{"id":110684,"date":"2023-07-27T12:52:14","date_gmt":"2023-07-27T12:52:14","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/blog\/?p=110684"},"modified":"2023-07-27T12:52:20","modified_gmt":"2023-07-27T12:52:20","slug":"test-bank-for-pmhnp-boards-2023-questions-and-answers","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/2023\/07\/27\/test-bank-for-pmhnp-boards-2023-questions-and-answers\/","title":{"rendered":"Test Bank for PMHNP Boards 2023 Questions and Answers"},"content":{"rendered":"\n

What is true of interprofessionality?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

All health professionals have individual professional competencies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the significance of an experimental p-value of 0.05<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

There is a 5% chance of a similar result occurring by chance alone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of children with oppositional defiance disorder will develop conduct disorder?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

30%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In the DSM-5, selective mutism is now considered what type of disorder?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Symptoms of selective mutism must persist for at least<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 month<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Common competencies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

overlap more than one health care professional, although not necessarily all health care professionals, and are competencies expected of all health care professionals<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Complementary competencies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

enhance the qualities of other professions in provision of care<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Collaborative competencies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

those that each individual profession must possess to work with others, including those who practice within different specialties within a profession.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Interpersonal collaboration is _______ centered<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

patient<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cognitive therapy is recommended for patients that have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

negative cognitive distortions
irrational beliefs
faulty conceptions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Humanistic Therapy focuses on assisting patients with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

self-actualization and self-directed growth<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Behavioral Therapy focuses on<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

changing maladaptive behaviors through the use of behavioral modification techniques<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Existential therapy is for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

reflection on life
confronting self<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

120 who got diarrhea ate lettuce. 80 with diarrhea did not eat lettuce. 40 without diarrhea ate lettuce. 160 without diarrhea ate lettuce. What is the odds ratio of eating lettuce and developing diarrhea?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 ((120X160)\/(80×40))<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The New Freedom Commission on Mental Health (NFCMH) released a report that suggested<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

implementation a national campaign to reduce the stigma of seeking care
Focusing on promoting recovery and building resilience<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The efficacy of mental health treatments was found to be well documented in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

influential report issued by US Surgeon General in 1999<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

State of high negative emotion and pessimism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

neuroticism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Commonly known as an optimistic outlook on life They are are outgoing, like social interaction, respond to external rewards, have more active dopamine networks, and are responsive to positive reinforcement.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Extraversion (high levels protect from psychiatric illness)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Introverts are more likely to be _______ motivated and more likely to respond to _______ reinforcement<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

internally
negative (more likely to interact with internal motivation\/self-image)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Interpersonal trait of cooperation, easy going nature. Tend to have smooth relationships often at the expense of self-assertion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Agreeableness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Associated with self-control and a focused, organized approach to life. Are achievement-oriented goal setters who can delay immediate gratification to obtain their long term desired outcome. They are considered responsible, reliable, and dependable.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

conscientiousness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In behavioral couples therapy, the initial sessions are spent doing a functional analysis of behavior (FAB). What is true about FAB?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FAB is concerned only with observable stimuli connected to operant behavior
FAB is based on operant conditioning (identifying antecedent stimuli, operant behaviors, and consequent stimuli)
The goal of FAB is modifying willful operant behavior<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gestalt theory deals with _____, not _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

perceptual psychology
behavior<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medication that can delay ejaculation in patients with premature ejaculation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine (and other SSRIs)
(others include:
Topical anesthetic
Tramadol
Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

First line treatment for lithium induced diabetes insipidus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amiloride (K potassium diuretic) in addition to dc lithium when possible.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ways to reduce polyuria associated with lithium toxicity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

reduce lithium dose to minimum effective dose
take once daily at night (may be 5-30% lower than when given in divided doses over the day)
Encourage adequate fluid intake<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is true about ECT in Parkinson’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

it’s more likely to cause transient delirium (worsened dyskinesias induced by l-dopa)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium effects with Parkison’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

may worsen tremor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

nonselective MAOIs decrease the efficacy of ______ and increase the risk of a __________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

l-dopa products
hypertensive crisis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selegiline is selective for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MAO-B
(after 10mg there is an increase in risk of serotonin syndrome if given with other meds that increase serotonin)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI’s can _______ Parkinsonism tremor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

worsen (and decrease ‘off time’)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Process describes the mechanism by which the hippocampus stores memories<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

long-term potentiation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

loss of memory relating to a particular category of information (inability to recall important autobiographical information, usually of a traumatic or stressful nature, that is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

systematized amnesia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lack of memories from a circumscribed period of time, usually immediately following a traumatic event<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

localized amnesia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Person can recall some but not all of events from a particular time period<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

selective amnesia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lack of memory of the patient’s entire life<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

generalized amnesia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The drugs that are FDA approved for GAD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine
Citalopram
Escitalopram

Venlafaxine
Duloxetine

Buspar<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A surrogate has the right to terminate pregnancy if<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

the pregnancy threatens her health or life
or
she is a genetic parent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If the surrogate receives both ovum and sperm from couple, she loses the right to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

determine whether or not child will be aborted (this is up to the couple)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medication is most effective for treating social phobia\/social anxiety disorder, especially when refractory?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenelzine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 55-year-old female patient has Stg II HTN. On exam, she has trace pedal edema bilaterally, but her lungs are clear. Her ECG reveals 2nd degree heart block. Which of the following BP medications should be avoided?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Calcium Channel Blockers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 Contraindications to use a calcium channel blocker<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1st or second degree heart block
Bradycardia
CHF<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 Side effects of calcium channel blockers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Headache
Lower extremity edema
Bradycardia
Heart Block<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

An NP is evaluating a 78 year old female with depression. She suspects the patient may have Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following is consistent with that diagnosis?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Postural instability
Pill-rolling tremor
Shuffling Gait
Difficulty initiating movement
Mask-like facies (difficulty initiating movement)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Writhing movements occur with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Huntington’s chorea<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10 Non-motor manifestations of Parkinsons<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autonomic dysfunction
Gastrointestical dysfunction
Rhinorrhea
Sleep disturbance
Fatigue
Mood disorder
Cognitive dysfunction
Dementia
Psychosis
Hallucinations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What type of therapy is most useful in depressed HIV positive outpatients?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Interpersonal psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What type of therapy is most useful in patients with borderline personality disorder?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dialectical behavioral therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The NP is caring for a patient dying of lymphoma. The pt’s wife states that the pt has been mismanaged and that another practitioner must be assigned to the patient for him to improve. This NP suspects that this individual is in which stage of grief according to Elizabeth Kugler-Ross?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bargaining<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Involves resisting or refusing to remember information that has been supplied<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Denial<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pica and spoon shaped nails are associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Iron-deficiency anemia (microcytic)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 common causes of microcytic anemia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

iron deficiency
anemia of inflammation\/chronic disease (TB, HIV, endocarditis, RA, Chrohn’s DM, kidney disease, CA)

(Other causes: lead toxicity, alcohol\/drug use, zinc excess (copper deficiency))<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Initial symptoms of B12 deficiency<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Generalized weakness
Paresthesias
Possible ataxia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Late symptoms of B12 deficiency<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Memory impairment
Depressed mood<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5 P’s of Vitamin B12 deficiency<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pancytopenia

(Peripheral and Posterior spinal cord) neuropathy

Pyramidal tract signs

Papillary atrophy of tongue (atrophic glossitis)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 causes of megaloblastic macrocytic anemias<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Vitamin B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What neurotransmitter is thought to play the most significant role in social phobia?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dopamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What neurotransmitter is thought to mediate social interest, gregariousness, confidence and sensitivity to rejection?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dopamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to Gonzalez-Jaimes and Turnbull-Plaza (2003, which type of therapy with psychocorporal, cognitive, and neurolinguistic components and a holistic focus is significantly more effective in patients diagnosed with adjustment disorder?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mirror psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The ________ is part of the treatment to encourage a patient to accept his physical condition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mirror<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Discussing medical diagnoses and the reaction to it, as well as treatment modalities<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

medical conversation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Therapy that emphasizes personal responsibility, focusing on the individual’s experience at the present moment, the therapist-patient relationship, the context of the person’s life, and adjustments people make as a result of their overall situation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gestalt Therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

PANDAs is associated with _________ infections and results in _______ symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Group A beta-hemolytic strep
OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

After camping trip, pt began to have a petechial rash on her legs\/trunk, parts of which are turning dark red and purple, temp 102.8, HR 1115, BP 88\/50, mm pain, neck stiffness, severe HA. What is the dx?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

meningococcemia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 mg of Xanax = _____ mg of Ativan<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1mg of Xanax = ____mg of phenobarbital<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

30<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1mg Xanax = ____ mg of Clonazepam (Klonopin)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1mg Xanax = ____ mg of chlordiazepoxide (Librium)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

25<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1mg of Xanax = ____ mg of diazepam (Valium)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt wanting something immediate and non-addictive for breakthrough anxiety<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hydroxyzine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How long do GAD symptoms need to occur to make the diagnosis?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

First lab test to check for Sjogren’s<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anti-nuclear antibody tests<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

To diagnose Cyclothymic disorder, it must be present for _______ in adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

To diagnose Cyclothymic disorder, it must be present for _______ in pediatrics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 physiological disturbances that may explain some of the symptoms of panic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

impaired lactate metabolism
abnormality of locus coeruleus (Ser, NE, GABA, Dop, cholecystokinin)
carbon dioxide hypersensitivity (hyperventilation)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 45-year-old man presents to the ER for “panic attack”. He appears agitated, confused, and dizzy. He became more agitated and combative with staff upon further questioning. He states he was prescribed Xanax 0.5mg 3x daily by outpatient psychiatrist. His vitals are WNL. What is most likely his dx<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Benzodiazepine intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anxiety, tremors, nightmares, insomnia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, seizures, delirium and hyperprexia are sx of. ______ which can result in _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Benzodiazepine withdrawal
(serious medical complications including death)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Confusion, AH, VH following a period of insomnia can be a sx of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

withdrawal delirium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Female patients with PTSD commonly have this comorbid diagnoses<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Major depressive disorder (50%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Percentage of people with PTSD who have alcohol use disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

male 50%
female 27%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Percentage of people with PTSD who have simple or social phobias<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

30% both male and female<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Percentage of people with PTSD who have persistent depressive disorder ( previously dysthymia)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20% for both male and female<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Treatment plan for OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI or Clomipramine
Psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Normal Rinne test is for this nerve<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CN VIII<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What ethnic groups are at higher risk for social phobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Native American<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What ethnic groups are at lower risk for social phobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Asian
Black
Latino<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Onset of social phobia is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Usually begins in late adolescence or early adulthood (13-20 years)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 CBT techniques for social phobias<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

exposure
cognitive restructuring
social skills training<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medication used to help with social phobia for public speaking<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

propranolol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA approved SSRI for social phobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

paroxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What type of fracture is a red flag for child abuse?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Spiral of long bone (caused by twisting of extremity)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bruises on the torso in different stages of healing often indicate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

abuse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tanner Stage: Breast buds undeveloped with papilla elevation only. Villus hair only<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

I<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tanner Stage: Breast buds palpable, straight pubic hair mostly on labia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

II<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tanner Stage: Areola begins to enlarge and pubic hair becomes darker, coarser, and curly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

III<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tanner Stage: Areola forms a secondary mound on the breast and hair is of adult quality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IV<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tenderness at McBurney’s point is suggestive of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

appendicitis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

About 30% of patients with this disorder have OCD thoughts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tourette’s disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rx that can cause anxiety<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Steroids (prednisone)
Albuterol
Amphetamines
Appetite suppressants<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medical conditions that can cause anxiety<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adrenal tumors
Alcohol use disorder
Hypoglycemia
Hyperthyroidism
Cushing’s disease
Arrhythmias
Parathyroid Tumors
Some types of seizures<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depression screening tool used specifically for pregnancy and postpartum<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Edinburg Depression Scale<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How long do symptoms have to be present to diagnose PTSD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 month<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lab value that would indicate that parathyroid was removed during thyroidectomy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Low Calcium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For PCOS, which medication will help with hirsutism?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Spironolactone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lab that is an indicator of inflammation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

C-reactive protein<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pain medication that inhibitis serotonin and NE reuptake (risk of serotonin syndrome if also on antidepressants)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tramadol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

an over-the-counter nonnarcotic drug found in cough preparations which inhibits serotonin reuptake and could cause serotonin syndrome in patients on SSRI’s<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dextromethorphan (Delsym)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pre-cursor for Serotonin production<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

L-tryptophan<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In panic disorder, 1 of the attacks is followed by at least ______ of persistent worry about having additional attacks, worry about implications of attacks or its consequences, or significant change in behavior related to attacks.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 month<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The origins of panic disorder include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

childhood trauma<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

With delayed onset of PTSD, how much time must have past from trauma to onset of symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

First line medication for polymyalgia rheumatica<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

oral prednisone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute stress disorder is diagnosed if the characteristic symptoms present within what period of time after experiencing the traumatic event?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 month<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In what Tanner’s stage will a male’s penis grow more in length than width<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

III<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In what Tanner’s stage will a male’s scrotum begins to grow and redden. Where pubic hair will be straight, fine and sparse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

II<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In what Tanner’s stage will a male’s pubic hair look more like an adult, but will not cover as much area. Where penis will thicken, testes and scrotum continue to grow.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IV<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Brain structure R\/T development of GAD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amygdala<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What circumstance(s) are often correlated to the onset of panic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

separation from family
serious illness of friend\/family
accident
major relationship loss\/change
abusing substances
postpartum<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders in the US<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

25-35% (18% prevalence)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Buspar needs ______ to have similar efficacy to benzodiazepines<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 weeks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How many panic symptoms must be present for diagnoses.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Part of Brain responsible for smell<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Limbic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Part of brain (lobe) responsible for visual functions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Occipital<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Part of brain (lobe) responsible for sensory integration and somatosensory function<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Parietal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Part of brain (lobe) responsible for executive function, social conduct, judgement, and some motor function<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Frontal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Occasional crossing of eyes is not normal after the infant is older than ___________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If strabismus is left untreated, what may result?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ambylopia (affected eye decrease in vision)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What would be the normal testosterone level of a Tanner V male<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

265-800 ng\/dl<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bactrim is contraindicated in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency
Folate deficiency anemia
patients with significant hepatic impairment
pregnant patiens<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt has severe headache behind right eye with eye pain and tearing, sees halos around light fixtures. C\/o N\/V. R pupil fixed more oval than round, mid-dilated and cloudy. What might be happening<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute angle closure glaucoma (Emergency)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What STD is not reportable in all 50 states<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

HPV<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Romberg test is a test of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

balance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A child will recognize faces and smile appropriately at familiar faces by age ____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A typical _____ can count up to 20 with minimal assistance of an older child or parent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 year old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A typical _____ can run\/walk up and down the stairs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

21 month old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A typical _____ is beginning to acquire language skills<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

14 month old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What herbal supplement is effective for a pt with an adjustment disorder with anxiety according to RCT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Kava Kava<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What herbal supplement is effective for somatoform disorders according to RCT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

St. John’s Wort<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Recurrent spontaneous episodic vertigo, hearing loss. Must have aural fullness or tinnitis on one size to make dx.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Meniere’s Disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ADPIE stands for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Assessment
Diagnosis
Planning
Implementation
Evaluation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If diagnosed with an adjustment disorder, which dx is most guarded: that of an adult or that of an adolescent?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

adolescent (more likely to develop major psychiatric illness)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gastrointestinal lithium toxicity symptoms can overlap with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

normal side effects (N\/V)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is FDA approved for suicidality in schizophrenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine can cause this CBC abnormality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

leukopenia (agranulocytosis)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the dependent variable of a study examining the effects of a certain medication on hypertension?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Blood pressure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the independent variable of a study examining the effects of a certain medication on hypertension?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Effect of a variable that is not controlled<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Confounding effect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Type of error that results in the way the experiment is conducted, often due to the expectations of the researcher<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bias<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pharmacological treatment of alcohol use disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Start Naltrexone at 25mg PO daily (1-hour observation for rxn). Naltrexone maintenance dose is usually 50mg PO q day or 380mg IM q 4 weeks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Naltrexone side effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Elevated LFTs
Mild dysthymia
GI upset<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Resembles GABA and is possibly an NMDA antagonist<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acamprosate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disulfiram (Antabuse)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Modest efficacy, may work better in combination with Naltrexone for alcohol use disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acamprosate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

No convincing efficacy found for use of this Alcohol Use Disorder pharmacological treatment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disulfiram (Antabuse)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most commonly reported side effect of ECT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Retrograde amnesia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Neurodevelopmental disorder of biological origin that manifests in learning difficulties and problems in acquiring academic skills markedly below age level and manifested in the early years for at least 6 months that is not attributed to intellectual disabilities, development disorders or neurological or motor disorders<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Specific Learning Disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Specific Learning Disorders can be specified as impairment in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Reading
Written Expression
Mathematics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The MOST important component when developing evidence based guidelines<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

An evidence review<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How does botox improve depression?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Reducing frown lines when injected into glabellar region<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to a study in the 1990s mothers of anorexic pts have an increased prevalence of this disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Obsessive-compulsive disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The AST:ALT ratio in patients with Alcoholic liver disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<0.8
>1.5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Liver biopsy reveals fibrosis, necrosis of liver cells, and nodule formation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Liver cirrhosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute condition with nystagmus, ataxia, confusion, and opthalmoplegia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Wernicke-Korsacoff syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Elevated bilirubin level is often found in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Alcoholic hepatitis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which drug’s mechanism of action includes blockage of the voltage dependent sodium channel blockers, augmentation of gamma amino butyrate activity of GABA-A receptors, antagonism of AMPA\/kainate subtype of glutamate receptor, and inhibition of carbonic anydrase enzyme?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ex of drugs that are partial agonists at postsynaptic serotonin receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hallucinogens like LSD and MDMA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drug associated with inhibition of catecholamine reuptake in neurons and blockage of NMDA glutamate receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

PCP<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Individuals with panic disorder are most commonly affected by which other psychiatric disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Agoraphobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When is the use of transdermal selegiline not beneficial?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For patients with pheochromocytoma (excess NE can cause HTN crisis) and with planned surgery (need to dc patch for 10 days prior to elective surgery)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Responsible for the catabolism of serotonin, norepinephrine and dopamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Monoamine oxidase (MAO)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medication that is an irreversible MAO inhibitor that works by selectively inhibiting both MAO-A and MAO-B in the CNS with preservation of MAO-A in the gut. Unless high dosed, little need to follow tyramine restricted diet.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selegiline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adverse effect of carbamazepine that can be an emergency<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hyponatremia
toxic epidermal necrolysis
Erythema multiform
Steven’s Johnson
Thrombocytopenia
Aplastic Anemia
Agranulocytosis
SLE
arrhythmias
Hepatitis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

An NP advises a patient with a significant family hx of breast cancer to perform monthly self-examinations. What term helps to identify this measure?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Secondary Prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevention type designed for early detection of a disease so that morbidity and mortality may be reduced<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Secondary Prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Preventing the disease or condition from occurring<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Primary Prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

WIC and promotion of workplace safety laws designated by OSHA are this type of prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Primary Prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rehabilitation and prevention of complications of disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tertiary prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A support group for a disease or condition is this type of prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tertiary Prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Exercise for an obese patient is this type of prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tertiary<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antisocial personality disorder criteria must show a pattern of disregard of others since age ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

15<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How many criteria does a pt who meets criteria for an Antisocial personality disorder have to have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 of 7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Name the 7 criteria that pts with Antisocial personality disorder have (must meet 3 of them)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Breaking the law
Deceitfulness for personal profit or pleasure
Impulsivity\/failure to plan ahead
Aggressiveness\/Irritability (physical fights\/assaults)
Reckless disregard for safety of self or others
Consistent irresponsibility
Lack of remorse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How old does an individual need to be in order to be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

18 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The occurrence of antisocial behavior is not exclusively during the course of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

schizophrenia
bipolar disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is a precursor for antisocial personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

conduct disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

List of Cluster B personality disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

antisocial
borderline
histrionic
narcissistic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

List the cluster A personality disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

paranoid
schizoid
schizotypal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

List of Cluster C personality disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

avoidant
dependent
obsessive-compulsive<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking beginning in early adulthood and present in a variety of contexts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Histrionic Personality Disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A pattern of angry\/irritable mood, argumentative\/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness must last at least _______ for Oppositional Defiant Disorder diagnosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oppositional defiant disorder does not include:<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

aggression toward people or animals
destruction of property
pattern of theft or deceit<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Recurrent behavioral outburst representing a failure to control aggressive impulses.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Intermittent Explosive Disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In Intermittent Explosive disorder, physical aggression does not result in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

damage or destruction to property
physical injury to animals or other individuals<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Kubler-Ross’s stages of grief<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

denial
anger
bargaining
depression\/sadness
acceptance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Symptoms can be associated with another medical condition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Somatic symptom disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Somatic symptom disorder symptoms persist for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Despite frequent doctors visits and tests, this pt is rarely reassured and can feel that his\/her medical care is insufficient<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Somatic symptom disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In order to meet DSM V criteria for somatic symptom disorder, in addition to somatic symptoms, pts must have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

maladaptive thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that define the disorder, in addition to their somatic symptoms.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The Mental Health Party Act (1996) provides<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

equal lifetime and annual limits for mental health care as compared to physical health care.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The zoster vaccination is recommended for _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

adults over the age of 60<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The pneumococcal vaccination is recommended for _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

adults over the age of 65<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The Tdap vaccination is recommended _________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

every 10 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Understanding the objective reality of a situation coupled with the motivation and emotional impetus to master the situation or change behavior is:<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

true insight<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Form of thinking that is logical, organized, reality oriented, and influenced by the demands of the environment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

second process thinking<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of the population meets the criteria for 1 or more personality disorders?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

15%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Study on daily exercise improving sleep quality in seniors. What is the dependent variable<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sleep quality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The federal law that allows parents to provide insurance coverage for their children up to age 26 is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Affordable Care Act (ACA)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pedophiles attracted to female victims usually prefer females of what age?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

8-10 years old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is true of appropriation bills?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

They provide for spending authority for a single fiscal year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What bills establish laws or programs and although they recommend dollar amounts in some cases, do not allocate the funds or guarantee funds for the program<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Authorization bills<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What bills usually originate in the House of Representatives and provide spending authority for a single fiscal year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Appropriation Bills<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Provide additional funding for projects as needed thought the current fiscal years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Supplemental appropriations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Authorization bills are funded by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Appropriation Bills<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is required for entry to practice as a Nurse Practitioner<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Competency in nine content domains<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The NP is caring for a 16 year old who is depressed with suicidal ideation. The pt asked the nurse NOT to tell her parents. The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to do is:<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Talk to parents and pt together to help the family discuss the pt’s depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to Mahler, which of the following stages of infant development is disrupted in children who develop borderline personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rapproachment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to Mahler, which of the following stages of development was disrupted int children who developed narcissistic personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Symbiotic phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phase during first weeks of life, characterized by total detachment and self-absorption, infant spends most of his or her time sleeping<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autistic stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When does the symbiotic phase occur<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

about 5 months of age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to Mahler, separation-individuation has 3 stages<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hatching (5-9 months)
Practicing (9-16 months)
Rapproachment (15-24 months)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phase where infant explores the outside world but requires that the mother is present and able to support the child appropriately and emotionally in completing the task?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rapprochment (15-24 months)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phase in which infant develops the physical ability to separate from mother<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Practicing (9-16 months)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disturbance of the rapprochement subphrase is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

persistent longing for and dread of fusion with object that is thought to be secondary to aggression or withdrawal in the mother. Thought to contribute to the development of borderline personality disorder.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phase in which infant shows increased interest in outside world<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hatching<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Stage where infant recognizes his or her mother but lacks a sense of individuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

symbiotic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Narcissistic personality disorders are likely due to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inadequate soothing during the symbiotic phase and inadequate refueling during the separation-individuation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Describes the child’s understanding that his or her mother is a separate individual and he or she is also separate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Object constancy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Object constancy leads to the formation of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

internalization, which will allow the child to have an internal representation of mother in turn allowing healthy separation, exploration, and development of self-esteem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The three most common causes of secondary obesity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cushing’s syndrome
Hypothyroidism
Genetic conditions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Compassion, a desire to do good<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

beneficence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Avoidance of harm<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nonmaleficence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

the equal and fair distribution of resources, regardless of other factors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Justice<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dedication, fairness, honesty, advocacy and commitment to patients. It involves an agreement to keep promises and commitments based on the virtue of caring.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fidelity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most widely used tool for assessing the healthcare safety culture within an organization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Culture of Patient Safety Assessment developed by AHRQ<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The Iowa Model of EBP (evidence-based practice) is characterized by which statement?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It is important to determine if an identified issue is a priority of the organization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The trigger for change can be<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Knowledge focused or Problem focused<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Identification of a problem and determination of its priority<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

first step in Iowa Model<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Review and critique of available literature<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Second step in Iowa Model<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Identification of research evidence to support a change in clinical practice<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3rd stage of Iowa Model<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Implementation of change<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4th step of Iowa Model<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Monitoring of Outcomes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5th and final step of Iowa Model<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Knowledge-focused triggers include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

new research
practice guidelines<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Problem-Focused Triggers include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clinical problems
Issues in risk management<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The first step in getting a bill to the floor is?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drafting a bill<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Probability results of study are due to chance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

