are paid the same for same service regardless of specialization. However, non par&#8217;s are paid 5% less for assigned claims. Non PAR&#8217;s, not accepting assignment, can charge no more than 115% of the participating allowance w\/o facing possible Medicare fines and penalties.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Part C<br>Medicare Managed Care Plans (formally Medicare Plus (+) Choice Plan) was created to offer a # of healthcare services in addition to those available under Part A &amp; Part B. The CMS contracts w\/ managed care plans or PPO&#8217;s to provide Medicare benefits. A premium similar to Part B may be required for coverage to take affect<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare Part D<br>Prescription Drugs- enacted by the Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement and Modernization Act in Dec 2003 and began implementation in Jan 2006 where Medicare beneficiaries can enroll in the Medicare Prescription drug plan. the beneficiaries have the choice of among several plans that offer drug coverage for which they pay a monthly premium<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claim Status<br>Various terms are used to describe the state of submitted forms.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Clean Claim<br>has all required fields accurately filled out, contains no deficiencies and passes all edits, the carrier does not require investigation outside of the carrier&#8217;s operation before paying the claim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Dirty Claim<br>contains errors and omissions, usually these claims do not pass front end edits they are either processed manually for resolving problems or rejected for payment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Invalid Claim<br>contains complete necessary information but is incorrect or illogical in some way<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Rejected Claim<br>requires investigation and needs further clarification<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is an Advance Beneficiary Notice?<br>a document provided to a Medicare beneficiary by a provider prior to a service being rendered letting the beneficiary know of his\/her responsibility to pay if Medicare denies the claim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is Medigap?<br>Medicare Supplemental Insurance-to pay for medical services and items not covered by Medicare and Medicare&#8217;s coinsurance and deductible. Medigap is a private insurance designed to help pay for those amounts that are typically the pt&#8217;s responsibility under Medicare. there are several standard Medigap policies established by the federal gov w\/ the ins industry<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicaid<br>a federal program administrated by state gov to provide medical assistance to the needy, each state sets its own guidelines for eligibility and services, therefore benefits and coverage may very widely from state to state<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How is eligibility for Medicaid classified?<br>divided into 2 classifications<br>A) Categorically Needy: 1) families, pregnant women &amp; children 2) Aged and disabled persons 3) Persons receiving institutional or other long-term care in nursing facilities (NF&#8217;s) and intermediate care facilities (ICF&#8217;s)<br>B) Medically Needy: 1) medically indigent low-income and families 2)low-income persons losing employer health ins coverage (Medicaid purchase of COBRA purchase)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicaid is the payer of last resort<br>True<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicaid and Medicare (dual coverage)<br>if pt has Medicare and Medicaid, medicaid usually pays for the Medicare Part B deductible, coinsurance, and monthly premium amounts.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Some of the Services covered by Medicaid<br>-inpatient hospital services<br>-outpatient hospital services<br>-Physician services<br>-emergency service<br>-prenatal care<br>-vaccines for children<br>-cosmetics procedures necessitated by an injury (elective cosmetic procedures are not included)<br>-family planning and supplies<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Workers Compensation<br>is a state required ins plan, the coverage of which provides benefits to employees and their dependents for work related injury, illness or death. Each state has established minimum # of employees required before this laws comes into effect. Further, not all states offer WC plans<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Who covers cost of Workers Compensations?<br>employers pay for premiums, the amount of which will depend on the specific job, occupational category, and level of risks<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are the 5 types of benefits offered?<br>1) Medical treatment 2) Temporary disability 3) Permanent disability 4) Vocational rehabilitation 5) Death benefits for survivors<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Disability Insurance<br>defined as reimbursement for income and lost as a result of of a temporary or permanent illness or injury. When pt&#8217;s are treated for disability diagnosis and other medical problems, separate pt records must be maintained. Disability ins does not pay for healthcare services, but provides the disabled person w\/ financial insurance<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Liability Insurance<br>a policy that covers losses to a 3rd party caused by the insured, by an object owned by the insured, or on premises owned by insured. Liability ins claims are made to cover the cost of medical care for traumatic injuries, lost wages, and in many cases, remuneration for the &#8220;pain and suffering&#8221; of the insured party. Most health ins contracts state that health ins benefits are secondary to liability ins.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>TRICARE<br>regionally managed health care program for active duty and retired members of the armed forces, their families and survivors. It is a service benefit and contains no premium. TRICARE is the new title for CHAMPUS program (Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are the 3 types of plans covered under TRICARE?<br>1) Standard- fee-for service, cost-sharing plan<br>2) Extra- preferred provider organization<br>3) Prime- health maintenance organization plan w\/ a point of service option<br>***All have annual deductibles, w\/ the exception of PRIME<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>How are co-payments determined with TRICARE?<br>according to 2 programs<br>a) active duty family members<br>b) retirees, their families members and survivors of deceased personnel<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>CHAMPVA<br>(Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Veteran Affairs)- was created to provide medical benefits to spouses and children of veterans w\/ total, permanent service related disabilities or for surviving spouses and children of a veteran who died as a result of service related disability. It is a service benefit therefore no premiums. Members who receive TRICARE do not qualify for CHAMPVA<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Commercial Carriers<br>-are for profit organizations that operate in the private sector selling different health ins benefits plans to groups or individuals. Most have predefined pt yearly deductibles and coinsurance generally based on the 80\/20 split. EX; Aetna, Cigna, Travelers, and Prudential<br>-most have coordination of benefits (COB) clauses to identify the primary and secondary payer responsibility status for dependent children<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Gender rule<br>male of household is primary payer<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Birthday rule<br>the plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in the year (month and date, not year) is primary to that whose b-day falls later in the calender year. If both parents have same birthday, then the plan of the parent who has had the longest coverage is primary. **In case of divorce, the plan of the parent w\/ custody of the children is the primary payer unless the divorce settlement states otherwise<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Blue Cross\/Blue Shield Plans<br>group of independently licensed local companies, usually nonprofit that contracts w\/ dr&#8217;s and other health entities to provide services to their insured companies and individuals. Most BC\/BS plans offer HMO&#8217;s, PPO&#8217;s and POS plans<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Blue Cross<br>covers hospital services, outpatient care, some institutional services and home care<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Blue Shield<br>covers physician services, and in some cases, dental, outpatient services and vision care<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are BC\/BS plans reimbursement methodologies?<br>physician reimbursement had been based on the UCR method but more plans have adapted the RBRVS method while some are using capitated rates.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Paper Claim<br>traditional method used by providers for submission of charges to ins co&#8217;s. The most commonly used form is the CMS-1500. Few plans will still accept the physicians encounter forms or superbill and Medicare will only accept claims onthe CMS-1500<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Electronic Claim<br>alternative to paper claim, submitted to payer directly by physician or clearinghouse. Are usually paid faster. Most electronic claims software have self-editing features that detect and report entries that may cause to be rejected, such as invalid codes or incomplete claims<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is a clearinghouse?<br>an entity that receives transmission of claims for dr&#8217;s offices, separate the claims by carriers and performs software edits on each claim to check for errors. One this process is complete, the claim is then sent to proper ins carrier. The dr pays the clearinghouse a fee for their services. A result of the review is sent back to the claims preparer using and audit\/edit report<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What are the 2 major sections of a claims form?<br>-Blocks 1-13, refers to pt info<br>-Blocks 14-33, refers to physician info<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What should be done in absences of payer provided instructions for completing claim form?<br>Instructions on the claim form<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Basic Billing &amp; Reimbursement Steps:<br>-collect pt info<br>-verify insurances<br>-prepare encounter form (should reflect the diagnosis and services provided to pt, this is used as the basis for billing)<br>-code diagnosis and procedures<br>-review linkage and compliance, review should include the following appropriateness of the codes link between the diagnosis and the procedure payers rules about the diag and proc documentation of the procedure *compliance w\/ regulations<br>-calculate physician charges<br>-prepare claims<br>-transmit claims<br>-payer adjudication, claims received by the payers go through a series of steps to determine whether it should be paid<br>-follow up reimbursement\/record retention<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Life cycle of Insurance Claims<br>I. Claims submission-transmission of claims data either electronically or manually to payers or clearinghouses for processing<br>II. Claims Processing-payers and clearinghouses verify the info found in the submitted claims about the pt and provider<br>III. Claims Adjudication-process by which the claim is compared to payer edits and the pt&#8217;s health plan benefits to verify that:<br>-required info is available to process claim<br>-claim is not a duplicate<br>-payer rules and procedures have been followed<br>-procedures performed or services provided are covered benefits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Non-covered benefit<br>any procedure or service reported on the ins claims that is not listed in the payer&#8217;s master benefit list. This will result in the denial of the claim. Providers may be able to recover the charges from the pt<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Unauthorized Benefit<br>procedure or service provided w\/o proper authorization or was not covered by a current authorization. The claim is denied and the provider cannot bill the pt for the charges<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What does Medical Necessity edit check for?<br>-procedure codes match the diagnosis code<br>-procedure are not elective<br>-procedures are not experimental<br>-procedures are essential for treatment<br>-procedures are furnished at an appropriate level<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>VI. Payment<br>once the claim is approved for payment, a remittance advice (RA) is sent to the provider and an explanation of benefits (EOB) is mailed to the policyholder<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Assignment of Benefits<br>reimbursement is sent directly from payer to provider<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Accept Assignment<br>mean the provider agrees to accept what the ins co approves as payment in full for the claim<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>New Patient<br>Individual who has not received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice within the past 3 years.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Established Patient<br>Individual who has received any professional services from the physician or another physician of the same specialty who belongs to the same group practice within the past 3 years.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Inpatient<br>term used when a patient is admitted to the hospital w\/ the expectation that the pt will stay for a period of 24 hrs or more<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Outpatient<br>pt who receives treatment in any of the following settings:<br>-physicians office<br>-hospital clinic, emergency department, hospital same day surgery unit, ambulatory surgical center (pt is released w\/in 23 hrs)<br>-hospital admission for observation<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Consultation<br>service performed by a physician whose opinion or advice is requested by another physician in the evaluation or treatment of a pt&#8217;s illness or suspected problem. The consultation does not assume any responsibility for the pt&#8217;s care and must send a written report back to the requesting physician<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Fee-for-service<br>fee that is charged for each procedure or service performed by the physician. This fee is obtained from a FEE SCHEDULE, which is a list of charges or allowances that have accepted for specific medical services. The system in which fee schedules are determined is referred to a USUAL, CUSTOMARY, AND REASONABLE, (UCR)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Fiscal Intermediary<br>an ins co that bids for a contract w\/ CMS to handle the medicare program in a specific area<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Explanation of Benefits (EOB)<br>describes the services billed and includes a breakdown of how the payment is determined (sent to pt)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Premium<br>the cost of ins coverage paid annually, semi-annually or monthly to keep a policy in effect<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Deductible<br>a cumulative out-of-pocket amount that must be paid annually by the policyholder before benefits will be paid by the ins co<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>co-payment<br>cost-sharing requirement for the insured to pay at the time of service. This amount is usually a specific dollar amount<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coinsurance<br>percentage of the cost of covered services that a policyholder or a secondary ins pays. A common payment % for coinsurance is 80\/20 which indicates that 20% is the coinsurance for the beneficiary or secondary ins is responsible<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coding<br>process of converting diagnosis, procedures, and services into numeric and alphanumeric characters<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medical Neccessity<br>defined by Medicare as &#8220;the determination that a service or procedure rendered is reasonable and necessary for the diagnosis or treatment of an illness or injury&#8221;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Exclusion and Limitations<br>conditions, situations, and services not covered by the ins carrier<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pre-certification<br>to determine coverage for a specific treatment such as surgery, hospitalization or tests, under the insured&#8217;s policy<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pre-determination<br>to determine the pt&#8217;s benefits and the maximum dollar amount that the ins company will pay. Often the 1st step of the ins verification process, it is completed prior to the first visit<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Pre-authorization<br>requirement for some health ins plans to obtain permission for a service or procedure before it is done. It indicates that a specific procedure or service is deemed &#8220;medical necessary&#8221;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Qualified diagnosis<br>working diagnosis which is not yet established<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Eligibility<br>the qualify factor or factors that must be met before a pt receives benefits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Coordination of benefits (COB)<br>when 2 ins co work together to coordinate payment of the benefits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>encounter form<br>also called the superbill; it is a listing of the diagnosis, procedures, and charges for a pt&#8217;s visit<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Itemized statement<br>statement of the pt&#8217;s account history, showing dates of service, detailed charges, payment (deductibles, co-pays), the date the ins claim was submitted, applicable adjustments and account balance<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Peer Review Organization (PRO)<br>a state based group of physicians working under gov guidelines to review the cases and determine their appropriateness and quality of professional care<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPPA)<br>deals w\/ the prevention of healthcare fraud and abuse of patients on Medicare\/Medicaid<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Civil Monetary Penalties Law (CMPL)<br>law passed by the fed gov to prosecute cases of medicaid fraud<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The Good Samaritan Act<br>was developed to protect healthcare professionals from liability of any civil damages as a result of rendering emergency care<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Remittance Advice<br>an electronic or paper-based report of payment sent by the payer to the provider<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The Patient Care Partnership (Patients Bill of Rights)<br>was developed to promote the interests and well being of the pt&#8217;s and residents of the healthcare facility. This bill has still not become law<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Physician<br>a doctor of medicine or osteopathy, dental medicine, dental surgery, podiatric medicine, optometry, or chiropactic medicine legally authorized to practice by the state in which he\/she performs<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Health Practitioner<br>includes, but is not limited to, physician assistant, certified nurse-midwife, qualified psychologist, nurse practitioner, clinical social worker, physical therapist, occupational therapist,, respiratory therapist, certified registered nurse anesthetist, or any other practitioner as may be specified<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Group Practice<br>group of 2 or more physicians and non-physician practitioners legally organized by a partnership, professional corporation, foundation, not-for-profit corporation, faculty practice plan, or similar association<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Physician&#8217;s Identification Numbers<br>-State license #, dr must obtain this # in order to practice w\/in a state<br>-Employer Identification # (EIN), also known as federal tax identification #, used by IRS<br>-SS#, typically not used on claim form unless provider does not have (EIN)<br>-Provider Identification # (PIN), # assigned by ins co to a physician who renders services to pt&#8217;s<br>-Unique Provider Identification # (UPIN), # assigned to the physician by medicare<br>-performing Provider Identification provider # (PPIN), dr has a separate PPIN for each group office\/clinic in which he\/she practices. In the medicare program, in addition to a group #, each member of a group is issued a 8-character PPIN<br>-Group Provider Number, # is used instead of the individual dr&#8217;s # for the performing provider who is a member of a group practice that sub,its claims to ins co under the group name<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient&#8217;s health plan is referred to as the payer of last resort. The patient is covered by which of the following health plans?<br>Medicaid<br>CHAMPA<br>Medicare<br>TRICARE<br>Medicaid<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider charged $500 to a claim that had an allowable amount of $400. In which of the following columns should the CBCS apply the non allowed charge?<br>-Reference column (For notations)<br>-Description column<br>-Payment column<br>-Adjustment column of the credits<br>Adjustment column of the credits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following statements is correct regarding a deductible?<br>-Coinsurance is a type of deductible<br>-The physician should write off the deductible<br>-The insurance company pays for the deductible<br>-The deductible is the patient&#8217;s responsibility<br>The deductible is the patient&#8217;s responsibility<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following color formats allows optical scanning of the CMS-1500 claim form?<br>-Red<br>-Blue<br>-Green<br>-black<br>red<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Ambulatory surgery centers, home health and hospice organizations use the <strong>__<\/strong>.<br>-CMS-1500 claim form<br>-UB-04 claim form<br>-Advance Beneficiary notice<br>-First report of injury form<br>UB-04<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Claims that are submitted without an NPI number will delay payment to the provider because <strong>__<\/strong>.<br>-The number is the patient&#8217; id number<br>-The number is needed to identify the provider<br>-Is is used as a claim number<br>-It is used as a pre authorization number<br>The number is needed to identify the provider<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following terms describes when a plan pays 70% of the allowed amount and the patient pays 30%?<br>-Coinsurance<br>-Deductible<br>-Premium<br>-copayment<br>coinsurance<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following indicates a claim should be submitted on paper instead of electronically?<br>-The software claims review process indicates the claim is not complete<br>-The claim needs authorization<br>-The claim requires an attachment<br>-The practice management software is non functional.