RDH Law and Ethics California 2023 Exam|
Questions and Verified Answers| 2023\/ 2024
Update| A Grade
Q: What core value is violated when the dental hygienist presents treatment that is clearly
excessive?
Answer:
Veracity
Q: The dental hygienist presents SRP treatment to the patient, and the patient responds with, “I
don’t want to do that I just want the basic cleaning.” What core value is the patient practicing?
Answer:
Autonomy
Q: What fundamental principle is being used when we accept consequences of our actions or
the failure to act and are willing to make ethical choice and publicly affirm them?
Answer:
responsibility
Q: What are the requirements for making notations in the patient’s treatment record?
Answer:
“signature” or “ID number & initials” of the licensed provider who performed treatment.
Q: caring and the ability to identify with the patient’s overall well-being. Relieving pain and
suffering is a common attribute of dental practice. Acts of kindness and a sympathetic ear for the
patient are all qualities of a caring, compassionate dentist.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Answer:
compassion
Q: When a patient comes in and expresses that she just had a death in the family, you listen
intently and then recommend to the patient she should reschedule her appointment, and doesn’t
perform treatment. What core value is demonstrated?
Answer:
Compassion
Q: The practice of accepting or receiving any commission or the rebating in any form or
manner of fees for professional services, radiographs, prescriptions, or other services or articles
supplied to patients.
Answer:
Unprofessional conduct
Q: The clearly excessive administering of drugs or treatment, or the clearly excessive use of
treatment procedures, or the clearly excessive use of treatment facilities, as determined by the
customary practice and standards of the dental hygiene profession.
Answer:
unprofessional conduct
Q: Any person who violates this subdivision is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished
by a fine of not less than one hundred dollars ($100) or more than six hundred dollars ($600), or
by imprisonment for a term of not less than 60 days or more than 180 days, or by both a fine and
imprisonment.
Answer:
excessive use of treatment (unprofessional conduct)<\/p>\n\n\n\n
California RDH Law and Ethics Exam Answer: Q: Registered dental hygienists are permitted, under direct supervision, to place antimicrobial California Registered Dental Hygienist — having books, notes Q: What is the protocol for reporting abuse, reasonably suspected abuse or neglect of a child? Answer: RDH: Registered Dental Hygienist California Q: Current and active licensees enrolled in a full time educational program in the field of Q: Unless otherwise specifically provided, the absence of training shall Q: Reasonable suspicion does NOT require Registered Dental Hygienist (RDH) Q: All DHCP shall perform hand hygiene procedures __<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> donning gloves and Q: Needles shall not be _<\/em><\/strong> or ___<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> for the purpose of disposal. Q: If a critical item is heat-sensitive, it shall, at minimum, be processed with __<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> RDH Law and Ethics California 2023 Exam|Questions and Verified Answers| 2023\/ 2024Update| A GradeQ: What core value is violated when the dental hygienist presents treatment that is clearlyexcessive?Answer:VeracityQ: The dental hygienist presents SRP treatment to the patient, and the patient responds with, “Idon’t want to do that I just want the basic cleaning.” What core […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"site-sidebar-layout":"default","site-content-layout":"","ast-site-content-layout":"default","site-content-style":"default","site-sidebar-style":"default","ast-global-header-display":"","ast-banner-title-visibility":"","ast-main-header-display":"","ast-hfb-above-header-display":"","ast-hfb-below-header-display":"","ast-hfb-mobile-header-display":"","site-post-title":"","ast-breadcrumbs-content":"","ast-featured-img":"","footer-sml-layout":"","ast-disable-related-posts":"","theme-transparent-header-meta":"","adv-header-id-meta":"","stick-header-meta":"","header-above-stick-meta":"","header-main-stick-meta":"","header-below-stick-meta":"","astra-migrate-meta-layouts":"default","ast-page-background-enabled":"default","ast-page-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"ast-content-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"footnotes":""},"categories":[25],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-118993","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-exams-certification"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/118993","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=118993"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/118993\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=118993"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=118993"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=118993"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}
Questions and Verified Answers| 2023\/ 2024
Update| A Grade
Q: Use of the name of a dentist no longer actively associated with the practice may be
continued for a period not to exceed
-120 days
-Six months
-one year
-Two years
Answer:
one year
Q: A licensee must comply with a request for a patient’s dental hygiene records that is
accompanied by that patient’s written authorization for release of the records to the DHCC,
within<\/strong> days of receiving the request and authorization.
