{"id":119522,"date":"2023-09-11T11:11:52","date_gmt":"2023-09-11T11:11:52","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/blog\/?p=119522"},"modified":"2023-09-11T11:11:56","modified_gmt":"2023-09-11T11:11:56","slug":"bundled-all-nab-exam-files-2023-2024-with-complete-verified-solutions-100-graded-a","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/2023\/09\/11\/bundled-all-nab-exam-files-2023-2024-with-complete-verified-solutions-100-graded-a\/","title":{"rendered":"(Bundled) ALL NAB EXAM FILES 2023\/2024 WITH COMPLETE VERIFIED SOLUTIONS| 100% GRADED A+"},"content":{"rendered":"\n

NAB Exam(NAB NHA Examination)With Complete
Solutions 2023
Gerontologists Categories – How is Young-Old Defined?
65 to 74 years old
Gerontologists Categories – How is Old-Old Defined?
75 to 84 years old
Gerontologists Categories – How is Oldest-Old Defined?
Over 85 + years old
The morning meal must be served within how many hours after the previous
meal?
14 Hours, if the required evening snack is substantial and the resident approves 16
hours may elapse
A full time social worker is required if the facility has more than how many beds?
120 Beds
What qualifications are required of a full time social worker?
BS (Bachelors of Science) in Social work, psychology or rehabilitation counseling. Also,
1 year of supervised social work experience in a health-care setting
When can the DON act as charge nurse?
When ADC (Average Daily Census) is 60 or lower
What is a substantial weight loss or gain?
5% gain\/loss in one month or a 10% gain\/loss in a 6 month period
How often are physicians required to visit their patients?
Once every 30 days for the first 90 day period, then at least every 60 days thereafter
A comprehensive care plan must be developed with how many days of MDS
completion?
7 Days (Medicare or 14 days Medicaid)
If marked PRN a medication is administered?
As Needed
If marked BID a medication is administered?
Twice a Day
If marked TID a medication is administered?
Three Times a Day
If marked QID a medication is administered?
Four Times a Day
If marked QD a medication is administered?
Every Day
If marked QOD a medication is administered?
Every Other Day
If marked HS a medication is administered?
At Bedtime
If marked AC a medication is administered?
Before Meals
If marked PC a medication is administered?
After Meals<\/p>\n\n\n\n

If marked PO a medication should be given by which route?
Orally (by mouth)
If marked R a medication should be given by which route?
Rectally
If marked IV a medication should be given by which route?
Intravenously
If marked IM a medication should be given by which route?
Intramuscularly
If marked OD a medication should be given by which route?
Right Eye
If marked OS a medication should be given by which route?
Left Eye
If marked OU a medication should be given by which route?
Both Eyes
If marked AD a medication should be given by which route?
Right Ear
If marked AS a medication should be given by which route?
Left Ear
If marked AU a medication should be given by which route?
Both Ears
Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 11?
Prevalence of Fecal Impaction
Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 15?
Prevalence of Dehydration
Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 24?
Prevalence of Stage 1-4 Pressure Ulcers
Quality Indicators (QI) will be flagged at what percentage?
90% Percentile (the higher the % the worse the flag)
Activities of Daily Living (ADL) include? (5 areas)
Ambulation\/Locomotion, Eating, Toileting, Grooming\/Personal Hygiene\/Bathing, and
Communicating
How are Controlled Substances rated?
On a Schedule from 1 to 5. The higher the # the more controlled the substance.
What controls are necessary for #2 scheduled substance?
Must have Separate Locked Storage. Must be Accounted for Each Shift.
If an applicant isn’t hired how long must their application be kept in file?
1 Year
How many hours of In-Service must C.N.A.’s have each year?
12 hours
How long can aides work before they become certified?
4 Months (i.e.. They are going through classes or waiting to take a test for certification)
A facility must give how many days notice to a Union for a desired contract
change?
90 Days
A Union must give how many days notice before a strike?
10 Days<\/p>\n\n\n\n