<br>the claim requires an attachment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>On a remittance advice form, which of the following is responsible for writing off the difference between the amount billed and the amount allowed by the agreement?<br>-Provider<br>-Insurance company<br>-Patient<br>-Third party payer<br>provider<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A physician is contracted with an insurance company to accept the amount. The insurance company allows $80 of a $120 billed amount, and $50 of the deductible has not been met. How much should the physician write off the patient&#8217;s account?<br>-$40<br>-$15<br>-$0<br>-$50<br>$40<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The unlisted codes can be found in which of the following locations in the CPT manual?<br>-Appendix L<br>-Guidelines prior to each section<br>-End of each body system<br>-Table of contents<br>Guidelines prior to each section<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks should the billing and coding specialist complete the CMS 1500 claims form for procedure, services or supplies?<br>-Block 12<br>-Block 2<br>-Block 24D<br>-Block 24J<br>Block 24D<br>-Block 12 (patient&#8217;s authorization block<br>-Block 2 ( patient&#8217;s name)<br>-Block 24J ( for the rendering provider)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks requires the patient&#8217;s authorization to release medical information to process a claim?<br>Block 12<br>Block 13<br>Block 27<br>Block 31<br>Block 12<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Block 13 patient authorization for benefits required for third party payer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Block 27 accepting assignment of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Block 31 (treating physician)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following steps would be part of a physician&#8217;s practice compliance program?<br>-HIPAA compliance audit<br>-Physician recruitment<br>-Internal monitoring and auditing<br>-Notice of privacy practice<br>Internal monitoring and auditing<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Behavior plays an important part of being a team player in a medical practice. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the CBCS to take?<br>-Reprimanding another staff member during a team meeting for displaying a bad attitude toward a patient<br>-Looking in the medical record of a friend who receives services at the office<br>-Communicating with the front desk staff during a team meeting about missing information in patient files<br>-Questioning the nurse about the provider documentation in the medical record<br>Communicating with the front desk staff during a team meeting about missing information in patient files<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following acts applies to the administrative simplification guideline?<br>-HIPAA<br>-Deficit reduction act of 2005<br>-The patient protection and affordable care act 2009<br>-National correct coding initiative of 1995<br>HIPAA<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is an example of a violation of an adult patient&#8217;s confidentiality?<br>-While reviewing a claim, the CBCS reads the diagnosis before realizing that the patient is a neighbor<br>-A CBCS queries the physician about a diagnosis in a patient&#8217;s medical record<br>-The physician uses his home phone to discuss patient care with the nursing staff<br>-Patient information was disclosed to the patient&#8217;s parents without consent<br>Patient information was disclosed to the patient&#8217;s parents without consent<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the purpose of running an aging report each month?<br>-If indicates the balances the patients owe the provider<br>-It indicates which patients have upcoming or missed appointment<br>-It indicates which claims are outstanding<br>-It indicates what the insurance company has paid for the provider&#8217;s services to a patient.<br>It indicates which claims are outstanding<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes the status of a claim that does not include the required preauthorization for a service?<br>-Delinquent (overdue)<br>-Denied<br>-Suspended<br>-Adjudicated (claim still being processed)<br>Denied<br>-Delinquent (overdue)<br>-Adjudicated (claim still being processed)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions should the CBCS take to prevent fraud and abuse in the medical office?<br>-Serviced procedure preauthorization<br>-Internal monitoring and auditing<br>-Utilization review<br>-Correct coding initiative<br>Internal monitoring and auditing<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>In an outpatient setting, which of the following forms is used as a financial report of all services provided to patients?<br>-Encounter form<br>-Patient account record<br>-CMS-1500 claim form<br>-Accounts receivable journal<br>Patient account record (patient ledger, all transactions between patient and the practice)<br>-Accounts receivable journal (Day sheet = chronological summary of all transaction on a specific day)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Patient charges that have not been paid will appear in which of the following?<br>-Accounts receivable<br>-Accounts payable<br>-Tracer<br>-Rejected claim<br>Accounts receivable<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is considered the final determination of the issues involving settlement of an insurance claim?<br>-Processing<br>-Translation<br>-Adjudication<br>-Transmission<br>Adjudication (process of putting a claim through a series of edits for final determination)<br>-Processing ( handling a claim from the first encounter to claim submission)<br>-Translation (claim is send from the host system to the clearing house)<br>-Transmission (how the claim was sent)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following information should the CBCS input into block 33a on the CMS-1500 claim form<br>-Provider social security number (no Social security number on CMS1500)<br>-Federal tax id number (entered in block 25)<br>-Patient id number (on block 1a)<br>-National provider identification number<br>National provider identification number<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A prospective billing account audit prevents fraud by reviewing and comparing a completed claim form with which of the following documents?<br>-A billing worksheet from the patient account<br>-A superbill<br>-A day sheet<br>-Am accounts receivable report of the patient account<br>A billing worksheet from the patient account<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When a patient has a condition that is both acute and chronic, how should it be reported?<br>-Code only the acute code<br>-Code both acute and chronic, sequencing the acute first<br>-Code only the chronic code<br>-Code both acute and chronic, sequencing the chronic first<br>Code both acute and chronic, sequencing the acute first<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following types of health insurance plan best describes a government sponsored benefit program?<br>-Unemployment compensation disability<br>-TRICARE prime<br>-Foundation for Medicare<br>-Worker&#8217;s compensation<br>TRICARE prime<br>-Unemployment compensation disability (state insurance covering non work related illness and injury)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Accepting assignment on the CMS-1500 claim form indicates which of the following?<br>-The patient agrees to accept payment and forward the payment to the physician<br>-The physician agrees to accept payment under the terms of the payer&#8217;s program.<br>-The physician agrees to bill according the third payer&#8217;s fee schedule<br>-The patient agrees to pay the difference between the billed amount and the allowed amount<br>The physician agrees to accept payment under the terms of the payer&#8217;s program.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following parts of the body system regulates immunity?<br>-Endocrine system (regulates growth, metabolic)<br>-Respiratory system (removes carbon dioxide)<br>-Urinary system (filters blood to remove waste of cellular metabolism)<br>-Lymphatic system<br>Lymphatic system<br>-Endocrine system (regulates growth, metabolic)<br>-Respiratory system (removes carbon dioxide)<br>-Urinary system (filters blood to remove waste of cellular metabolism)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following sections of the medical record is used to determine the correct evaluation and management code to use for billing and coding?<br>-Codes used during prior patient visits<br>-Patient&#8217;s insurance plan<br>-Plan of care<br>-History and physical<br>History and physical<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient has met a Medicare deductible of $150. The patient&#8217;s coinsurance is 20%, and the allowed amount is $600. Which of the following is the patient&#8217;s out of pocket expense?<br>-$450<br>-$300<br>-$120<br>-$150<br>$120<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is allowed when billing procedure codes?<br>-Unbundling codes to ensure that all medical services were received and billed for<br>-Billing using two digit CPT modifiers to indicate a procedure as performed differs from its usual five digit code<br>-Billing for a surgical package with itemized codes<br>-Referring to the ICD book for the accurate description of the procedural code.<br>Billing using two digit CPT modifiers to indicate a procedure as performed differs from its usual five digit code<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes the content of a medical practice aging report?<br>-An overview of the practice&#8217;s net worth<br>-An overview of the practice deposits.<br>-An overview of the practice&#8217;s debts<br>-An overview of the practice&#8217;s outstanding claims<br>An overview of the practice&#8217;s outstanding claims<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the correct term for an amount that has been determined to be uncollectible?<br>-Discounted fee<br>-Bad debt<br>-Financial hardship<br>-Professional courtesy<br>bad debt<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the function of the respiratory system?<br>-Deoxygenating blood cells<br>-Oxygenating blood cells<br>-Generating red blood cells<br>-Generating white blood cells<br>Oxygenating blood cells<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS needs to know how much Medicare paid on a claim before billing the secondary insurance. To which of the following should the specialist refer?<br>-Assignment of benefits<br>-Medicare summary notice (how much the provider was billed and how much the patient has to pay)<br>-Remittance advice<br>-Coordination of benefits<br>remittance advice<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The standard medical abbreviation &#8220;ECG&#8221; refers to a test used to assess which of the following body systems?<br>-Endocrine system<br>-Cardiovascular system<br>-Male reproductive system<br>-Respiratory system<br>Cardiovascular system<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form is used to bill ICD codes?<br>-24D<br>-22<br>-17a<br>-21<br>21<br>-24D (CPT or HCPCS codes)<br>-22 (resubmitting to Medicare)<br>-17a not required<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the initial step in perceiving a worker&#8217;s compensation claim?<br>-First report of injury<br>-Notice of contest (carrier&#8217;s denial of the employers&#8217; liability for an incomplete claim)<br>-Disability claim<br>-Progress notes<br>First report of injury<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A participating blue cross\/blue shield provider receives an explanation of benefits for a patient account. The charged amount was $100. Blue shield allowed $80 and applied $40 to the patient&#8217;s annual deduction. Blue shield paid the balance at 80%. How much should the patient expect to pay?<br>-$80<br>-$56<br>-$40<br>-$48<br>$48<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A biller will electronically submit a claim to the carrier via which of the following?<br>-Electronic remittance advice (response from insurance)<br>-Direct data entry<br>-Electronic fund transfer<br>-Charge data entry<br>Direct data entry<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What is the maximum number of ICD codes that can be entered on a CMS-1500 claim form as of February 2012?<br>4<br>6<br>10<br>12<br>12<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Medicare enforces mandatory submission of electronic claims for most providers. Which of the following providers&#8217; is allowed to submit paper claims to Medicare?<br>-A provider&#8217;s office with fewer than 10 full time employees<br>-A provider&#8217;s office with fewer than 25 full time employees<br>-A Medicare advantage contractor (MAC)<br>-A provider who submits a secondary insurance claim<br>A provider&#8217;s office with fewer than 10 full time employees<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Test results indicated that abnormalities were found in the brain&#8217;s brain electrical activity patterns are normal. Which of the following tests was used to conduct the exam?<br>-EEG<br>-ECT<br>-EMG<br>-EGD<br>EEG<br>-ECT (electroconvulsive therapy &#8211; to treat major depression that does not respond to standard treatment)<br>-EMG (electromyography = test and recording the electrical activity produced skeletal muscles)<br>-EGD (esophagogastroduodenoscopy = test that examines the lining of the esophagus, stomach and upper part of the small intestine)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The destruction of lesions using cryosurgery would use which of the following treatments?<br>-Laser treatment<br>-Chemical peel treatment<br>-Cold treatment<br>-Electric current treatment<br>Cold treatment<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>On the CMS-1500 claim form, block 1 through 13 include which of the following?<br>-The patient&#8217;s demographics<br>-The provider&#8217;s information<br>-The patient&#8217;s diagnosis<br>-The procedures performed<br>The patient&#8217;s demographics<br>-The provider&#8217;s information (on blocks 25-33)<br>-The patient&#8217;s diagnosis (block 21)<br>-The procedures performed (block 24)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a type of claim that will be denied by the third party payer?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Rejected claim<br>-Pending claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Secondary claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Incomplete claim<br>incomplete claim<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the appropriate diagnosis for a patient who has an abnormal accumulation of fluids in her lower leg that has resulted in swelling?<br>-Ptosis (drooping)<br>-Emesis (vomiting)<br>-Edema<br>-Dilation (widening)<br>edema<br>-Ptosis (drooping)<br>-Emesis (vomiting)<br>-Dilation (widening)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is an example of electronic claim submission?<br>-Claim submitted via a secure network<br>-Claims submitted via fax<br>-Claims that are computer generated paper claims<br>-Claims that are completed using the CMS-1500 claim form<br>claim submitted via a secure network<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following security features is required during transmission of protected health information and medical claims to third party payers?<br>-Unique used IDs and passwords<br>-Role based access controls<br>-Electronic data interchange<br>-Encryption<br>encryption<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions should the CBCS take to effectively manage accounts receivable?<br>-Collect payment from the patient at the time of service<br>-Have the patient pat the balance up front and wait for reimbursement<br>-Delay submission until the patient pays the deductible<br>-Ask the patient to pay half now and bill the insurance for the balance<br>Collect payment from the patient at the time of service<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following insurance carriers is considered the payer of last resort?<br>-Medicaid<br>-Medicare<br>-TRICARE<br>-Blue cross\/shield<br>Medicaid<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form is required to indicate a worker&#8217;s compensation claim?<br>11a<br>21<br>10a<br>22<br>10a<br>-11a primary injured date of birth and gender<br>-21 diagnosis code<br>-22 Medicaid resubmission number<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The provision of health insurance policies that specifies which coverage is considered primary or secondary is called?<br>-Eligibility verification<br>-Explanation of benefits<br>-Assignment of benefits<br>-Coordination of benefits<br>coordination of benefits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider receives a reimbursement from a third party payer accompanied by with document?<br>-Monthly statement<br>-Explanation of benefits<br>-Age analysis<br>-Benefit summary sheet (guideline for billing)<br>Explanation of benefits<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When submitting claims, which of the following is the outcome if block 13 is left blank?<br>-The provider accepts assignment and payment as payment in full<br>-The provider cannot collect deductible, copayment, and coinsurance amounts<br>-This has no effect on the claim processing and reimbursement<br>-The third party payer reimburses the patient, and the patient is responsible for reimbursing the provider<br>The third party payer reimburses the patient, and the patient is responsible for reimbursing the provider<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following situations constitutes a consultation?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Services rendered by a physician whose opinion or advice is required by another physician or agency.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The physician needs to meet the family and the patient to discuss the medical condition<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The transfer of the total or specific care of a patient from one physician to another for known problem<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The physician has had the initial treatment and needs to follow-up with the patient regarding the care plan<br>Services rendered by a physician whose opinion or advice is required by another physician or agency.<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following billing patterns is the best practice action?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Billing for diagnostic tests without a separate report in patient&#8217;s health record<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing the patient for the difference between the charges and the allowed amounts<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Documenting the patient&#8217;s chief complaint, history, exam, assessment, and plan for care<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Separating service or procedure codes to increase reimbursement<br>Documenting the patient&#8217;s chief complaint, history, exam, assessment, and plan for care<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When billing a secondary insurance, which block should the CBCS fill out on the CMS-1500 form?<br>9a<br>28<br>24J<br>24F<br>9a<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>28 (total billed amount)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24J (NPI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24F (charge per service)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes an obstruction of the urethra?<br>-Urethralgia (pain)<br>-Urethratresia<br>-Urethrism (stricture)<br>-Uretritis<br>Urethratresia<br>-Urethralgia (pain)<br>-Urethrism (stricture)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the correct entry of a charge of $150 in block 24F ?<br>150 00<br>150<br>150.00<br>15000<br>150 00<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following organizations identifies improper payments made on CMS claims?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Office of inspector general (OIG)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Quality improvement organization (QIOs)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Recovery audit contractor (RAC)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Medicare administrative Contractors (MACs)<br>Recovery audit contractor (RAC)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Office of inspector general (OIG) (protect the integrity of the department of Health and Human services programs)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Quality improvement organization (QIOs) (perform utilization and quality control review of healthcare furnished to Medicare beneficiaries<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Medicare administrative Contractors (MACs)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>If the patient has osteomyelitis, he has problems with which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Bones and muscles<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Bones and bone marrow<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Bones and skin<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Bones and tendons<br>bone and bone marrow<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When coding on the UB-04 form, the CBCS must sequence the diagnosis codes according to ICD guidelines. Which of the following is the first listed diagnosis code?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Primary diagnosis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chief complaint<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Etiology (underlying cause of the disease)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Principal diagnosis<br>Principal diagnosis<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider performs an examination of a patient&#8217;s sore throat. Which of the following describes the level of the examination?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Expanded problem focused examination<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Detailed examination<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Problem focused examination<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Comprehensive examination<br>Problem focused examination<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Expanded problem focused examination ( specific examination of an affected organ system and related organ systems)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Detailed examination (extended examination of an affected organ system, and other related organ systems<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Comprehensive examination (general multi system examination)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following coding manuals is used to identify products, supplies and services?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>ICD-10 manual (diagnosis codes)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HCPCS level II manual<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>ICD-10-PCS manual (inpatient facilities to assign procedures)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CPT manual (outpatient professional service and procedure codes in an<br>HCPCS level II manual<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>ICD-10 manual (diagnosis codes)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>ICD-10-PCS manual (inpatient facilities to assign procedures)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CPT manual (outpatient professional service and procedure codes in an<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient has an emergency appendectomy while on vacation. The claim is rejected due to the patient obtaining services out of network. Which of the following information should be included in the claim appeal?