-15 days
-90 days
-60 days
-30 days
Answer:
15 days
Q: This principle expresses the concept that professionals have a duty to be fair in their dealings
with patients, colleagues and society
-Nonmaleficence
-Justice
-Autonomy
-Veracity
-Beneficence<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Justice
Q: Dental hygienists are not obliged to report suspected child abuse cases to the proper
authorities
-True
-False
Answer:
False
Q: Dentists with first-hand knowledge that a colleague is practicing dentistry when chemically
impaired have an ethical responsibility to report such evidence to the professional assistance
committee\/drug diversion committee of a dental society
-True
-False
Answer:
True
Q: In its broadest sense this principle expresses the concept that the dental profession should
actively seek allies throughout society on specific activities that will help improve access to care
for all
-Justice
-Nonmaleficence
-Autonomy
-Veracity
-Beneficence
Answer:
Justice<\/p>\n\n\n\n
or antibiotic medicaments, which do not later have to be removed
-True
-False
Answer:
false
Q: Registered dental hygienists are permitted, under general supervision, to irrigate
subgingivally with antimicrobials and\/or antibiotic solution
-True
-False
Answer:
true
Q: In the ” Code of Ethics for Dental Hygienists” this principle states that if two or more people
consider the same action or trait in the same situation, the same conclusion would be drawn
-Universality
-Responsibility
-Community
-Complementarity
-Ethics
Answer:
Universality
Q: A dentist is not permitted to make payments to another person or entity for the referral of a
patient for professional services<\/p>\n\n\n\n
(RDH) Law and Ethics Exam| Questions and
Verified Answers| 2023\/ 2024 Update| 100%
Correct
Q: What happens if a participant withdraws or is terminated from the diversion program?
(1966.1)
Answer:<\/p>\n\n\n\n\n
diversion treatment records in the criminal proceedings<\/li>\n\n\n\n
after participation in the diversion program.
Q: If a person is admitted into a diversion program what are their responsibilities and what
could happen if they do not comply (1966.4)
Answer:
They need to pay for all costs of the program ( unless the committee waives the fees) If they do
not abide by the rules they may be terminated from the program
Q: In regards to the subversion of licensing examinations what could the crime be and what can
you NOT do (123)
Answer:
The crime is a misdemeanor.
You can not
–remove materials from exam
–unauthorized reproduction of any exam materials
— paying or using any paid examination takers to recreate portions of the test
–buying, selling, distributing any portion of a current, future or past exam
— communicating with any other exam taker
— copying another exam taker<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n
Q: Other than misdemeanor penalties, and other associated penalties, what would a person
found guilty of section 123 be liable for?
Answer:
the actual damages sustained by the agency administering the examination not to exceed $10,000
and the costs of litigation.
Q: In regards to enjoining violations (123.5)–stoppage of issuing a license
Answer:
Whenever any person has engaged, or is about to engage, in any acts or practices with constitute,
or will constitute, a violation of section 123, the superior court for that county may issue an
injunction, or other appropriate order, restraining such conduct on application a board, the
Attorney General or the district attorney of the county
The remedy provided for by this section shall be in addition to, and not a limitation on, the
authority provided for in any other provision of law.
Q: When can a board deny, revoke, suspend, or restrict a license? (496)
Answer:
when an applicant has violated Section 123 pertaining to subversion of licensing examinations.
Q: Are employers required to provide training for mandated reporters? (11165.7 c.)
Answer:
No. They are strongly encouraged to though. They are required to provide employees who are
mandated reporters with the statement required pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 11166.5<\/p>\n\n\n\n
(11166 a.)
Answer:
They shall make an initial report by phone to the agency immediately or as soon as possible, and
shall send, fax, or email a written followup report within 36 hours of incident.
Q: What is reasonable suspicion? (11166 a.1)
Answer:
it is objectively reasonable for a person to entertain a suspicion, based upon facts that could
cause a reasonable person in a like position, drawing on their training and experience, to suspect
child abuse or neglect.
—It doesn’t require certainty or a specific medical indication.
*The pregnancy of a minor does not, in itself, constitute a basis for reasonable suspicion of
sexual abuse.
Q: What if a mandated reporter fails to report abuse? (11166 c.)
Answer:
They are guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by up to 6 months in county jail or by a fine of
$1,000 or by both imprisonment and fine.
Q: What if two people, who are required to report, have knowledge of suspected abuse? (11166
h.)
Answer:
They will mutually agree who will make a single report. If that person fails to make the report,
the other person should then make the report.
Q: Is reporting the information to an employer the same as a mandated report? (11166 i.3)<\/p>\n\n\n\n
No. You must report directly to the specified agency.
Q: Health practioner according to 15610.37
Answer:
is a dental hygienist
Q: Who is a mandated reporter for elder abuse? (15630)
Answer:
Any person who has assumed full or intermittent responsibility for the care or custody of an elder
or dependent adult including a health practitioner (dental hygienist)
Q: What is elder abuse?
Answer:
physical abuse, abandonment, abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect.
Q: When and how should a mandated report be made of suspected elder abuse?
Answer:
It should be reported immediately or as soon as possible by phone or through a confidential
Internet reporting tool. If reported by phone, a written report must be sent within two working
days.