An I-9 must be retained for how long?
3 years from the date of hire or until 1 year after termination (whichever is later)
Employees returning from Military leave must apply to return to work within how
many days of discharge?
90 Days
What does FMLA stand for?
Family and Medical Leave Act
What benefits does FMLA provide?
12 Weeks unpaid leave
How many days notice must an employee give to go out on FMLA?
30 Days Notice
An accidental death must be reported to OSHA within what time frame?
Within 8 hours
Type of leadership known as Top down leadership?
Autocratic
Balance sheet is made up off which three items?
Assets, Liabilities, and Owners Equity (all on a particular date)
An Income Statement shows?
Revenues and Expenses
Liabilities that may or may not be incurred by a facility depending on the outcome
of a future event?
Contingent Liabilities (ex. Court Case)
A fixed daily payment?
Per Diem
Residents funds in excess of what amount must be kept in an interest bearing
account?
Medicaid- $50; Medicare-$100
(Cash + Current Receivables) \/ Current Liabilities =
Acid Test Ratio
Current Assets \/ Current Liabilities
Current Ratio
Under double entry rules increases in assets and expenses are recorded as?
Debits
Under double entry rules decreases in assets and expenses are recorded as?
Credits
Under double entry rules increases in Liability, Revenue and Capital accounts are
recorded as?
Credits
Under double entry rules decreases in Liability, Revenue and Capital accounts
are recorded as?
Debits
Services which are not generally provided to most residents and which may be
separately billable?
Ancillary Services (ex. Labs, Radiology, Pharmacy Services, and Rehab Therapies)
Thresholds may not rise over?
1\/4 Inch<\/p>\n\n\n\n

NAB Exam- Everything that is needed
to know is here!!
A line authority position is characterized by – Answer Decision making vested in the
supervisor
An example of line authority is – Answer Administrator
Major schools of thought regarding source of authority are – Answer formal and
subordinate acceptance
The scope of authority in the operation of the nursing facility is greatest at which
level – Answer Ownership
Ultimate authority in a private corporate nursing facility is with the – Answer Board of
directors
Managerial authority is power – Answer to command, issue orders or exact action by
subordinates
Decentralized authority is characterized by – Answer process of delegating authority
Centralized authority is – Answer vesting decision making in top managment
Authority vested in a supervisory nurse is – Answer middle management authority
Decision making authority is when a supervisor – Answer hires, fires and makes
judgmental decisions
Concepts of modern management recommend that an effective administrator will
delegate – Answer operational authority
Unity of command refers to – Answer reporting to one supervisor
Which of the following forms of business is considered the oldest form of business –
Answer sole proprietorship
The term proprietorship as it relates to the nursing facility industry means – Answer
privately owned
The majority of nursing facility beds in the united states are owned by – Answer
corporations
Which of the following forms of ownership must have articles drawn up and reduced
to writing? – Answer corporation<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Under which form of ownership would the administrator have the greatest latitude of
authority and decision making? – Answer Sole proprietorship
All but one are considered advantages of sole proprietorship – Answer Unlimited
liability
All but one are considered disadvantages of a partnership – Answer Retention of
valuable employees
A corporation is – Answer a legal entity created by law to carry on a business or
profession
Which one of the following forms of business ownership is considered the most
important? – Answer Corporation
A nonprofit corporation is one which – Answer makes a profit but returns it to the
operation of business
Pursuant to the Code of Federal Regulations, 42 CFR part 483, a facility wishing to
participate in medicare must have – Answer a governing body
The role of the governing body pursuant to the Code of Federal Regulation 42 CFR
Part 483 is to – Answer establish and implement policies regarding management and
operation of the facility
The Code of Federal Regulations 42 CFR part 483 requires that the facility disclose –
Answer officers, directors, agents, or management employees
The role of the administrator in a modern nursing facility is to – Answer advise the
governing body and carry out their decisions
According to the Code of Federal Regulations 42 CFR Part 483 the administrator
appointed by the governing body must be – Answer licensed by the state and
responsible for the management of the facility
An objective may be defined as – Answer organizing
The first step in planning is – Answer setting the objectives of the organization
Effective management is best carried out by following which method? – Answer
management by objectives
Management by objectives involves – Answer plurality of objectives
Which of the following objectives would be considered first in establishing a new
nursing facility? – Answer Type of facility
An administrator of a proprietary nursing facility should be primarily concerned with
which one of the following objectives? – Answer Quality of care<\/p>\n\n\n\n