P value<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medicare part A coverage includes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1. hospital care and medicines received in hospital
2. SNF
3. nursing home care
4. hospice
5. home health services<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sampling used when the proportion of the study population belonging to each group of interest in known, to obtain an adequate study sample from a small group in the study population.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Stratified sampling<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selection of groups under study is random<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cluster sampling<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Choosing individuals at regular intervals from a sampling frame by selecting a number to determine where to begin selecting individual subjects from a list.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Systematic sampling<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Making a numbered list of all units in a population from which you want to draw a sample, deciding on the sample size, and selecting the required number of sampling used using a table of random numbers or a lottery method<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Simple random sampling<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the prevalence of borderline personality disorder in psychiatry outpatients?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the prevalence of borderline personality disorder in psychiatric inpatients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diagnosis of borderline personality disorder includes 5 or more of the following criteria<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

frantic avoidance of abandonment
unstable relationships
disturbance of identity
recurrent suicidality
unstable mood\/affect
chronic feelings of emptiness
intense bouts of difficult-to-control anger
transient paranoia or dissociation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Avoidant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Schizoid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others such that their motives are interpreted as malevolent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paranoid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships as well as cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Schizotypical<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Narcissistic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dependent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The prevalence of borderline personality disorder in primary care<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The prevalence of borderline personality disorder in the general population<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1.5-5.9%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What best determines the effectiveness of an educational intervention?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt’s behavior modification and compliance rates<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

After suffering the loss of a child, more than 50% of parent couples go through the following<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Divorce<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rubbing against non-consenting people<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

frotteurism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fantasies about watching unsuspecting individuals undressed or in sexual activity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

voyeurism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Use of non-living objects for sexual stimulation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

fettishism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Exposing one’s genitals to strangers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

exhibitionism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Besides therapy in Borderline Personality Disorder, impulse behavioral dyscontrol symptoms that present serious risk to patient are treated by adding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

an antipsychotic to an SSRI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In borderline personality disorder, cognitive-perceptual symptoms respond best to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

low dose antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Impulsive-behavioral dyscontrol symptoms in borderline personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

aggression
self-mutilation
reckless spending
promiscuity
substance abuse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Affective dysregulation in borderline personality disorder is treated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI or venlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For histrionic personality disorder, which type of therapy helps them focus on their unconscious motivations for being unable to commit to a stable and meaningful relationship, and instead seeking out disappointing partners<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

psychodynamic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Temporal lobe abnormalities and differences in the corpus callous and thalamic nuclei have been identified on MRI studies of patients with which condition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

schizotypical personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Schizotypical personality disorder can be differentiated from schizophrenia by the absence of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

psychotis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevalence of schizotypical personality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3% (more cases occur in biological relatives with schizophrenia)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Affective aggression can be treated with which medication?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which personality disorder is often present with pts with anorexia-nervosa who restrict rather than binge-purge<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Obsessive-compulsive<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A type of identification that is seen often in borderline personality disorder pts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

projective identification<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 steps of projective identification<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1. pt assigns component of self to another individual
2. pt manipulates this individual into integrating this component into his or her consciousness
3. process leads to increased feeling of closeness between parties<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Analyst’s emotional response to pt<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

countertransference<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When pt tends to identify aspects as either completely good or completely bad about a person<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Splitting<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mental process that gives rise to lack of connection in the pt’s thoughts, memory, and sense of identity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dissociation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Substance that is found in lower concentrations in the CSF of impulsive, violent individuals<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5-HIAA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In addition to an assessment of pathological personality traits, alternate model in Section III of the DSM-5 requires an assessment of which category or a personality disorder diagnosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

level of impairment in personality functioning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A diagnosis of a personality disorder who require at least a level _______ impairment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 (“moderate”)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the prevalence of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder in the general population<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5-10%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which personality disorder’s criteria includes magical thinking<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Schizotypical<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Females with _________ have a virilized clitoris<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A higher degree of ________ has been reported in individuals with CAH, which correlates to the degree of virilization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

homosexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 2-year old girl with 21-hydroxylase deficiency undergoes genitoplasty. Which statement is true concerning her condition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

There is a correlation between virilization degree and gender dysmorphia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the prevalence of paranoid personality disorder among psychiatric patients?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10-30%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gender identity usually begins to form by this age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anti-hypertensive effects on sexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

impaired vaginal lubrication and erectile dysfunction d\/t antiadrenergic effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Spironolactone effects on sexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decreased desire secondary to decreased testosterone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Estrogen effects on sexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decreased desire secondary to decreased testosterone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Steroid effects on sexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decreased desire secondary to decreased testosterone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TCA effects on sexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

erectile dysfunction or impaired vaginal lubrication secondary to anticholinergic effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MAOI effects on sexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

erectile dysfunction or impaired vaginal lubrication secondary to anticholinergic effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antipsychotics effects on sexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

erectile dysfunction or impaired vaginal lubrication secondary to anticholinergic effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI effects on sexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibition of arousal and orgasm by increased serotonergic activity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The diagnosis of a personality disorder requires a pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviates from the expectations of the individual’s culture in 2 or more of which 4 areas?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cognition
affectivity
impulse control
interpersonal functioning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Individual is only aroused by and can only achieve orgasm through a single type of sexual contact, usually relegated to a specific anatomical location<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Partialism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Individuals who attempt to avoid penetrative sex due to a lack of interest may have what?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Partialism (a type of paraphilia)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevalence of antisocial personality disorder in females in the community<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 common defense mechanisms seen in obsessive compulsive personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

isolation of affect
intellectualization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paraphilia are almost never diagnosed in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

females
(and rarely in a clinical setting)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Age range that is typical for a person that performs frotteurism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

15-25 (declines after that)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with a history of childhood separation are more prone to this personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dependent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with dependent personality disorder commonly experience these 2 things from their caretaker?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

over-involvement
intrusive behavior<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Childhood experience common in pts with dependent personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

social humiliation – leads them to doubt in their own ability to function independently of others<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with obsessive compulsive personality disorder often had parents who were<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

emotionally withholding
overprotective
over-controlling<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

People with obsessive compulsive personality disorder develop their symptoms as a strategy to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

avoid punishment (they were often punished by parents and rarely rewarded)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients with schizoid personality disorder typically from families that are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

emotionally reserved
highly formal
aloof
impersonal
(likely were provided inadequate affection prompting their disinterest in forming close relationships later in life)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients with this personality disorder displayed excessive shyness and fear when confronted with new people and situations as children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

avoidant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Many of the patients have a history of painful early experiences and chronic parental criticism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

avoidant personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Symptoms of personality disorders are usually consistent with patient’s<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

internal sense of self, which is called ego-synodic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the term for how easily an individual acts on an initial, emotionally based evaluation of events and people<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Constraint<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Purest expression of the biological basis of personality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Temperament<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What are the 2 distinct temperaments Kagan and colleagues (1988) identified<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibited
uninhibited<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following medications is the first-line treatment option for a personality change secondary to epilepsy that results in aggressive episodes?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the second-line treatment option for a personality change secondary to epilepsy that results in aggressive episodes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

benzodiazepines<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is contraindicated in the treatment of aggressive personality changes due to epilepsy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

females that have this are usually infertile have low estrogen levels but do not have higher levels of homosexuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Turner syndrome(45XO)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

females with this are typically indistinguishable from other females except they are slightly taller and have increased learning difficulties and low-normal intelligence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Triple X syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

46XY with complete androgen insensitivity have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

female gender identity equivalent of 46XX individuals<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is associated with increased prenatal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

androgen exposure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5-alpha-reductase deficiency is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

higher rates of homosexuality in affected females
a cause of pseudohermaphroditism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gender identity is generally set by age ____ and very difficult to change<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

First line agents for treating impulsivity and aggression in personality disordered patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRIs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Explain what the following Pyramid Tract Signs result from:
spasticity
weakness
slowing of rapid alternating movements
hyper-reflexia
Babinski sign<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Vitamin B12 deficiency<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The only TCA levels that can be reliably followed are for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

desipramine
imipramine
nortriptyline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A transgender male is sexually attracted to men\/masculinity. What is his sexual orientation?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Androphilic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A transgender male is sexually attracted to females\/femininity. What is his sexual attraction?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gynephilic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A transgender female is sexually attracted to females\/femininity. What is her sexual attraction?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gynephilic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A transgender female is sexually attracted to men\/masculinity. What is her sexual attraction?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Androphilic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Attraction that is combination of androphilia and gynephilia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ambiphilia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Asexual is synonymous with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

analophilic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Part D of criteria for illness anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

performs excessive health-related behaviors or exhibits maladaptive avoidance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Physical symptoms are less prominent, while anxiety era preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious medical condition is the core complaint<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Illness anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In illness anxiety disorder somatic symptoms are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

not present or are mild in intensity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In illness anxiety disorder, illness preoccupation has to be present for at least _____ months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevalence of illness anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1-5%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What are the FDA-approved medications for personality disorders?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

There are none<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with borderline personality disorder and psychotic disorders are particularly likely to have experienced<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

victimization as a child and\/or adult<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Repeated changes in caregivers, history of neglect, avoidance of social interactions, and resistance to comforting from others is a sign of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

reactive attachment disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

indiscriminate sociability and lack of selectivity in authority figures<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disinhibited social engagement disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Symptoms present for _______ are more consistent with PTSD rather than Acute Stress Disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

greater than 1 month<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Estimated lifetime prevalence of PTSD is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

7.8%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What ethnic group of combat veterans experience a higher rate of PTSD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Latino especially Puerto Rican<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

PTSD rates among Native Americans are _____ the national average<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3x higher<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What disorder is often comorbid with body dysmorphic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

social phobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Recovering completely within _______ is characteristic of a conversion disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

24 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For pediatrics with conversion disorder (psychogenic seizure), what might be found in this patient’s history<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

She argued with her parents earlier that day over a bad report card<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Conversions disorders do not show<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pain symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the typical course of illness anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Onset in early adulthood
has a chronic waxing\/waning course<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medications have the strongest evidence for treatment of PTSD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine
Sertaline
(Venlafaxine also approved by FDA)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with this disorder often exhibit emotional blunting that is sometimes referred to as “la belle indifference”<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

conversion disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with ________ PTSD typically show a more robust clinical response to SSRIs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

non-combat<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In treating pts with histrionic personality disorder, which therapy type is useful for addressing provocative and attention seeking behavior?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Group therapy (pt may be unaware of behavior and it could help them if others point them out)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What term represents a stable and realistic sense of self?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Self-system<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

means of interpreting social situations and understanding the relational motives and actions of others<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

social system<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

the capacity to observe the self as it relates to others<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

self-in-relation system<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of patients with neurological problems have conversion symptoms?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1-3%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Body dysmorphic disorder is associated with what risk factor and family history<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Childhood neglect
OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

These symptoms are a sign of which drug intoxication: elation
euphoria
increased physical activity
anxiety
tachycardia
arrhythmias, hypertension, mydriasis (pupil dilation), agitation
cognitive impairment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cocaine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most serious complications of cocaine abuse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

myocardial ischemia and infarction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Signs of ____________: dysphoria, psychomotor slowing, fatigue, increased appetite, craving<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cocaine withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Signs of ____________:
piloerection
lacrimation and rhinorrhea
pain in joints and muscles
dysphoria
diarrhea
nausea
vomiting
dilated pupils
insomnia
autonomic hyperactivity
yawning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Opioid withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

signs of ______________:
euphoria
drowsiness
impaired coordination
dizziness
confusion
feeling of heaviness in the body
slowed or arrested breathing
constipation
flushing of feelings of warmth
pinpoint pupils<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

opioid intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Signs of ______________
Nystagmus
Dissociative symptoms
anxiety
tremor
numbness
memory loss
analgesia
psychosis
aggression
violence
slurred speech
poor coordination
hallucination<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phencyclidine intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Signs of _________:
stimulation
loss of inhibition
headache
N\/V
slurred speech
poor motor coordination<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inhalant intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Signs of _________:
Exhilaration
loss of inhibitions
slurred speech
staggering gait
euphoria
marked motor impairment
confusion
stupor
coma<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sedative hypnotic (alcohol and benzodiazepine) intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sign of ________:
sweating
flushed face
insomnia
hallucinations
seizure
disorientation
tremors
increased autonomic activity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sedative hypnotic (alcohol and benzodiazepine) withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sign of ___________:
Altered states of perception and feeling
hallucinations
nausea increased
body temperature
HR and BP
pupillary dilation
poor appetite
sweating
sleeplessness
numbness
dizziness
rapid shifts in emotion
depression
anxiety<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hallucinogen intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 30-year-old female presents to the ED with severe anxiety, palpitations, restlessness, and irritability. She reports no previous history of these symptoms. Her BP is 160\/100, pulse is 115 beats\/min, temperature 98 degree F, and pupils are dilated What condition explains her symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cocaine intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which statement differentiates the actions of cocaine and amphetamines<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cocaine prevents dopamine reuptake but amphetamines both slow dopamine reuptake and induces dopamine release<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In the COMBINE trial for alcohol dependent patients acamprosate faired ____ compared to various combinations of naltrexone and combined behavioral intervention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

poorly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For Alcohol dependent patients, the COMBINE trial found that<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

any combination of therapies including CBT, naltrexone, or both performed better than any combinations that did not include these interventions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Buprenorphine is a ______ at mu receptors and binds with ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

partial agonist
high affinity (20x stronger per gram weight of morphine)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

This is resistant to cases of overdose to reversal by naloxone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

buprenorphine d\/t high binding affinity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

DSM-5 requires ____ of 9 criteria to be met for persistent and recurrent maladaptive gambling behavior<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What drug should be administered to address patient’s aggression on PCP<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Benzodiazepines<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medications should be avoided d\/t risk of hyperthermia, lower the seizure threshold, cause dystonia, or induce dysrhythmias when pt is intoxicated with PCP<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

haldol
chlorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is not a feature of kleptomania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

individual feels great pleasure and excitement leading to the theft (usually individual feels tension)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chronic alcohol use disorder reflects an _______ personality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

oral-dependent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Excessive alcohol use is associated with ________ traits such as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

oral
dependence and depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Men are more than _____ as likely as women to develop chronic alcohol use disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2x<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Delirium tremens usually develops _____ from the person’s last drink, with an average durage of _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2-4 days
<1 week<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

This type of head bleed presents with headaches and confusion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

subdural<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most common approach to managing urges to shoplift<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

commit a self-imposed ban on shopping<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 16 year old attended a rave with her friends. She presents with HTN, hyperthermia, and clinical examination indicates brisk reflexes. What conditions is her presentation consistent with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Serotonin Syndrome (likely from MDMA (ecstasy))<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the rationale behind avoiding the use of restraints in someone intoxicated on PCP<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Incidence of rhabdomyolysis in patients with PCP intoxication and physical restraints is much higher than baseline but can occur with PCP alone.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

With heavy cocaine use, patients can experience<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

a shower of lights in their central vision, as well as visual hallucinations of black dots on their skin and in the environment (coke bugs)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is a symptom of amphetamine withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

fatigue
vivid bad dreams
insomnia\/hypersomnia
increased appetite
psychomotor agitation\/retardation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 29 year old male with yawning, perspiration, runny nose, dilated pupils, muscle twitching, no abdominal tenderness. Which drug is responsible for these withdrawal symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Heroin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The death rate among opioid abusers is ____ greater than the non-using population<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20x<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sweating, flushing, sleep disturbances, hallucinations, seizures, and mild mental status changes are early symptoms of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

alcohol withdrawal 8-10 hours after last drink<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

LSD is derived from which of the following<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ergot fungus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cocaine is derived from the leaves of the plant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

erythroxylon coca<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 22 yo F with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents with fatigue, dysphoria, and depression. She stopped taking her meds and is wearing a baby pacifier on her necklace. Why is the pacifier significant in this pt with possible CF exacerbation?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MDMA (ecstasy) withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

baby pacifiers are used at “raves” to combat<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bruxism (teeth grinding) while on MDMA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ganja is obtained from<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

flowering tops THC 6-20%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Marijuana is obtained from<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

leaves\/flowers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bhang is obtained from<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dried marijuana leaves (1-3% THC)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hashish is obtained from<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

resin (THC 6-20%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In DSM-5 how many of the 11 criteria for substance use disorder must be present to meet “severe” subclassifications?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In DSM-5 how many of the 11 criteria for substance use disorder must be present to meet “mild” subclassifications?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2-3<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In DSM-5 how many of the 11 criteria for substance use disorder must be present to meet “moderate” subclassifications?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4-5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sx of this type of intoxication are conjunctival infection, dry mouth and increased appetite<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cannabis intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the preferred benzodiazepine for treating withdrawal patient with chronic alcohol use disorder and a history of liver disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxazepam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MRI in Korsakoff’s syndrome shows the following 6 areas of involvement<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

midbrain
pons
hypothalamus
thalamus
mammillary bodies
cerebellum<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What vitamin is deficient in Wernicke’s encephalopathy and Korsakoff’s syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Vitamin B1<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The proposed addictive component of cannabis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

releases dopamine in the mesolimbic system<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What type of users can appear to be bipolar with mania\/hypomania symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anabolic steroids<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which drug of abuse is also a schedule III prescription for the treatment of narcoleptic cataplexy?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GHB (Xyrem)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of cocaine dependent individuals is correct<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

contingency management has been widely accepted and is effective
There are no FDA approved medications, no meds have been shown to reduce relapse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Substances that belong to the “depressant” class<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ETOH
cannabis
opioids
inhalants
benzodiazepines<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of action of vareniciline is accurate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It has activity at Alph 4 beta 2 subtype of the nicotinic receptor
It is effective for nicotine\/tobacco cessation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 50 year old man with chronic alcohol use disorder ran out of ETOH and drank methyl alcohol from the factory where he is employed 18 hours ago. He presents at ER with encephalopathy, ataxia, seizures, and bilateral vision loss. Imagineer reveals an intracranial hemorrhage. What is the likely location of his hemorrhage<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Putamen (formic acide accumulates in this region)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Long term survivors of methyl alcohol intoxication may experience<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Parkinsonism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chronic exposure to methyl alcohol may result in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

axonal polyneuropathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 29 year old patient is having marital struggles and multiple recent arguments with her husband presents to the ED complaining of R sided weakness. A neurological evaluation, including imaging, reveals no identifiable diagnosis. Psychiatric consultation is requested. After 2 days, the patient’s weakness has subsided and she is discharged home. Which of the following is a positive prognostic factor for her diagnosis<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Short duration of illness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 38 year old woman presents to the psychiatry clinic wearing a wig. She has no eyelashes or eyebrows. Which behavioral therapy has been shown to be particularly helpful for this patient’s self-inflicted condition?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Habit Reversal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Treatment for trichollomania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medication and behavioral therapy (habit reversal – apply barriers such as gloves or hat)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 19 year old male presents with facial numbness and bilateral vision loss. He reports tingling, cold feet with bluish discoloration. His symptoms most likely resulted from inhalation of which substance.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

n-Hexane (household glues)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Repeated glue inhalation may cause ______ which has a similar presentation to ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glue sniffer neuropathy
Guillain Barre Syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which antidepressant with a tetracyclic structure that works by antagonism of presynaptic alpha 2 agonists and post-synaptic serotonergic receptors is of interest for a psychiatrist looking to prescribe pharmacologic treatment to a patient with chronic alcohol use disorder with a major depressive episode?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

This would not show on the toxicology screen and is a drug of abuse, particularly in pubescent boys, that could cause a period of unconsciousness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nitrites (present in liquid incense)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

onanism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

masturbation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amnesic disorders are secondary syndromes caused by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

systemic medical or primary cerebral diseases
substance use disorders
medication adverse effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In contrast to transient global amnesia, dissociative amnesia typically does not involve<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

deficits in learning and recalling new information<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dissociative disorders are often associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

emotionally stressful life events involving the money, legal systems, or troubled events<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the lifetime suicide-attempt rate in patients with body dysmorphic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

22-24%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Wernike’s encephalopathy triad<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

confusion
ataxia
ophthalmolopegia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What type amnesia is classically associated with confabulation do Korsakoff disease patients have?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anterograde and retrograde amnesia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Xerostomia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dry mouth caused by reduction or absent flow of saliva<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Icterus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

jaundice<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to a recent study, the volumes of which brain structures are significantly smaller in patients with dissociative identity disorder versus healthy subjects?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hippocampus and amygdala<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In using the Structured Interview of Reported Symptoms (SIRS) test, when would a patient be considered to be malingering?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

They score in the definitive range in 1 primary subscale or probable range in 3 sub scales<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 48 year old pt admitted with profuse sweating, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, vomiting, yawning, muscle aches, restlessness, and insomnia for 1 day. Physical exam reveals BP 155\/105 mmHg and a temp of 100 degrees F. The patient is cold with muscle twitches and dilated pupils. She is highly motivated to detoxify. Which medication is the best choice for detox?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Methadone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is useful in treating the autonomic effects of opiate withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clonidine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is useful for treating hyperthermia in opiate withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cold blankets
ice packs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is useful for treating seizures in cocaine overdose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

benzodiazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is useful for treating malignant hypertension in cocaine overdose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IV phentolamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which 2 medications are useful for treating agitation in cocaine overdose?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lorazepam
haloperidol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the most common type of psychiatric condition in an emergency room<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Substance-related disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

“You have been through so much recently but you remain certain that alcohol is not a problem for you” This is an example of a<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

reflective statement<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

“What do you feel about all this?” is an example of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

open-ended question<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

“You have done a phenomenal job staying sober in the past.” is an example of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

affirmation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

“let me see if I understand you. It sounds like you’ve been trying to stop using for some time but are on the fence right now about stopping. Is that about right?” is an example of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Summary Statement<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

OARS stands for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Open-ended questions
Affirmations
Reflective listening
Summaries<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 core techniques for motivational interviewing include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

expression of empathy
rolling with the resistance
developing discrepancy
supporting self-efficacy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Successful malingerers are more likely to have which characteristic compared to unsuccessful maligerers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