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The provider&#8217;s network status<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The names of the travelers who where with the patient during the emergency<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient was out of town during the emergency<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The reason why the patient was out of town<br>The patient was out of town during the emergency<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>After reading a provider&#8217;s notes about a new patient, a CBCS decides to code for a longer length of time than the actual office visit. Which of the following describes that action?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Unbundling<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Abuse<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Fraud<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Error<br>fraud<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Two providers from the same practice visit a patient in the ER using the same CPT code. The claim may be denied due to which of the following reasons?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Continuity of care<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Incident to service (non physician practitioner bills in place of the physician)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Critical care<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Duplication of services<br>duplication of service<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following statements is true when determining patient financial responsibility by reviewing the remittance advice?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Any service not paid by a third party payer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Any coinsurance, copayment, deductions<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The difference between the billed amount and the allowed amount<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>claims not billed to a third party payer within the correct time period<br>Any coinsurance, copayment, deductions<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a requirement of some third party payers before a procedure is performed?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Predetermination form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pre Authorization form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Advanced beneficiary notice<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Precertification form<br>Pre Authorization form<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following modifiers should be used to include a professional service has been discontinued prior to completion?<br>-73 (used by facilities to indicate a discontinued outpatient procedure prior to procedure)<br>-52 ( physician to indicate that a service code was reduced from its original description)<br>-74 ( facilities to indicate a discontinued outpatient procedure after the procedure)<br>-53 (physician uses this for a procedure begun but discontinued prior to its completion)<br>53 (physician uses this for a procedure begun but discontinued prior to its completion)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>73 (used by facilities to indicate a discontinued outpatient procedure prior to procedure)<br>-52 ( physician to indicate that a service code was reduced from its original description)<br>-74 ( facilities to indicate a discontinued outpatient procedure after the procedure)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is used by providers to remove errors from claims before they are submitted to third party payers?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>National committee for quality assurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HIPAA transaction and code sets (TCS)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Correct coding initiative (CCI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>clearinghouse<br>clearinghouse<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>National committee for quality assurance (report standards that compare performance between health care plans)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HIPAA transaction and code sets (TCS) (standardizes electronic claim transactions)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Correct coding initiative (CCI) ( prevents unbundling)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Block 17b should list which of the following information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Referring physician&#8217;s national provider identification number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Referring physicians name<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Rendering physician&#8217;s national provider identification number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Rendering physician&#8217;s name<br>Referring physician&#8217;s national provider identification number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Referring physicians name (block 31)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Rendering physician&#8217;s national provider identification number (24i)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Rendering physician&#8217;s name (17)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the third stage of the life cycle of a claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Claim processing<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims payment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims adjudication<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims submission<br>Claims adjudication<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim processing (second)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims payment ( fourth)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims submission (first)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient presents to the provider with chest pain and shortness of breath. After an unexpected ECG result, the provider calls a cardiologist and summarizes the patient&#8217;s symptoms. What portion of HIPAA allows the provider to speak to the cardiologist prior to obtaining the patient&#8217;s consent?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Title I<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The privacy rule<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Title II<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>FERPA<br>Title II<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Title I (regulates insurance reform)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The privacy rule<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>FERPA ( family education right and privacy act = protects the privacy of student records, not part of HIPAA)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When a physician documents a patient&#8217;s response to symptoms and various body systems. The results are documented as which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Past medical history<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Family history<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Review of systems<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Comprehensive examination<br>Review of systems<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following statements is true regarding the release of patient records?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Verbal requests for records from life insurance companies are appropriate<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Identification is not required when requesting access to patient records<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Providers cannot share a patient&#8217; medical information with other health care professionals if the patient&#8217;s mentally unstable<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient access to psychotherapy notes may be restricted<br>Patient access to psychotherapy notes may be restricted<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A claim is denied because the service was not covered by the insurance. Upon confirmation of no errors on the claim, which of the following describes the process that will follow the denial?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The claim will be submitted with a new CPT code<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The claim will not be resubmitted and the patient will be sent a bill<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The claim will be resubmitted with a modifier on the CPT code<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The claim will not be resubmitted, but the claim will be appealed.<br>The claim will not be resubmitted and the patient will be sent a bill<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When an electronic claim is rejected due to incomplete information, which of the following action should the CBCS take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Process the claim as an adjustment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Complete the information and retransmit according to the third party standards<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Reprocess the rejected claim within 30 days<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Send the claim back with the next batch of claims<br>Complete the information and retransmit according to the third party standards<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following documents is required to disclose an adult patient&#8217;s information<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>A signed released for the patient&#8217;s family member<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s driver&#8217;s license<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A signed release from the patient<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s social security card<br>A signed release from the patient<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>In 1995 and 1997 , which of the following introduced documentation guidelines to Medicare carriers to ensure that service paid for have been provided and were medically necessary?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>HIPAA<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>OIG<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMS<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>AMA<br>CMS<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>OIG &#8211; fraud and abuse<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>AMA &#8211; physician patient relationship<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>For which of the following time periods should the CBCS track unpaid claims before taking follow up action?<br>10 days<br>30 days<br>60 days<br>90 days<br>30 days<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A beneficiary of a Medicare\/Medicaid crossover claim submitted by a participating provider is responsible for which of the following percentage?<br>40%<br>20%<br>10%<br>0%<br>0%<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS should add modifier -50 to codes when reporting which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>A bilateral procedure<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A unilateral procedure<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Multiple procedure<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Reduces services<br>A bilateral procedure<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Z codes are used to identify which of the following?<br>-Behavior disorders<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Digestive diseases<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Infectious diseases<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Immunizations<br>Immunizations<br>Behavior disorders (F)<br>Digestive diseases (K)<br>Infectious diseases (A and B)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following was developed to reduce Medicare program expenditure by detecting in appropriate cades and eliminating improper coding practice?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>NCCi<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HIPAA<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>MAC<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>NPI<br>NCCi (national correct coding initiative &#8211; detect inappropriate codes and eliminate improper coding practices)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HIPAA<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>MAC (Medicare administrative contractor)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>NPI<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a verbal or written agreement that gives approval to release PHI?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Notice of privacy practices<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Right to privacy<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Consent<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits<br>consent<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>After a third party validates a claim, which of the following takes place next?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Claim payment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim adjudication (process of analyzing the claim)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim resolution (small claims court)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim attachment<br>Claim adjudication (process of analyzing the claim)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim payment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim resolution (small claims court)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim attachment<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS is reviewing a CMS-1500 claim form. The assignment of the benefits box has been checked &#8220;yes&#8221;. The check box indicates which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The provider receives payment directly from payer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The payer sends reimbursement for service to the patient<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The payer pays the provider a set amount for each enrolled person assignment of benefit box<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The provider can collect full payment from the patient<br>The provider receives payment directly from payer<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following forms must the patient or representative sign to allow the release of PHI?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>An authorization<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An affidavit<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A copy of the HIPAA security rule<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A copy of the HIPAA privacy rule<br>an authorization<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the primary information used to determine the priority of collection letters to patients?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The age of the account<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The type of the account<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The type of the insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The last payment received<br>the age of the account<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following claims would appear on an aging report?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>A claim paid in full within the past 90 days<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A claim that is delinquent for 60 days<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A claim processed and paid within past 60 days<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A claim that billed and reimbursed the patient within the past 30 days<br>A claim that is delinquent for 60 days<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS should enter the prior authorization number on the CMS-1500 claim form in which of the following blocks?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>21A (diagnosis code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24 D (procedures and services)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>23 (prior authorization)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24E (federal tax id)<br>23 (prior authorization)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>21A (diagnosis code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24 D (procedures and services)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24E (federal tax id)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks require the patient&#8217;s authorization to release medical information to process a claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>12<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>13 (patient authorization for assignment of benefits required for third party payer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>27 (accepting assignment of benefits)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>31 (treating physician&#8217;s name)<br>12<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>13 (patient authorization for assignment of benefits required for third party payer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>27 (accepting assignment of benefits)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>31 (treating physician&#8217;s name)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following claims is submitted and then optically scanned by the insurance and converted to an electronic form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Paper claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pending claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Clean claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Rejected claim<br>paper claim<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions by a CBCS would be considered fraud?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Submitting a claim for services that are not medically necessary<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Violating participating provider agreements with third party payer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing for services not provided<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing non-covered services as covered services<br>billing for services not provided<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following privacy measures ensures PHI?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Confirming test results with the patient over the phone at the reception<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Asking patients the reason for their visit at check in<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Using data encryption software on office workstation<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Calling a patient into the clinical area using first and last name.<br>Using data encryption software on office workstation<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A form that contains charges, DOS, CPT codes, ICD codes, fees and copayment information is called which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Encounter form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Itemized bill<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chargemaster<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Remittance advice<br>encounter form<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following medical terms refers to the sac that encloses the heart?<br>-Endocardium<br>-Epicardium<br>-Myocardium<br>-pericardium<br>pericardium<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When completing CMS-1500 paper claim form, which of the following is an acceptable action for the CBCS to take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Use appropriate title for all patients<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Fold the form in half for mailing<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Use Arial size 10 font<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Attach documents with staples in the left hand corner<br>use Arial size 10 font<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes a delinquent claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The claim was submitted beyond the timely filing limit<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The claim had more than one procedure submitted<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The claim is an incoming claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The claim is overdue for payment<br>the claim is overdue for payment<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient is upset about a bill she received. Her insurance denied the claim. Which of the following actions is an appropriate way to handle the situation?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Tell the patient to resubmit the claim to the insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Inform the patient of reason of the denial<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Tell the patient to speak with the provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Inform the patient the insurance will follow up<br>inform the patient of reason of the denial<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Why does correct claim processing rely on accurately completed encounter forms?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The billing codes contained on the form can be trusted due to automatic updates, as required for compliant claims<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>They increase the efficiency of the medical practice by replacing extensive documentation in the medical record<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>They same time as the form does not require authorization by the provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>They streamline patient billing by summarizing the service rendered for a given date of service<br>They streamline patient billing by summarizing the service rendered for a given date of service<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient who has a primary malignant neoplasm of the lung should be referred to which of the following specialists?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Cardiologist<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pulmonary oncologist<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Thoracic surgeon<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>hematologist<br>pulmonary oncologist<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following forms should the CBCS transmit to the insurance carrier for reimbursement of inpatient hospital services?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>UB-02 (obsolete version of UB-04)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>UB-04<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HCFA-1500 ( obsolete version of CMS 1500)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMS-1500<br>UB-04<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following information should the CBCS input into block 33a ?<br>-Provider social security number<br>-Federal tax ID number (25)<br>-Patient&#8217;s ID number (1a)<br>-NPI<br>NPI<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Provider social security number<br>-Federal tax ID number (25)<br>-Patient&#8217;s ID number (1a)Which of the following is a private insurance carrier?<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a private insurance carrier?<br>Medicare<br>Medicaid<br>TRICARE<br>Blue cross\/shield<br>blue cross\/shield<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following sections of the medical record is used to determine the correct evaluation and management code for billing and coding?