Which one of the functions of management would be accomplished first? – Answer
planning
Relative to setting objectives, which task listed below would be of primary
importance for the administrator to accomplish? – Answer constantly review and
reassess objectives of the nursing facility
Which one of the following statements is true? – Answer Every department in the
nursing facility should have goals or objectives
Since there is a plurality of objectives in a nursing facility, the facility should concern
itself with – Answer long and short term goals
Planning is primarily concerned with – Answer use of facts to determine course of
action for the future
Strategic planning – Answer helps the facility to re evaluate its mission and identify its
long term goals.
Planning on a broad scale is carried on primarily by a – Answer administrator
Planning involves all but one of the following – Answer personnel decisions
Which of the following is not a function of the administrator? – Answer ultimate
approval of all policies (governing board does that)
Planning at the top level of management is best characterized as – Answer broad,
far-reaching, and basic
In the process of planning, which guideline should be followed? – Answer involve as
many managers as possible
Considering the functions of management such as: directing, organizing,
coordination, controlling and planning, which of these functions would be first? –
Answer planning
The technique of forecasting is important in the modern nursing facility. The
accuracy of the administrator’s forecasts will affect the success of planning.
Forecasts are expected to be – Answer a reasonable estimate of what reality will be
in the future
In the process of planning, the administrator should – Answer constantly check,
recheck, and modify the plan if necessarry
A short range plan covers which time period? – Answer 1-2 years
A long range plan covers – Answer 3-5 years<\/p>\n\n\n\n

The function of management called organizing is best described as – Answer the
process of grouping various activities of a similar nature and establishing authority
relationships
At which operational level in a nursing facility does organizing take place? – Answer
at all dept levels within the organized structure
The mission statement of a nursing facility – Answer explains the goals and
objectives to the facility
Span on management is the – Answer number of employees a supervisor can
effectively handle
The schematic drawing representing the functional operation of a nursing facility
structure is called the – Answer organizational chart
Service departments of a nursing facility can best be described as – Answer
departments that facilitate, aid and assist other departments
An example of a service department in a nursing facility is the – Answer personnel
office
Line authority structure is best described as a situation in which – Answer a superior
delegates authority to a subordinate who, in turn, delegates his or her authority
forming a line from the top to the bottom level of the organization
A line authority position exists when the executive – Answer makes final decisions
regarding departmental functioning
An example of a line authority position in a nursing facility is the – Answer
administrator
An example of a staff authority position in a nursing facility is the – Answer
administrative assistant
The primary function of a staff authority position is – Answer aid, assist, and advise
the department heads
All but one of the following would be considered contractual services in a nursing
facility – Answer Nursing director
A standing committee is one which – Answer permanent in nature
A task force is another term used for – Answer ad hoc committee
A policy is a – Answer a broad guideline for thinking and setting boundaries
Who establishes policy in a nonprofit nursing facility corporation? – Answer Board of
directors<\/p>\n\n\n\n

NAB Core Practice Exam 110 Questions And Answers 2023<\/p>\n\n\n\n

    \n
  1. Which one of the following steps should be taken first in a risk management
    program?
    A. Purchasing of adequate insurance
    B. Conducting of employee safety drills
    C. Identifying hazards and risks
    D. Conducting staff in-services on incident reporting and accident prevention.
    C. Identifying hazards and risks<\/li>\n\n\n\n
  2. Which of the following professionals is authorized to dispense medications?
    A. registered nurse
    B. licensed nurse, physician and, in some states, medication aide.
    C. licensed nurse and physician
    D. pharmacist
    D. pharmacist<\/li>\n\n\n\n
  3. Aphasia occurs frequently as a result of:
    A. a stroke
    B. diabetes
    C. death of a spouse
    D. pressure ulcers
    A. a stroke<\/li>\n\n\n\n
  4. A check should generally be issued only when which one of the following is
    available and properly signed?
    A. purchase order
    B. lien
    C. warranty
    D. general ledger
    A. purchase order<\/li>\n\n\n\n
  5. Which class of fire extinguishers is appropriate for use on a grease fire?
    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D
    B. B<\/li>\n\n\n\n
  6. The age-related clouding of the lens of the eye is called:
    A. macular degeneration
    B. a cataract
    C. glaucoma
    D. conjunctivitis
    B. a cataract<\/li>\n\n\n\n
  7. In collective bargaining, when labor and management select a third party to
    decide an issue, and agree to accept that third party’s decision as final<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n