They are more likely to report fewer symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt got Tdap 10 years ago, what is she due for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Td booster<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which type of group treatment affects the largest number of substance abuse patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

self-help groups<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inability to recall autobiographical information and apparently purposeful travel associated with amnesia. Onset sudden, memory loss may be refractory<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt often feel detached from their body, as if they are watching from outside their body. There is no associated amnesia or change in personality or identity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depersonalization\/derealization disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Temporary episode of memory loss which can not be associated with a neurological cause. there is no associated change in identity. Onset is sudden, and the person is unable to recall who they are, how they got there, or what they were doing<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Transient global amnesia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Factitious disorder involves<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

deceptively reporting false symptoms to assume the “sick role”<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dangerous dose of methadone may present as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

drowsiness
motor impairment
mitosis
nausea<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Safest initial methadone dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10-20mg given in single dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A dose of ____ methadone can be given if withdrawal symptoms persist an hour after the initial dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Piloerection<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

goose bumps<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

On withdrawal for methadone, signs of insomnia, fatigue, irritability and anxiety may last for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

weeks to months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Typical methadone maintenance dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60-100mg daily<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The most difficult period is when tapering methadone maintenance at doses<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<25mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following disorders does not fall into the category of somatic symptom and related disorders?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Somatization disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Examples of Somatic symptom and related disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

somatic symptom disorder
illness anxiety disorder
conversion disorder
factitious disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Approximately which percentage of patients with chronic alcohol use disorder have at least 2 parents with chronic alcohol use disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

30%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Earlier symptoms of GHB withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anxiety
Insomnia
Tremor
confusion
nausea
vomiting<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Early symptoms of MDMA withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fatigue
dysphoria
depression with loss of appetite
trouble concentrating<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Although results vary based on age, gender and drinking pattern of patient, which 2 biomarkers will provide NP up to 90% sensitivity for heavy, chronic alcohol usage?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Glutamyltransferase (GGT) & carbohydrate deficient transferrin (CDT)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Blood test that detects heavy alcohol use (5+ or more drinks a day) over the past two weeks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CDT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

45 year old male brought to ER by son in agitated and disoriented state after tonic clonic convulsions. BP 170\/105, pulse 125, RR 15, Temp 99, What is his most likely dx?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Alcohol withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Can resemble manic episode with euphoria, impulsive behavior, aggression, dystonia, heightened self-esteem, mydriasis, increased vitals, hyperthermia, cardiac conduction abnormalities<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cocaine intoxication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Common symptoms of include a subjectively altered sense of time, subjective difficulty in vividly recalling past memories, vague somatic symptoms, and fear of irreversible brain damage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depersonalization\/derealization disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

There is an association with childhood interpersonal trauma, and it can be precipitated by severe stress or illicit drug use (most notably hallucinogens, ketamine, MDMA and salvia)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depersonalization\/derealization disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What drug can precipitate new onset panic attacks and depersonalization\/derealization disorder at the same time<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Marijuana<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Average age of onset of depersonalization\/derealization disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

16<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depersonalization disorder is _____ more common in woman than men<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2-4x<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What pneumococcal vaccine is indicated for all adults over 65 years old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

PPSV23<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What pneumococcal vaccine is indicated for adults <65 with chronic lung conditions, chronic CV disease, DM II chronic renal disease, chronic liver diseases, chronic alcohol use disorder as well as immunocompromising syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

PPSV13<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

People who display factitious disorder by proxy are more likely to have which condition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Personality disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diarrhea, lacrimation and runny nose are mainly associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

opioid withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Beta blocker given when pt has cocaine intoxication could possibly cause?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

unopposed alpha stimulation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

May have recurrent gaps in recall of everyday events, not just of traumatic experiences.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disassociative identity disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is Quetiapine FDA approved for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bipolar depression
schizophrenia
acute mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is Aripiprazole FDA approved for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Agitation in autism, bipolar depression, bipolar mania, schizophrenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is risperidal FDA approved for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Schizophrenia, acute\/mixed mania, Autism (5-16 years), bipolar maintenance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is Olanzapine FDA approved for?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Schizophrenia,
bipolar mania and depression
agitation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is Clozapine FDA approved for?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

schizophrenia (especially tx resistant)
schizoaffective<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is asenapine FDA approved for?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Schizophrenia
acute\/mixed mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is Lurasidone approved for?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

schizophrenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is ziprasidone approved for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

schizophrenia
acute psychosis
agitation
bipolar disorder
mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is iloperidone FDA approved for?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

schizophrenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 40 year old F is taking theophylline for her asthma. She is known to have a prolonged hx of tonic-clonic seizures. However, you remember from your studies that CYP450 participates in theophylline metabolism, and that certain anti-epileptic affect CYP450 activity. Which adjustment is likely to be warranted in this patient?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Give carbamazepine
Consider increasing the theophylline dose in the future<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Theophylline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bronchodilator with a very narrow therapeutic index
Metabolized by CYP450<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic acid ________ CYP450 causing theophylline to _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibits
accumulate (need lower dose)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenobarbital __________ CYP 450 causing theophylline to _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

induces
clear faster (need higher dose)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine __________ causing theophylline_______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

induces CYP450
to clear faster (need higher dose)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenytoin ________ CYP450 causing theophylline to ________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

induces
clear faster (need higher dose)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

After stopping diazepam in pt who is a chronic user<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Monitor patient for a week (withdrawal seizures occur about 5-7 days after drug is stopped)
Ideally should be gradually tapered at max rate of 10% per day.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

You will not see any signs of withdrawal of diazepam until<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5-7 days due to long half-life<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following statements is correct concerning clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TD is not commonly associated with clozapine compared to other antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Agranulacytosis is the most significant adverse effect of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If agranulocytosis occurs in a pt on clozapine, it will more likely happen<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

in first 6 months of tx
to woman
Ashkenazi Jewish descent
to those of advanced age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

______ of patients on dosage of _______ of clozapine will have seizures<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4-6%
>600mg\/day<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI’s and coagulation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increase risk of bleeding d\/t interactions with serotonergic receptors on platelets<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What SSRI’s are most likely to have gastrointestinal side effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sertraline
fluvoxamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CNS activation (anxiety, restlessness, tremor, and insomnia) occur most commonly with this SSRI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SIADH commonly occurs with this SSRI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sedation occurs most commonly with this SSRI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

paroxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following statements is true regarding Gabapentin?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It does not interact with anticonvulsants
Somnolence and dizziness are the common side effects and may lead to discontinuation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How does trazodone cause activation of the CNS?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Metabolite activity as well as inhibition of serotonin reuptake in presynaptic receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is correct regarding methylphenidate (MPH)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

patients on transdermal MPH require lower doses than oral extended-release (transdermal does not make first pass in liver)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The ratio of transdermal MPH to oral extended release MPH is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10:15mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MPH is currently manufactured as a mixture of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

d and l-threo enantiomers
(d-threo = active form )<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

High
High
No<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Low
High
Low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Haloperidol
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Low
Low
High<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Olanzapine
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Low
Mid
Low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidal (Risperidone)
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Low
Low
Low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ziprasidone (Geodon)
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Low
Low
Low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Aripiprazole (Abilify)
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Low
Low
Low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paliperidone (Invega)
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Low
Low
Low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
-Anticholinergic Effect
-Sedation
-Extrapyramidal Effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

High
High
Low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the mechanism of action of memantine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

NMDA receptor antagonist (blocks excessive stimulation of glutamate receptors but does not affect normal transmitter activity)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following classes of antidepressant drugs includes mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tetracyclic antidepressants
(noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant (NaSSA)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mechanism of action of Mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

blocks presynaptic alpha-2 andrenergic receptor ->
5-HT-1A activation and increased dopamine release<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which FDA established category indicates a potential risk of a drug to cause birth defects in pregancy because there are no adequate and well-controlled studies to show the drug to cause birth defects in pregnant women?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Category B<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following statements about carbamazepine is correct<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Neutropenia occurs often<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Serum levels of carbamazepine equilibrate after a fixed daily dose is given for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3-5 days<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Metabolism of carbamazepine occurs through the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

P-450 3A4 isoenzyme<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine mechanism of action is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

blockade of sodium gated channels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Food intake _____ the absorption of carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lab draws with carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CBC 2 weeks, then at 6 weeks, then q6 months thereafter<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which statement regarding bupropion is correct<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

there is no withdrawal syndrome associated with abrupt discontinuation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Absolute contraindications for bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

seizure disorder\/hx
eating disorder
head trauma
alcohol abuse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

______ is a dopamine\/NE reuptake inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Side effect of nefazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

priapism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Side effect of MAOIs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pyridoxine deficiency<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which statement regarding side effects of valproic acid is correct<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pancreatitis occurs in 1\/6000 pts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which EPS side effect is most commonly observed with clozapine use?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Akathisia (3%) due to dopamine antagonism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The action on _________ is responsible for pseudoparkinsonism or dystonia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

nigrostriatal system<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half life of triazolam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3-6 hours (peak blood level in 20 minutes)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half life of Diazepam (Valium)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

40 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half life of Flurazepam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

40 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A woman who has been on a long-term treatment for anxiety no longer feels relief after taking her Rx medication at max dose for the past dose? What explains her tolerance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Saturated binding sites<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which amphetamine isomer is most rapidly eliminated from the body<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dextro-isomer in acidified urine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which statement regarding tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) and anticholinergic side effects is true?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TCAs can be dangerous to patients with pre-existing glaucoma and lead narrow-angle glaucoma<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Examples of anticholinergic effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dry mouth
blurry vision
constipation
tachycardia
delirium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TCA’s can cause sedation and hypotension d\/t<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

alpha-1 receptor blockade in blood vessels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anticholinergic effects result from the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

blockade of muscarinic cholinergic receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What enzymes are responsible for metabolizing 90% of drugs processed in liver<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2
2C9
2C19
2D6
3A4
3A5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Example of drugs to avoid when on bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine
Theophylline
Clomipramine
(d\/t inc risk seizures)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following benzodiazepines is most rapidly absorbed when taken orally?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

diazepam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which statement is true of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It is a broad-based measure of personality traits and psychopathology<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It test cognitive ability and intelligence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It measures cognitive impariment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MMSE<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It measures a person’s emotional functioning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rorschach test (“inkblot” test)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following statements about lithium-induced hypothyroidism is correct<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

occurs more commonly in woman<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hypothyroidism is not a contraindication for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lithium treatment (can be treated with levothyroxine)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hypothyroidism in pt receiving lithium is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

rapid cycling
increased risk of developing depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Blood tests with lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thyroid function test (TFT) at least once in the first 6 months of treatment
BMP (renal function) every 3 months
After first 6 months, LFT, TFT q 6-12 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium induced hypothyroidism generally occurs within the first<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6-18 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half life of this hypnotic is 1-3 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ramelton<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half life of this hypnotic is 1-2 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

zaleplon<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half life of these hypnotics is 2-4 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

triazolam
zolpidem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antidepressant medication with significant anticholinergic side effects do not need to be avoided in patients with which comorbidity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

constipation (can be managed by bulk-forming laxatives and hydration)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP450 substrate of Alprazolam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP450 substrate of Citalopram<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP450 substrate of Codeine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP450 substrate of Caffeine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute alcohol consumption _______ CYP450, but chronic use leads to __________ CYP450<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibits
induces (break down faster – sub therapeutic level)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Monitoring of liver function tests every 6-12 months is required with which of the following mood stabilizers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Side effects of carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sedation
dizziness
fatigue
nausea
ataxia
agranulocytosis
aplastic anemia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

side effects of lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tremor
polyuria
polydipsia
weight gain
cognitive slowing
hypothyroidism
decreased creatinine clearance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Side effects of lamotrigine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

benign rash in 10% of people
Steven’s Johnson syndrome in <1%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Withdrawal syndrome following abrupt discontinuation of TCA results from<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cholinergic rebound<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quinidine and TCA both<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

prolong QT intervals<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adverse effects of TCA overdose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

severe sedation
hypotension
anticholinergic delirium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Although lorazepam has a relatively short half life, it exerts sustained action via which mechanism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lower lipophilicity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Being less _______ produces clinical effects more slowly, but may provide more sustained relief, as the drug comes out of the brain slowly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lipophilic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gabapentin overdose is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sedation
ataxia
diplopia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which one more commonly causes weight gain: gabapentin or valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adverse effect of Topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

kidney stone formation (especially after CYP450 activity inhibited d\/t acute alcohol ingestion)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

St. John’s wort effect on Topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increases clearance d\/t induced CYP450 activity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medications can cause a hypertensive crisis when used with MAOI?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

meperidine
epinephrine
local anesthetics (containing sympathomimetics)
decongestants<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt on clozaril and is concerned that PCP prescribed pt this for her psoriasis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

methotrexate (inc risk leukopenia)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antidepressant has the greatest evidence of beneficial effects in patients with depressed mood and eating disorders?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In CATIE, patients were assigned to treatment with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

olanzapine
perphenzine
quetiapine
risperidone
or (later) ziprasidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 55 year old F takes metoprolol to control her HTN. She has toenail fungus and decides to take her husband’s Rx for terbinafine. What is the most likely outcome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hypotension (unRx med is 2D6 potent inhibitor leading to elevated levels of the HTN med)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Specific Gravity 1.045 indicates<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

fluid volume deficit
dehydration
SIADH
CHF
Acidosis
Prerenal failure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

By what age is the process of absorption and transportation of drugs comparable between children and adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ECT deliberately induces what type of phenomenon<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

generalized tonic-clonic seizures<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What are 2 common side effects of fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

diarrhea
cramps<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

All women of childbearing age treated with valproic acid should also receive which of the following vitamin supplements<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Folate (B-9)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following medications has the most evidence in its effectiveness for treating drug induced psychosis in patients with Parkinson’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine
(Olanzapine is a close second)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following antipsychotic medications has the fewest anticholinergic side effects?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Haloperidol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In recent years, ketamine has been used in many trials for treatment-resistant depression (TRD). Which of the following drugs shares a similar action to ketamine?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phencyclidine (PCP)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sedating antidepressants<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

trazodone
nefazodone
imipramine
amitriptyline
trimipramine
doxepin
mirtazapine
amoxapine
paroxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TCA that tends to be energizing instead of sedating and is sometimes used for narcolepsy to achieve a wakefulness promoting effect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

protriptyline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which statement is correct regarding the side effects of risperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When taken at high doses, it has a higher rate of tar dive dyskinesia than other atypical antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The class effects of risperidone inclued<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

alpha 1 blockade (dizziness, sedation, hypotension(orthostatic))
D2 blockade (motor)
muscarinic 1 blockade (dry mouth, constipation, sedation)
histamine 1 blockade (sedation and possible weight gain)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Black box warning with risperidal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased death rates in patients with dementia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Initial side effects of risperidal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dizziness
orthostatic hypotension
headache<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidal has the highest risk of ______________ compared to all other antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hyperprolactinemia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The risk of diabetes and weight gain are highest in these 2 antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

olanzapine
clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drug-drug interaction of fluoxetine and TCA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased cardiac risk<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drug-drug interaction of fluoxetine and thioridazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased cardiac risk<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drug-drug interaction of fluoxetine and benzodiazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased sedation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drug-drug interaction of fluoxetine and carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased carbamazepine levels (toxicity)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drug-drug interaction of fluoxetine and buproprion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased seizure risk<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drug-drug interaction of fluoxetine and phenytoin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased phenytoin toxicity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drug-drug interaction of fluoxetine and warfarin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

warfarin toxicity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 side effects of zolpidem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

daytime sleepiness
fatigue<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Side effect of eszopiclone (Lunesta)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

daytime sleepiness
fatigue
taste disturbance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Buspirone side effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dizziness, headache, nausea
no long term effects
no physiological dependence or withdrawal syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most common negative side effect of zolpidem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sleep-associated disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

short acting sedative sleep agent that is associated with test disturbance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Eszopiclone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Primary overdose symptoms with clozapine include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

delirium
lethargy
tachycardia
hypotension
respiratory failure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the most common side effect of galantamine?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GI disturbances (diarrhea, nausea, vomiting decreases over time)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Class of drug of galantamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cholinesterase inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Because cholinesterase inhibitors cause action in the parasympathetic nervous system they can cause<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bradycardia
hypotension
hypersecretion
bronchoconstriction
GI tract hypermotility
decreased intraoccular pressure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Priapism is associated with which drug<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

trazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

At 45mg mirtazapine, what can happen?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased serum cholesterol inducing cases of acute pancreatitis and diabetic ketoacidosis.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mood stabilizers like lithium in pregnancy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

stopped until 2nd trimester to avoid the time of highest teratogenic risk.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In neonates, high potency antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

are least likely to cause anticholinergic, antihistaminic, or hypotensive effects (unlike low potency medications)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication has the most evidence supporting its use in bipolar disorder and schizophrenia in pregnant women<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

haloperidol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

effective and safe treatment for severe mania in pregnancy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ECT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Neonates can show signs of extrapyramidal side effects when<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

a high potency antipsychotic is used near term<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When switching from an SSRI or SNRI to an MAOI, which of the following medications requires a 5-6 washout period?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Besides Fluoxetine, all other SSRI, SNRIs, and TCAs require a standard ___________ washout period when switching to an MAOI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 week<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication demonstrates histaminergic mechanism in addition to increasing dopamine binding to the dopamine transporter to increase wakefulness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

modafinil<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Modafinil increases activity in the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

tuberomammilary nucleus
stratum
cingulate cortex (at higher doses)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Humans with narcolepsy have decreased levels of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

histamine in the CSF<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Modafinil ________ to the dopamine transporter<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

weakly binds (inhibiting reuptake of dopamine)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dopaminergic mechanisms that are affected by traditional stimulants, such as amphetamine, are not thought to account for the ___________ induced by modafinil<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

wakefulness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the mechanism of action of topiramate?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibits sodium channels
enhances GABA-a receptors
antagonizes kainite and AMPA (glutamate) receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine mechanism of action<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inhibits voltage-gated sodium channel activation (doesn’t block pores).
inhibits pre-synaptic sodium channels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depakote mechanism of action<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increases GABA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lamotrigine mechanism of action<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibits glutamate
inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

centrally acting, reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used in tx of Alzheimer’s dementia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Donepezil (Aricept)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Why is Donepezil contraindicated in sick sinus syndrome?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Can cause heart block and symptomatic bradycardia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Flushing is caused by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

excessive dilation of cutaneous arteries caused by muscarinic blockade (eg atropine)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rash is less common in these drugs, but patients on these 2 drugs are at risk for Steven’s Johnson syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

oxcarbamazepine
carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A low ______ value can occur in isolation with oxcarbazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

T4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What mood stabilizer is associated with aplastic anemia and other blood dycrasias in 1 in 10,000-150,000 treated pts?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxcarbazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine overdose is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

high grade AV block
CNS depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxcarbazepine overdose is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CNS depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adjuvant therapy in acute mania to treat hyperkinesis, agitation and insomnia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

benzodiazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt’s with hx of ADHD in childhood may be at particular risk for medication induced agitation with this medication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

benzodiazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the initial medication dosage for treatment of uncomplicated depression:
sertraline ____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50mg (increase q 2 weeks to max 200)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the initial medication dosage for treatment of uncomplicated depression:
Fluoxetine ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10mg (maintain for 3 weeks, max benefit at 20-40mg)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Typical maintenance dose of fluvoxamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

100-200mg\/day (short half life)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Typical maintenance dose of fluoxetine is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20-40mg\/day<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Doses of fluoxetine ______ have more side effects and have not been effective<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>=60mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A maximum of ______ is recommended for initial treatment with paroxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following findings is expected in a patient who is an ultra-rapid metabolizer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

High urinary concentration of the drug’s metabolite
Low plasma concentration of the drug<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which statement correctly describes the inducer\/inhibitor pharmacology of sertraline and tramadol when a patient is taking both medications?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sertraline at 200mg is a potent inhibitor of 2D6 and increases levels of tramadol (increased risk seizures)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inhibitors reduce the metabolism of ______ leading to elevated levels of ___________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

medications\/substrates
medications\/substrates<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

To have lower levels of tramadol, a patient must take a CYP2D6 _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medications selectively inhibit the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SNRIs:
duloxetine
venlafaxine
desvenlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antidepressant with relatively weak reuptake inhibitor of dopamine and norepinephrine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bupoprion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressant (NaSSA) that acts by antagonizing the adrenergic alpha-2 autoreceptors and alpha2-heteroreceptors, as well as by blocking 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mechanism of action of ramelteon (Rozerem)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

melatonin MT1 and MT2 receptor agonist<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GABA-a receptor agonists are better known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

benzodiazepine receptor agonists<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Side effects of chlorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

photosensitivity
very rarely Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cholestatic jaundice occurs at a rate of 0.1% with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

chlorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication taken in large doses can cause mild pigmentary changes in the retina<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

chlorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

This medication_______ (dosed at _____) is associated with irreversible pigmentary retinopathy, and blindness can occur<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chlorpromazine >800mg\/day<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What lab would you order on a reproductive aged female patient prior to beginning depakote?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depakote can cause this in pregnant woman<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

major congenital malformation, particularly neural tube defects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) and carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

auto-induce their own respective metabolisms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Theophylline, ifosfamide and aminogluthimide<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

induce their own metabolisms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic acid and isoniazid are both<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chronic doses of ethanol = ______, but in acute, binge doses = _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

induction
inhibition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ziprasidone may cause<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

weight loss<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In which neuropsychiatric condition are levels of coenzyme Q10 lower than normal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Parkinson’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Initial studies show that supplementation of CoQ10<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lower BP
improve CHF<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication requires monitoring of symptoms like bruising and bleeding?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Discontinuation of Valproate is recommended if<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

signs of bleeding develop (dose-related thrombocytopenia)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine can cause suppression of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bone marrow (agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, thrombocytopenia)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When used with lamictal, depakote dose should be<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

reduced in half<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

May be best for mixed episodes, more effective in mania vs depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

depakote<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Blockade of voltage gated sodium channels, decreases glutamate release<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cabamazepine
lamictal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Use reserved for treatment resistant bipolar disorder due to multiple drug-drug interactions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unique side effects of aplastic anemia, Stevens Johnson syndrome and SIADH<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unique side effect of hyponatremia (especially with SSRI). No association with SJS or aplastic anemia. CYP3A4 inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

oxcarbazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unusual side effect of metabolic acidosis, kidney stones<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unusual rare side effect of hepatoxicity and pacreatitis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

depakote<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unusual side effect of thyroid dysfunction, chronic renal insufficiency, decreased cardiac conduction efficiency, hypercalcemia, mild leukocytosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Linezolid, dextromethorphan, meperidine, propoxyphene, methadone, tramadol and high-dose sumatriptan all have this in common<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

greater risk of serotonin syndrome when added to an SSRI.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

All triptan medications used for migraine treatment will cause cause a significant increase in ________ at higher levels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

serotonin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Smoking and clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decreases clozapine level<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tobacco is a _____________ enzymes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

potent inducer of 1A2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Daily smoking causes antipsychotics to be ________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cleared more quickly necessitating higher doses<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