<br>-Codes used during prior patient visit<br>-Patient&#8217;s insurance plan<br>-Plan of care<br>-History and physical<br>History ad physicals<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes the reason for a claim rejection because of Medicare NCCI edits?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Reporting codes without proper modifiers<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coding without proper documentation<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Medicare NCCI edit will trigger a claim rejection for improper code combination<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Use of outside codes<br>Medicare NCCI edit will trigger a claim rejection for improper code combination<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following departments should a patient be seen for psoriasis?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Cardiologist<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Dermatologist<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Otolaryngology<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>gastroenterology<br>dermatologist<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A nurse is reviewing a patient&#8217;s lab results prior to discharge and discovers an elevated glucose level. Which of the following health care providers should be alerted before the nurse can proceed with discharge planning?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The attending physician<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The admitting physician<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The nursing supervisor<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The physician assistant<br>attending physician<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>On the CMS-1500 claim form, blocks 14 to 33 contain information about which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Patient demographics<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s condition and the provider&#8217;s information<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The insurance name and address<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s medical history<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s condition and the provider&#8217;s information<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>The star symbol in the CPT code book is used to indicate which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>New code<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Exempt from the used of modifier 51<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Revised code<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>telemedicine<br>telemedicine<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>New code (bullet or dot symbol)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Exempt from the used of modifier 51 (circle with line through it)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Revised code (blue triangle)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the portion of the account balance the patient must pay after services are rendered and the annual deductible is met?<br>Coinsurance<br>Allowed amount<br>Premium<br>capitation<br>&amp;<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The CBCS should first divide the evaluation and management code by which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Place of service<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Severity<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Combination code (diagnosis)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Point of service (type of insurance)<br>place of service<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>In the anesthesia section of the CPT manual, which of the following are considered qualifying circumstances?<br>-Physical status modifiers<br>-Primary procedure code<br>-Mutually exclusive codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Add-on codes<br>Add-on codes (listed after the primary procedure code, cannot ever be listed as a primary or coded as the only procedure code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Physical status modifiers (level of complexity of the anesthesia service provided)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Primary procedure code (not a qualifying circumstance)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Mutually exclusive codes (codes that could not reasonable be performed during the same operative event)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>As of April 1, 2014, what is the maximum number of diagnoses that can be reported on the CMS-1500 claim form before further claim is required?<br>4<br>10<br>12<br>6<br>12<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When submitting a clean claim with a diagnosis of kidney stones, which of the following procedure names is correct?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Nephrolysis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Nephrectomy<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Nephrolithiasis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Enterorrhexis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Nephrolithiasis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Nephrolysis (washing free of adhesions)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Nephrectomy<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Enterorrhexis (rupture)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is one of the purposes of an internal auditing program in a physician&#8217;s office?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Verifying that the medical records and the billing record match<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Increasing revenue for the physician<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Improving communication between the coding supervisor and coding professional<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Protecting patients from sanctions or fines<br>Verifying that the medical records and the billing record match<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>patient : Jane Austin; Social Security No: 555-22-1111, Medicare ID no:555-33-2222A, DOB 05\/22\/1945. Claim information entered. Austin, Jane: social security no :555-22-1111, Medicare no: 555-33-2222A , DOB: 052245. Which of the following is a reason the claim was rejected?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The Medicare Id is entered incorrectly<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The DOB is entered incorrectly<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s name is entered incorrectly<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The social security is entered incorrectly<br>The DOB is entered incorrectly<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following options is considered proper supportive documentation for reporting CPT and ICD codes for surgical procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Approval on previous claim form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Operative report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Encounter form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Progress note<br>Operative report<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions should be taken first when reviewing a delinquent claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Verify the age of the account<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Query the insurance company<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Obtain claim status<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Resubmitting the claim<br>Verify the age of the account<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following components of an explanation of benefits expedites the process of a phone appeal?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>NPI number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim control number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Insured&#8217;s ID number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Check number<br>Claim control number<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A claim can be denied or rejected for which of the following reasons?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>All data is uppercase<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Block 25 contains the EIN of the rendering provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s DOB is in eight digit format<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Block 24 D contains the diagnosis code<br>Block 24 D contains the diagnosis code (should be in 21)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>To be compliant with HIPAA, which of the following positions should be assigned in each office?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Gatekeeper<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Privacy officer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Compliance official<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health insurance administrator<br>Privacy officer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Compliance official ( ensures that all staff comply with industry standards)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health insurance administrator (facilitates the payer&#8217;s side)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>All email correspondence to a third party payer containing a patient&#8217;s PHI should be <strong>_<\/strong> .<br>Encrypted<br>Removed<br>Forwarded to the patient<br>Accompanied with an authorization<br>Encrypted<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS should understand that the financial record source that is generated by the provider&#8217;s office is called a <strong><em>_<\/em><\/strong> .<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Chargemaster<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Fee schedule<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Encounter form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient ledger account<br>Patient ledger account (history of patient&#8217;s financial record)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following includes procedures and best practices for correct coding?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Coding compliance plan<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Retrospective audit<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Prospective review<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Diagnosis related group<br>Coding compliance plan (contains rules, procedures and best practices to ensure accurate coding)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Retrospective audit (ensure correctness of billing documents)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Prospective review ( ensure the appropriateness and necessity of the care provided)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Diagnosis related group (Prospective payment for acute care is based on the Diagnosis related groups)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>HIPAA transaction standards apply to which of the following entities?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Employers who provide worker&#8217;s compensation plans<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Automobile insurance agencies<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health care clearinghouses<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Educational facilities<br>healthcare clearinghouse<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions should be taken if an insurance denies a service as not medically necessary?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Send the patient a copy of the remittance advice<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Appeal the decision with a provider&#8217;s report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submit a claim to the patient&#8217;s secondary insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Call the patient to confirm eligibility<br>Appeal the decision with a provider&#8217;s report<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient with a past due balance requests that his records be sent to another provider. Which of the following actions should be taken?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Withhold the records until the account is paid (HIPAA requires to honor the request)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Send the patient a statement<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Accommodate the request and send the record<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Begin collection action on the balance due<br>accommodate the request and send the record<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>The physician bills $500 to a patient. After submitting the claim to the insurance, the claim is sent back with no payment. The patient still owes $500 for the year. This amount is called?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Deductible<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coinsurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Copayment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Premium<br>deductible<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is used to code diseases, injury and other health related problems?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>ICD<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CPT<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HCPCS<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CDT<br>ICD<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CDT ( Current Dental terminology)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient&#8217;s portion of the bill should be discussed with the patient before a procedure is performed for which of the following reasons?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>To determine the procedure<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>To verify insurance coverage<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>To give the patient the option to negotiate their portion of the bill<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>To ensure the patient understands his portion of the bill<br>To ensure the patient understands his portion of the bill<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following information is required on a patient account record?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Name and address of guarantor<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Procedures performed<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Family history of the guarantor<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Diagnosis<br>Name and address of guarantor<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A claim is submitted with a transposed insurance member ID number and returned to the provider. Which of the following describes the status that should be assigned to the claim by the carrier?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Suspended<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pending<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Denied<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>invalid<br>invalid<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following should the CBCS complete to be reimbursed for the provider&#8217;s service?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>CMS-1500 claim form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMSC-1450<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Superbill<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Leger<br>CMS-1500 claim form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMSC-1450 (used by institutions)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Superbill (encounter form)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Leger (financial document)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a HIPAA compliance guideline affecting electronic health records?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The privacy requirements cover facilities health information, whether paper of electronic<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Electronic health records should be sent to the insurance at 835P format (remittance advice is in the 835 P format)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The electronic transmission and code set standards require every p provider to use the health care transaction, code set and identifiers<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The Health information technology of economic and clinical health (HITECH) act encrypts provider PHI.<br>The electronic transmission and code set standards require every p provider to use the health care transaction, code set and identifiers<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>(remittance advice is in the 835 P format)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the purpose of precertification?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Verification of coverage<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Determining the annual deductible amount<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Determining the coinsurance amount<br>verification of coverage<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following should the CBCS include in an authorization to release information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The number of pages to be released<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The health record number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The entity to whom the information is to be released<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The name of the physician<br>the entity to whom the information is to be released<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions should the CBCS take if he observes a colleague in an unethical situation?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>File a complaint with the company compliance officer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Confront the employee<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Report the incident to a supervisor<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Ignore the incident<br>report the incident to a supervisor<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When posting payment accurately, which of the following items should the CBCS include?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>CPT code<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>ICD codes<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Insurance number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient&#8217; responsibility<br>patient responsibility<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A dependent child whose parents both have insurance coverage, comes to the clinic. The CBCS uses the birthday rule to determine which insurance policy is primary. What is the birthday rule?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The parent who has the birthdate closer to the child<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The parent who is older<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>In the case of identical birthdates, the payment whose name is first alphabetically<br>the parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following statements is true regarding the release of patient records?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Verbal requests for records from life insurance are appropriate.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Identification is not required when requesting access to patient records<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Providers can not share a patient&#8217;s medical information with other health care professionals if the patient is mentally unstable<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient access to psychotherapy notes be restricted<br>Patient access to psychotherapy notes be restricted<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient&#8217;s employer has not submitted a premium payment. Which of the following claim statuses should the provider receive from the third party payer?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Invalid<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Adjusted<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Denied<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>incomplete<br>denied<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following do physicians use to electronically submit claims?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Claim scrubber<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Clearinghouse<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMS-1050<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>835P<br>clearinghouse<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When coding on the UB-04 form, the CBCS must sequence the diagnosis codes according to ICD guidelines. Which of the following is the first listed diagnosis code?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Primary diagnosis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chief complaint<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Etiology<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Principal diagnosis<br>principal diagnosis (inpatient)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>primary diagnosis = outpatient<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following does a patient sign to allow payment of claim directly to the provider?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Advance beneficiary notice<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Adjudication of claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Release of information<br>assignment of benefits<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>According to HIPAA standards, which of the following identifies the -rendering provider in Block 24J?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>UPIN (unique provider number &#8211; no longer used)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>EIN (employee id number &#8211; 25 )<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>SSN (25 and 33)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>NPI<br>NPI<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>UPIN (unique provider number &#8211; no longer used)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>EIN (employee id number &#8211; 25 )<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>SSN (25 and 33)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following provisions ensures that an insured&#8217;s benefits from all insurances do not exceed 100% of allowable medical expenses?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Source document (financial draft that is the initial point of entry to an accounting system)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coinsurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coordination of benefits<br>Coordination of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Source document (financial draft that is the initial point of entry to an accounting system)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the verbal or written agreement that gives approval to some action, situation, or statement and allows the release of patient information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Compliance agreement (prevents fraudulent activities)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Security rule agreement<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Consent agreement<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HIPAA<br>consent agreement<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>The deductible of $100 is applied to a patient&#8217;s remittance advice. The provider requests the account personnel write it off. Which of the following terms describes this scenario?