    andbinding on both sides, the process is called:
    A. mediation
    B. Arbitration
    C. conciliation
    D. subrogation
    B. Arbitration<\/p>\n\n\n\n

      \n
    1. Cultural diversity in an organization’s delivery of services would entail all
      EXCEPT which one of the following?
      A. Educating staff in the distinctive beliefs and values held by the various ethnic
      and racial groups being served.
      B. Using interpreters and in other ways trying to eliminate language barriers
      between staff and clients.
      C. Getting staff to identify how their own biases regarding people of other
      religious backgrounds may affect their care-giving.
      D. Offering customers of different ethnic and racial backgrounds the same food
      and beverages in order to foster a sense of community and equality.
      D. Offering customers of different ethnic and racial backgrounds the same food and
      beverages in order to foster a sense of community and equality.<\/li>\n\n\n\n
    2. Which of the following is part of the manager’s controlling function?
      A. Developing rules
      B. Writing job descriptions
      C. Disciplining staff who break rules.
      D. Doing a SWOT analysis.
      C. Disciplining staff who break rules.
      10 What was the quarterly turnover rate at an organization that had 18
      separations in the quarter, and that averaged 225 employees in the first month,
      220 employees in the second month, and 215 employees in the third month of the
      quarter?
      A. 8 percent
      B. 18 percent
      C. 92 percent
      D. 32 percent
      A. 8 percent<\/li>\n\n\n\n
    3. Which of the following is a chronic disease?
      A. pneumonia
      B. botulism
      C. Parkinson’s disease
      D. shingles<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n

      C. Parkinson’s disease<\/p>\n\n\n\n

        \n
      1. Spread of cancer cells from one part of the body to another is referred to as\u2026
        A. dysphagia
        C. myasthenia
        B. metastasis
        D. necrosis
        B. metastasis<\/li>\n\n\n\n
      2. An organization has $600,000 in assets and $500,000 in liabilities. Which of
        the following statements is best supported by this information?
        A. This organization is in financial trouble.
        B. This organization has $100,000 in cash on hand.
        C. This organization has enough revenue to cover expenses.
        D. Owners equity is $100,000.
        D. Owners equity is $100,000.<\/li>\n\n\n\n
      3. Which one of the following statements is true regarding reference checking
        and reference giving in the screening of job candidates?
        A. Reponses to reference checks must be factual and reflect only information
        contained in the written personnel records.
        B. Department managers have a duty to exercise their professional judgment in
        responding to requests for references on former employees.
        C. Checking candidate references and responding to reference requests is best
        done by department managers rather than the organization’s HR specialists.
        D. Checking references is a helpful but not a critical step in candidate screening.
        A. Reponses to reference checks must be factual and reflect only information contained
        in the written personnel records.<\/li>\n\n\n\n
      4. Advantages of the participatory method of budget making include all except
        which one of the following?
        A. Input into the budget by staff members who are knowledgeable about daily
        operations
        B. Low consumption of time and effort
        C. Greater awareness by department heads of the facility’s resource and the
        needs of other departments
        D. Greater willingness by department heads to comply with the budget
        B. Low consumption of time and effort<\/li>\n\n\n\n
      5. The type of therapeutic diet often prescribed for people with hypertension is
        <\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n

        NAB NHA Exam Question Bank |
        Complete Questions and Answers |
        Latest 2023\/2024 Graded A+<\/p>\n\n\n\n