St. John’s wort is an ________ agent for _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inducer
3A4
3A5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Substrates affected by St. John’s wort include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

amprazolam
amlodipine
atorvastatin
diazepam
cyclosporine
serotinergic meds<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cruciferous vegetables induces the metabolism of _________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Increasing consumption of cruciferous vegetable would _________ clozapine levels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lower (need higher dose to decrease risk for psychosis)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For the ER form of divalproex sodium, what is the correct dosing adjustment compared with regular formula<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increase ER dose by 15%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is an appropriate loading dose of valproic acid for a hospitalized patient with significant manic symptoms?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20-30mg\/kg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ventricular arrhythmia and seizures can be the result from ______ overdose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TCA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cardiac conduction defects are most severe with ______ overdose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

desipramine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TCAs are structurally similar to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

class I arrhythmias (20% proarrythmic & 20% with preexisting conduction disturbances have cardiac complications when taking)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tyramine-containing foods should be avoided in pts treated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MAOI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Stevens-Johnson syndrome is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lamictal (Lamotrigine)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SIADH, leading to hyponatremia, has been associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carbamazepine (Tegretol)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Primary consideration when dosing fluoxetine for 9 year old boy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

height and weight<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adult values for the cytochrome 450 enzymes are generally achieved by what age?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 years old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Psychotropic medications are not generally prescribed to children under the age of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine is FDA-approved in the treatment of depression for what ages<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ages 8 years and older<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Monitor ADHD patients on stimulants for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

palpitations
syncope
CP
vital signs including high blood pressure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What supplement can cause easy bruising?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ginkgo biloba<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gingko biloba should be avoid with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

antiplatelet and anticoagulant medications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Supplement contraindicated when taking warfarin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

gingko biloba<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anti-inflammatory and immune enhancing supplement with no known drug interactions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Echinacea purpurea<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for garlic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Allium sativum<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Why should garlic be used cautiously with warfarin?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anti-platelet effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which SSRI has been associated with hyponatremia and SIADH, particularly in elderly females<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sertraline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Appropriate ED treatment for panic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

benzodiazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Recurrent episodes with at least four of the following symptoms:
–trembling, diaphoresis, nausea
–CP\/palpations\/dyspnea\/choking sensation
–intense anxiety\/fear of dying or losing control
–derealization
–depersonalization
–dizziness
–paresthesias
–anxiety about additional attacks
–avoidance behavior<\/p>\n\n\n\n

panic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

First line tx of panic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI (fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline)
or SNRI (venlafaxine)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MAO-B inhibitor with FDA indication for depression, Parkinson’s disease and major depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

selegiline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pheochromocytoma<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

a benign tumor of the adrenal medulla that causes the gland to produce excess epinephrine
It is associated with episodes of tachycardia, HA, diaphoresis, and paroxysmal or sustained HTN<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction occurs in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

men mostly (tends not to dissipate with ongoing tx but does dissipate on dc tx)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

L-carnitine is effective in the treatment of methamphetamine toxicity via which mechanism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

preventing formation of free radicals and peroxynitrite in neurons
decreases free radicals in the neuron
needed to transport long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria for fatty acid oxidation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which cytochrome P450 enzyme is predominantly present at but levels fall quickly and are undetectable in most adults?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Last P450 cytochrome to develop<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

P450 enzymes present in newborns at very low concentration but surge quickly to about 20-30% of adult values within the first week of life<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4
2D6
2C9\/19<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erythromycin _______ the metabolism of drugs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decreases (inhibits)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sick-faces.com\/g is a mnemonic to remember<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

list drugs on the sick-faces.com\/g mnemonic of inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sodium valproate
isoniazid
cimetidine
ketoconazole
fluconazole
alcohol binge
chloramphenicol
erythromycin
sulfonamides
ciprofloxacin
omeprazole
metronidazole
grapefruit juice<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

smoking, griseofulvin and carbamazepine are all<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What birth defect has been associated with lithium use in pregnancy (only psychoactive drug associated with this)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ebstein’s anomaly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

PCOS is associate with ________ use in pregnancy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Narcolepsy with cataplexy and excessive daytime sleepiness FDA approved treatment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sodium oxybate (Xyrem)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antidepressants can reduce cataplexy attacks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

clomipramine
fluoxetine
duloxetine
venlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<1% is excreted unchanged in feces and urine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

trazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Trazodone is about ________ protein bound<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

89-95%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Trazodone’s peak plasma level occurs after<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 hour when taken on empty stomach
2 hours when taken on full stomach<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What inhibits trazodone’s clearance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4 inhibitors (ritonavir, indinavir, ketoconazole)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When a pt taking lamotrigine gets a rash accompanied by _________ , s\/he should go to the ER immediately<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

systemic symptoms such as fever or discomfort in mouth, eye, or bladder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The risk of rash with lamotrigine is highest with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

rapid titration and around dose increases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medication has a side effect leading to the highest suicide risk in female patients?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

valproic acid (can cause PCOS-10% every year)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Women with PCOS were far more likely than women without PCOS to have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mood and anxiety symptoms
7x more likely to make suicide attempt<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5HT1D and 5HT1B agonist<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the mechanism of action of aripiprazole<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5HT2C agonist
weak partial agonist 5HT7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with hx of seizure d\/o are more safely treated for depression with ______ than with ____-<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI or venlafaxine
TCA or bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What mood stabilizer can cause hypernatremia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication frequently induces nephrogenic diabetes insipidus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How does lithium cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

it competes with receptors for the antidiuretic hormone in the kidney, increases water output in urine, causing hypernatremia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What attenuates lithium induced diabetes insipidus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

amiloride<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Benzodiazepine anxiolytic subclasses are divided according to their chemical structures. What does this affect?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

half-life of the drug in body<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half-life of diazepam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

40 hours (oxidized in liver)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Temazepam, lorazepam, and oxazepam are metabolized by ______ and cleared by ________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation (hepatic dysfunction not affected)
kidney<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Besides hypotension, tachycardia, and weight gain, the side effect of clozapine that is most common<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hypersalivation\/drooling (10-40%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medication for sleep-onset insomnia that is not habit forming\/no abuse potential<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ramelteon (melatonin agonist)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt on Coumadin recently prescribed fluconazole. What finding would you expect at her next INR blood test<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

elevated<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Blocks voltage-dependent sodium channels and increases gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain. Both inhibits GABA metabolism and increases its synthesis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic Acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mechanism of action of modafinil<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2 inducer
3A4 substrate and inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Example of CYP1A2 inducers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

modafinil
charcoal broiled beef
tobacco
marijuana
omepraxole
cruciferous vegetables<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

List 6 CYP2C19 inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cimetidine
ketoconazole
lansoprazole
modafinil
omeprazole
topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP2C19 inducers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carbamazepine, phenytoin, rifampin, prednisone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYPD6 inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bupropion
citalopram
duloxetine
fluoxetine
fluvoxamine
paroxetine
cimetedine
doxepin
haloperidol
methadone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP2D6 inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dexamethasone
rifampacin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP1A2 inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluvoxamine
Paroxetine
Amiodarone
Fluroquinolones
Cimetedine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP1A2 inducers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

insulin
modafinil (also 3A4 inducer)
omeprazole
phenobarbital (also 3A4 inducer)
rifampicin (also 3A4 inducer)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP2B6 inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ticlopidine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYPB6 inducers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenobarbital
Rifampicin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP2C8 inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

gemfibrozil
giltazones<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP2C8 inducers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
2. Phenobarbitol
3. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
4. Rifampin (Rifadin)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYP2C9 inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amiodarone
Fluconazole
isonazid
sulfa drugs
trimethoprim<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CYPC19 inducers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenobarbital
Rifampicin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bupoprion is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Methadone is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6 (and inhibitor)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine is a ______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2C9
2C19
2D6 and inhibitor
(3A4 inhibitor)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenytoin is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2C9
2C19
(3A4 inducer)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sertraline is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2C9
2C19
2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2C9
2C19
2D6 and inhibitor
(3A4 inhibitor)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluvoxamine is a ______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2C9
1A2
2C19
2D6 and inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amitriptyline is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2
2C19<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Duloxetine is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2
2D6 and inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Haloperidal is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2
2D6 (and inhibitor)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Imipramine is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2
2C19<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mirazapine is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2
2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ondanseteron is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Warfarin is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2
2C9<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Olanzepine is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2
2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Citalopram is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2C19
2D6 (and inhibitor)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diazepam is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2C19<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

escitalopram is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2C19
2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6 and inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amphetamine is a _________ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Atomoxetine is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clomipramine is a _________ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidal is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Venlafaxine is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Buspirone is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

St. John’s wort is a _______ inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxcarbazepine and carbazepine are __________ inducers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Grapefruit juice is a ______ inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clonazepam (Klonopin) is a ______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Xanax is a ______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Buprenorphine is a _______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Topiramate is a ______ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sildenafil (Viagra, Revatio) is a _____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Flurazepam (Dalmane) is a ________ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Particularly potent inhibitors of 3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

clarithromycin
itraconazole
ketoconazle<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Particularly potent inducer of 3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

rifampin (90% reduction in serum concentrations of 3A4 substrates)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If you add rifampin to triazolam, what happens to the concentration of triazolam?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

90% decreased concentration (ineffective)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What meds would lower the effectiveness of amphetamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dexamethasone
Rifampicin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medications would lower the effectiveness of citalopram<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine
Prednisone
Rifampicin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medications would lower the effectiveness of bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rifampicin
Phenobarbital<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medications would lower the effectiveness of olanzepine?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

insulin
Modafinil
phenobarbital
rifampicin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drugs affected by tobacco<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Theophylline
caffeine
tacrine
imipramine
haldol
estradiol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cigarette smoking results in _______ clearing of heparin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

faster (inducer)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Stopping cigarette smoking can result in caffeine __________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

toxicity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients who smoke may have _____ levels of clozapine, haldol or olanzapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lower serum concentration<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The turnover time for CYP1A2 is __________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

approximately 3 days with steady state reached at 1 week (important to remember when managing inpatients in smoke-free facility – can result win drug toxicity)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cumin and turmeric ________ CYP1A2 activity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibit<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

blockage of voltage gated sodium channels
decreases glutamate release
potentiates GABA
weak inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibition of alpha subunit of G protein associated with cAMP<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
acute mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium
valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
acute\/mixed mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine
Valproic acid
Risperidone
Asenapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
Trigeminal neuralgia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
Partial seizures
Grand mal seizure patterns
Mixed seizure patterns<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indication:
complex partial seizures
simple and complex seizures
migraine prophylaxis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What mood stabilizer is more likely to cause psoriasis and acne?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What mood stabilizer is more likely to cause thyroid dysfunction?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What mood stabilizer has neuroprotective effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What mood stabilizer inhibits GSK-3 beta?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium (plays role in tau phosphrylation)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What mood stabilizer increases bel-2?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium (inhibits apoptosis)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What mood stabilizer is more likely to cause renal insufficiency?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
maintenance and propylaxis of bipolar<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium
Risperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
mood stabilizer the augments antidepressant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
schizoaffective (bipolar type)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
Maintenance of bipolar II<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lamictal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications: Partial seizures in adult and children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

oxcarbazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications: Lennox-Gaust syndrome seizures, partial seizures, tonic-clonic seizures, migraine prophylaxis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

St John’s wort lowers the level of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Warfarin
Digoxin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ginkgo Biloba contraindications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pt on antiplately or anticoagulant med<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Garlic should be used cautiously with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anti platelet and anticlotting medications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

After dc of benzodiazepine, rebound insomnia is likely to happen. What’s the next step in mgmt?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Start sedative antihistamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medications should be used with caution or avoided with ECT?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

theophylline (can prolong seizure and status epileptics)
hypoglycemics
Beta blockers (can cause systole)
Lidocaine (reduce seizure induction)
Lithium (can prolong seizure and confusion)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What med if given with ECT can prolong seizure and confusion?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What med if given with ECT can cause systole?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Beta blockers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What med if given with ECT can reduce seizure induction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lidocaine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Alopecia is transient when taking valproic acid and can be treated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

a multivitamin containing zinc and selenium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Side effects of valproic acid are more frequent with ____________ than with other preparations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

divalproex sodium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine and fluoxetine interaction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Increased carbamazepine levels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine and lithium interaction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased risk of neurotoxicity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine and oral contraceptive (OBC) interaction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decreased levels of OBC<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine and valproic acid interaction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased carbamazepine levels
decreased valproic acid levels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Is phenytoin an inducer or inhibitor?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Is Valproic acid an inducer or inhibitor?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Is ciprofloxacin an inducer or inhibitor?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Is ketoconazole an inducer or inhibitor?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications: Schizophrenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Risperidone
Paliperidone
Olanzapine
Clozapine
Asenapine
Lurasidone
Ziprasidone
Lloperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
Acute psychosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ziprasidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
agitation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ziprasidone
Olanzapine
Aripiprazole<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
schizoaffective<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine
Paliperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indications:
Autism (5-16 years)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidone
Aripiprazole (all ages)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antipsychotics FDA indicated for bipolar disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ziprasidone
Olanzapine
Risperidone
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which antipsychotic should you avoid in patients with a significant cardiac history?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

(due to increased QTc)
Lloperidone
Ziprasidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients tend to lose weight (no significant increase in lipids or glucose) when treated with this antipsychotic long term<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lurasidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antipsychotic that is category B for pregnancy, little prolactin increase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lurasidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic is related to mirtazapine and likely has antidepressant properties?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Asenapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic has the notable side effect of metabolic syndrome and diabetic ketoacidosis?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Olanzapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic has the notable side effect of dose-related hyperprolactinemia?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic has the notable side effects of metabolic syndrome and cataracts (in animal studies)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic has no increase in prolactin?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic has a black box warning of suicide in children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Aripiprazole<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic is most likely to cause akathisia and can be activating at low doses<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

aripiprazole<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic is preferred in Parkinson’s and Lewy body demential due to low EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic has a very low risk of TD’s and no increase in prolactin?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

With what antipsychotic should you monitor with ophthalmological exam, AIMS, blood glucose, lipid profile, weight?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

With what antipsychotic should you monitor prolactin level?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

With what antipsychotic should you monitor CBC?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic has potent alpha-1 blockade (prazosin like effects for PTSD related nightmares) and need to watch for orthostatic hypotension?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lloperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What med causes notable side effects of agranulocytosis, seizures, myocarditis, cardiorespiratory failure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic has blood level available?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic can cause oral hypesthesia?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Asenapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Major side effects of this antipsychotic include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rare EPS
Prominent Sedation
Very low weight gain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic causes excess salivation?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic reduces suicide?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic can cause rebound psychosis and cholinergic rebound when abruptly withdrawing<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic is preferred treatment of behavioral disturbance in children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

There is a ________________ in patients taking anticonvulsants per black box warning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

suicide and depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine, phenytoin and oxcarbazepine are _______ of the CYP3A4 system and can ___________ levels of antidepressants and antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inducer
lower<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Barbituates and gapapentin have an increase risk of ________ in epileptic patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is not a reasonable way to treat hypotension caused by an MAOI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

introduce a small amount of cheese into diet (amount of tyramine differs among types of cheeses)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What are safe ways to increase BP in person taking MAOI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increase salt intake
fludrocortisone 0.6-0.8mg daily
wear support stocking
ensure adequate hydration
stimulant medication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When is the best time to measure plasma levels of lithium during therapy?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

12 hours after last dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A substance that decreases the metabolism of drugs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Is echinacea an inducer or inhibitor?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mechanism of atomoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

blocks reuptake of norepinephrine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Atomoxetin increases NE and DA levels by _____ in the _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3x
prefrontal cortices
(no change in striatum or nucleus accumbans)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Increased NE has been shown to improve<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

depressive symptoms
fatigue
hypersomnia
motoric retardation
anhedonia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Common side effects of atomoxetine are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dry mouth
insomnia
constipation
urinary hesitancy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic acid ________ the elimination half life of lamotrigine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

doubles<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which med is used to tx alcohol use disorder by inhibiting a step in alcohol metabolism, leading to buildup of a toxic metabolite<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disulfiram<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disulfiram blocks _______ leading to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

aldehyde dehydrogenase
unpleasant hangover like side effects from drinking ETOH (accumulation of acetaldehyde)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

______ and ______ block the activation of the reward system associated with alcohol and opiates<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Naltrexone
Nalmefene<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cognitive affects of taking benzodiazepines are greatest in _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

elderly (especially at risk is pts with delirium and dementia)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Initial side effects of benzodiazepines can persist and worsen in pts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

with liver disease
taking longer-acting agents (diazepam)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antidepressants significantly increase dopamine?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenelzine
Selegiline
(Bupropion is slight)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which antidepressants significantly increase NE?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Desipramine
Amitriptyline
Buproprion
Duloxetine
Phenelzine
Selegiline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which antidepressants increase does not increase DA or 5-HT but increases NE?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Desipramine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which antidepressants increase NE and 5-HT, but not DA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amitriptyline
Duloxetine
Effexor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which antidepressants increase NE, 5HT and DA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenelzine
Selegiline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_____ of every _____ black or white persons may have an exaggerated response to beta-blockers due to a polymorphism in CYP450 enzymes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1
15<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sialorrhea<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

excessive salivation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sialorrhea is associated with side effects of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine (31-48%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine has a boxed warning concerning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

AGRANULOCYTOSIS (severe neutropenia is associated with significant risk of serious infection or death)

orthostatic hypotension
bradycardia
syncope
(more likely to occur during initiation of tx and titration of dose)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Baseline ANC must be at least ___________ before initiation of Clozapine tx<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1500<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Due to _________ clozapine is available only under a Risk Evaluation Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

risk of severe neutropenia (ANC<500)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute alcohol ingestion _______ the rate of drug metabolism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lowers (inhibits)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute alcohol ingestion causes benzodiazepine level to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hypnotic drug of choice for pt with insomnia who wants to take it in the middle of the night without causing significant grogginess in the morning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Zalepon<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half life of Zalepon<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1-2 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the mechanism of action of galantamine?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

competitive inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to the Lilly Worldwide Pharmacovigilance Safety Database, what is the rate of spontaneous abortion in olanzapine exposed pregnancy?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

13% (falls within range of normal historic control rates)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Exposure during gestation to this medication can cause arrhythmias, polyhydramnios, nephrogenic diabetes insidious, and “floppy infant syndrome”<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

LIthium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Desvenlafaxine is ________ protein bound with ____ likelihood of displacing tightly protein-bound medication like phenytoin and warfarin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

weakly
reduced<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The SNRIs have an ______ onset of action compared to SSRIs due to _________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

earlier
rapid down-regulation of beta-adrenergic receptor-coupled cAMP<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Do stimulants cause an increase in tics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

no (can worsen for a short interval, then go back to baseline)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most prescription and nonprescription medications can be used safely with _________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

stimulants (MAOI formally contraindicated but can be used with caution in tx resistant cases)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Excessive caffeine intake with stimulants may _________ the effectiveness of the stimulant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decrease (increase sleep problems)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Use of stimulants with anticonvulsants may require<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dosage adjustment and blood levels of both medication due to decreased effects of anticonvulsants<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI associated with the greatest weight gain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amiloride is used to treat which side effect of lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Renal side effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TCA for OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clomipramine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Induction of a seizure with ECT occurs when an applied electrical stimulus causes which of the following?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depolarization of cell membranes of neurons in brain synchronously<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 14 year old boy is dced on carbamazepine after an admission for acute mania. About 4 weeks later, he is again acutely manic despite having been initially stabilized on carbamazepine. What is the likely cause of this medication failure?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autoinduction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

transcription up regulation of genes involved in its own metabolism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autoinduction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How long does auto induction of carbamazepine take<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3-5 weeks (after ignition of a fixed dose when taken consistently)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Meds that can increase serum concentration of 3A4 temporarily (but ultimately act as an inhibitor)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cimetidine
Erythromycin
Grapefruit juice<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Vagus nerve stimulation is FDA approved for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

epilepsy
treatment resistant depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

it involves surgical implantation of a device in the carotid sheath<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

vagus nerve stimulation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adding ginseng to lithium can cause<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

irritability, insomnia and mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adding ginseng to neuroleptics or phenelzine can cause<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

irritability, insomnia and mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What adverse reaction is associated with mirtazapine use?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Agranulocytosis (1\/1000)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mirtazapine ______ nausea and vomiting due to ________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

improves
5-HT3 receptor blockade<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Urinary ______ can occur with mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

frequency<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Kava acts on ________ receptors and long term use has been linked with ___________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GABA
liver toxicity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Foods that act as inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cauliflower
leafy green vegetables
broccoli
carrots
licorice<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Foods that act as inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

grape (resveratrol)
grapefruit juice
cranberry
pomegranate
mango
red peppers
green tea
vitamin E
kava kava root<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cocaine during pregnancy has been associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Uterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)
Placental Abruption
Small for gestational age (SGA)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine is ______ for mothers who are breastfeeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Safe<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproid acid is ______ for mothers who are breastfeeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

safe<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenytoin is ______ for mothers who are breastfeeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

safe<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenobarbital is ______ for mothers who are breastfeeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

safe<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Primidone is ______ for mothers who are breastfeeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

safe<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium is ______ for mothers who are breastfeeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

unsafe (EKG changes and toxicity)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lamotrigine is ______ for mothers who are breastfeeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

unsafe (risk of fatal rash)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clonazepam is ______ for mothers who are breastfeeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

unsafe (CNS\/respiratory depression)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Can cause hyponatremia especially when given with SSRI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxcarbazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium _______ affect the efficacy of oral contraceptives at any dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

does not<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine_______ affect the efficacy of oral contraceptives at any dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

does (decreases efficacy)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tegretol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Topiramate _______ affect the efficacy of oral contraceptives at any dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

at doses >200mg does (decreases efficacy)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxcarbazepine _______ affect the efficacy of oral contraceptives at any dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

does (decreases efficacy)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 64 year old man with early stage Parkinson’s disease takes the MAO-B inhibitor selegiline for symptomatic relief. Why are MAO-B inhibitors favored over MAO-A inhibitors for treating Parkinson’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MAO-A normally metabolized tyramine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Two MAO-Bi drugs that have been approved by FDA without dietary restrictions for early stage Parkinson’s (but lose selectivity at high-dose)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selegiline
rasagiline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MAO-B inhibitors principally block<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dopamine
phenylethylamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What will not increase lithium levels?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

High sodium diet<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A low sodium diet is likely to ______ lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Toxicity of Lithium occurs at levels marked by tremor, GI symptoms, blurred vision, increased DTR, vertigo, and confusion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>1.5 meq\/L<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Life-threatening toxicity of Lithium occurs at<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>2.0 meq\/L<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

At Lithium level of ___________ seizures, coma, arrhythmias, and permanent neurological impairment may occur<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>2.5 meq\/L<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In acute toxicities with lithium levels >4.0 meq\/L ________ is the only way to get lithium out of the bloodstream<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hemodialysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medications associated with higher level of Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

diuretics
ACE
NSAIDs
COX-2 inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lifestyle risk factors for elevated Lithium level<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Salt-restricting diets
dehydration
high heat
poor PO intake<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium levels should be checked _____ after an increase or any time prior to an increase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5 days (sooner in acute mania)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Target level for Lithium in tx of mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

0.8-1.0 meq\/L<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fewer lithium side effects (but more manic episodes) are seen in this level<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

0.4-0.6meq\/L<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In stable patients on chronic lithium treatment, levels should be drawn every ______ and renal\/thryoid function every ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months
6-12 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When taking lithium, renal function should be evaluated every ______ months during the first 6 months of treatment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2-3 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sexual side effects from antipsychotics are due to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

alpha-2 receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Long term effects of typical antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

weight gain
photosensitivity
sexual side effects
hyperprolactinemia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TD is associated with all _______ and occurs at a rate of approximately _______ per year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

typical antipsychotics
5%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Whta is the most effective treatment for major depression?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ECT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproate competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anything that blocks either _______ or ________ will increase lamotrigine levels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