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Fraud<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Abuse<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Adjudication<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>spend-down<br>Fraud<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A coroner&#8217;s autoplay is comprised of which of the following examinations?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Suppression testing<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Gross examination<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Diagnostic endoscopy<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Mohs micrographic examination<br>Gross examination<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the advantage of electronic claim submission?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Claims are expedited<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims are scrubbed<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims are clean<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims are paid<br>Claims are expedited<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A physician ordered a comprehensive metabolic panel for a 70 year old patient who has Medicare as her primary insurance. Which of the following forms is required so the patient knows she may be responsible for payment?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>HIPAA<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Advance beneficiary notice<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMS-1500<br>advance beneficiary notice<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>All dependents 10 years or older are required to have which of the following for TRICARE?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Signature on file<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Military identification<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Provider signature<br>Military identification<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Medigap coverage is offered to Medicare beneficiaries by which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Medicaid (Medicaid supplemental coverage is called Medi-Medi and it picks up Medicare&#8217;s premium to qualified applicants)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Federal health plans (not private, therefore do not offer supplemental coverage)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Managed care plans (primary or secondary, not supplemental)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Private third party payer<br>private third party payer<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>An insurance claim register (aged insurance report) facilitates which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Batching of claims for submission to the insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Determination of the patient&#8217;s insurance coverage<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Compensation of the CMS-1500 claim form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Follow up of insurance claim by date<br>Follow up of insurance claim by date<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient comes to the hospital for an inpatient procedure. Which of the following staff members is responsible for the initial patient interview, obtaining demographic and insurance information, and documenting the chief complaint?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Nurse<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Insurance billing clerk<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Admitting clerk<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Ward clerk<br>admitting clerk<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the primary function of the heart?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Pumping blood in the circulatory system<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Creating new blood form the bone marrow<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Deoxygenating blood in the lungs<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Ridding the blood of free radicals<br>Pumping blood in the circulatory system<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions should be taken when a claim is billed for a level 4 office visit and paid at a level 3?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Charge the patient for the difference<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submit the claim to the patient&#8217;s secondary carrier<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Write off the difference between the two services<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submit an appeal to the carrier with the supporting documentation<br>Submit an appeal to the carrier with the supporting documentation<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following types of claims is 120 days old?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Clean<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Delinquent<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Open<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>closed<br>delinquent<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following shows outstanding balances?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Bad debt report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Fee schedule<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Aging report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Remittance advice<br>aging report<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which part of Medicare covers prescription?<br>A<br>B<br>C<br>D<br>D<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following best describes medical ethics?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Medical etiquette<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Medical standard of conduct<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Medical laws<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Medical principles and practices<br>medical standard of conduct<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider&#8217;s office receives a subpoena requesting medical documentation from a patient&#8217;s medical record. After confirming the correct authorization, which of the following actions should the billing and coding specialist take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Send the patient&#8217;s demographic information from the dates of services<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Send the medical information pertaining to the dates of service requested<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Send the patient&#8217;s financial record ledger from the dates of service requested<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Send the claim pertaining to the dates of service requested<br>Send the medical information pertaining to the dates of service requested<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following prohibits a provider from referring Medicare patients to a clinical laboratory service in which the provider has a financial interest?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Federal anti-kickback statute<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act (COBRA)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Stark Law<br>Stark Law<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Federal anti-kickback statute (prohibits exchange or offer for exchange, anything of value, in an effort to reward the business<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act (COBRA)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following explains why Medicare will deny a particular service or procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Local coverage determination (LCD)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Advance beneficiary notice<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMS-1500<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>UB-04<br>advance beneficiary notice<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following documentation is valid authorization to release medical information to the judicial system?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Consent for treatment form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Deposition<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Signed release of information form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Subpoena duces tecum<br>Subpoena duces tecum<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A physician&#8217;s office fee is $100 and the Medicare Part B allowed amount is $85. Assuming the beneficiary has not met his annual deductible, the office should bill the patient for which of the following amounts?<br>$85<br>$15<br>$100<br>$0<br>$85<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS has four past-due charges: $400 that is 10 weeks past due; $800 that is 6 weeks past due; $1000 that is 4 weeks past due; and $2000 that is 8 weeks past due. Which of one should be sent to collection first?<br>-$400<br>-$800<br>-$1000<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>$2000<br>$2000 (the largest amount first)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Threatening a catheter with a balloon into a coronary artery and expanding it to repair arteries describes which of the following procedures?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Valvuloplasty<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Atherectomy<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Angioplasty<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Ablation<br>Angioplasty<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Valvuloplasty (open a stenotic heart valve)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Atherectomy (Non surgical procedure to open blocked coronary arteries or vein grafts by using a device on the end of a catheter to cut or shave away atherosclerotic plaque. It does not us a balloon.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Ablation (radio frequency waves of the heart is used to cure a variety of cardiac arrhythmia.)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following should a CBCS use to submit a claim with supporting documents?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Aging report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>claim s attachment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Electronic explanation of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Electronic remittance advice details services billed and payment<br>claims attachment<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>If a clean claim is received on March 1 of this year, which of the following is the allowable last day of payment in order to meet Medicare compliance requirements<br>March 15<br>April 2<br>March 30<br>April 10<br>March 30 (paid in 30 days)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a reason for a claim to be denied?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Unpaid copayment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>incorrectly linked codes<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Missing attachment (suspended)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Omission of patient gender (suspended)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS should routinely analyze which of the following to determine the number of outstanding claims?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Accounts payable report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Aging report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Remittance advice<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Explanation of benefits<br>aging report<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When reviewing an established patient&#8217;s insurance card, the CBCS notices a minor change from the existing card on file. Which of the following actions should the CBCS take?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Photocopy both sides of the new card<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Describe the change on the patient registration form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Instruct the patient to contact the insurance company to verify coverage<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Confirm with the patient that the insurance coverage is the same<br>Photocopy both sides of the new card<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is an example of a remark code from an explanation of benefits document?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Contractual allowance (standard response to the amount charged)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Amount charged<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Statement summary<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Out of pocket<br>Contractual allowance (standard response to the amount charged)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following national provider identification is required in Block 33a of a CMS-1500 claim form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Referring provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Insurance provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Service facility provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing provider<br>Billing provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Referring provider (17b)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Insurance provider (not required)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Service facility provider (32a)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is true regarding Medicaid eligibility?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Eligibility of dependents is automatic<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Providers who accept Medicare must also accept Medicaid<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient eligibility is determined monthly<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient eligibility begins at 65<br>Patient eligibility is determined monthly<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the purpose of coordination of benefits?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Collect and verify information about the patient and provider by sorting claims upon submission<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Compare payer edits and patient&#8217;s health plan<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Prevent multiple insurers from paying benefits covered by other policies<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Reduce the number of paper claim submitted<br>Prevent multiple insurers from paying benefits covered by other policies<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When the remittance advice is sent from the third-party payer to the provider, which of the following actions should the CBCS perform first?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Generate a patient statement of responsibility<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Post necessary contractual adjustment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Ensure proper payment has been made<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Evaluate the claim for collection activity<br>ensure proper payment has been made<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following pieces of guarantor information is required when establishing a patient&#8217;s financial record?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Procedural codes used<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Providers name<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Phone number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>diagnosis<br>phone number<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>The &#8220;&lt;&gt;&#8221; symbol is used to indicate new and revised text other than which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Diagnostic nonessential modifier<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Procedure descriptors<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HCPCS description<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Diagnostic specificity<br>procedure descriptors<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A provider surgically punctures through the space between ribs using an aspirating needle to withdraw fluids from the chest cavity?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Thoracotomy (incision)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pleurocentesis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Thoracoscope (visual exam)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pleurodesis (pleural space is obliterated)<br>Pleurocentesis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Thoracotomy (incision)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Thoracoscope (visual exam)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pleurodesis (pleural space is obliterated)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following formats are used to submit electronic claims to a third-party payer?<br>-835 (claims payment and remittance advice)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>270 (transaction for an eligibility inquiry to centers for Medicare and -Medicaid or Medicare administrative contractor)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>837<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>271 (response from Medicare and Medicaid to 270)<br>837<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>835 (claims payment and remittance advice)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>270 (transaction for an eligibility inquiry to centers for Medicare and -Medicaid or Medicare administrative contractor)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>271 (response from Medicare and Medicaid to 270)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions by the CBCS prevents fraud?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Writing of a deductible<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Performing periodic audits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Unbundling codes<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Upcoding claims<br>performing periodic audits<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes an insurance carrier that pays the provider who rendered services to a patient?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Fee-for-service (patient pays provider at each visit)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>First party payer (patient)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Third-party payer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Retrospective payment<br>third party payer<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following causes a claim to be suspended?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The patient&#8217;s medical coverage is canceled (denied)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient other primary insurance (denied)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Services require additional information<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Services were not authorized (denied)<br>Services require additional information<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>For non-crossover claims, the CBCS should prepare an additional claim for the secondary payer and send it with a copy of which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Primary insurance card<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coordination of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Remittance advice<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits<br>remittance advice<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following terms is used to communicate why a claim line item was denied or paid differently that it was billed?<br>Claim adjustment codes<br>Clearinghouse report<br>Provider taxonomy codes (identification of type of provider)<br>Claim control number<br>claim adjustment codes<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes a two-digit CPT code used to indicate that the provider supervised and interpreted a radiology procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Technical component<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Professional component<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Descriptive qualifier<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Physical status modifier<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Professional component<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Technical component (use of equipment)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Descriptive qualifier (terms not codes)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Physical status modifier (patient condition at time of anesthesia administration)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following parts of the Medicare insurance program is managed by private, third-party insurance providers that have been approved by Medicare?<br>Medicare part A<br>Medicare part B<br>Medicare part C<br>Medicare part D<br>Medicare Part C<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>When a third-party payer requests copies of patient information related to a claim, the CBCS must make sure which of the following is included in the patient&#8217;s file?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Consent to treat<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Signed release of information form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pre Authorization form for the patient to see a specialist<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Signed subpoena information form<br>Signed release of information form<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A husband and wife each have group insurance through their employers. The wife has an appointment with her provider. Which insurance should be used as primary for the appointment?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Husbands insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Whoever is older<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Whoever has their birthday first in the calendar year<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Wife&#8217;s insurance<br>wife&#8217;s insurance<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is a federal government health insurance<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Blue shield and Blue cross<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Worker&#8217;s compensation<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Cigna<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>TRICARE<br>TRICARE<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following terms refers to the difference between the billed and allowed amounts?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Adjustment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Copayment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Deductible<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>coinsurance<br>adjustment<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions would be considered fraud?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Which of the following actions would be considered fraud?