        NAB NHA Exam Questions and Answers 2023
        the physical plant correct answerall designed, constructed, equipped, and maintained to protect health
        and safety of residents, personnel, public
        Life Safety Code (LSC) correct answerEntire construction plan and materials meet LSC standards|||CMS
        requires unless have waiver or exception. CMS grants waivers on SNFs; states on NFs
        (NFPA) correct answerNational Fire Protection Association ||established LSC
        Purpose of LSC correct answerto provide reasonable degree of safety from fire.
        Waivers for Life Safety Code correct answerIf CMS finds a state fire and safety code adequately protects
        residents and personnel thenLSC does not apply. OLder facilities may obtain a waiver if they are and
        have been in compliance with an older addition of LSC as specified by CMS.||Before a nursing home
        may be built it must present architectural plant to State Medicaid or designated agency that approves
        construction. All major renovations, such as additional beds, change in utilization of space, and so on
        must receive approval. The state provides guidelines on what must be a approved. Upkeep and repairs
        do not require prior approaval.
        Blue Prints correct answerkeep as-built plans available for surveyors who do LSC inspection as well as for
        repair persons who may need prints for big jobs.
        LSC and other standards correct answerBuilding and contact standards are set by LSC, CMS,
        ANSI\/ADAAG – (dependent on which the state chooses) and state and local codes. ||- for handicapped|-
        follow which on specific state requires (ANSI\/ADAAG)
        LSC and ANSI\/ADAAG correct answerLSC accepts both standards so they are essentially all LSC
        standards. Administrator does not need to know EVERY standard, but must keep a copy of the “LSC
        Handbook” as reference. The architect who designs the facility must know and incorporate all LSC and
        other standards, but it is advisable for the NHA to check his building to ensure compliance.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

        LSC, ANSI\/ADAAG, and CMS correct answer– building materials – fire-rate according to number of stories. 2 hour and 1 hour rating|<\/strong>– sprinklers – new buildings have automatically activated by
        smoke\/heat|- exits – no room more than 100 feet from exit. Lighted exit signs of specific size. |- walls
        extend continuously to roof deck of next floor. wall finish must meet flame-spread requirements ( have
        certificate of this)|- furnishings – curtains and carpet must meet fire rating|- rooms – CMS requirements<\/p>\n\n\n\n

          \n
        • 4 residents to room MAX. 80 sq ft\/resident (multi-resident room), 100 sq ft for single occupancy.
          requirement for rooms| correct answer- direct access to corridor|- outside window (CMS) or door
          (LSC)|- privacy|- furnishing| separate bed, proper size and height| bedding appropriate to climate|
          individual closet space| bedside table| comfortable chair| enough overbid tables to meet needs of
          rsidents|- toilets (CMS, ANSI, ADA)|- bathing facilities (CMS)|- resident call system (CMS, LSC) 24\/7 –
          back up system available|- temperature range (71-81 degree F) (three feet above floor), states set
          actual, A\/C not required
          Doors correct answerAll 44″ or more in new construction (41.5 opening)|outside doors open egress.|no
          locks on resident door except staff has key (LSC)||Bathroom door 32″ (ANSI\/ADAAG)||Fire Doors with
          automatic hold-open devices required in corridors||(over bed tables not required for patient)
          corridors correct answerno dead-ends (LSC)||8 feet wide (CMS)
          Floors correct answerat or above ground level. (LSC) |Fire rating if carpeted. (LSC)|Non-slip bath\/toilet
          (ANSI, LSC)|Asphalt tile best
          Fire alarms correct answerflashing and audible. |connect with local fire dept, if possible|must have
          NFPA 71 certification of fire alarm service|
          smoke detectors correct answerapproved detectors requried
          smoking correct answerwritten regulations, enforced. |smoking ares with non-combustible ashtrays,
          metal containers with self-closing lids.|Prohibited areas include resident rooms and beds, oxygen,
          flammable liquid storage.|proper signs posted.|supervise non-responsible.
          ANSI\/ADAAG(Americans with Disabilties Act Accessibility Guidelines) correct answerMake building
          available to and usable by physically handicapped, no mental (blind, deaf, non-ambulatory, semi-<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n