(UGT) 1A4 or 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depakote competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tamoxifen (Novadex) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Imipramine competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amitriptyline (Elavil) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Doxepin competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nicotine competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Olanzapine competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Promethazine (Phenergen) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Meperidine (Demerol) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine (Clozaril) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clorpromazine (Thorazine) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Androsterone and Testosterone competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Progestins (progesterone) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Asenapine (Saphris) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 1A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Atorvastatin (Lipitor) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

buprenorphine\/naloxone competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ibuprofen (Advil, Motrin) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fenofibrate (Tricor) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxycodone\/APAP (Percocet) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Methadone competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site (2B7)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tacrolimus (Prograf) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Codeine competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Temazepam (Restoril) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic Acid (Depakote) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Simvastatin (Zocor) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carvediolol (Coreg) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cyclosporine competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lorazepam (Ativan) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxazepam (Serax) competes with lamotrigine at _______________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucuronidation site 2B7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Benzodiazepines that undergo glucuronide conjugation 2B7 (not via the cytochrome p450 system)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxazepam
Temazepam
Lorazepam
(OTL mnemonic: Outside The Liver).<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What drug has been associated with insulin-like effect responsible for lowering blood glucose and increasing appetite and weight gain?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What drug has been associated with myocarditis?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What drug has been associated with eosinophilic colitis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In studies, which ECT modality reduces cognitive side effects but is less effective in terms of symptom reduction?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

unilateral non dominant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A patient discharged on valproate has been stable for many years on lamotrigine, and you would like to initiate therapy with this medication and reach a therapeutic level before tapering off the valproate. What would be the starting dose of lamotrigine?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Half of what it would normally be since half life effect is doubled<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Between olanzapine, clozapine, quetiapine, and haldol, which is least associated with sedation?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Haldol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 antipsychotics with high anticholinergic effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

clozapine
thioridazine
chlorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 antipsychotics associated with high sedation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

clozapine
quetiapine
thioridazine
chlorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Olanzapine is associated with _______ sedation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mild<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antipsychotic is not associated with EPS?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidone is _____ anticholinergic, ______ sedation _______ EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

low
low
low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Haloperidol is ______ anticholinergic, _______ sedation, ______ EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

low
low
high<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thiroidazine is _____ anticholinergic, _____ sedation, ____ EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

high
high
low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chorpromazine (Thorazine) is ______ anticholinergic, ______ sedation )______ EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

high
high
low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine is _____ anticholinergic, ______ sedation, ______ EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

low
high
low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is ______ anticholinergic, ______ sedation, ______ EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

low
mid
low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ziprasidone (Geodon) is ______ anticholinergic, _____ sedation, _____ EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

low
low
low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Aripiprazole (Abilify) is _______ anticholinergic, ______ sedation, ______EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

low
low
low<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Abilify<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Aripiprazole<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Aripiprazole<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Abilify<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozaril<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Clozaril<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Seroquel<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Quetiapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Seroquel<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Invega<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paliperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Paliperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Invega<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Thioridazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mellaril<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Mellaril<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thioridazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Clorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thorazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Thorazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Tegretol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Valproate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depakote<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Depakote<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproate Sodium
Valproic Acid
Divalproex Sodium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Valproic Acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproate Sodium
Depakote
Divalproex Sodium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Oxcarbazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Trileptal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Trileptal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oxcarbazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Luvox<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluvoxamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Fluvoxamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Luvox<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Prozac<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prozac<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Sertaline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Zoloft<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Zoloft<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sertraline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Paroxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paxil<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Paxil<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Lexapro<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Escitalopram<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Citalopram<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Celexa<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Celexa<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Citalopram<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Escitalopram<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lexapro<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Cymbalta<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Duloxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Duloxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cymbalta<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Effexor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Venlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Venlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Effexor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Pristiq<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Desvenlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Desvenlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pristiq<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt’s meds include lisinopril, atorvastatin, bupropion, ibuprofen. Which medication is responsible for his insomnia?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bupropion is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Wellbutrin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Wellbutrin is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What SSRI is known to cause activation and insomnia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

There are no _________ for ECT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ABSOLUTE contraindications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Space-occupying intercerebrayl lesion has traditionally been considered a ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

contraindication of ECT since ECT increases intracerebral pressure, however slow growing meningiomas without mass effect and other similar lesions do not present a high risk<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

While caution needs to be applied weighing risks and benefits, ECT has been safely administered (after appropriate subspecialty consultation) to pts with a hx of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

brain surgery
deep brain stimulators
cardiac pacemakers
AICD
vagus nerve stimulator
seizures
space occupying intracerebral lesions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ADHD patients may have side effects from stimulants that represent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

manifestation or exacerbation of comorbid disorder (ie GAD)
Side effect of treatment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antihistamine _______ is used to increase appetite<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cyproheptadine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medications to treat sleep problems associated with stimulant use<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Melatonin
Clonidine
Diphenhydramine
Trazodone
Mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hyperparathyroidism is associated with which medication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hyperparathyroidism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

excessive levels of parathyroid hormone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ketoconazole is ______ of the ______ enzyme<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitor
3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cannabinoids is a _______ of the ______ enzyme<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitor
3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and St John’s wort have this in common<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4 inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ketoconazole, amiodarone, and erythromycin have this in common<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3A4 inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Regarding ECT treatment for depression in adolescents, which of the following statements is correct<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

response to ECT is similar in adolescents and adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Before ECT is used on an adolescent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 child and adolescent psychiatrists who are not the primary caregivers for the adolescent should be consulted and agree that it is indicated<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which antidepressant is least likely to cause significant drug-drug interactions in the elderly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Venlafaxine (most SSRIs cause some inhibition of the 2D6 enzyme which leads to increased plasma level of other drugs (ie antiarrhythmics, benztropine, TCA, many antipsychotics)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 26 year old F with dx of bipolar on lithium presents to ED with marked tremor, ataxia, and confusion after a suspected suicide attempt less than an hour before admission. Her lithium level is 2.1. Over the next half hour, the pt becomes increasingly confused and then unresponsive, what is the next step in management?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Alert nephrology for emergent hemodialysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medication has been helpful in women with stress incontinence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Duloxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Lurasidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Latuda<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another name for Latuda<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lurasidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Indicated for bipolar depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Latuda (Lurasidone)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication given in combination with Latuda may cause orthostatic hypotension<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

beta blocker<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which substance or technique was first used to induce convulsion to treat psychiatric illness and catatonia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Camphor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication when given with SSRI is most likely to predispose patients to serotonin syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Meperidine (Demerol)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic acid is superior to lithium in patients with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mixed symptoms
prominent depressive symptoms during mania
multiple prior mood episodes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

________ is more effective than Valproic acid in reducing symptoms of acute mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Olanzapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic acid and _________ are equally efficacious in the treatment of acute mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

haldol (response rate 48-53%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Divalproex sodium is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depakote
Valproic acid
Valproate Sodium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Max dose of Divalproex Sodium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60mg\/kg\/day<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depakote is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Divalproex Sodium
Valproic Acid
Volproate Sodium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine may ______ the effectiveness of Risperidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Decrease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine is metabolized in the ____ by ____ substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

liver
3A4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

________ requires monitoring for signs of bruising and bleeding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication causes metabolic acidosis via carbonic anhydrase inhibition?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What does metabolic acidosis via carbonic anhydrase inhibition initiate?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

kidney stone formation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine acts as a CYP 450 3A4 ____, ____ the effectiveness of other CYP 3A4 substrates<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inducer
lowering<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What anti-epileptic medication causes bone marrow suppression, resulting in agranulocytosis and leukopenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antidepressant should be used in caution with a patient taking a protease inhibitor (ritonavir, saquinavir) because of toxic interaction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone is also know as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Serzone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Serzone is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Trazodone is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Desyrel<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Desyrel is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Trazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone and Trazodone are both ________ blockers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5-HT2a<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone and Trazodone side effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sedation, GI distress, postural hypotension (alpha block), trazaBONE-sexual side effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which drugs is only an antiepileptic (not used as a mood stabilizer)?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Levetiracetam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the minimum amount of time to continue maintenance ECT treatment to achieve the best outcome after pt has discharged. He responded to 3 administrations of ECT?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 specific indications for continuation ECT are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1. hx of recurrent episodes responsive to ECT
AND

2. ineffectiveness of or intolerance to prophylactic pharmacotherapy
OR
3. patient preference<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Average duration of continuation ECT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10 weeks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Continuation ECT following successful ECT typically involves gradual shifting from<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

frequent weekly to monthly treatments over 1-3 months and then maintaining the monthly administration schedule for at least 6 months after remission<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Long term use of continuation maintenance ECT is indicated when<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pt hx suggest high risk of delayed relapse on medication alone
or
evidence of decompensation occurs during attempts to stretch interval between treatments during the continuation phases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When someone is on continuation maintenance ECT, the need should be reviewed by practitioner and patient at least<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

twice a year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Consent for continuation maintenance ECT should be reobtained at least every<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What needs to be reevaluated every 6 months with continuation maintenance ECT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

need\/indication
anesthetic\/medical complications
cognitive tests (presence of persistent memory deficits weighed against anticipated benefits)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Even in patients who do not have a hx of diabetes, a possible side effect of olanzapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diabetic ketoacidosis
Hyperosmolar nonketotic coma<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is considered a side effect of antipsychotics and is treated by beta blockers (propranolol)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Akathisia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone is a potent ________ of CYP 450<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medication can be used as an antidote to SSRI induced impotence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unlike other antidepressants, this medication enhances rapid eye movement (REM) and may increase restful sleep in some patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

This antidepressant medication is not usually given first line for depression or at all anymore due to risk of liver failure (need to do liver function tests)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nefazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Haldol should be avoided in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pregnant women (d\/t risk for birth defects)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Common reasons for inadequate response to antidepressants include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inadequate dosing
pt non-compliance
misdiagnosis
substance abuse (especially ETOH)
Dc medications too quickly\/early<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Young female brought to ED after being found in coma next to empty bottle of Vicodin. She is unresponsive. Medication that is indicated in management<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Naloxone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Naloxone is also called<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Narcan<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Narcan is also called<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nalaxone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Flumazenil is also called<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Romazicon<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Naltrexone is also called<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ReVia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which MAOI antidepressant has the lowest incidence of sexual dysfunction?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tranylcypromine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which MAOIs have a high incidence of sexual dysfunction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Isocarboxazid
Phenelzine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tranylcypromine is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Parnate (MAOI)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Isocarboxazid is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Marplan (MAOI)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenelzine is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nardil (MAOI)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The 2015 Beers criteria contains a strong recommendation against using SSRI in combination with other __________ in older adults based on moderate evidence for __________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CNS acting medications
increased fall and fx risk<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Memantine is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Namenda<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Memantine mechanism of action<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

NMDA receptor antagonist<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Potent allosteric potentiating ligand of human nicotinic acetylcholine receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Galantamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Galantamine is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Razadyne<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that inhibits both butyrlcholinesterase and acetylcholinesterase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rivastigmine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selectively inhibits acetylcholinesterase unlike Rivastigmine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Donepezil<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Donepezil is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Aricept<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Precursor to the neurotransmitters dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine (collectively known as catecholamines)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

L-DOPA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 typical antiparkinsonian drugs that are ineffective in the tx of antipsychotic-induced Parkinsonism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Levodopa
Selegiline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

antipsychotic-induced Parkinsonism medication that works for tx, but its effects tend to wear off<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Amantadine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium is associated with risk of Ebstein’s anomaly which is malformation of which structure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tricuspid valve<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is true regarding methylphenidate and amphetamine?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Both stimulants increase intrasynaptic levels of NE and Dopamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Through which receptor dose mirtazapine exert its effect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Alpha-2 adrenergic antagonism.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What do oral contraceptives, reserpine, clonidine, ETOH, hydralazine, amantadine, benzodiazepines, and guanethidine have in common<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

can cause depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Reserpine (Serpasil)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

peripherally-acting sympathetic antagonist used for HTN; depletes stores of catecholamines in neurons; decreases TPR and CO<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Guanethidine (Ismelin)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

adrenergic neuron blocker
can cause depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Loxapine (Loxitane)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

typical tetracyclic antipsychotic with antidepressant properties<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It’s active metabolite is amoxapine which is a secondary amine tricyclic antidepressant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Loxapine (Loxitane)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients with atypical depression respond particularly well to this MAOI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenelzine (Nardil)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the most appropriate medication for melancholic depression in the geriatric population?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nortriptyline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nortriptyline is also called<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pamelor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is the safest short acting barbiturate that can be used as an induction for anesthesia?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sodium thiopental<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!<\/a><\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication should be avoided in patient with hx of epilepsy and hyperlipidemia who wants to quit tobacco use?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the best medication option for pt who wants to quit tobacco use who has a hx or seizures<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Varenicline
can be combined with NRT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nephrolithiasis occurs in about _______ of topiramate pts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

15%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Associated with acute myopia and secondary closure glaucoma, causing ocular pain and blurred vision d\/t increased intraocular pressure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Metabolic acidosis is associated with ______, _____ levels should be monitored during use<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

topiramate
serum bicarbonate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

These side effects do not improve over time with topiramate use<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Decreased appetite
paresthesias
cognitive slowing<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Weight loss is a significant side effect of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

topiramax<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Placing electromagnetic coil on scalp and running electricity through it<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TMS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When was ECT first used in the US<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1940s<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which TCA has been found in considerably higher concentration in breast milk compared to other medications in the same class?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Doxepin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Doxepin is also known as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sinequan (TCA)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inhibits voltage-dependent sodium channels and presynaptic sodium channels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Increases GABA in brain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depakote<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inhibits glutamate releases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inhibits sodium channels, enhances GABA-a receptors, and antagonizes kainite at AMPA receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Duloxetine should not be given to patients who<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

consume large amounts of alcohol or have chronic liver disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Duloxetine has a ________ half-life than venlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Longer (dc syndrome less likely)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Duloxetine increases this enzyme<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hepatic transaminases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What do charcoal broiled beef, tobacco, marijuana, modafinil, omeprazole and cruciferous vegetables have in common?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2 inducer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What do caffeine, clozapine, duloxetine, imipramine, olanzapine, ramelteon and amitriptyline have in common?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2 substrate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What do fluvoxamine, cimetidine, ciprofloxacin, grapefruit juice, ketoconazole have in common<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1A2 inhibitors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which pair is least likely to cause weight gain?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lamotrigine and topiramate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which pair of antipsychotics is most likely to cause weight gain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine and olanzapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which pair of mood stabilizers is most likely to cause weight gain?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic acid and lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drugs that can induce mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

stimulants
bromides
cocaine
antidepressants
isoniazid
procarbazine
steroid
amphetamines<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medical conditions that can cause mania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

syphilis
brain tumors
influenza
Q fever
multiple sclerosis
delirium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following symptoms characterizes the toxicity of clomipramine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Convulsions and coma<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mechanism of action of Clomipramine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

blocks reuptake of NE and 5-HT (TCA)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients require ______ weekly for the first ______ months if they are using clozapine to monitor ________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CBC with a differential
6
ANC for agranulocytosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When starting clozapine, CMP, Fasting lipid and fasting glucose should be monitored at some point within the first ____ of treatment to screen for metabolic syndrome, then if check does not demonstrate sx of metabolic syndrome, screening can be done ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 months
annually<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medication side effect is NOT associated with lithium or valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

eosinophilic colitis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pancreatitis is a rare but potentially deadly side effect of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hepatic failure is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hyperparathyroidism and hyperglycemia have been associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hyperplasia and ademomas of parathyroid glands have been associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mechanism of action of varenicline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

partial agonist of alpha4beta2 and full agonist of alpha7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mechanism of action of bupropion (Zyban) that helps with smoking cessation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

partial agonist of alpha4beta2 and partial agonist of alpha7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mechanism of action of NRT that helps with smoking cessation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Full agonist at alpha4beta2 and full agonist at alpha7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Neuroleptics and antiemetic drugs such as metoclopramide are dopamine _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

receptor antagonists<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rifampicin is an __________ of CYP _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inducer
2D6<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine leads to seizures in ____ of patients taking >=6–mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

___________ is most likely to cause seizures among typical antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chlorpromazine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which drug is effective in improving sexual dysfunction in men but when given with an antidepressant to counter its adverse sexual effects can be counterproductive because it is actually anxiogenic?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Yohimbine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Can help reverse some sexual dysfunction caused by SSRIs at 4-12mg\/day, but also can reverses the antidepressant or anti-obsessive effects of SSRIs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cyproheptadine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The use of _____ has been more effective than placebo in men with SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sildenafil (Viagara)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

______ Has been reported to increase overall sexual satisfaction in both men and women<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sildenafil (Viagara)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic acid is a CYP450 ________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is NOT true regarding typical antipsychotic overdose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dialysis is useful in treating it. (It is often lethal due to significant cardiovascular effects)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What seizure medications are considered safe for use in breastfeeding mothers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Valproic Acid (Depakote)
Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Phenobarbital
Primidone (Mysoline)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If >______ %of the body surface area is involved it is termed Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>30<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In it involves _______% of the skin surface area it is known as Steven-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<10<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If it involves ______% of the skin surface area it is known as SJS-TEN<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10-30<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mr Matthews presents for evaluation of this out-of-control aggressive impulses. Usually he is “a regular guy with decent temperament” but sometimes becomes disproportionately aggressive to a precipitating stress. Which of the following medications may worsen the symptoms of intermittent explosive disorder long term?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diazepam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_________ and ______ have been superior to placebo in reducing impulsive aggression in pts with intermittent explosive disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine
Oxcarbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

______ might help control explosive rage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Beta blockers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Due to risk of neural tube defects in bipolar pts on lithium, carbamazepine or valproic acid maintenance, ___________ must be monitored, if elevated, ______ and _______ are needed to look for _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

alpha-fetoprotein
amniocentesis
ultrasound
spinal deformities<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Due to the risk for cardiac abnormalities in pts on lithium, valproic acid, or carbamazepine maintenance during pregnancy, _______ should be suggested at ________ weeks to rule out cardiac effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

high-resolution ultrasound
16-18<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

As a result of large fluid shifts during delivery, the bipolar medication levels of ______________ can become toxic so dose should be ______ and hydration should be ______. Discontinuation is not recommended due to _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lithium
carbamazepine
valproate
lowered
adequate
50% risk of postpartum relapse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Buspirone mechanism of action<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5HT1A receptor partial agonist at postsynaptic receptors
acts on postsynaptic receptors in hippocampus and cortex as partial agonist
Mild-moderate presynaptic dopamine agonist at D2, D3, and D4 receptors
Partial alpha-1 receptor agonist<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The DSM-5 now includes _____ separate criteria for intermittent explosive disorder _____ which have empirical support<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2
A1 – does not lead to destruction of property or physical injury
A2- 3 outburst that involve injury or destruction within a year period<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In order to be diagnosed with intermittent explosive disorder, individual must be at least ____ old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is true about Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It slows cardiac conduction and should be avoided in pts with high-grade AV block or sick sinus syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRI discontinuation syndrome symptoms usually resolve within<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 weeks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Common side effects of stimulant medications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Abdominal pain
anorexia
diminished appetite
headache
insomnia
mood lability
nausea
nervousness
vomiting<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What SNRI is associated with discontinuation syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Venlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Concurrent administration with which medication is likely to decrease levels of valproic acid?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Primidone
Phenobarbital<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drugs that may increase valproic acid levels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cimetidine
macrolide antibiotics (erythromycin)
felbamate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which SSRI would cause the most problems in a pt on Clozaril<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluvoxamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FLuovoxamine can increase sedation effects caused by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

alprazolam
triazolam
trazodone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For a patient with a GFR of 23, what is a good mood stabilizer that is hepatically excreted?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When assessing cognitive elements in a MSE, which of the following elements is assessed by using proverbs such as “The golden hammer breaks the iron door.”<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Abstraction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Of the >50 different CYP450 enzymes _____ enzymes metabolize approximately ______ of all medications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6
90%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Enzyme inhibition is a ______ process than enzyme induction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

faster<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Enzyme induction generally occurs over the course of ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1-2 weeks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Who exhibits enzyme inhibition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

premature infants
elderly men and women
patients with liver disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medication is a tetracyclic antidepressant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

OD of this medication presents as dizziness, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, hyponatremia, and thrombocytopenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Carbamazepine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Drugs tend to be absorbed more slowly when a patient has a full stomach. Which medication should be taken on an empty stomach?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sedatives\/hypnotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the difference in side effects between SNRIs and SSRIs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SNRIs may cause HTN
SSRIs cause more wt gain, especially paroxetine
SNRIs cause less sexual dysfunction when compared to SSRIs
Withdrawal tends to be worse with SNRIs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is a three question screening tool used for dx of ETOH abuse and dependence in pt who is acutely ill or otherwise poorly disposed to speak with the practitioner?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

AUDIT-C<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

AUDIT has ____ multiple choice questions regarding the _________ and is the ______ for screening for identification of _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10
quantity and frequency of alcohol consumption, drinking behavior and alcohol related problems
Gold standard
Alcohol Use Disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CAGE is a _____ item screening took with a ______ sensitivity and ______ specificity for AUD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4
50-75%
80%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

C in CAGE<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Have you ever felt you should Cut down on your drinking?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A in CAGE<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Have people ANNOYED you by criticizing your drinking?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

G in CAGE<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Have you ever felt bad or guilty about your drinking?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

E in CAGE<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Have you ever had a morning eye-opener<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MAST stands for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Michigan Alcohol Screening Test<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MAST has ____ screening questions with ______ answers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

25
yes\/no<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

On administration of a drug that causes CYP2D6 inhibition, which side effect of methylphenidate will increase?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

none because it does not have any significant metabolism via that enzyme and the majority of metabolism occurs at first pass and outside the liver<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Due to a high risk for dependence, for which hypnotic must a test dose be given if a pt’s dose is not known<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Barbiturates<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If a pt is given too large of a dose of Barbituates, this will happen<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

nystagmus
slurred speech
ataxia
sedation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What change in the dose-response curve is observed when a pt becomes tolerant of a medication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

shift to right<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Buspirone primarily acts on which receptor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5-HT1A<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medications (not yet FDA approved) can be used to treat kleptomania?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine
Naltrexone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is characteristic of fetal phenytoin syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hypertelorism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hypertelorism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

eyes spaced widely apart<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

fetal valproate syndrome features<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bifrontal narrowing
midface hypoplasia
broad nasal bridge
short nose with anteverted nares
epicanthic folds
micrognathia
shallow philtrum
thin upper lip
thick lower lip<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

NSAID ______ Lithium clearance and can cause side effects such as ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decrease
tremor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What antidepressant is associated with significant sexual side effects and weight gain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenelzine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Some patients on chronic lithium treatment may have gradually _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased creatinine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Development of hypothyroidism that is not responsive to thyroxine constitutes a valid reason to consider<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

discontinuation of lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ECG effects common in LIthium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

changes in depolarization phase
worsening existing arrhythmias<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

With most modern devices, the dosage of ECT is changed by varying which aspect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

time of exposure to fixed current<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When drug is quickly metabolized to inactive metabolites, which of the following statements may be true of this patient<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

She is a poor metabolizer<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Donazepil is believed to improve<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

memory in neurocognitive disorder by increasing the amount of acetylcholine available in the synaptic cleft by inhibiting its breakdown by acetylcholinesterase. This inhibition is reversible.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Barbituates ________ plasma TCA, _____ the antidepressant effects because of their induction of __________ and accelerated _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lower
diminishes
liver microsomal enzymes
degradation of the TCA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Barbiturates act on ______ receptors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GABA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For gastrointestinal issues associated with Lithium use<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

change to longer-acting oral preparation or use lithium citrate syrup<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For lithium associated edema<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

administer spironolactone (25mg\/day) and follow lithium levels closely<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For lithium tremor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

administer propranolol (10-30mg TID) or primidone (25-100mg\/day) as second-line<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For lithium hypothyroidism treat with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

thyroid hormone and continue lithium therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When in the body is melatonin made<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pineal gland (Serotonin derivative)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hormones hypothalamus makes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TRH (thyrotropin releasing hormone)
dopamine
GHRH (growth hormone releasing hormone)
SS (somatostatin)
GnRH (gonadotropin releasing hormone)
CRH (corticotropin releasing hormone)
oxytocin
vasopressin (ADH)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The posterior pituitary stores and releases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The anterior pituitary makes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ACTH
TSH
FSH
LH
GH
prolactin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What pharmacological treatment is clinically supported for treating kleptomania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following medication has the least effect on the CYP-450 system: carbamazepine, valproate, levetiracetam, phenytoin, Lamictal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Levetiracetam<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following hypnotic agents is preferred for the elderly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ramelteon<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the rate of malformation among fetuses exposed to SSRI medications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2.6% (consistent with reports in general population)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Studies suggest that TMS may be most useful for which symptom in schizophrenia?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hallucinations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Second generation drugs are more effective for treating ________ in schizophernia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

negative symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Used for aggression and impulsivity in schizophrenics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Beta blockers
Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ECT is most often used for ______ in schizophrenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

catatonia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TMS is effective for _____ in OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

impulsivity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Second generation antipsychotic with high D2 blocking\/binding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risperidol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Second generation antipsychotic with lower D2 blocking\/binding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine
Quetiapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Blockade of ______ or more of the D2 receptors is associated with increased EPS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