See long-term care abuse for exceptions
Q: What if the abuse happened in a long-term care facility?<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Law and Ethics Exam| Actual Questions and
Verified Answers| Latest 2023\/ 2024 | Scored
100%
Q: Tape recorded courses\/webinars, home study materials, video courses, and computer
courses are considered correspondence courses and will be accepted for credit up, but not
exceeding
Answer:
50% of the licensee’s total required units
Q: In the event that 50% of the CE’s required were non-live units, all remaining units shall be
Answer:
obtained through live interactive course study with the option to obtain 100% of the total
required units
Q: Pertaining to licentiates holding more than one license or permit, the license or permit that
requires the largest number of CE’s for renewal shall
Answer:<\/p>\n\n\n\n\n
dentistry approved by the BOARD or the ADA Commission on Dental Accreditation shall be
Answer:
granted CE credits for completed curriculum during that renewal period
Q: In the event of audit, assisting permit holders shall be required to present school transcripts
to the
Answer:
Committee or Board as evidence of enrollment and course completion
Q: Alcohol or drug abuse or both is not in and of itself a sufficient basis for reporting
Answer:
Child abuse, OR Neglect
Q: Volunteers of public or private organizations whose duties require direct contact with and
supervision of children are
Answer:
NOT mandated reporters BUT are encouraged to obtain training in the identification and
reporting of child abuse and neglect and are further encouraged to report known or suspected
instances of child abuse or neglect to an agency<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Answer:
NOT
excuse a mandated reporter from their duties
Q: A mandated reporter for a suspect child abuse\/neglect shall make the ini- tial report to the
agency or as soon as practically possible by
and shall prepare and send a fax or electronically transmit a written follow up report thereof
within hours of receiving the information concerning the incident.
Answer:
Immediately
Phone
36
Q: The mandated reporter may include with the report any
the mandat- ed reporter possesses relating to the incident.
Answer:
Non-privileged documentary evidence
Q: Reasonable suspicion means
Answer:
it is objectively reasonable for a person to entertain a suspicion, based upon facts that could
cause a reasonable person in a like position, drawing, when appropriate, on his or her training
and experience to suspect child abuse or neglect<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Answer:
-does NOT require Certainty that child abuse or neglect has occurred
-does NOT require a specific medical indication of child abuse or neglect
Q: The pregnancy of a minor
Answer:
does NOT , in and of itself, constitute a basis for reasonable suspicion of sexual abuse
Q: If a child has expired, regardless of whether or not the possible abuse was a factor
contributing to the death, and even if suspected child abuse was discovered during an autopsy
Answer:
-The agency shall be notified
-a report shall be prepared and sent, faxed, or electronically transmitted
Q: A mandated reporter who files a one time automated written report be- cause he or she was
unable to submit an initial report by telephone is
Answer:
NOT required to submit a written followup report<\/p>\n\n\n\n
California Law and Ethics Exam| Actual
Questions and Verified Answers| Latest 2023\/
2024 | Scored 100%
Q: Chemical resistant utility gloves and appropriate, task specific PPE shall be worn when
handling _____<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> chemicals.
Answer:
hazardous
Q: chin length plastic face shield or protective eyewear whenever there is potential for aerosol
spray, splashing or spattering of the following:
Answer:
droplet nuclei
blood
chemical or germicidal agents
OPIM
Q: when should masks be changed and disposed?
Answer:
after each patient treatment
Q: After each patient treatment, _____<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> and _______<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> shall be
cleaned, disinfected, or disposed
Answer:
face shields, protective eyewear<\/p>\n\n\n\n
_<\/em><\/strong> removing and discarding gloves
Answer:
before, after
Q: Medical exam gloves shall be worn whenever there is contact with _____<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>
membranes, _<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>, OPIM, and during _ clinical, clinical, clinical, and
laboratory procedures.
Answer:
mucous, blood, pre, post
Q: DHCP shall wear ___________<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> gloves to prevent puncture wounds.
Answer:
heavy duty utility
Q: Gloves shall _<\/em><\/strong> be washed before or after use
Answer:
not
Q: Needles shall be recapped only by using the<\/em><\/strong> technique or a __<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>
device.
Answer:
scoop, protective<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Answer:
bent, broken
Q: All germicides must be used in accordance with intended use and label instructions
Answer:
true
Q: Cleaning must _<\/em><\/strong> any disinfection or sterilization process.
Answer:
precede
Q: Critical instruments, items and devices shall be ____<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> or pre-cleaned, packaged or
___<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> and __<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> after each use.
Answer:
discarded, wrapped, sterilized
Q: Methods of sterilization include:
Answer:
steam under pressure (autoclaving)
chemical vapor
dry heat<\/p>\n\n\n\n
disinfection and packaged or wrapped upon completion of the disinfection process.
Answer:
high-level
Q: Instruments, items, and devices shall remain sealed and stored as to prevent contamination,
and shall be labeled with the of sterilization and the specific ___<\/strong><\/em><\/strong><\/em>
used if more than one in the facility.
Answer:
date, sterilizer
Q: Semi-critical instruments, items, and devices shall be _<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>, packaged or wrapped
and ____<\/strong><\/em><\/strong><\/em> after each use.
Answer:
pre-cleaned, sterilized
Q: Non-critical surface and patient care items shall be cleaned and disinfected with a
_____<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> registered hospital disinfectant (______<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>) labeled effective
against and _<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong>.
Answer:
Cal\/EPA, low-level disinfectant, HBV, HIV
Q: When the item is visibly contaminated with blood or OPIM, a Cal\/EPA registered hospital
_____<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> level disinfectant with a ______<\/em><\/strong><\/em><\/strong> claim shall be used.
Answer:
intermediate, tuberculocidal<\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"