          ambulatory, uncoordinated). ADAAG = MAKE BUILDINGS AVAILABLE TO ADA’S. |State decides whether
          to apply ANSI or ADAAG standards to nursing homes
          accessible route correct answerno incline more than 10%
          Wheelchair passage correct answer32″ bathroom doors||36″ elsewhere
          parking correct answer13 FEET||cannot block sidewalk; alley for 2 cars.|The number of handicap
          parking places is determined from a grid issued by ANSI. It MUST BE NOTED THAT FOR EVERY EIGHT (8)
          HANDICAP PARKING SLOTS, ONE MUST BE VAN ACCESSIBLE.||If the facility only has one handicapped
          place, it must be van accessible.
          ramps correct answermaximum rise 30″. Slope not more than 1:10
          What items must be accessible to wheelchair residents?| correct answerWATER FOUNTAINS,
          telephones (non-Braille), light switches
          Toilets and handrails – height correct answertoilets (Also ADA for staff) seat **17″ to 19″ height;||hand
          rails\/grab bars 33″ to 36″. |5% or more meet standards as determined by state and CMS||(easier to
          replace with handicapped toilet)
          Handrails correct answeroutside ramp, stairwell, bathroom required by ANSI, and specific height.||CMS
          requires in corridors.||ADAAG specifies all 34″ to 38″ in public places. |On stairwell must be 32″ and
          MUST EXTEND 12″ beyond last step. (ANSI|
          Monitored correct answermonitored nationally the Office of Civil Rights monitors ANSI. States may
          assign to Fire Marshall, Medicaid Agency, other. |ADAAG is monitored by State Agency handling LSC and
          ANSI.
          Alarms correct answerflashing alarms for deaf, sound alarms for blind, tactile warnings for blind to
          identify danger areas.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

          NAB CORE Practice Exam With Complete Solutions.
          If a medical device malfunctions, the Occupational Safety and Health
          Administration (OSHA) requires the administrator to report the incident to the:<\/p>\n\n\n\n

            \n
          1. manufacturing producer
            2
            Emergency exits must have which of the following components?<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          2. Exit access (lit corridor), exit door (locked from inside or outside), and exit discharge
            (access to street or public way)<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          3. Exit sign (must be lit), exit access (corridor), and exit (must be double doors)<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          4. Exit sign, exit access (lit corridor), and exit door (locked from outside)<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          5. Exit access (lit corridor), exit (must be double doors), and exit discharge (three feet of
            clear sidewalk)
            1
            Which of the following Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
            violations is least likely to be associated with a fine?<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          6. Serious<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          7. Non-serious<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          8. De minimus<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          9. imminent danger
            3
            The administration of the budget by the administrator:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          10. requires intervention by the governing body<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          11. is more costly than by staff<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          12. is a controlling function<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          13. is also part of the planning
            1
            Healthcare organizations are in the business of marketing:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          14. assistance<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          15. compassion<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          16. wellness<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          17. services
            4
            A care recipient in a long-term care healthcare organization disagrees with
            management’s decision regarding an aspect of care. The care recipient feels that
            is could adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of care recipients.
            The individual or group most responsible for acknowledging, investing, and
            resolving the concern is the:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          18. ombudsman<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          19. social worker<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          20. care recipient council president<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          21. governing body
            2
            Stakeholders are defined as:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          22. any constituent group that has an interest in what outcomes the organization
            procedures<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          23. the individuals who have the most to lose financially if the organization closes<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          24. any group of investors who own stock in the organization<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          25. the staff, physicians, and local groups who want to see the organization succeed
            3
            The purpose of a corporate compliance plan is to:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          26. reduce fraud and abuse and to establish internal controls for responsible organization
            conduct<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          27. avoid charges of price-fixing and the violation of federal anti-kickback statutes<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          28. identify the corrective steps necessary for the removal of quality indicator flags from a
            healthcare organization’s profile<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          29. establish policies and procedures for conducting criminal background checks on all
            officers and directors
            1
            The primary benefits of management by walking around are:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          30. listening, teaching, and facilitating<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          31. evaluating, controlling, and planning<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          32. listening, planning, and organizing<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          33. directing, evaluating, and innovating
            3
            What function of the management process includes gathering information and
            input?<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          34. Directing<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          35. Decision-making<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          36. Controlling<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          37. Organizing
            4
            Management by walking around is an approach that allows the administrator to:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          38. see first-hand the needs of the care recipient<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          39. control the staff in order to minimize care recipient and family complaints<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          40. ensure the healthcare organization’s license is not in jeopardy due to regulatory
            compliance<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          41. innovate new approaches and physical plant improvements to enhance public
            relations
            1
            Bylaws are defined as:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          42. corporate duties delegated to the administrator<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          43. state laws establishing the healthcare organization’s scope of practice<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          44. adopted rules governing the internal affairs of an organization<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          45. the rules whereby a corporation is created under the laws of a state
            3
            Another term for articles of incorporation is:<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          46. charter<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          47. by-laws<\/li>\n\n\n\n
          48. constitution<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n