80%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lower D2 blockade of ______ % is safer and still clinically effective<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60-70%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bupropion is an NDRI that should be avoided in patients with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anorexia nervosa
hx of seizures
heavy alcohol use<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clomipramine is a TCA that _________ the seizure threshold<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lowers<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What can cause phalangeal hypoplasia in 2.5kg baby girl whose mom has a past medical history of epilepsy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phenytoin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Short limbs and phalangeal hypoplasia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

teratogenicity caused by phenytoin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Higher doses of ______ are recommended for women taking anti-epileptics such as phenytoin or valprate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

folate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

These medication are excreted unchanged in urine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Desvenlafaxine
Milnacipram<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Venlafaxine and desvenlafaxine are ______% protein-bound<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

27%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which potential neonatal risk is associated with continuing antidepressants during pregnancy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

discontinuation syndrome (seen in higher rates with paroxetine)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Only medication approved by FDA for the treatment of bulimia nervosa<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Infantile anorexia interferes with which important developmental event<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

somatopsychological differentiation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When an infant’s feeding is directed by his or her emotional needs instead of physiological sensation of hunger and satiety, he or she fails to develop<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

somatopsychological differentiation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

the ability to differentiate sensations in the body (results in infant’s emotional needs (affection, dependency, anger, and frustration) rather than hunger needs dictating behavior<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

somatopsychological differentiation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Posttraumatic feeding disorder (PTFD) usually has a ____ onset after________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sudden
choking or insertion of a gastric tube<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following is a behavioral therapy technique for anorexic or bulimic patients who binge and purge?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Have a supervisor watch them for 2-3 hours after every meal because they rarely feel conf<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Studies suggest that family therapy is most helpful in which population of anorexia nervosa patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

younger patients with shorter illness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anorexic pt asks for treatment for her severe constipation. What should be administered<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

docusate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

An NP is interviewing a client who is incapacitated by a fear of public speaking who must give presentations as part of her job. Which non-pharmacological treatment is most likely to be effective to resolve this problem?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Behavioral therapy (Systemic desensitization)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

systemic desensitization therapy is a a type of behavioral therapy is effective for eliminating _____?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

phobias
OCD
anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Systematic desensitization therapy consists of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

relaxation training
hierarchical construction of situations in order of increasing anxiety
desensitization of the stimulus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Brief psychotherapy that focuses on resolving interpersonal problems<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

interpersonal psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Interpersonal psychotherapy takes ______ to complete<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

12-16 weeks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Psychotherapy used for people struggling with longstanding difficulties in the way they think and feel about themselves, their environment, and other people<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

psychoanalysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The principles that govern behavioral therapy are based on early studies of _______ by _______ and _________ by ________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

operant conditioning
Skinner

classical conditioning
Pavlov<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In patients with eating disorders, which characteristics do not require hospitalization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

nausea\/vomiting<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Main indications for hospitalization in pt with eating disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

severe starvation and weight loss
hypotension
hypothermia
electrolyte imbalance
suicidal ideation\/psychosis
failed outpatient tx<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Median age of onset for generalized anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

early adulthood (25-35)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the typical age of onset for panic disorder?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Early adulthood<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What treatment can cause cardiac malformations in the developing fetus if used in a pregnant patient<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Standing in line at a store would likely provoke anxiety in patients with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

agoraphobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medical condition is associated with anorexia nervosa<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lanugo
bradycardia
pancytopenia
osteopenia
metabolic encephalopathy
arrhythmias
elevated LFTs
elevated BUN
decreased T3\/T4
parotid gland enlargement
seizures
peripheral neuropathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the most common personality disorder in bulimia nervosa patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

borderline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Children with PTSD have nightmares involving______ rather than recurring dreams of traumatic events<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

monsters
rescues
threats<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The DSM-5 diagnosis of anorexia nervosa no longer requires<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

irregular menses in postmenarcheal females
(unspecified eating disorder replaces NOS)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine has a half life of approximately<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

48 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Venlafaxine has a half life of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5 hours (parent drug)
11 hours (active metabolite)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Citalopram has a half life of approximately<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

24-48 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sertraline has a half life of approximately<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

26 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Of the following: amitriptyline, duloxetine, mirtazapine, and sertraline, which has the fewest side effects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The risk of weight gain with mirtazapine may be diminished at doses<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>30mg\/day<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The noradrenergic effects of mirtazapine tends to be<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dose dependent
increases significance at >15mg\/day<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

noradrenergic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

activated by, or involving norepinephrine in the transmission of nerve impulses<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mirtazapine blocks serotonin 2A, 2C, and 3 receptors, so the side effects of _______ are avoided<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anxiety
nausea\/Gi distress
sexual dysfunction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In Mirtazapine, blocking serotonin 2A and H1 antihistamine receptors accounts for the side effects of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sedation
weight gain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mirtazapine appears to have no clinically significant effect on<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

seizure threshold
cardiovascular syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A dose dependent relationship between Miratazpine and _____ has been demonstrated<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased appetite and weight<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unlike DSM4, in DSM 5, which of the following statements is true regarding separation anxiety disorder?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It is diagnosed with onset at any age.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Separation anxiety disorder last for _____ in children or _______ in adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 weeks
6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Among the general population, which of the following disorders is most commonly comorbid in anorexia nervosa<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Major depressive disorder (56%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

25% of anorexic pts have these disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

alcohol use disorder
specific phobias
social anxiety disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Up to 35% of anorexia patients have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

obsessive compulsive disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Double the dose of lamotrigine when taking the following medications concomitantly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carbamazepine
phenytoin
phenobarbital
primidone
rifampin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The lifetime prevalence of social phobia is _____ and slightly more common in______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

13%
women<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What ethnic group is at the highest risk of having social phobia?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Native American<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

People who have social phobia are less likely to live in ______ setting<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

an urban<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Onset of social phobia is usually in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

adolescence
early adulthood<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA approved medication for social phobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

paroxetine
(beta-blockers public speaking)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The 3 CBT techniques used for social phobia treatment are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

exposure
cognitive restructuring
social skills training<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Subtypes of social phobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Natural environment (heights, lightning, bodies of water)

Blood injection injury (fears of blood medical procedures, needles etc)

Situational (fears of situations such as being in an elevator tight space, driving or airplanes)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What social phobia subtype is thought to run in families<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Blood-injection injury
associated with strong vasovagal response<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

the feeding disorder termed “state regulation” is defined by which of the following descriptions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

infant cannot feed adequately due to increased irritability\/crying or excessive sleepiness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Potassium at this level is grounds for involuntary admission for eating disorder in adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<3.0<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

HR ____ is ground for involuntary admission for eating disorder in adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<40<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Glucose _______ is grounds for involuntary admission for eating disorder in adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<60<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

BP ______ is grounds for involuntary admission for eating disorder in adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<90\/60<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For children and adolescent, involuntary admission for eating disorder include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

HR near 40bpm
orthostatic (>20bpm increase HR or >10-20mmHg BP drop)
BP<80\/50mmHg
hypokalemia
hypophosphatemia
hypomagnesemia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Temp _____ is grounds for admission for eating disorder in adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<97 degrees<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How long must symptoms be present for a patient to be diagnosed with a specific phobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Neuropsychological tests evaluate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cognitive factors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clinical psychological tests evaluate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

emotional factors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with ____ are known to have impaired neuropsychiatric function<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

schizophrenia
Panic Disorder
OCD
PTSD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA approved for tx of social anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine
Sertaline
Beta blockers
long-acting form of venlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

People with social phobia often have comorbid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GAD
PTSD
Separation anxiety disorder
MDD
bipolar
Alcohol dependence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt 78% of her ideal body weight for height. Amenorrheic for several months. Admits to using laxatives and diuretics. What metabolic abnormality would you expect to see?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hypokalemic alkalosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diarrhea normally produces what metabolic abnormality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis from bicarbonate losses<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diarrhea associated with chronic laxative abuse is risk in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hypokalemia and saline (chloride)-responsive metabolic alkalosis (increased renal-bicarbonate reabsorption)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Excessive anxiety and worry must occur for at least this period of time to make a GAD diagnosis?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The lifetime prevalence rate of GAD is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The duration of disturbance of PTSD must take place for at least in order to make a diagnosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 month<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The lifetime projected risk of PTSD is _____ with symptoms varying over time<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

8.7%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A history of _____________ in first degree relatives is related to increased vulnerability for developing PTSD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In order to be diagnosed with panic disorder, the change in behavior resulting from attack must last for at least<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 month<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The prevalence of panic disorder is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2.7%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

First degree relatives of patients with panic disorder are up to _____x more likely to develop panic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

8<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

in vivo exposure is also sometimes called<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

flooding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anorexia nervosa is most common in which of the following socioeconomic classes?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

No 1 association<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anorexia nervosa is more common in young women in these professions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

modeling
ballet<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the 12-month prevalence of panic disorder among adults and adolescents in the US?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2-3%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Benzodiazepines are more effective than SSRIs in treating _________ of anxiety<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

physical symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the most common category of mental illness in the United States<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anxiety disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Function MRI measures which of the following<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Changes of blood flow in brain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TSH is low in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hyperthyroidism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hyperthyroidism may manifest like ______ before classic sx of Graves’ disease appear<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

generalized anxiety
or
panic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In patients presenting with dementia, what is true about brain tumors?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

paraneoplastic limbic encephalitis should be suspected<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Early sx of paraneoplastic limbic encephalitis are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

confusion
agitation
memory loss progressing to dementia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tumors tend to be ______ symptomatic than ischemic strokes affecting comparable brain volume<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

less<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Brain tumors in adults are associated with psychiatric symptoms in ________ of patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the superior level of evidence in regards to therapeutic clinical research?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

RCT, especially meta-analysis of multiple RCT’s<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Imaging of Cushing’s disease requires an ____ because it is commonly caused by _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MRI
pituitary adenoma<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cushing’s syndrome is often preceded by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

psychiatric symptoms:
-irritability
-crying
-pronounced suicidality
-rarely psychosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When Cushing disease pts require high doses of steroids, it may trigger<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mania, requiring mood-stabilizing medication as prophylaxis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA approval for Marinol (dronabinol)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anorexia in AIDS
anti-nausea\/antiemetic for chemo<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Once rabies reaches the CNS, a pt will experience<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

physical agitation
episodic confusion
psychosis
combativeness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In rabies, the virus travels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inwards from the peripheral nerves to infect the CNS
Nonneuronal tissues can be affective<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paralytic rabies occurs in _____ of pts exposed to rabies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Vocal cord paralysis often occurs in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

rabies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hypothyroidism carries a greater risk of developing<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carpal tunnel syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depressive symptoms persist in hypothyroid pts after therapy in _____% of pts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A manifestation of late state hypothyroidism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

myxedema madness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

myexedema madness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hallucinations and paranoia
late state of hypothyroidism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

physical findings in hypothyroidism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

thin dry hair
dry skin
constipation
carpal tunnel syndrome
lateral eyebrow loss
hearing loss<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When studying pt’s favorite color and presence of bipolar disorder, which test will analyze the data most effectively?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chi-square test<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Used to compare samples with non-measurable nominal\/categorical variables<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

chi-square test<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

used to compare the means of 2 independent and different sample populations (ie height of men in Texas and NY)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

T-test<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It requires a large sample or known population variance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

z-test<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Study follows a group of similar individuals to determine risk of developing disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cohort Study<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Analyzes a known outcome by looking back in time to assess exposure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Case-control<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Analyzes a population (or representative subset) at a single point in time (a cross sectional) to assess disease incidence and prevalence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cross sectional study<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Experimental\/clinical trial that studies the effect of an intervention by comparing the treatment to a placebo in 2 equivalent groups separated by randomization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

RCT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In patient with cerebral ataxia, Parkinsonism, bone pain, mental slowing, attention problems, hypercalcemia and elevated parathyroid hormone, what is true<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Correcting calcium level will prevent delirium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Stones (kidney stones), groans (bone pain), and psychiatric overtones is mnemonic for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hypercalcemia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

As many as _____ % of patient with hyperparathyroidism and elevated calcium have no recognizable symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which ethic group tends to have the highest preference for life-sustaining tx in terminal illness?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

African Americans<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What ethnic group has the lowest rate of preference for life-sustaining treatment in terminal illness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

European Americans<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The most common value in a data set is called the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mode<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

An estimate _____% of pts with chronic alcohol use disorder relapse within 3 months after treatment completion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following medications is not recommended for relapse prevention in detoxified patients with chronic alcohol use disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chlordiazepoxide<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anti-craving drugs used to prevent alcohol relapse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Topiramate
Acamprosate (also works in acute post-withdrawal period)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For an idealized population graphed into a perfect bell shaped curve, 1 standard deviation of the mean would include what percentage of people?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

68%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For an idealized population graphed into a perfect bell shaped curve, 2 standard deviations of the mean would include what percentage of people?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

95%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For an idealized population graphed into a perfect bell shaped curve, 3 standard deviations of the mean would include what percentage of people?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

99.7%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tumors of the upper brainstem can cause<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

akinetic mutism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Early signs of encephalitic paraneoplastic syndromes are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

confusion
agitation
memory loss progressing to dementia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Leading cause of paraneoplastic syndromes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

small cell carcinoma of the lung<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cancer that is frequently preceded by depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pancreatic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

New onset of symptoms and _____ increase the likelihood that psych sx may be due to HIV related cause<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CD4 count<600 (generally seen only in advanced disease stages)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is true about acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

phenothiazines are safe to treat psychosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) what medications should be avoided<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

phenytoin
barbiturates
valproic acid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The onset of acute intermittent porphyria (AIP) is between<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20-50 years old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Classic triad of acute intermittent porphyria are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1. episodic acute colicky abdominal pain
2. motor polyneuropathy
3. psychosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What medications can promote porphyrin synthesis?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

meprobamate (anxiety med\/tranquilizer)
sulfonamide antibiotics
ergot derivatives
many anti seizure meds
HIV drugs
hormonal contraceptive
anesthetics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

analysis of variance (ANOVA) is used to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

compare the means of multiple groups to determine if all are equal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A paired t-test is used to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

compare the means of 2 related sample populations (ie disease metric in same population before and after treatment, twin study)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

With partial seizures _______ have normal EEG<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

40%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Partial seizures often derive from<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

deep limbic brain structures (commonly temporal lobe)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Partial seizures are responsible for _______ of the nonconvulsive seizures and are under-diagnosed<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Over ________ epileptic patients experience depression with higher rates in patients with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50%
complex partial seizures<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Used to compare the means of 2 independent sample populataions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Student’s t-test<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lesions with a predilection for the temporal and inferomedial frontal lobs are specific for encephalitis produced by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

herpes simplex virus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sensitivity of 95% implies that<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5 percent of the tests are false negatives<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Specificity of 95% means that<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5 percent of the tests are false positives<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depression in adolescents is likely to present with ________ rather than mood change<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

irritability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

To study cigarette smoking as a risk factor for the development of schizophrenia, a study is planned to survey 100 pts with schizophrenia and 100 age-matched controls with regards to their smoking hx. Which type of study is this?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Case-control study<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt with chronic alcohol use disorder presents with ataxia, confusion, memory loss & seizures. Pt was given a glucose bolus. After a few hours he develops diplopia, horizontal nystagmus, lateral rectus palsy, diminished deep tendon reflexes and a positive Babinski’s sign on the left side. What caused these symptoms?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Wernicke’s encephalopathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is often seen on MRI in Wernicke’s encephalopathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bilateral hyper intensity of mammilary bodies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Wernicke’s encephalopathy progresses when<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

glucose is given without thiamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following descriptions correctly identifies clonidine’s role in withdrawal from opioids?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Binds alpha 2 autoreceptors, decreases locus coeruleus cell firing, and reduces noradrenergic release<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clonidine does not reduce the _______ involved in opioid withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cravings
lethargy
insomnia
restlessness
muscle ache (pain medication may be needed during taper)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

During opioid withdrawal, the dose range is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

0.6-2.0mg \/day (not FDA approved)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Breaking large group into smaller groups, with each more homogenous by some measure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cluster analysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Statistical technique that seeks to explain the variance of multiple variables by utilizing a smaller number of unobserved factors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Factor analysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Process of reducing the number of variables studied to focus on a smaller number<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dimension<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Used to determine independent variables (X) that appear to affect the quantity of interest (Y)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Discriminant analysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

For psychiatric patients who are >50 years of age, any change in mental status, mood, personality or behavior warrants an<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

MRI examination<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Weight loss with no other explanation could indicate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

malignant disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute onset of behavioral and personality changes in a pt with no hx of psychiatric disorders could indicate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

frontal lobe syndrome caused by a brain tumors that could go undiagnosed with a CT. Needs a MRI to dx.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of opioid-addicted patients relapse 12 months after undergoing successful detoxification?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>80% even for the most motivated patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

occurrence of confusion, altered LOC and coma as a result of liver failure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hepatic encephalopathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Focal neurological signs are less common in cirrhotic ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

men<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Episodic disorientation, rage or inappropriate behavior in chronic alcoholics may precede<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

progressive decline in cognition, memory and speech<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Classic findings of liver failure include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ascites
jaundice<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Earliest signs of liver failure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mild intellectual deficits<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Term for alcoholics used in DSMIV that were eliminated in DSM-5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Alcohol Dependence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A psychiatrist shows pt 3 1-dollar bills and hides the bills while she watches. Pt is unable to locate the bills after several minutes. A problem in what area best explains her deficits?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Recall<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Memory of riding a bike or cognitive skills like reading<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Procedural<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Memory of autobiographic events that can be consciously assessed and explicitly stated<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Episodic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chronic alcoholic presents to ED with hypothermia, tachycardia, ataxic gait with foot weakness and foot drop. What is the most likely diagnosis?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Wernicke’s encephalopahy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Treatment for Wernicke’s Encephalopathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thiamine (vitamin B1)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chronic alcoholic presents with amnesia, confabulation and apathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Korsakoff’s syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Combining 3 variables into single variable to describe a term that encompasses the 3 variables that might not be able to measured directly but can be inferred by the the affect of the 3 variables.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Factor analysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Measure of the relationship between the change of 2 variables<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

covariance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt attempted suicide by sitting in running car parked in closed garage. He’s unresponsive, where might an MRI demonstrate lesions?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diffusion-weighted of the globbus pallidus and deep cerebral white matter<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Signs of carbon monoxide poisoning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

polycythemia
nausea
dizziness\/seizures
headaches
confusion\/memory loss
impaired consciousness\/coma
cherry-red skin discoloration
cyanosis
dyspnea
CP<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5\/50 pts with BPD attempt suicide 5\/500 of control group attempts suicide. What calculation determines the suicide risk attributable to BPD?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

(5\/50)\/(5\/500)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5\/50 pts with BPD attempt suicide 5\/500 of control group attempts suicide. What calculation determines the relative risk attributable to BPD?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

(5\/50)\/(5\/500)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Samples of subjects who represent the larger population<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

may allow estimations of error in resulting statistics

are often more accurate than those of a population

can be studied more quickly at a lower cost<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Scoring someone on performance slightly higher that it would normally be score because the researcher knows the participant is not performing at his best (based on participant’s past performance) is called<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Halo effect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When a participant changes his or her normal patterns of behavior when he or she is a member of a study or is being watched or observed<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hawthorne effect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Causes hospital cases and control cases to be systematically different because the combination of exposure to risk and occurrence of disease increases the likelihood of being admitted to the hospital<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Berksonian Bias<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Peak timing after last drink for the occurrence of delirium tremens is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2-3 days<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Vital signs on pt developing delirium tremens usually are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

HTN
tachycardia
febrile<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt presents with palpitations, lid lag, weight loss, thyroid bruit, and thyroid mass\/enlargement<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

thyrotoxicosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt with abnormal temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure and diaphoresis most likely has<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

autonomic abnormality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

repetitive non-goal directed motor activity, not inherently abnormal but repeated frequently<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

stereotypy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt with visual hallucinations has the following lab work. Pancytopenia with megaloblastic changes: MCV 118, Pat 96,000, WBC 2800. Folate WNL. What will help with the hallucinations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Vitamin B12 shot<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

phenomenon in meta-analyses in which 2 studies with similar correlations can be combined to exhibit the opposite trend<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Simpson’s paradox<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

observed when individual response most strongly to a seemingly dangerous experience when faced with it for the first time.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Novelty effect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

phenomenon that people tend to perform to the expectations placed on them<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pygmalion effect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

analyze a population at a single point in time to assess disease incidence and prevalence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cross-sectional study<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

________ is suggestive of late Alzheimers disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cerebellar atrophy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

adult pt with myoclonic jerks, rapid progress towards dementia, and akinetic mutism with specific EEG findings<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Creutzfelt-Jakob disease (CJD)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Occurs more often in children after previous measles (rubeola) infection<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

14-3-3 protein in CSF may be the most discriminating evidence for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) affects patients aged<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50-70<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

32 year old F presents with fatigue, sleep disturbance, HA, blurred vision, and depressed mood for 2 months. Her hx notable for anemia requiring multiple transfusion. She has butterfly shaped rash around eyes and on cheeks. Also c\/o intermittently aching joints and diarrhea. Which statement about disease is true?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disease symptoms can be mistaken for somatization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 year old F presents with fatigue, sleep disturbance, HA, blurred vision, and depressed mood for 2 months. Her hx notable for anemia requiring multiple transfusion. She has butterfly shaped rash around eyes and on cheeks. Also c\/o intermittently aching joints and diarrhea. Clinical presentations of this patient suggests<\/p>\n\n\n\n

lupus erythrematosus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Age of onset of symptoms of lupus is usually from ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20-50<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When is the typical onset of panic disorder in terms of the first panic attack?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

First panic attack often occurs “out of the blue” while doing everyday things<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

longitudinal study in which subjects receive different treatments over the course of the study, typically so that all subjects receive the same exposures<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

crossover study<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What are the most common causes of intellectual disability?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fragile X
Downs syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of adolescents with MDD will develop Bipolar I<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10-15%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the most common inherited form of intellectual disability in males<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fragile X<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It is associated with FMRI gene on the X chromosome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fragile X<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most common acquired form of intellectual disability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fetal alcohol syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevalence of intellectual disability in the community is between<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1-3%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most common genetic form of intellectual disability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Down syndrome (trisomy 21)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mixed episodes of bipolar 1 are more common in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

adolescents
women<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Concerta is _____% IR and ____% ER<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

22
78<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Metadate CD is _____% IR and ____% ER<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

70
30<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ritaline LA is _____% IR and _____% ER<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60
40<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevalence of alcohol abuse and dependence in bipolar patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

46% (compared to 13% in general population)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Individuals with OCD and intellectual disability have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increase anxiety with response-blocking intervention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Who will have increased anxiety with response-blocking intervention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pts with OCD and intellectual disability
pts with stereotypy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In patients with intellectual disability, if there is an acute change from baseline behavior, what needs to be considered<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

trauma
posttraumatic stress
(population is particularly vulnerable to exploitation by others)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

To be dx with autism spectrum disorder, the child must have disturbances in which of the following domains<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

social relatedness
communication
restricted interests and activities<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What period dramatically increases the risk of recurrence in female pts with bipolar disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

postpartum<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The DSM-5 now states that symptoms must be present before age of ______ in ADHD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

12<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ritalin LA is ______% IR and _____% ER<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60
40<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In DSM-5 absence of ____ is captured in a specified with body dysmorphic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

insight<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clonidine is particularly helpful in pts with these comorbid disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ADHD
tic disorder
conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