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submitting a claim for services that are not medically necessary<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Violating participating provider agreements with third-party payers<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing for services not provided<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing non-covered services as covered services<br>Billing for services not provided<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submitting a claim for services that are not medically necessary (abuse)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Violating participating provider agreements with third-party payers (abuse)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing non-covered services as covered services (abuse)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>The CBCS should follow the guidelines in the CPT manual for which of the following reasons?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The guidelines define items that are necessary to accurate code<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The guidelines assist with coding proper diagnoses (ICD)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The guidelines indicates medical necessity<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The guidelines negate the need for documentation<br>The guidelines define items that are necessary to accurate code<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following entities defines the essential elements of a comprehensive compliance program?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health information Portability and accountability act<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>American health information management association<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Office of inspector general<br>Office of inspector general (OIG)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health information Portability and accountability act (HIPAA)<br>-American health information management association (AHIMA) (promotion of knowledge and integrity of the profession)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A claim is denied due to termination of coverage. Which of the following actions should the CBCS take next?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Follow up with the provider to determine current procedure code, diagnostic code and provider number for resubmission<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Follow up with the patient to determine current primary care provider for resubmission<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Follow up with the provider to determine current patient&#8217;s status and include a billing history for resubmission<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Follow up with the patient to determine current name, address, and insurance carrier for resubmission<br>Follow up with the patient to determine current name, address, and insurance carrier for resubmission<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following sections of the SOAP note includes a patient&#8217;s level of pain to a provider?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Subjective<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Objective<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assessment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>plan<br>subjective<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following reports is used to arrange the accounts receivable from the date of service?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Explanation of benefits report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Remittance advice report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Itemized report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Aging report<br>aging report<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is used to code illness, injury, impairments, and other health related problems?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>ICD<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CPT<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HCPCS<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CDT<br>ICD<br>CPT (procedures)<br>HCPCS (hospital)<br>CDT (dental)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is fraud?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>submitting a bill for claims not medically necessary<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submitting a bill for services that are not covered<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submitting a bill for duplicate charges on a claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Unbundling a code for higher reimbursement<br>Unbundling a code for higher reimbursement<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following Medicare policies determines if a particular item or service is covered by Medicare?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>National coverage determination (NCD)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Prospective payment system ( PPS)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Advance beneficiary notice<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Resource based relative value scale<br>National coverage determination (NCD)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Prospective payment system ( PPS)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following terms is used to describe the location of the stomach, the spleen, part of the pancreas, part of the liver, and part of the small and large intestine?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Left upper quadrant<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Right upper quadrant (right lobe of liver, gallbladder, part of pancreas, small and large intestine)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Right lower quadrant (small and large intestines, appendix, and right ureter<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Left lower quadrant (parts of small and large intestine, left ureter<br>Left upper quadrant<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Right upper quadrant (right lobe of liver, gallbladder, part of pancreas, small and large intestine)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Right lower quadrant (small and large intestines, appendix, and right ureter<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Left lower quadrant (parts of small and large intestine, left ureter)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following would result in a claim being denied?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>An italicized code used as the first listed diagnosis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A CPT code used as the procedure code in an outpatient setting<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An ICD-10-PCS code used as the primary diagnosis code in an inpatient setting<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A HCPCS code used as the procedure code in an outpatient setting<br>An italicized code used as the first listed diagnosis<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>The authorization number for a service that was approved before the service was rendered is indicated in which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form?<br>22 (Medicaid resubmission code)<br>23 (prior authorization number)<br>25 (federal tax ID number)<br>26 ( patient&#8217;s account number)<br>23 (prior authorization number)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>22 (Medicaid resubmission code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>25 (federal tax ID number)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>26 ( patient&#8217;s account number)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following HMO managed care services requires a referral?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Durable medical equipment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Annual physical examination<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Emergency room visit<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Annual gynecological services<br>durable medical equipment<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>In which of the following blocks on the S=CMS-1500 form should the CBCS enter the referring provider&#8217;s NPI?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>17b (referring providers NPI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24J (rendering provider&#8217;s NPI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24D (CPT code)<br>-25 (federal tax ID)<br>17b (referring providers NPI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24J (rendering provider&#8217;s NPI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24D (CPT code)<br>-25 (federal tax ID)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>In the anesthesia section of the CPT code manual, which of the following are considered qualifying circumstances?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Physical status modifiers<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Primary procedure code<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Mutually exclusive codes<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Add-on codes<br>Primary procedure code<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Physical status modifiers (levels of complexity of the anesthesia service provided)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Mutually exclusive codes (codes that could not be reasonably be performed during the same operative event)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Add-on codes<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 form indicates an ICD diagnosis code?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>24 d (procedure and service code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>18 (additional claim information)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>20 (outside reference)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>21<br>21<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24 d (procedure and service code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>18 (additional claim information)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>20 (outside reference)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the deadline for Medicare claim submission?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>6 month from the date of service<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>1 month form the date of service<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>3 month form the date of service<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>12 month from the date of service<br>12 month from the date of service<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient is pre authorized to receive vitamin B12 injections from January 1 to May 31. On June 2, the provider orders an additional 6 month of injections. In order for the patient to continue with coverage of care, which of the following should occur?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The patient should stop receiving the injection because the authorization has lapsed<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient should stop receiving the injection and find a new provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The provider should go ahead with the injections due to medical necessity<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The provider should contact the insurance carrier to obtain a new authorization<br>The provider should contact the insurance carrier to obtain a new authorization<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient should stop receiving the injection because the authorization has lapsed<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient should stop receiving the injection and find a new provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The provider should go ahead with the injections due to medical necessity<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient who has an HMO insurance plan needs to see a specialist for a specific problem. From which of the following should the patient obtain referral?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Insurance provider<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Specialist<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HMO physician network<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Primary care provider<br>primary care provider<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>When coding front torso burn, which of the following percentages should be coded?<br>18%<br>1%<br>36%<br>10%<br>18%<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>If both parents have full coverage for a dependent child, which of the following is considered to be the primary insurance?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Both parents are primary insurance holders<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The parent who&#8217;s birthday comes first in the calendar year is primary<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The parent with the higher coverage level is the primary insurance holder<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The parent who is older is the primary insurance holder<br>The parent who&#8217;s birthday comes first in the calendar year is primary<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>On a CMS-1500 form, which of the following information should the CBCS enter into block 32?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Patient&#8217;s account number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Federal tax id number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing providers information and phone number<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Service facility location number<br>Service facility location number (32)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient&#8217;s account number (26)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Federal tax id number (25)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing providers information and phone number (33)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following actions should the CBCS take when submitting a claim to Medicaid for a patient who has primary and secondary coverage?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Attach the remittance advice from the primary insurance along with the Medicaid claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submit the claim and Medicaid remittance advice to the secondary insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Attach the remittance advice from the patient&#8217;s most recent visit to confirm Medicaid eligibility<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submit both claim simultaneously and then review the remittance advice from both to determine which one provided more coverage<br>Attach the remittance advice from the primary insurance along with the Medicaid claim (Medicaid is always secondary)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submit the claim and Medicaid remittance advice to the secondary insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Attach the remittance advice from the patient&#8217;s most recent visit to confirm Medicaid eligibility<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submit both claim simultaneously and then review the remittance advice from both to determine which one provided more coverage<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient has AARP as secondary insurance, in which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 form should this information be entered?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>1a ( primary insurance carrier)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>9 (secondary insurance)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>21 (diagnoses)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>16 (dated patient is unable to work)<br>9 (secondary insurance)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>1a ( primary insurance carrier)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>21 (diagnoses)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>16 (dated patient is unable to work)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>In 1996, CMS implemented which of the following to detect inappropriate and improper codes?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>National committee of quality assurance (NCQA)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Electronic data interchange (EDI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>National correct code initiative (NCCI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Procedural coding system (PCS)<br>National correct code initiative (NCCI)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS submitted a claim to Medicare electronically. No errors were found by the billing software or clearinghouse. Which of the following describes this claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Pending claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Clean claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Tertiary claim (processed by both primary and secondary insurance)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Physically clean claim (no staples, no highlighters)<br>clean<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>The explanation of benefits states the amount billed was $80. The allowed amount is $60, and the patient is required to pay a $20 copayment. Which of the following describes the insurance check amount to be posted?<br>$40<br>$80<br>$60<br>$20<br>$80<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Urine moves from the kidney to the bladder through which of the following parts of the body?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Ureters<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Renal pelvis (hollow chamber that passes waste material)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Urethra (discharges urine from the bladder<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Adrenal gland (above the kidney, part of endocrine system<br>Ureter<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Renal pelvis (hollow chamber that passes waste material)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Urethra (discharges urine from the bladder<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Adrenal gland (above the kidney, part of endocrine system<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks should the CBCS complete on the CMS-1500 form for procedure, services, and supplies?<br>12 (patient authorization)<br>2 (patient name)<br>24D<br>24J (rendering provider)<br>24D<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>12 (patient authorization)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>2 (patient name)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24J (rendering provider)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes the organization of an aging report?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>By date<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>By amount<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>By patient name<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>By insurance carrier<br>by date<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following planes divides the body into left and right?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Sagittal<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coronal (anterior and posterior0<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Transverse (superior and inferior)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Distal (farthest away from body)<br>sagittal<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS is preparing a claim from a provider from a group practice.. The CBCS should enter the rendering provider&#8217;s NPI into which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>17b (referring provider NPI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>24J<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>31 (providers signature)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>25 (federal tax id number)<br>24J<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>17b (referring provider NPI)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>31 (providers signature)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>25 (federal tax id number)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following organizations fights waste, fraud, and abuse in Medicare and Medicaid?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Department of health and Human services<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Centers for Medicare and Medicaid services<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Office of inspector general<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health resources and services administration<br>Office of inspector genereal<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Department of health and Human services (protecting the health of Americans)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Centers for Medicare and Medicaid services<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health resources and services administration (improving access to services for people who are uninsured, isolated or medically vulnerable)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Provider performs an examination of a patient&#8217;s knee joint and an optical device. Which of the following terms describes this procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Arthroscopy<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Arthrography<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Meniscectomy<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chondroplasty<br>Arthroscopy<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Arthrography (imaging procedure)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Meniscectomy (open surgical excision of the meniscus)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chondroplasty (surgical repair of cartilage)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>On the CMS-1500 form, blocks 14 though 33 contain information about which of the following?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Patient demographics (2,3,5,7)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>patient &#8216;s condition and providers information<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The insurance name and address (1a,4,11)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient medical history (not on the form)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>patient &#8216;s condition and providers information<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient demographics (2,3,5,7)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The insurance name and address (1a,4,11)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient medical history (not on the form)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following symbols indicate a revised code?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Bullseye (moderate sedation)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Bullet (new code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Plus sign ( add-on code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Triangle<br>Triangle<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Bullseye (moderate sedation)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Bullet (new code)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Plus sign ( add-on code)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A CBCS can ensure appropriate insurance coverage for an outpatient procedure by first using which of the following processes?