            NAB Exam Review – Finance\/HR\/Environment\/Regulatory
            Agencies\/Medical terms\/Staffing\/Labor laws\/etc.
            Which psychological factor is normally not a problem with the aging?
            Which psychological factors is normally a problem with the aging?
            Self-actualization.
            Paranoia, Depression, Feelings of worthlessness.
            Which statements concerning the needs of the elderly is true?
            Relationships are need to combat loneliness. The need for closeness is never lost by
            most of the elderly. Independence to do their “own thing” is very important
            To assure that the residents assessment is accurate and reflects the resident’s
            current status, the nursing facility must give each resident a physical
            examination as deemed appropriate, but no less than once every:
            Three Months
            Discharge planning for a resident should be initiated when the resident is:
            Admitted
            Which of the following would be most likely to increase the number of infections
            in a nursing facility? 1. Invasive Devices 2. Exposure to employees and visitors 3.
            Presence of multiple chronic diseases 4. Increase of incidents of immobility and
            incontinence<\/p>\n\n\n\n

              \n
            1. Exposure to employees and visitors
              Assume that 130 doses of medication were prescribed by the residents physician
              to be administered in a given time period. However, 2 doses ordered were not
              given and 3 doses were incorrectly administered as prescribed. What was the
              medication error rate? 1. 1.5 2. 2.3 3. 3.8 4. 5.0<\/li>\n\n\n\n
            2. 3.8%
              Under OBRA (F115), the term bedfast means that, except to be moved for
              treatment, a resident has been in bed all of the time during the past: 1. 24 hours 2.
              48 hours 3. 5 days 4. 7 days<\/li>\n\n\n\n
            3. 7 days
              The legal vehicles used to control nursing activities are termed:
              Nurse-practice acts
              After a comprehensive assessment has been made, comprehensive care plans
              must be completed within:
              7 days
              The social worker in a long-term care facility is primarily concerned with:
              Developing an in-depth relationship with the resident to maintain an accurate and
              current social record
              Resident councils allow:
              Residents a sense of some control over their lives and desires
              Procedures and directives concerning resident privacy and dignity would
              include:<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n