At low doses clonidine is associated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

the stimulation of inhibitory presynaptic auto receptors in the CNS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_________ is helpful for ADHD pts with ADHD-associated sleep disturbances and may be helpful for reducing anxiety and hyper vigilance in traumatized children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clonidine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with _____ and _____ may need their lithium dose held to avoid toxic levels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

diarrhea
vomiting<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medication has demonstrated efficacy in the management of chronic anxiety in patients with severe lung disease and may assist with improvement in respiratory status (improves exercise tolerance)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Buspirone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Have been reported to result in interstitial lung disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Venlafaxine SNRI
also SSRIs<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

This type of antidepressant is not recommended in pts with difficulty clearing secretions (anticholinergic effects)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

TCA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Modafinil is FDA approved for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

narcolepsy
shift work disorder
excessive tiredness from obstructive sleep apnea<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Diminished and confabulatory self reporting is characteristics of patients with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

intellectual disability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The Star D study found that ______% of pts taking citalopram had decreased libido<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

54<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The Star D study found that _____% of males taking citalopram had erectile dysfunction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

37<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The Star D study found that ___%_ of pts taking citalopram had difficulty achieving orgasm<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

36<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Separation anxiety is a normal developmental process commonly seen at ________ of age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10-18 mo<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Stranger anxiety is typically seen at around ______ of age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

8 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

______ nerve carries motor fibers to most of the extra ocular muscles of the eye<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

oculomotor (CN III)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

elevates upper eyelid<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

levator palpebrae superioris (CN III)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

elevates eyeball<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

superior rectus (CN III)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

moves eyeball medially (adduction)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

medial rectus (CN III)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

moves eyeball downward<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inferior rectus (CN III)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

moves eyeball superiorly and laterally<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inferior oblique (CN III)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

moves eyeball inferiorly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

superior oblique (CN IV)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

eyeball adduction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

lateral rectus (CN VI)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carries visual fibers only<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Optic Nerve (CN II)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

innervates superior oblique muscles which moves eyeball downwards and slightly laterally<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Troclear nerve (CN IV)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

innervates the lateral rectus, moving the eyeball to the side<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Abducens nerve (CN VI)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Escape-avoidance is an example of a ________ behavior type<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

functional<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Four functions that maintain behaviors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Escape\/Avoidance
Attention Seeking
Materials
Sensory Stimulation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Individual behaves in order to get preferred item or participate in an enjoyable activity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Materials<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Individual behaves to get focused attention from parents, teachers, siblings, peers or other people that are around them<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Attention seeking<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Individual behaves in a specific way because it feels good to them<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sensory stimulation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Functional behaviors are generally not driven by_____
and are not always employed with _________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

underlying psychiatric conditions

direct conscious awareness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients have short stature with hypogonadism, hyperplasia, and obesity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prader Willi syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The genetic abnormality in 70% of Prader Willi syndrome patients is a ________________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

deletion at chromosome 1<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most associated psychiatric disorder associated with Prader-Willi syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thoughts, impulses, and behaviors that are felt to be repugnant, distressing, unacceptable or inconsistent with one’s self-concept.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ego-dystonic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inadequacies are only recognized in other and the external environment and pts do not harbor ego dystonia or question themselves<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

OCPD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thoughts are intrusive, ego-dystonic and distressing to individuals, drastically interfering with everyday life<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the main value of selegiline patch?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bypasses gastic tract, obviating the need for dietary restriction at lowest dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevalence of autism globally<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 in 100<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Seeking out experiences that are consciously or unconsciously fearful. Ie experimenting with drugs, attraction to horror movies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Counter phobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Expression of unconscious conflicts in a setting other than the one in which they initially arose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acting out<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In the criteria for premenstrual dysmorphic disorder, at least _____ out of ______ specific symptoms must be present during _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5
11
final week before onset of menses<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In Downs syndrome patients ________ may mimic psychiatric disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thyroid problems (hypo)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In Down syndrome patients, dementia symptoms often begin in patients in their _________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

40s and 50s<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Self-injury is characteric of patients with _____________ syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lesch-Nyhan<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In Fetal alcohol syndrome pts have anomalies in the _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

premaxillary zone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Flat upper lip
Flattened philitrum
Flat midface<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fetal alcohol syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Upslanting palpebral fissures
Flat nose bridge
Suggestion of epicentral folds<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Down syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Broad forehead
Short nose with broad tip
Full cheeks
Wide mouth with full lips<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Willis syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Narrow forehead
Almond-shaped eyes
Triangular mouth<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prader-Willi<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the most common comorbid psychiatric disease in epilepsy?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depression (7.5% in intractable pts as high as 50%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of bereaved people meet criteria for MDD?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute grieving period should last no more than<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The reduction in tics and ADHD is associated with guanfacine at what doses for school age children?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

0.5mg bid to 1mg TID<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Guanfacine is associated with less _______ and more __________ than clonidine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sedation
duration of action<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Guanfacine is associated with minor, clinically insignificant<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

bradycardia and hypotension<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Guanfacine is a more __________ compound than clonidine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

selective alpha-adrenergic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The first episode in both women and men with bipolar I is usually<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

major depressive<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The number of manic episodes usually ___________ compared to depressive episodes in men<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

equals or exceeds<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The number of manic episodes usually ________ compared to depressive episodes in women<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

equals or is less<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of individuals who are diagnosed with specific learning disorder with impairment in reading are male?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60-80%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Older individuals who are depressed constitute a disproportionate number of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

suicides (13% of poplulation, but completed rate is 20%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Depressed older individuals display more<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

neurovegetative signs
cognitive disturbances<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

About _______% of people with CVD develop depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>=25<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Coprolalia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

involuntary uttering of obscenities<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Coprolalia is present in what percentage of patients with Tourette’s disorder?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How long must symptoms be present in adults to be diagnosed with cyclothymic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When treated with antidepressants, depressive symptoms usually resolve in an expected pattern. What is the predictable progression of symptom resolution<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Side effects occur
Neurovegetative symptoms resolve
Mood improves<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

After the first psychotic _____% of schizophrenic patients will experience a benign course, in contrast to the rest who fail to recover or are hospitalized in the first 2 years after a first hospitalization for psychosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

33<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When compared to children of non-depressed mothers, infants and children of depressed mothers display which of the following?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Increased fussiness (more easily upset)
less facial expression
less crying
less head orientation
ineffective emotional regulation as they age
slowed motor development by 6 months
poorly integrated reactions
lower self-esteem beginning in preschool<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which neurotransmitter has the most evidence for its association with OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Serotonin<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts with OCD have _______ hyper function in the ___________ and _______hypofunction in the ____________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

dopaminergic
PFC (mesocortical dopamine pathway)
serotonergic
basal ganglia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA-indicated (age 6-17) maximum dose of dexmethylphenidate (Focalin)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

20mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA-indicated (age 6-17) maximum dose of Metadate (ER\/CD)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA-indicated (age 6-17) maximum dose of Methylphenidate-OROS (Concerta)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

72mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA-indicated (age 6-17) maximum dose of Methylphenidate patch (Daytrana)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

30mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA-indicated (age 6-17) maximum dose of Methylphenidate LA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA-indicated (age 6-17) maximum dose of Methylphenidate SR<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60mg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Collaborative care occurs in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

primary care settings (primary care and mental health professionals working closely to deliver effective tx for depression and other common psychiatric disorders)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What dementia has the lowest incidence of depressive sx<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FTD
Pick’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_________ is commonly seen in FTD and often mistaken for depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

apathy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Early Sx of FTD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Disinhibition
Hyperorality
Compulsive Behaviors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mood disorders common in pts with Parkinson’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

depression
anxiety
apathy\/abulia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_______ offered an early neuroprotective effect in Parkinson’s disease patients, but lacks long term benefit<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selegiline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Temporary decreases amount of levodopa and carbidopa needed to control Parkinson’s symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selegiline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antidepressants as a class can worsen symptoms of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Parkinson’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Long-term _______ use may have a neuroprotective effect in individuals with Parkinson’s disease<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Child has reduced or absent reticence in approaching and interacting with unfamiliar adults, overly familiar verbal or physical behavior not consistent with culturally sanctioned\/age-appropriate social boundaries, diminished or absent checking with an adult caregiver after venturing away, and willingness to go off with an unfamiliar adult with minimal or no hesitation. Child has experience pattern of extremely insufficient care (especially age 0-3years)<\/p>\n\n\n\n

disinhibited social engagement disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What part of the brain controls the respiratory functions of the body<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medulla<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The medulla is located in the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

brainstem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The part of the brain contains sensory and motor functions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cerebral cortex<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

includes the function of connecting the upper and lower parts of the brain and messaging between those parts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pons<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

coordinates body movements and balance and coordination<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cerebellem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following modalities should be avoided when treating psychiatric disorders in pts with intellectual disability (formerly mental retardation)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Potent anticholinergic medications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

generally happy, active children from birth and adjust easily to new situations and environments<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Easy children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

generally mellow, less active babies from birth, and have some difficulty adjusting to new situations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Slow-to warm children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Have irregular habits and biological routines (ie eating, sleeping), have difficulty adjusting to new situations and often express moods very intensely<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Difficult children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 general types of temperaments according to Thomas and Chess<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

easy
slow-to-warm
difficult<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The 9 dimensions of temperament as described by Stella Chess and Alexander Thomas<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Attention span and persistence
Adaptability
Approach or withdrawal
Activity level
Rhythmicity
Distractibility
Intensity of reaction
Threshold of responsiveness
Quality of mood<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The length of time the child pursues a particular activity without interruption and the child’s persistence in continuing activity despite obstacles<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Attention span and persistence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Child’s long term (as opposed to initial) response to new situations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adaptability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nature of child’s initial response to a new situation or stimulus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Approach or withdrawal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oedipal complex describe feelings that start during the ________ phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

phallic (Freud)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

boy’s unconscious desire to possess his mother sexually and to kill his father<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oedipal complex (Freud)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Penis envy occurs during the ________ phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

phallic (age 3-5, Freud)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_______refers to boys aged 3-5 who have feelings of guilt regarding the oedipal complex<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

castration anxiety<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Freudian phases that occurs from birth to 18 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oral phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Freudian phase that occurs from 18 months to 3 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anal phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Freudian phase that occurs between 3-6 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phallic phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Freudian phase that occurs between 6 years to puberty<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Latency Phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

During this Freudian phase, much of the child’s energy is channeled into developing new skills and acquiring new knowledge, and play becomes largely confined to other children of the same gender<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Latency Phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Freudian phase between puberty and adulthood<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Genital stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In Freud’s _____ phase, sexual instinct is directed to heterosexual pleasure, rather than self-pleasure like during the ______ phase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

genital
phallic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Symptoms of sexual abuse include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

imitate sexual acts on others
somatoform symptoms
bedwetting
eating disorders
talk excessively about sexual acts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

This part of the brain plays a key role in long-term memory, hearing, and interpretation of visual stimuli<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Temporal lobes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the primary neurotransmitter associated with anxiety and panic attacks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GABA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the nervous sytem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GABA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Neurotransmitter implicated in Alzheimer’s dementia and is widespread throughout the CNS, modulating musculoskeletal response<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acetylcholine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Endogenous opioids that modulate pain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Beta endorphins<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Glutamate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Twin studies have estimated the heritability of reporting any suicidal ideation, suicidal plans or attempts to be about ______ and that of reporting suicide attempts to be _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

44%
55%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Eating disorder that involves eating items that are not typically thought of as food and that do not contain significant nutritional value, such as hair, dirt, and paint chips. (not culturally supported or socially normative practice)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pica<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1st line treatment for pica<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

testing for mineral or nutrient deficiencies, and correcting those<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 of the most common causes of pica<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anemia
malnutrition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ingesting kaolin (clay) is a culturally sanctioned practice in certain _______ cultures<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

African<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Children presenting with sx of OCD also show substantial comorbidity in family studies for (shared genetic diathesis):<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Eye blinking and throat clearing
initial motor and vocal tics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s Theory stages of development in correct sequence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Trust vs mistrust (birth -18mo)
Autonomy vs shame and doubt (18 mo-3 years)
Initiative vs guilt (3-5 years)
Industry vs inferiority (6-12 years)
Identity vs role confusion (12-18 years)
Intimacy and solidarity vs isolation (18-35 years)
Generatively vs self-absorption & stagnation (35-55 or 65)
Integrity vs despair (55 or 65 – death)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Discrete trial training (DTT) is used with applied behavioral analysis (ABA) in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

school programs for children with pervasive developmental disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Systemic approach to develop a program for each child by evaluating a child’s strength and weaknesses, identifying educational and treatment goals, and applying techniques for skill development<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Applied Behavioral Analysis (ABA)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_________ reinforcement is used in Discrete trial training (DTT) and used to teach ________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Positive
new skills<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Since children have a higher metabolic capacity, drugs must be given at<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

shorter intervals (ie neuroleptics, tricyclics, and methylphenidate)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Children excrete drugs like lithium faster than adults because they have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

more efficient renal elimination<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Since children have lower adipose tissue, how does this affect dose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

results in a larger concentration of lipophilic drugs when given the same weight-adjusted dose as adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How does children’s greater volume of extracellular water affect drugs like lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

has lower plasma concentration compared to adults.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Critics view Lawrence Kohnberg’s stage theory of development as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Western
predominantly male
hierarchical<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Kohlberg’s theories are an expansion of:<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Piaget’s theories on cognitive and moral development<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Kohlberg describes ______ stages of moral reasoning determined by __________ rather than ____________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

6
a person’s thought process
moral decision reached<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Behaviorally inhibited children are more likely to experience<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anxiety, depression, and phobias<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Children who are_______________ tend to have poor peer relations and get in trouble with the law. They are difficult partners and roommates.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

negative, impulsive, and unregulated<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

auditory processing difficulties may be aggravated by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

low sensitivity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

memory problems may be intensified by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

high distractibility<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The single most important risk factor for preschool mental health problems is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

difficult temperament<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 30 year old male often has difficulty expressing himself due to frequent incidences of getting “stuck” on a syllable while trying to speak. The patient often feels anxious when required to give a presentation at work. This problem became apparent when he was in the 2nd grade. What is the most appropriate DSM-5 diagnosis?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Childhood-onset fluency disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

DSM-5 dx for stuttering<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Child-onset fluency disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The term “mental retardation” used in DSM-IV has been replaced by this in DSM-5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Intellectual disability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IQ score of pts dx with intellectual disability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 standard deviations below population or 70 or bellow<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Percentage of population with severe intellectual disability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3-4%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In children with schizophrenia, akathisia may be confused with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ADHD
agitation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine is typically used after at least _______ adequate trials of other antipsychotics fail to resolve psychotic symptoms<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Extrapyramidal signs occur in up to _______ of pediatric patients on first generation antipsychotics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

75%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Acute episodes of EPS in pediatric patients can be treated with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anticholinergic agens
antihistamines
amantadine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The most frequently studied genes implicated in the development of substance use disorders encode which substance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Aldehyde dehydrogenase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gain-of-function polymorphisms of the SLC6A4 promoter have been linked to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

OCD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Converts L-DOPA to dopamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

DOPA decarboxylase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rate-limiting step in serotonin synthesis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

tryptophan hydroxylase<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ratio male:female ADHD diagnosis in children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2:1<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ration male:female ADHD diagnosis in adults<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1.6:1<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevalence of ADHD in children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

9-12%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_______ takes place when a reinforcement or punishment is used to modulate the frequency of a particular behavior<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Operant conditioning<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the prevalence of child-onset fluency disorder in the population of children and adolescents?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the sequence of infant development described by Margaret Mahler<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autistic phase
Symbiotic phase
Separation-individuation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autistic phase occurs during the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

first few weeks of life<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Phase characterized by total detachment and self-absorption in which the infant spends most of his or her time sleeping<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autistic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The Symbiotic phase occurs between<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

a few weeks of life and 5 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

During this phase, the infant recognizes his or her mother but lacks a sense of individuality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Symbiotic<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Separation-individuation, according to Margaret Mahler, has these 4 subphases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Hatching (5-9 mo)
Practicing (9-16 mo)
Rapprochement (15-24 mo)
Object constancy (24-36 months)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Infant shows increased interest in the outside world<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hatching (1st phase of separation-individuation)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

infant develops the physical ability to separate from mother<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

practicing (2nd phase of separation-individuation)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

infant explores the outside world but requires the mother to be present and to be able to support the child emotionally in completing the tastk<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

rapprochement (3rd phase of separation-individuation)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to Margaret Mahler’s phases\/sub-phases, Narcissistic personality disorders may be due to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inadequate soothing during the symbiotic phase (4 weeks-5 months)

inadequate refueling during separation-individuation (5-24 months)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Object constancy leads to the formation of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

internalization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Allows child to have an internal representation of mother, allowing healthy separation exploration, and development of self-esteem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

(internalizations which is formed by having having) object constancy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unchanging, abnormal motor behaviors or action sequences without obvious reinforcement<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Stereotypies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1st line treatment for stereotypies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Behavioral<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the correct sequence of Bowlby’s stages of behavior when a young child is separated from his or her mother for an extended period of time<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Protest (crying out)
Despair(giving up)
Detachment (emotional disengagement, indifferent about caregiver’s return)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 features of intellectual disability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1. deficits in intellectual fxn
2. deficits in adaptive fxning
3. onset before age 18<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In order to qualify for deficits in adaptive functioning, they have to result in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

failure to meet developmental and sociocultural standards for personal independence and social responsibility
limit finding in 1 or more ADL<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproic Acid has FDA indications for the treatment of ______ in the pediatric population<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mania (12 years old and up)
seizure disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Therapeutic divalproex sodium levels in acute mania (adults)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50-120mcg\/ml<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Absolute contraindications for valproic acid use<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hepatic disease\/severe hepatic dysfunction
known urea cycle d\/o
pregnancy
PCOS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Common side effects of divalproex sodium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

alopecia
GI
neurological
opthalmological
rash<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Divalproex sodium is _______ protein bound<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

80-90%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Maximum recommended dose of Divalproex sodium is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

60mg\/kg\/day<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What neurotransmitter is stored in large dense-core vesicles, modulate neuronal communication by acting on cell surface receptors, and are not recycled into cell after secretion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Somatostatin
Hypothalmic-releasing hormones
Endorphins
Enkephalins
Opioids<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Small molecule transmitters that are stored in clear, small membrane-ground granules called synaptic vesicles and mediate fast synaptic transmission (and are recycled)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

GABA
Glutamate
Glycine
Acetylcholine
Serotonin
Dopamine
NE
Epinephrine
Histamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which neurotransmitters are involved in the promotion of sleep?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adenosine
GABA<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which neurotransmitters promote wakefulness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dopamine
Histamine
Acetylcholine
Glutamate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Produced by cells in the hypothalamus and basal forebrain promoting NREM sleep<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adenosine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Neurotransmitters that promotes wakefulness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dopamine
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Setting fires, vandalism, cruelty to animals, and criminal behavior are characteristic of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Conduct disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oppositional defiant disorder is more prevalent in which gender prior to adolescence?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1.4x more in males<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oppositional defiant disorder is more prevalent in which gender during adolescence?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

same prevalence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Adolescent moral decision making is impacted by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

limited impulse control
self-absorption
vulnerability to peer pressure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Dose of SSRI in OCD may be up to ______ the normal dose in depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4X<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IV immunoglobulin and penicillin are the treatment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

PANDAS (Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal infections)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Use of beta-agonists (used in tx of asthma), lead poisoning, anxiety, depression are part of the differential diagnosis for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ADHD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A child should be able to throw a ball by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

18 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A child should be able to scribble by<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

18 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

At 16 weeks a baby should be aware of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

a strange situation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Average age of milestone of sitting up<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

At what age should a baby understand peek-a-boo and other simple games<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

40 weeks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most common comorbidities of Fragile X are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ADHD (most males, 30% females)
social anxiety disorder (75% males)
autism (30%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The IQ is typically 35-70 less than average and decreases with increased age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fragile X<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

________ of females with Fragile X genes have decrease intelligence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

33%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The brainstem is comprised of the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

pons (metencephalon)
medulla ablongata (myelencephalon)
midbrain (mesencephalon)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The forebrain is composed of the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

thalamus
hypothalamus
cerebrum<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The midbrain is composed of the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

corpora quadrigemina
aqueduct of Silvius<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The hindbrain is composed of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

medulla oblongata (brainstem)
pons (brainstem)
cerebellum (behind the brainstem)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Speech disorders, vestibular disturbances, dysphagia, respiratory disturbance, and abnormal consciousness are a few examples of ______ disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

brain stem<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Complete loss of brainstem function is called<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

brain death<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Centre of temperature regulations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hypothalamus<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Eating of feces<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Coprophagia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_____ therapy is preferred in pica<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Behavioral (limiting access to means)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risk factors for conduct disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

large family size
parental criminality
neglect
physical or sexual abuse
family hx SUD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prevalence of conduct disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2-10%, mean 4%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

One of the earliest and most specific symptom of conduct disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Childhood animal cruelty<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Transitional objects are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

physical representation of their mother at a time when they have not yet internalized their mother (stuffed animal, blanket)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Children usually surrender their transitional object by age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Major depression increases in prevalence with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most prevalent child psychiatric disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ADHD (6.8%)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

____% of adolescents demonstrate illicit drug use disorder in past year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4.7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

____% of adolescents demonstrate alcohol use disorder in past year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4.3<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

____% of adolescents demonstrate cigarette dependence past month<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2.8<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

____ % of children have autism spectrum disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1.1<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_____ % of children with Tourette syndrome (age 6-17)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

0.2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

% of 3-17 year olds with anxiety<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3.5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

% of 3-17 year olds with depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2.1<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Approximately how many genes make up the human genome?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

25,000<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

extensive drug extraction and metabolism in the liver immediately after absorption from the gut<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

First pass elimination<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation and is available to exert a biological effect on target tissues<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Bioavailability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Maximum plasma concentration of the drug<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cmax<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Healthy balance between flexibility and stability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

adaptability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Balance between closeness and separateness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Connectedness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rumination is associated with both<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

gastrointestinal diseases
behavioral problems<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most individuals with DSM dx of Intellectual disability, profound, have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

identified neurological condition(s)
considerable sensorimotor impairment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If no restricted or repetitive behavior patters (RBBs) are present but other criteria for Autism spectrum disorder are met, what is the diagnosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Social communication disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A stage in the lifespan of an organism when it acquires developmental skill that is indispensable to life or survival<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Critical period<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

General time during which an individual is more receptive to some types of environmental stimuli, usually because the nervous system development is especially sensitive to those stimuli<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sensitive period<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

“Learning is a cognitive process that takes place in a social context and can occur purely through observation or direct instruction, even in the absence of motor reproduction or direct reinforcement.”<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Social learning theory<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Detects diseases early when pts are asymptomatic and address tx to halt its progression (ie screening tests)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Secondary Prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Keeps a disease from occurring by removing its causes (counseling about lifestyle changes, suicide prevention programs, immunizations)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

primary prevention<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Main components of traditional behavioral couples therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Behavioral exchange
communication training
problem-solving<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cognitive restructuring and imaginal exposure are components of _______-<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cognitive behavioral therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Role reversal is used in some forms of _________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

family therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 specific problems areas in individual interpersonal psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

grief or complicated bereavement
Role transition
Role dispute
Interpersonal deficits<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

when a pt expresses suppressed feelings, ideas or events to other group members<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ventilation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

process of imparting a sense of optimism to group members and the ability to recognize that one has the capacity to overcome problems<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inspiration<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In integrative behavioral couples therapy, the technique of unified detachment relates to which of the following concepts<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mindfulness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

technique in integrative behavioral couples therapy that involves evocation of strong emotions in the dyad<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

empathetic joining<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A result of empathetic joining, unified detachment, and tolerance building<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

emotional acceptance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Another technique used in integrative couples therapy that involves helping dyad members to be more understanding of upsetting behaviors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tolerance<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Believed to be the most important factor related to positive group therapeutic effect<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cohesion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Conscious awareness and understanding of one’s own psychodynamics and symptoms of maladaptive behavior. Can be either intellectual or emotional<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Insight<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Statement made to promote an insight, which is the conscious realization of unconscious conflict<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

interpretation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Offers a connection between statements or behaviors but does not explain motivation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Observation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Increased risk for sporadic (non-familial) schizophrenia is associated with mutation rate in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Advanced paternal age (2x rate compared to advanced maternal age)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mastery of conservation occurs at what Piaget childhood stage?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

concrete operational stage (age 7-11)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Understanding that redistributing an object does not affect its mass, number or volume)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Conservation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Decentering occurs at what Piaget childhood stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Concrete operational (age 7-11)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Taking into account multiple aspects of a problem to solve it<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Decentering<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Understanding that numbers or objects can be changed and returned to their original state<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Reversibility<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Reversibility occurs at what Piaget childhood stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Concrete operational (age 7-11)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The ability to sort objects mentally and to recognize the relationships among various things in a series<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Transitivity<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Transitivity occurs at what Piaget childhood stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Concrete operational (age 7-11)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The rate of psychopathology among those with an intellectual disability is roughly ________ than in the general population<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4x higher<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