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Predetermination (finals step to determine insurance reimbursement and patient responsibility)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Precertification (first step to determine if the patient has coverage)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Preaudit (review of claim before adjudication)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Preauthorization ( insurance approval for the procedure)<br>Precertification (first step to determine if the patient has coverage)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Predetermination (finals step to determine insurance reimbursement and patient responsibility<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Preaudit (review of claim before adjudication)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Preauthorization ( insurance approval for the procedure)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following qualifies as an exception to the HIPAA rule?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Operative notes<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Radiology results<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Laboratory results<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Psychotherapy notes<br>psychotherapy notes<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient has laboratory work done in the emergency department after an inhalation of toxic fumes from a faulty exhaust fan at her work place. Which of the following is responsible for the charge?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Disability insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Indemnity insurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Worker&#8217;s compensation<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Managed care<br>worker&#8217;s compensation<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following forms does a third party payer require for physician services?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Explanation of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Advance directive<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMS-1500<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>UB-04<br>CMS-1500<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is included in the release of patient information?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The date of the most recent clinical exam<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The date of the last disclosure<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Provider&#8217;s signature<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Emergency contact information<br>the date of the last disclosure<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following standardized formats are used in the electric filing claims?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>HIPAA standard transaction<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Electronic data interchange (standardized format)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Encryption<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Technical and physical safeguards<br>HIPAA standard transaction<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>The explanation of benefits states the amount billed was $170. However the allowed amount is $150. The patient has an unmet deductible of $50 and a copayment of $20. Which of the following amounts is the patient&#8217;s responsibility.<br>70<br>50<br>20<br>80<br>70 = unmet deductible + copay)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A Medicare non-participating (non-PAR) provider&#8217;s approved payment amount is $200 for a lobectomy and the deductible has been met. Which of the following amounts is the limiting charge for this procedure?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>$160<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>$200<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>$170<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>$230 (can collect a max of 15% over the non-PAR Medicare schedule amount)<br>$230 = can collect a max of 15% over the non-PAR Medicare schedule mount<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is an example of Medicare abuse?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Billing for services not furnished<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Charging excessive fees<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Falsifying medical necessity<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Upcoding charges<br>charging excessive fees (all others are fraud)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes the term &#8220;crossover&#8221; as it relates to Medicare?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>When an insurance company transfers data to allow coordination of benefits of a claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>When more than one insurance pays for the same service<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>When the insurance pays twice for the same service<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>When an insurance company transfers data to allow adjudication of a claim to occur<br>When an insurance company transfers data to allow coordination of benefits of a claim<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the maximum of modifiers that the CBCS can report on a CMS-1500 claim in block 24D.<br>Five<br>Four<br>Two<br>three<br>four<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following would most likely result in a denial on a Medicare claim?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>An experimental chemotherapy medication for a patient who has stage III renal cancer.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A radiation therapy treatment for a patient who has stage II lymphoma<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A skin cancer screening for a patient who has a history of melanoma<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An annual physical examination on a patient who has no known illness<br>an experimental chemotherapy medication for a patient who has stage III renal cancer<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 form is used to accept assignment of benefits?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>13 (patient signature)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>33 ( billing providers address and phone number)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>27<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>21 (diagnosis codes)<br>27<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>13 (patient signature)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>33 ( billing providers address and phone number)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>21 (diagnosis codes)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes a key component of an evaluation and management service?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>History<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Diagnosis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>procedure<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient status<br>History (history, examination and medical decision making)<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following provisions ensures that an insured&#8217;s benefit from all insurance companies do not exceed 100% of allowable medical expenses?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Source document (financial draft that is the initial point of entry to an accounting system)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coinsurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coordination of benefits<br>assignment of benefits<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the diagnostic codes in block 21?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The codes must correspond to the procedure and service codes in block 24 D (only if correlation is established in block 24E)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>These codes must contain a decimal point to eliminate any confusion regarding the type of code. (no decimal point)<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A minimum of four diagnostic codes is necessary to obtain a clean, medically necessary claim.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The codes must correspond to the diagnosis pointer in block 24E<br>The codes must correspond to the diagnosis pointer in block 24E<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>A patient who is an active member of the military service returned from overseas and is in need of specialty care. The patient does not have anyone designated with power of attorney. Which of the following is considered a HIPAA violation?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>The military provider requests the patient&#8217;s records without a signed authorization to disclose form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient request an amendment to his record<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The CBCS sends the patient&#8217;s records to the patient&#8217;s partner<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s insurance requests additional records to process the claim<br>the CBC sends the patient&#8217;s record to the patient&#8217;s partner<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following is the portion of the account balance the patient must pay after services are rendered and the annual deductible is met?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>coinsurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>allowed amount<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>premium<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>capitation<br>Coinsurance<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>capitation = fixed amount that is paid to the provider by the managed care organization<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following describes the reason for a claim rejection because of Medicare NCCI edits?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Reporting codes without proper modifiers<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coding without proper documentation<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Improper code combination<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Use of outdated codes<br>improper code combination<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>Which of the following information is required to include on an Advance Beneficiary Notice form?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>CPT codes<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>ICD codes<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The reason Medicare may not pay<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The reason the patient needs the procedure<br>the reason Medicare may not pay<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is considered the final determination of the issues involving the settlement of an insurance claim?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Adjudication &#8211; is the process of putting an insurance claim through a series of edits for final determination.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A form that contains charges, DOS, CPT codes, fees, and copayment information is called which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Encounter form is a form that contains charges, DOS, CPT code, ICD codes, fees, and copayment information.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 67<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient comes to the hospital for an inpatient procedure. Which of the following hospital staff members is responsible for the initial patient interview, obtaining demographic and insurance information, and documenting the chief complaint?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Admitting these duties clerk has Chapter 3<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following privacy measures ensures protected health information (PHI)?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Using data encryption software on office workstations &#8211; encryption software ensures that electronically transmitted health information cannot be read by third parties. This privacy measure guarantees PHI.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 1<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following planes divide the body into left and right?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Sagittal plane divides the body into right and left sections<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following provisions ensures that an insured&#8217;s benefits from all insurance companies do not exceed 100% of allowable medical expenses?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coordination of benefits ensures that the insured benefits from all insured companies do not exceed 100% of allowable medical expenses.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 16<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following actions should be taken first when reviewing a delinquent claim?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Verify the age of the account is the first action.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 45<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is the advantage of electronic claim submission?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims are expedited &#8211; submitting claims electronically is faster than submitting paper claims.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 15<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following components of an explanation of benefits expedites the process of a phone appeal?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claim control number expedites the process of a phone appeal.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The standard medical abbreviation &#8220;ECG&#8221; refers to a test used to assess which of the following body systems?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Cardiovascular system- which is a test that checks for problems with the electrical activity of the heart.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following actions by a billing coding specialist (bcs) would be considered fraud?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Billing for a service not provided is considered fraud and can result in fines for the bcs and the physician page 6<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The &#8220;> &lt;&#8221; symbol is used to indicate new and revised text other than which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Procedures descriptors Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>On the CMS-1500 claim form, blocks 14 through 33 contain information about which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s condition and the provider&#8217;s information are found on the CMS-1500 at blocks 14 &#8211; 33 page 21<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following includes procedures and best practices for correct coding?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coding Compliance Plan contains rules, procedures, and best practices to ensure accurate coding.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>When completing a CMS-1500 paper claim form, which of the following is an acceptable action for the bcs to take?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Use Arial size 10 font or OCR size 10-, or 12-point for paper claims.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 2<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A participating BCBS provider received an explanation of benefits for a patient account. The charge amount was $100. BC\/BS allowed $80 and applied $40 to the patient&#8217;s annual deductible. BC\/BS paid the balance at 80%. How much should the patient expect to pay?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>$48 page 38-39<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following indicates a claim should be submitted on paper instead of electronically?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The claim requires an attachment &#8211; should submit a paper form if the claim requires an attachment.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 2<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>According to HIPAA standards, which of the following identifies the rendering provider on the CMS-1500 claim form in Block 24J?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>NPI Page 23<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following blocks should the bcs complete on the CMS-1500 form for procedures, services, or supplies?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Block 24D.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Page 23<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following terms describes when a plan pays 70% of the allowed and the patient pays 30%?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coinsurance is a percentage of the cost for covered services that is approved by the insurance company.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Page 39<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A provider charges $500 to a claim that had an allowable amount of $400. In which of the following columns should the bcs apply the non-allowed charge?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The adjustment column of the credits is where adjustments are recorded.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 47<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is a HIPAA compliance guideline affecting electronic health records?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical (HITECH) Act encrypts provider &#8211; protected health information<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 1 &amp; 3<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient: Justin Austin; Social Security NO.: 555-22-1111; Medicare ID NO.: 555-33-2222A; DOB: 05\/22\/1945. Claim information entered: Austin, Jane; Social Security No.: 555-22-111; Medicare ID No.: 555-33-2222A; DOB: 052245. Which of the following is a reason the claim was rejected?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The DOB is entered incorrectly &#8211; the format is two digits for the month and four digits for the year.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 18<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Why does correct claim processing rely on accurately completed encounter forms?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>They streamline patient billing by summarizing the services rendered for a given date of service &#8211; encounter forms allow a provider to summarize services rendered by code, which reduces time spent by bcs when posting charges. Page 18<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient&#8217;s health plan is referred to as the &#8220;payer of last resort.&#8221; The patient is covered by which of the following health plans?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Medicaid is the health plan that is referred to as the &#8220;payor of last resort.&#8221; All of the patient&#8217;s health plans must meet their obligations before Medicaid will pay.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 30<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following color formats allows optical scanning of the CMS-1500 claim form?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Red ink allows optical scanning of the CMS-1500.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 2<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is an example of a violation of an adult patient&#8217;s confidentiality?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient information was disclosed to the patient&#8217;s parents without consent.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Page 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>In the anesthesia section of the CPT manual, which of the following are considered qualifying circumstances?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Add-on codes are listed after the primary procedure code, and cannot ever be listed as a primary, or be coded as the only procedure code.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Ambulatory surgery centers, home health care, and hospice organizations use the_____?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>UB-04 claim form which is the appropriate claim form for reimbursement of services from ambulatory surgery centers, home health care, and hospice organizations<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is a private insurance carrier?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>BC\/BS is a private insurance carrier. Page 35<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following shows outstanding balances?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Aging report lists the status of outstanding claims from each payer. Page 44<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is one of the purposes of an internal auditing program in a physician&#8217;s office?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Verifying that the medical record and the billing record match &#8211; the purpose of internal auditing is to verify that the medical records and the billing record march, which protects from sanctions or fines.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 1<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The star symbol in the CPT code book is used to indicate which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Telemedicine has the star code symbol Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Medigap coverage is offered to Medicare beneficiaries by which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Private third-party payers offer supplement coverage to Medicare beneficiaries who pay their Medicare premium.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Page 32<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient&#8217;s portion of the bill should be discussed with the patient before a procedure is performed for which of the following reasons?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>To ensure the patient understands his portion of the bill &#8211; the bill should be discussed prior to the procedure to ensure the patient understands how much the procedure will cost and how much the patient is responsible.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The physician bills $500 to a patient. After submitting the claim to the insurance company, the claim is sent back with no payment. The patient still owes $500 for the year. This amount is called which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Deductible is the amount for which the patient is financially responsible before an insurance policy providers coverage page 29 &amp; 38<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient who is an active member of the military recently returned from overseas and is in need of specialty care. The patient does not have anyone designated with power of attorney. Which of the following is considered a HIPAA violation?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The bcs sends the patient&#8217;s records to the patient&#8217;s partner<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient is upset about a bill she received. Her insurance company denied the claim. Which of the following actions is an appropriate way to handle the situation?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Inform the patient of the reason for the denial<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 52<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient presents to the provider with chest pain and shortness of breath. After an unexpected ECG result, the provider calls a cardiologist and summarizes the patient&#8217;s symptoms. What portions of HIPAA allows the provider to speak to the cardiologist prior to obtaining the patient&#8217;s consent?