              The use of curtains around the bed. Knocking before entering the room. Remember that
              the residents beliefs or concepts of privacy and dignity may differ from that of the
              employee
              A legal document that specifies a person’s preference concerning life sustaining
              treatment is referred to as a:
              Living will
              A testator is one who:
              Dies leaving a living will
              When a resident is angry, it is best to:
              Let him\/her express the anger
              Name symptoms of diabetes:
              What is not a symptom of diabetes:
              Itching. Excessive thirst. Excessive sugar in the urine.
              Weight loss
              Food service is a major cost center and the dietary manager should submit
              weekly\/monthly reports to the administrator that include what:
              What do they not include:
              Total raw food costs. Number of meals served. Raw food cost per resident per day.
              Costs of meals not eaten.
              When developing a nutrition-risk protocol, the provider should:
              Include guidelines on weight-tracking and weight-loss interventions
              To clean utensils, a three-compartment sink is need to wash, rinse, and:
              Sanitize utensils
              The percentage of weight loss for a resident who previously weight 150 pounds
              and now weighs 142 pounds is:
              5.3%
              Solution: Original weight – Current weight = weight loss
              weight loss X 100 \/ Original weight = % of weight loss
              The dietary department is required to maintain various adaptive feeding
              equipment. However, the training needed for utilization of the equipment is
              usually provided by:
              Occupational Therapists
              Incontinence means:
              Involuntary passage of urine and\/or feces
              An oncologist is a specialist in the area of:
              Cancer and malignant diseases
              If an administrator becomes aware of a noticeable deterioration in a residents
              condition, the administrator’s most appropriate action would be to:
              Request the nurse to evaluate the resident’s overall condition and report it to the
              physician if necessary<\/p>\n\n\n\n

              According to OBRA regulations, the resident’s physician is required to visit the
              resident and conduct all of the following activities:
              Except:
              Sign and date all orders. write, sign, and date progress notes. Review all medication
              and treatment.
              Review all consultant reports
              If dental work is planned for a resident, the facility should be aware of the impact
              on any of the following except: 1. Artificial hips. 2. Heart Valve. 3.Kidney
              Conditions. 4. Knee Replacements<\/p>\n\n\n\n

                \n
              1. Kidney Conditions
                The sum of all activities which create the desired and needed changes in quality
                care is the definition of:
                Quality improvement
                Under the 1992 Final Rules, who determines if it is unsafe for a resident to selfadminister drugs?
                Interdisciplinary team
                Activities needs to:
                Activities needs not:
                Needs: Provide stimulation or solace. Promote physical, cognitive, and emotional
                health. Enhance the mental and physical status of the resident.
                Not: Involve useful service to the facility
                Resident activities should not be designed to emphasize:
                The finished product
                The policies and procedures for activity programs should also include:
                Volunteers
                In addition to their services to the residents in the facility, volunteers should be
                recognized for their:
                Strengthening of the bond between the facility and the community
                When only posters and mounted calendars are utilized for various programs, the
                major communication problem created is that:
                The signs cannot be seen by the non-ambulatory residents
                The evaluation of the activity program should be aimed at:
                Meeting the needs and desires of all residents
                Sometimes, when the staff thinks of medical records, only the resident’s chart is
                considered to be confidential. In reality there are other records that may also be
                considered confidential. Which of the following would not be considered
                confidential? 1. Audios 2. Videos 3. Computer information 4. Activity Attendance
                Records<\/li>\n\n\n\n
              2. Activity Attendance Records<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                NAB Exam(NAB NHA Examination)With CompleteSolutions 2023Gerontologists Categories – How is Young-Old Defined?65 to 74 years oldGerontologists Categories – How is Old-Old Defined?75 to 84 years oldGerontologists Categories – How is Oldest-Old Defined?Over 85 + years oldThe morning meal must be served within how many hours after the previousmeal?14 Hours, if the required evening snack is […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"site-sidebar-layout":"default","site-content-layout":"","ast-site-content-layout":"default","site-content-style":"default","site-sidebar-style":"default","ast-global-header-display":"","ast-banner-title-visibility":"","ast-main-header-display":"","ast-hfb-above-header-display":"","ast-hfb-below-header-display":"","ast-hfb-mobile-header-display":"","site-post-title":"","ast-breadcrumbs-content":"","ast-featured-img":"","footer-sml-layout":"","ast-disable-related-posts":"","theme-transparent-header-meta":"","adv-header-id-meta":"","stick-header-meta":"","header-above-stick-meta":"","header-main-stick-meta":"","header-below-stick-meta":"","astra-migrate-meta-layouts":"default","ast-page-background-enabled":"default","ast-page-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"ast-content-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"footnotes":""},"categories":[25],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-119522","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-exams-certification"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/119522","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=119522"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/119522\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=119522"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=119522"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=119522"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}