To dx Tourette’s, symptoms must be present before what age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

18<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Conduct symptom review
Relate symptom onset to dispute
take hx of relationship
dissect role expectations
focus on correction of nonreciprocal expectations<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IPT sequence for interpersonal disputes that cause depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Review depressive sx
Relate them to the death of significant other
reconstruct lost relationship
explore negative and positive feelings
consider options for increasing social support<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IPT sequence for depression related to grief<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Review symptoms and relate them to social isolation or unfulfillment
Review past relationships
Explore repetitive patterns
Discuss positive and negative feelings about therapist and explore maladaptive patterns.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IPT sequence for interpersonal deficits that lead to depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Review symptoms
Relate symptoms to life change
Review positive and negative aspects of new and old roles
Review losses
Ventilate feelings
Find new role options<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IPT sequence for patients with role transitions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which type of group therapy indicated for neurotic disorders focuses on present and past life situations, as well as intragroup relationships<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Psychodynamic group<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Conversion of unconscious wishes into their opposites. The behavior is opposite of what one really desires or feels<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Reaction formation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which of the following IPT focus areas most accurately describes conflicts in significant relationships?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Role dispute<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The Maudsley model is used to treat<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anorexia nervosa (family therapy for pts up to 19 years of age)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In this type of family therapy, the family plays an active ole in tx of anorexia pt with goal of weight restoration and the eventual return to control regarding eating habits of the patient<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Maudsley Model<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to Minuchin, what factor accounts for family dysfunction symptoms?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

symptoms arising from structural imbalances in family system<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Family of origin issues are addressed in theses psychotherapeutic modalities<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

psychodynamic
transgenerational family therapy
Bowen’s family therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

This type of family therapy emphasizes the role of biologically based disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Psychoeducational family therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A shared projection process is part of these psychotherapeutic modalities<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Psychodynamic
Transgenerational family therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt putting on contact lenses for first time blinks eyes before the contact lens touches her eyes. What is the pathway that explains this reflex arc.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

CN V afferent CN VII efferent<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Early onset bipolar disorder is less responsive to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Steven Johnson syndrome occurs in ____ of children on lamotrigine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

People avoid pain discomfort and strive for gratification and pleasure<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pleasure Principle<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Process that occurs when repressed memory and associated affect is brought into consciousness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Abreaction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unconscious intrapsychic process that regulates basic biological drives and maintains psychological homeostasis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Defense mechanism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unconscious conflict between opposing wishes or wishes and prohibitions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Defense mechanism<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Applied behavioral analysis (ABA) effectively treats<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

self-injurious behavior (especially with autism)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which school of family therapy has a here-and-now focus and encourages change through growth experiences<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Experiential<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to Kohut, diagnosis of narcissistic personality disorder is based on<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

predominant transference estabilished (ie. self-object transference involving mirroring and idealization)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to Kernberb, the diagnosis of narcissistic personality disorder is based on<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

defenses the pt uses
(splitting, projective identification, primitive idealization)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sx of resistance in psychoanalysis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

silence
asking unrelated questions
intellectualizing things
being late for appointments
critically analyzing the reasons for treatment methods
censoring thoughts and ideas<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Coming up with an incorrect conclusion based on a previous experience<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Arbitrary inference<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Taking a small detail out of context to make an entire experience negative<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selective abstraction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In family therapy the term triangulation is tied to the work of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Murray Bowden<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Coming to a generalized conclusion based on a single event<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Overgeneralization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Several 3.5 year old children are playing in a sandbox with toys. What kind of play behavior are they most likely to exhibit. They share the same toys but still play separately.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Associative play<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

2 year old children playing.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Parallel play (no interaction with each other)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 year old children playing<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Cooperative play (start to interact with each other)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Preschool children (age 2-5) primarily use<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

logical thinking<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Egocentrism and magical thinking are prominent in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

preschool children<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Preschool children have difficulty with ____ and can believe if 2 events occur, 1 caused the other<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

causation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Categorizing oneself or one’s personal experiences into rigid dichotomies<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

absolute thinking<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Who believes that narcissist and borderline patients share core features of borderline personality organization which consists of pathological internalized object relation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Kernberg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In treating people with narcissistic personality, _____ tended to be more supportive and introspective, while ______ gently confronted defenses more actively<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Kohut
Kernberg<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the primary, direct cause of neuronal loss in an ischemic stroke<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Excessive increases in excitatory neurotransmitters (excitotoxicity)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Development of imagination and symbolic thinking, including language happen during the<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

preoperational stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Egocentrism is characteristic of the __________ of childhood development<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

preoperational stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Use of logic and interpreting experiences objectively are characteristic of the _______ of development<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

concrete operational<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

During the _______ of development, a child is unable to consider 2 dimensions<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

preoperational<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What happens to Fluoxetine’s peak plasma concentration when taken with food<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

delayed but not decreased\/increased<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What happens to Paroxetine’s peak plasma concentration when taken with food<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased by 6%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What happens to Sertaline’s peak plasma concentration when taken with food<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased by 25%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What happens to the peak plasma concentration of Citalopram when taken with food<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

no affected<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Provide scaffolding of brain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

astrocytes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

form blood-brain barrier<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

astrocytes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

guide neuronal migration during development<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

astrocytes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

remove neurotransmitters from within the synaptic cleft (preventing toxic buildup)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

astrocytes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

regulate the external chemical environment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

astrocytes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

capable of cell-cell signaling<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

astrocytes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

produce myelin sheath that speeds conduction of action potentials along axons in the CNS<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Oligodendrocytes<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Schwann cells<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Macrophages of the brain<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

microglia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

make up the walls of the ventricles<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ependymal cells<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Secrete CSF<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ependymal cells<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

help to circulate CSF<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ependymal cells<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

types of glial cells<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
microglia
ependymal cells<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medical conditions that cause ASD can be identified in ______% of cases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

<5<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medical conditions that are best established as probable causes of ASD include<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rett syndrome
fragile x syndrome
tuberous sclerosis
abnormalities of chromosome 15 (involving 15q11-13 region)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mitochondria dysfunction can be identified in ______% of autism cases<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

up to 5 (possibly more, 500x higher than general population)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The ________ gene associated with fragile X syndrome is associated with ASD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FMR1<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pt in car accident hit head on dashboard and suffered cribriform plate fx. He has clear fluid dripping from his nose. What else might you expect in this pt<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

loss of olfaction<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Risk factors for child\/adolescent suicide<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

affective d\/o
substance abuse
living alone
prior suicide attempts
male gender
gay\/lesbian\/bisexual
age>16<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

word articulation typically lags behind ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

vocabulary<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Most articulation errors end by age<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Children should start crawling by ________ and walking by _______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

8 months
12 months<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

By age 3, regarding speech, children should be______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

using real sentences with grammatical function<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

By age 3, a child’s vocabulary should consist of around _______ words<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

895<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When treating conversion disorder, doing this is contraindicated<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

confrontation about the symptom<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How long do conversion disorders last for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

usually remit spontaneously within 2 weeks and it is unusual that they persist for a year.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is seen primarily with the initiation of atypical neuroleptics<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sedation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is seen after months of atypical neuroleptic therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Tardive dyskineasia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3 risk factors for child abuse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Prematurity (especially with incessant crying)
developmental disability
physical disability<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What gender has a higher risk of child abuse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Male infants<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

At what Piaget stage do children understand conservation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

operational stage @ age 7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In what way does necrosis differ from apoptosis<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inflammatory response<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Unlike necrosis, the process of apoptosis does not stimulate an<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

inflammatory response<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which neurobiological abnormality is associated with autism?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Decreased formation of Purkinje cells in cerebellum<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The ASD symptoms in Rette are<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Severe, profound impairment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Its with ASD have _______ overall brain size<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

increased<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients with ASD experience ______ growth of head during infancy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

accelerated<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is correct regarding characteristic dysmorphic features of Williams syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

elfin facies
starburst irises<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Common comorbidities of Williams syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anxiety disorders
depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medical issues of Williams syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

supravalvular aortic stenosis
renal artery stenosis
HTN<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the genetic anomaly with Williams syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

genetic deletion occurs at chromosome 7<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autistic child cannot tell you what objects are when she holds them with her eyes closed. This may be due to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

astereognosis (may be d\/t lesion in parietal lobe)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SIGECAPS stands for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sleep disorder
Interest deficit (anhedonia)
Guilt (worthlessness, hopeless, or regret)
Energy deficit
Concentration deficit
Appetite: increased or diminished
Psychomotor retardation or agitation
Suicidality<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In subsequent suicide attempts, >80% suicide attempters<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

use 2 or more methods<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Maintenance therapy of an antidepressant is recommended for patients with additional risk factors for recurrence such as<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

presence of residual symptoms
ongoing psychosocial stressors
early age at onset
family history of mood disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

How long must sx be present in children and adolescents to be diagnosed as cyclothymic disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1 year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to the APA on MDD, what is the correct definition of remission during acute-phase tx from an episode of major depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

At least 3 weeks of absence of both sad mood and reduced interest and no more than 3 remaining symptoms of major depressive episode.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In the outpatient setting about _______% of children referred for depression are suicidal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

50<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

FDA approved for treatment of bipolar depression in pt on lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Quetiapine
Olanzapine plus fluoxetine (in combo)
Lurasidone<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which medication has been shown to reduce relapse rates significantly and to diminish the severity and duration of bipolar disorder in postpartum women when used as a prophylaxis (at 36 weeks of gestation or no later than the first 48 hours following delivery)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When should you start prophylactic lithium to reduce relapse rates significantly and diminish the severity and duration of puerperal illness?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

36 weeks gestation or no later than the first 48 hours following delivery<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A patient is on carbamazepine and amitriptyline. He c\/o of dry mouth and urinary retention. His antidepressant dose has not change? What is the most likely explanation of the carbamazepine dose?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It was decreased<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A patient is on phenytoin and amitriptyline. He c\/o of dry mouth and urinary retention. His antidepressant dose has not change? What is the most likely explanation of the phenytoin dose?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It was decreased<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

amitriptyline. He c\/o of dry mouth and urinary retention. His antidepressant dose has not change? What is the most likely explanation of the oxcarbamazepine dose?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

It was decreased<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Barbituates and vigabrain have an increased risk of depression, suicidal ideation and suicidal behavior in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

epileptic patients (FDA warning level)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Anticonvulsants like ______ are useful in treating mood disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

carbamazepine
valproate
lamotrigine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Clozapine can reduce suicidality in patients with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

schizophrenia
schizoaffective
(not bipolar)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Regarding cultural aspects, minorities are less likely to receive tx for MDD, specifically _____ and _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ECT
psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to the DSM-5, how many overlapping sx must be present to include the “mixed-features” specifier in the dx of depression in a manic\/hypomanic episode.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the completed suicide rate in patients with bipolar I<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

10-15%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

People with a first degree relative with MDD are ______ x more likely to have MDD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

1.5-3X<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

People with a family hx of depression generally have<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

earlier age of onset
more chronic course
recurrences<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When unipolar pts are tx with antidepressant, the rate of experiencing a “switch” into mania is estimated to be _____ % per year<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

3-4<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

According to the Texas STAR-D algorithm, an agent with partial response can be ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

augmented or changed<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

If new onset Bipolar affective disorder (BAD) starts around ages 50-59, it is usually d\/t<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

medical condition
illicit drugs
medication<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

These antidepressants have the lowest level of exposure in breast milk.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

sertraline
paroxetine
nortriptyline
imipramine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

19 year old with first manic episode, started on lithium. On day 2, experiences motor excitement, mutism, and stereotypic movement. Failed lorazepam trial. What treatment is indicated next to tx his sx.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

ECT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Up to ______ % of manic pts will develop catatonic features indicated by negativism, withdrawal, starting, immobility\/stupor, mutism, posturing, grimacing, stereotypes, mannerism of non-purposeful excitement, undirected combativeness, unexplained impulsive behavior, echopraxia, echolalia, motor excitement, bizarre grimacing, and wavy flexibility<\/p>\n\n\n\n

33%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When the diagnosis of catatonia has been made, the use of ______ should be generally avoided<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

antidepressant and\/or antipsychotic medications<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

________ can worsen catatonia d\/t parkinsonian side effects and can increase risk of ______<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antipsychotics
neuroleptic malignant syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients with bipolar disorder may account for 25% of which of the following?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Completed suicides<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Patients with bipolar are _____x more likely to commit suicide than the general population<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

15<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Suicidality is commonly seen in bipolar pts when they are in a _____ or _____ condition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

depressed
mixed<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Pts taking selegiline may test urine positive for which of the following drug<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

methamphetamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selegiline is metabolized by the body into<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

I-methamphetamine and I-amphetamine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Selegiline is a substituted phenethylamine used for the treatment of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

early-stage Parkinson’s disease, depression, and dementia.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In normal doses selegiline is a _______ and in larger doses it is a _________<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

selective irreversible MAO-B inhibitor

MAO-A and MAO-B inhibitor<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of patients with Parkinson’s disease have some degree of depression<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

40-50%<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What sleep abnormality is present in MDD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Decreased slow-wave sleep
Sleep onset latency increased
Total sleep time decreased
REM latency shorter with number of eye movements increased<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What substance is most commonly associated with those who die by suicide?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Alcohol<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Rapid-cycling requires at least _____ major depressive, manic, or hypomanic episodes that met criteria in the past year. These episodes must be distinct (with at least a partial remission for at least______ months or switch to an opposite type of episode)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4
2<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lithium use in first trimester can lead to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ebstein’s anomaly and other cardiac malformations,<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Valproate sodium is not safe in pregnant women because it can cause<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

intrauterine growth retardation
neural tube defects<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SSRIs cause more ______ in the elderly<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

SIADH (3x risk)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When using TCAs in elderly, ____ and ______ are preferred<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

desipramine
nortriptyline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antidepressant for elderly who has insomnia and weight loss<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

mirtazapine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Blood levels of medications like TCAs are _____ in elderly patients<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

higher<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine has FDA indications for what in children and adolescents?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Nothing<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Paroxetine is _____% plasma bound and ______% excreted in urine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

95
66<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The half life of paroxetine is _______, increasing risk of severe discontinuation syndrome<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

21 hours<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antidepressants that can increase insomnia and activation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Fluoxetine
bupropion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Antidepressant that can cause activation but is less likely to cause activation compared to Fluoxetine and Buproprion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sertaline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the minimum duration of symptoms for diagnosing a hypomanic episode?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

4 days<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In MDD, seasonal pattern, some ____ occurs after the depressive episode<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

hypomania<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When taking an MAOI, need to avoid these foods\/drinks<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cheese
caviar
liver
smoke\/picked\/cured fish and meat
ripe avocados
canned figs
yeast extract
Chianti red wine
fava beans (not lima)
raisins
prunes
bear with yeast<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

When taking MAOI, need to keeps these foods in moderation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

chocolate
coffee<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Medications to avoid when taking MAOI<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cold meds
allergy meds
decongestants
cough meds
stimulants
meperidine
SSRI
bupropion
mirtazapine
nefazodone
trazodone
venlafaxine<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Who has the highest suicide rate of any age and ethnic group<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Caucasian men > 75 yrs old<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is the mean age of onset for the first manic, hypomanic, or major depressive episode of bipolar I disorder<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

18 years<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What percentage of patients with bipolar I disorder have >1 manic episode?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

>90<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inpatient methods for reducing suicide<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Non-weight bearing fixtures and curtain rods
Cordless phone
Jump-proof windows
Short cords on adjustable beds
Confiscate belts\/shoelaces
Barricade-proof doors<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which form of family therapy externalizes the main problems and identifies exceptions to the dominant story<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Narrative<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Externalizes problems and focuses on the effects on people’s lives rather the on problems as inside and part of people.<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Narrative therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A functional analysis is completed in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

behavioral therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Skills such as communication, problem-solving, and coping strategies are explored<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

psychoeducation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Circular questions are used in _____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

systemic therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cognitive error where a part of a situation is picked out and exaggerated<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

maximization<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Enmeshment involves a failure to achieve appropriate<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

interpersonal boundaries<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Who developed the model of therapy resolving around triangle of conflict, defense work, and forming a portrait to resolve dynamic pathologic defenses?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Malan<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In _______’ anxiety provoking therapy, the therapist acts as teacher<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Sifneos<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

_______ developed intensive short term dynamic psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Davanloo<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In ______’s existential therapy, the therapist acts as an empathetic helper<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Mann<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In the launching stage, the main task for the couple is to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

reevaluate their marriage and career issues as their parenting roles diminish<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

An individual demonstrating good coping skills is<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

quite composed and vigilant in avoiding emotional extremes when they are inappropriate, in an effort to avoid impaired judgment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The term “goodness of fit” as described by Chess and Thomas<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Match or mismatch between a person’s temperament and features of his or her environment. Expectations and demands are in accord with the organism’s own capacities, characteristics and style of behaving. Socioeconomic levels, specific values and cultural differences must be taken into consideration<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In DBT, dialectics refer to which of the following?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

philosophy and approach to communicating with patients
(philosophical view of the nature of reality emphasizing the non-linear and dualistic nature of the world)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A 4 year old runs to mother after riding bike without training wheels and says “Look mommy, I did it all by myself.” Which basic conflict best described this child?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Initiative vs guilt<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Relational theory focuses on the real relationship between pt and therapist to understand and relieve conflict and social inhibition and to achieve social intimacy. Which theorist is associated with this type of therapy?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Jean Baker Miller<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Coming to an incorrect conclusion based on a previous experience<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Arbitrary inference<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In custody cases ___________ is necessary to provide an unbiased, objective eval of the situation<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

a forensics evaluation by a forensic evaluator<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In couples therapy, the therapist looks for ways to understand how the marriage is “stuck”. Which approach is the therapist using?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Structure-strategic Approach<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The therapist tries to help the patient get out of persistent narrow role by encouraging connective emotional experiences in the here-and now. Which approach is the therapist using?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Experimental humanistic approach<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The therapist encourages cognitive restructuring to relieve marital tension. Which approach is the therapist using?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Behavioral approach<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The therapist focuses on the relationship between one’s role in the family of origin and the current couple difficulty. Which approach is the therapist using?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Transgenerational approach<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Negative interpersonal experiences can lead to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

depression in vulnerable individuals<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Emphasizes the role of underlying psychosocial conflicts, not psychosexual<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Psychodynamic therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In psychodynamic therapy, “working through” focuses on which of the following<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Identifying patterns of defense mechanisms and object relations. This is restricted to patient and therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Identification of dysfunctional cognitions is part of<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cognitive-behavioral therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is learned in concrete operational stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

conservation
reversibility<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Realization that one thing can be turned into another and back again<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Reversibility – learned in concrete operations stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Abstract thinking is obtained during this Piaget stage<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Formal operational<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

The eclectic brief therapy of Budman and Gurman rests on interpersonal development and existential focus (IDE). What is included in his method<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

losses
developmental dyssynchonies
interpersonal conflicts
symptomatic presentations
personality disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A characteristic of their therapy is the belief that maximal benefit occurs early and that is the opportune time for change<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

IDE by Budman & Gurman<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Traditional behavioral couples therapy does not<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

emphasize cognition<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

In Behavioral couples therapy based on operant condition -____<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

decreases in social punishers decreases dyadic stress<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

To understand the relationship between interpersonal experiences and depression, what would a therapist do with her patient?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Construct a timeline<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Conducting an interview focusing on early childhood experiences is consistent with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

psychodynamic psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Chain analysis is a technique employed in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

DBT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Thought-mood logs are useful in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

cognitive behavioral therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Involves construction of an illness (depression) timeline reflecting major mood changes and significant interpersonal events<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Individual interpersonal psychotherapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What is it called during individual interpersonal psychotherapy when the therapist helps the patient accept the medical diagnosis of depression and its seriousness<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inducing patient into sick role<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Codependent behavior where one party supports the maladaptive behavior of a second party<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Enabling<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Exposing patients to anxiety provoking or feared situations all at once until anxiety and fears subside<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Flooding<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Behavioral therapy has been shown to ameliorate signs related to<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

eating disorders
mood disorders
phobias
OCD\/OCPD<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Gradual exposure to anxiety-provoking situations, introduced by “imagined exposure” is helpful for<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

agoraphobia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Common form of relaxation training<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Progressive muscle relaxing<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Progressive muscle relaxing is helpful for pts with<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

anxiety disorder
pain disorders<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which type of therapy has been effective for women with opioid dependency?<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

DBT<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Inclusion for ________:
real desire for relief
moderate emotional distress
specific\/circumscribed problem
ability to commit to tx
hx of positive relationship and function in one area of life<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

brief therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Exclusion criteria for __________:
acute risk self harm
active psychosis
acute\/severe substance abuse<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

brief therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s task of basic trust<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Trust vs Mistrust
(Birth-18 months)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s task of control and independence<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Autonomy vs Shame
(18 months-3 years)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s task of taking control of the environment, purpose<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Initiative vs guilt
(3-6 years)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s task of confidence, competence, social skills<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Industry vs inferiority
(6-12 years)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s tasks of formation of identity, devotion<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Identity vs role confusion
(12-18 years)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s tasks of forming a relationship, commitment<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Intimacy vs isolation
(18-35 years)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s task of building a family, having a productive career<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Generatively vs stagnation
(35-65 years)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Erikson’s tasks of viewing life as meaningful and fulfilling<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Ego integrity vs despair
(65 years to death)<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

A therapist should limit silences in<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

brief therapy<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Lazarus’s conceptualization of coping<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

Self-exploration
Self-instruction
Self-correction
Self-rehearsal<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

What type of psychotherapy has the least empirical data to supports its use in schizophrenia<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

psychoanalysis<\/a><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

What is true of interprofessionality? All health professionals have individual professional competencies What is the significance of an experimental p-value of 0.05 There is a 5% chance of a similar result occurring by chance alone What percentage of children with oppositional defiance disorder will develop conduct disorder? 30% In the DSM-5, selective mutism is now […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"site-sidebar-layout":"default","site-content-layout":"","ast-site-content-layout":"default","site-content-style":"default","site-sidebar-style":"default","ast-global-header-display":"","ast-banner-title-visibility":"","ast-main-header-display":"","ast-hfb-above-header-display":"","ast-hfb-below-header-display":"","ast-hfb-mobile-header-display":"","site-post-title":"","ast-breadcrumbs-content":"","ast-featured-img":"","footer-sml-layout":"","ast-disable-related-posts":"","theme-transparent-header-meta":"","adv-header-id-meta":"","stick-header-meta":"","header-above-stick-meta":"","header-main-stick-meta":"","header-below-stick-meta":"","astra-migrate-meta-layouts":"default","ast-page-background-enabled":"default","ast-page-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"ast-content-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"footnotes":""},"categories":[],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-110684","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/110684","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=110684"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/110684\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=110684"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=110684"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=110684"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}