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Title II deals with administrative simplifications, which include communication with parties involved in the patient&#8217;s care. The patient signs an agreement and is given a copy of the HIPAA standards upon becoming a patient page 15 on ASCA but nothing about Title II<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A physician ordered a comprehensive metabolic panel for a 70-year-old patient who has Medicare as her primary insurance. Which of the following forms is required so the patient knows she may be responsible for payment?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Advanced Beneficiary Notice is a form that is required for Medicare recipients page 48<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following describes the reason for a claim rejection because of Medicare NCCI edits?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Improper code combinations &#8211; Medicare NCCI edits will trigger a claim rejection for improper code combinations<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is the purpose of running an aging report each month?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>It indicates which claims are outstanding with a status of all<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 44<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following do physicians use to electronically submit claims?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Clearinghouse is an independent organization that receives insurance claims from physicians&#8217; offices, performs software edits, and distributes those claims electronically to third party payers.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Page 3<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following should the bcs include in an authorization to release information?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The entity to whom the information is to be released &#8211; the receiving entity must be included in the authorization.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following information is required on a patient account record?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Name and address of guarantor which are a required part of the patient account record<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 14, 18 block 2<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following forms should the bcs transmit to the insurance carrier for reimbursement of inpatient hospital services?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>UB-04 is the form used to bill hospital inpatient claims<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 2<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An insurance claims register (aged insurance report) facilitates which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Follow up of insurance claims by date &#8211; an aged insurance report is run by date. It can be sorted by date of service or date of submission<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>When posting a payment accurately, which of the following items should the bcs include?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient&#8217;s responsibility could include a copayment, deductible, or coinsurance page 49<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following should the bcs complete to be reimbursed for the provider&#8217;s services?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>CMS-1500 claim form is used for all providers services<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 18<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>As of April 1, 2014, what is the maximum number of diagnoses that can be reported on the CMS-1500 claim form before a further claim is required?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>12 diagnoses can be placed on a CMS 1500 paper form<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 2<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following describes an obstruction of the urethra?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Urethratresia describes a blockage of the urethra dup b-50<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following options is considered proper supportive documentation for reporting CPT and ICD codes for surgical procedures?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Operative reports are required to support surgical procedures dup c-51 Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following describes a delinquent claim?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>It is considered delinquent when it is overdue for payment<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>All dependents 10 years of age or older are required to have which of the following for TRICARE?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Military identification cards pertain to retirees, active duty sponsors, and their eligible family members as means of identification for TRICARE<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 3<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following types of claims is 120 days old?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Delinquent claim is a claim that is 120 days or older and is not paid<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 45<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>HIPAA transaction standards apply to which of the following entities?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Health care clearinghouse is a covered entity, same as providers of health care services, and health care third party payers who submit transactions electronically<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 3<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following actions should be taken when a claim is billed for a level four office visit and paid at a level three?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Submit an appeal to the carrier with the supporting documentation, it is appropriate to appeal the down coded claim<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 52<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>When submitting a clean claim with a diagnosis of kidney stones, which of the following procedure names is correct?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Nephrolithiasis is the destruction of kidney stones<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>All e-mail correspondence to a third-party payer containing patient&#8217;s protected health information (PHI) should be?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Encrypted<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 1<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The bcs should first divide the e\/m code by which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Place of service which narrows down the specific code as one of the three deciding factors<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>In which of the following departments should a patient be seen for psoriasis?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Dermatology since it is a condition of the skin and they specialize in conditions related to the integumentary system which includes hair, skin, and nails<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A nurse is reviewing a patient&#8217;s lab results prior to discharge and discovers an elevated glucose level. Which of the following health care providers should be alerted before the nurse can proceed with discharge planning?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The attending physician is responsible for the patient&#8217;s care, as well as discharge decisions; therefore, the attending physician should be notified of unexpected lab results, including elevated glucose levels<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following actions should be taken if an insurance company denies a service as not medically necessary?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Appeal the decision with a provider&#8217;s report<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 52<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A bcs should understand that the financial record source that is generated by a provider&#8217;s office is called___?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient ledger account which is a history of the patient&#8217;s financial record Chapter 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is used to code diseases, injuries, impairments, and other health-related problems?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>International Classification of Diseases page 57-58<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Threading a catheter with a balloon into a coronary artery and expanding it to repair arteries describes which of the following procedures?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Angioplasty is performed to widen arteries narrowed by stenosis. A balloon is threaded into the artery and expanded.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A coroner&#8217;s autopsy is comprised of which of the following examinations?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Gross examination is an integral part of an autopsy.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient&#8217;s employer has not submitted a premium payment. Which of the following claim statuses should the provider receive from the third-party payer?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Denied claim status from the third-party payer.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following blocks requires the patient&#8217;s authorization to release medical information to process a claim?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Block 12 &#8211; Patient authorization to release medical information is Block 12 and is required for all claims. Block 12 also acts as the assignment of benefits for Medicare patients.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Page 20<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The unlisted codes can be found in which of the following locations in the CPT manual?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Guidelines prior to each section &#8211; the unlisted codes can be found in the guidelines prior to each section. dup c-20<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is the portion of the account balance the patient must pay after services are rendered and the annual deductible is met?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Coinsurance is the portion the patient is responsible to pay after the annual deductible has been met<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 29 &amp; 39<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>When coding on the UB-04 form, the bcs must sequence the diagnosis codes according to ICD guidelines. Which of the following is the first listed diagnosis code?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Principal diagnosis is used in inpatient hospital settings to code the reason why the patient was hospitalized. Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following actions by the bcs prevents fraud?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Performing Periodic audits on a routine basis will prevent fraud<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 1<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following does a patient sign to allow payment of claims directly to the provider?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Assignment of benefits allow payment of claims directly to the provider.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 17<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following actions should the bcs take if he observes a colleague in an unethical situation?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Report the incident to a supervisor is the appropriate action.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 1 if fraud or abuse, but the question is very vague.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is the purpose of precertification?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Verification of coverage is the purpose of precertification.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 37<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A provider performs an examination of a patient&#8217;s sore throat during an office visit. Which of the following describes the level of the examination?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Problem-focused examination is a specific examination of an affected organ.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is the verbal or written agreement that gives approval to some action, situation, or statement, and allows the release of patient information?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Consent agreement &#8211; can be verbal or written that gives approval to some action situation or statement.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 2<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A claim can be denied or rejected for which of the following reasons?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Block 24D contains the diagnosis code page 32<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>On the CMS-1500 claim form, blocks 1 through 13 include which of the following?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The patient&#8217;s demographics are found in Blocks 2,3,5, and 7 on the CMS-1500. page 18<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>To be compliant with HIPAA, which of the following positions should be assigned in each office?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Privacy officer ensures security, privacy, and safety within the health care industry.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 1<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following information should the bcs input into Block 33a on the CMS-1500 claim form?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>National provider identification number should be input into Block 33a on the CMS-1500. This is a unique 10-digit number assigned to the provider under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 24<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which part of Medicare covers prescriptions?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Part D covers prescriptions dup b-8, page 32<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is the function of the respiratory system?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Oxygenating blood cells &#8211; the lungs which are part of the respiratory system, are responsible for providing oxygen for the blood.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 72<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Urine moves from the kidney to the bladder through which of the following parts of the body?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Ureters transport urine to the bladder from the kidneys.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 73<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Claims that are submitted without an NPI number will delay payment to the provider because?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The number is needed to identify the provider by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services to all providers dup c-46<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 21<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following sections of the medical record is used to determine the correct E\/M code used for billings and coding?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>History and physical &#8211; The E\/M code for the patient&#8217;s current condition can be found in the history and physical section.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>On a remittance advice form, which of the following is responsible for writing off the difference between the amount billed and the amount allowed by the agreement?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Provider is responsible for writing off the difference between the amount billed and the amount allowed.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 47<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A dependent child whose parents both have insurance coverage comes to the clinic. The bcs uses the birthday rule to determine which insurance policy is primary. Which of the following describes the birthday rule?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The parent whose birthday comes first in the calendar year &#8211; is responsible for primary coverage of a dependent child<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following statements is correct regarding a deductible?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The deductible is the patient&#8217;s responsibility &#8211; the patient pays the deductible as part of the insurance contract<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 29 &amp; 38<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following claims is submitted and then optically scanned by the insurance carrier and converted to an electronic form?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Paper claim is submitted on paper and requires optical scanning to convert to electronic form.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 15<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient who has a primary malignant neoplasm of the lung should be referred to which of the following specialists?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pulmonary oncologist &#8211; a patient who has lung cancer would be referred to a pulmonary oncologist<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following statements is true regarding the release of patient records?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Patient access to psychotherapy notes may be restricted &#8211; patients cannot access psychotherapy notes or information compiled for lawsuits.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is the primary function of the heart?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pumping blood in the circulatory system &#8211; the heart muscle that is responsible for circulating blood through the body. Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A deductible of $100 is applied to a patient&#8217;s remittance advice. The provider requests the account personnel write it off. Which of the following terms describes this scenario?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Fraud &#8211; this scenario is considered fraud because the patient is responsible for paying the deductible<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 29<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient has AARP as secondary insurance. In which of the following blocks on the CMS-1500 claim form should this information be entered?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Block 9 is for secondary insurance.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 19<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A patient with a past due balance requests that his records be sent to another provider. Which of the following actions should be taken?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Accommodate the request and send the records<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 4<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A claim is submitted with a transposed insurance member ID number and returned to the provider. Which of the following describes the status that should be assigned to the claim by the carrier?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Invalid &#8211; an invalid claim contains illogical or incorrect information and is returned to the provider unprocessed. page 28<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following medical terms refers to the sac that encloses the heart?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Pericardium &#8211; peri &#8211; means &#8220;around&#8221; and &#8211; cardium means &#8220;pertaining to heart&#8221;<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A physician is contracted with an insurance company to accept the allowed amount. The insurance company allows $80 of a $120 billed amount, and $50 of the deductible has been met. How much should the physician write off the patient&#8217;s account?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>$40 &#8211; this is the difference between the amount billed and amount allowed. The physician should write off $40<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 47 &amp; 49<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following would result in a claim being denied?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An italicized code used as the first listed diagnosis &#8211; which identifies a manifestation of the primary disease and should not be listed first.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>page 61<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following terms is used to describe the location of the stomach, the spleen, part of the pancreas, part of the liver, and part of the small and large intestines?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Left upper quadrant includes the left lobe of the liver, the stomach, the spleen, part of the pancreas, and part of the small and large intestines.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 5<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following Medicare policies determines if a particular item or service is covered by Medicare?<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>National Coverage Determination (NCD) is a Medicare policy stating whether and under what circumstances a service is covered by the Medicare program.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Chapter 3 page 35 but the chapter makes no mention of NCD<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>The attending physicianA nurse is reviewing a patients lab results prior to discharge and discovers an elevated glucose level. Which of the following health care providers should be altered before the nurse can proceed with discharge planning? The patients condition and the providers informationOn the CMS-1500 Claims for, blocks 14 through 33 contain information about [&hellip;]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"site-sidebar-layout":"default","site-content-layout":"","ast-site-content-layout":"default","site-content-style":"default","site-sidebar-style":"default","ast-global-header-display":"","ast-banner-title-visibility":"","ast-main-header-display":"","ast-hfb-above-header-display":"","ast-hfb-below-header-display":"","ast-hfb-mobile-header-display":"","site-post-title":"","ast-breadcrumbs-content":"","ast-featured-img":"","footer-sml-layout":"","ast-disable-related-posts":"","theme-transparent-header-meta":"","adv-header-id-meta":"","stick-header-meta":"","header-above-stick-meta":"","header-main-stick-meta":"","header-below-stick-meta":"","astra-migrate-meta-layouts":"default","ast-page-background-enabled":"default","ast-page-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"ast-content-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"footnotes":""},"categories":[],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-110505","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/110505","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=110505"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/110505\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=110505"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=110505"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=110505"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}