{"id":119669,"date":"2023-09-13T14:22:08","date_gmt":"2023-09-13T14:22:08","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/blog\/?p=119669"},"modified":"2023-09-13T14:22:11","modified_gmt":"2023-09-13T14:22:11","slug":"nurs-611-exam-12-3-and-4-patho-maryville-actual-exam-package-deal-complete-course-questions-and-correct-detailed-answers-with-rationalesalready-graded-a-maryville-university","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/2023\/09\/13\/nurs-611-exam-12-3-and-4-patho-maryville-actual-exam-package-deal-complete-course-questions-and-correct-detailed-answers-with-rationalesalready-graded-a-maryville-university\/","title":{"rendered":"NURS 611 EXAM 1,2, 3 AND 4 PATHO MARYVILLE ACTUAL EXAM PACKAGE DEAL (COMPLETE COURSE) QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+ (MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY)"},"content":{"rendered":"\n<p>1<br>NURS 611 EXAM 4 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM 2023-2024<br>COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED<br>ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+<br>(MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Exposure to which substance protects the mucosal barrier of the stomach?<br>a. Prostaglandins<br>b. Helicobacter pylori<br>c. Aspirin<br>d. Regurgitated bile<br>Prostaglandins. Prostaglandins and enterogastrones,such as gastric inhibitory<br>peptide, somatostatin, and secretin, inhibit acid secretion.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Glucose transport enhances the absorption of which electrolyte?<br>a. Sodium<br>b. Potassium<br>c. Phosphate<br>d. Chloride<br>Sodium. Sodium passes through the tight junctions and is actively transported<br>across cell membranes. Sodium and glucose share a common active transport<br>carrier (sodium-glucose ligand transporter 1 [SGLT1]).<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What isthe cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?<br>a. Excessive production of hydrochloric acid<br>b. Zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter<br>c. Presence of Helicobacter pylori in the esophagus<br>d. Reverse muscular peristalsis of the esophagus<br>Zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter. Normally, the resting<br>tone of the lower esophageal sphincter maintains a zone of high pressure that<br>prevents gastroesophageal reflux. In individuals who develop reflux esophagitis,<br>this pressure tends to be lower than normal from either transient relaxation or a<br>weakness of the sphincter.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>By what mechanism does intussusception cause an intestinal obstruction?<br>a. Telescoping of part of the intestine into anothersection of intestine,<br>usually causing strangulation of the blood supply<br>b. Twisting the intestine on its mesenteric pedicle, causing occlusion of the<br>blood supply<br>c. Loss of peristaltic motor activity in the intestine, causing an adynamic ileus<br>d. Forming fibrin and scar tissue that attach to the intestinal omentum,<br>causing obstruction<br>A. Intussusception is the telescoping of part of the intestine into another section<br>of intestine, usually causing strangulation of the blood supply.<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>2<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"5\">\n<li>What isthe most immediate result of a small intestinal obstruction?<br>a. Vomiting<br>b. Electrolyte imbalances<br>c. Dehydration<br>d. Distention<br>Distention begins almost immediately, as gases and fluids accumulate proximal<br>to the obstruction. Within 24 hours, up to 8 L of fluid and electrolytes<br>enters the lumen in the form of saliva, gastric juice, bile, pancreatic juice, and<br>intestinal secretions. Copious vomiting or sequestration of fluids in the<br>intestinal lumen preventstheir reabsorption and produces severe fluid and<br>electrolyte disturbances.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An intestinal obstruction at the pylorus or high in the small intestine causes metabolic<br>alkalosis by causing which outcome?<br>a. Gain of bicarbonate from pancreatic secretions that cannot be absorbed<br>b. Excessive loss of hydrogen ions normally absorbed from gastric juices<br>c. Excessive loss of potassium, promoting atony of the intestinal wall<br>d. Loss of bile acid secretions that cannot be absorbed<br>Excessive loss of hydrogen ions. If the obstruction is at the pylorus or high in the<br>small intestine, then metabolic alkalosis initially develops as a result of<br>excessive loss of hydrogen ionsthat normally would be reabsorbed from the<br>gastric juices.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What are the cardinal symptoms ofsmall intestinal obstruction?<br>a. Constant, dull pain in the lower abdomen relieved by defecation<br>b. Acute, intermittent pain 30 minutesto 2 hours after eating<br>c. Colicky pain caused by distention, followed by vomiting<br>d. Excruciating pain in the hypogastric area caused by ischemia<br>Colicky pain caused by distention followed by vomiting.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What is the primary cause of peptic ulcers?<br>a. Hypersecretion of gastric acid<br>b. Helicobacter pylori<br>c. Hyposecretion of pepsin<br>d. Escherichia coli<br>Helicobacter pylori.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following areas except the:<br>a. Stomach<br>b. Jejunum<br>c. Duodenum<br>d. Esophagus<br>Jejunum<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>3<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"10\">\n<li>After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestationsthat include increased<br>pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of which<br>mechanism?<br>a. Anaphylactic reaction in which chemical mediators, such as histamine,<br>prostaglandins, and leukotrienes, relax vascularsmooth muscles, causing<br>shock.<br>b. Postoperative hemorrhage during which a large volume of blood is lost,<br>causing hypotension with compensatory tachycardia.<br>c. Concentrated bolusthat moves from the stomach into the small intestine,<br>causing hyperglycemia and resulting in polyuria and eventually<br>hypovolemic shock.<br>d. Rapid gastric emptying and the creation of a high osmotic gradient in the<br>small intestine, causing a sudden shift of fluid from the blood vessels to<br>the intestinal lumen.<br>D. Dumping syndrome occurs with varying severity in 5% to 10% of individuals<br>who have undergone partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty. Rapid gastric<br>emptying and the creation of a high osmotic gradient in the small intestine cause a<br>sudden shift of fluid from the vascular compartment to the intestinal<br>lumen. Plasma volume decreases, causing vasomotor responses, such as<br>increased pulse rate, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness.<br>Rapid distention of the intestine produces a feeling of epigastric fullness,<br>cramping, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which statement is consistent with dumping syndrome?<br>a. Dumping syndrome usually responds well to dietary management.<br>b. It occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating.<br>c. Constipation is often a result of the dumping syndrome.<br>d. It can result in alkaline reflux gastritis.<br>Usually responds well to dietary management.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which statement is false regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to<br>hepatic encephalopathy?<br>a. End products of intestinal protein digestion are sources of increased<br>ammonia.<br>b. Digested blood leaking from ruptured varices is a source of increased<br>ammonia.<br>c. Accumulation ofshort-chain fatty acidsthat is attached to ammonia is a<br>source of increased ammonia.<br>d. Ammonia-forming bacteria in the colon are sources of increased<br>ammonia.<br>The accumulation of short-chain fatty acids, serotonin, tryptophan, and false<br>neurotransmitters probably contributesto neural derangement and is not<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>1<br>NURS 611 EXAM 3 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM 2023-2024 COMPLETE 100<br>QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH<br>RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+ (MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?<br>a. Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss<br>b. Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin<br>c. Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia<br>d. Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy<br>The lower levels of thyroid hormone result in decreased energy metabolism, resulting<br>in constipation, bradycardia, and lethargy, thus eliminating the remaining options.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is<br>inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of:<br>a. Positive feedback<br>b. Neural regulation<br>c. Negative feedback<br>d. Physiologic regulation<br>Negative feedback. Feedback systems provide precise monitoring and control of the<br>cellular environment. Negative feedback occurs because the changing chemical, neural,<br>or endocrine response to a stimulus negates the initiating change that triggered the<br>release of the hormone. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus<br>stimulates TSH secretion from the anterior pituitary. Secretion of TSH stimulates the<br>synthesis and secretion of THs. Increasing levels of T4 and triiodothyronine (T3) then<br>generate negative feedback on the pituitary and hypothalamus to inhibit TRH and TSH<br>synthesis.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located:<br>a. Inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm<br>b. On the outer surface of the plasma membrane<br>c. Inside the mitochondria<br>d. On the inner surface of the plasma membrane<br>Inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm. Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are<br>located inside the plasma membrane and easily diffuse across the plasma membrane to<br>bind to either cytosolic or nuclear receptors.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamustravel to the anterior<br>pituitary via the:<br>a. Vessels of the zona fasciculata<br>b. Hypophysealstalk<br>c. Infundibular stem<br>d. Portal hypophyseal blood vessels<br>Portal hypophyseal blood vessels. Releasing and inhibitory hormones are synthesized in<br>the hypothalamus and are secreted into the portal blood vessels through which they<br>travel to the anterior pituitary hormones.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which mineral is needed for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to stimulate the<br>secretion of thyroid hormone (TH)?<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>2<br>a. Iron<br>b. Iodide<br>c. Zinc<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>3<br>d. Copper<br>Iodide. TSH, which is synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary, stimulates<br>secretion of TH by activating intracellular processes, including the uptake of iodine<br>necessary for the synthesis of TH.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"6\">\n<li>What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?<br>a. Increases serum calcium<br>b. Decreases serum magnesium<br>c. Decreases serum calcium<br>d. Increases serum magnesium<br>Decreases serum calcium. Hyperphosphatemia leadsto hypocalcemia. Remember that<br>phos and calcium are inversely related.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?<br>a. Potassium<br>b. Sodium<br>c. Calcium<br>d. Phosphorus<br>Potassium. Insulin facilitatesthe intracellular transport of potassium, phosphate, and<br>magnesium.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a \u03b2-adrenergic<br>receptor?<br>a. Calcium<br>b. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)<br>c. Diacylglycerol (DAG)<br>d. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)<br>Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). Second-messenger molecules are the initial<br>link between the first signal (hormone) and the inside of the cell. For example, the<br>binding of epinephrine to a \u03b2 adrenergic\u2013receptor subtype activates (through a<br>stimulatory G protein) the enzyme, adenylyl cyclase. Adenylyl cyclase catalyzes the<br>conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to the second messenger, 3&#8242;, and 5&#8242;-cAMP.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Regulation of the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla is an example of<br>which type of regulation?<br>a. Negative feedback<br>b. Neural<br>c. Positive feedback<br>d. Physiologic<br>Neural. The release of hormones occurs either in response to an alteration in the cellular<br>environment or in the process of maintaining a regulated level of certain hormones or certain<br>substances. Several different mechanisms, one of which is neural control (e.g., stress-induced<br>release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla), regulate the release of hormones.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which hormone doesthe second messenger calcium (Ca++) bind to activate<br>phospholipase C through a G protein?<br>a. Angiotensin II<br>b. Estrogen<br>c. Thyroxine<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>4<br>d. Testosterone<br>Angiotensin II. Ca++ is considered an important second messenger that facilitates the<br>binding of a hormone (e.g., norepinephrine, angiotensin II) to a surface receptor,<br>activating the enzyme phospholipase C through a G protein inside the plasma<br>membrane.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"11\">\n<li>The control of calcium in cells is important because it:<br>a. Is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.<br>b. Is continuously synthesized.<br>c. Acts as a second messenger.<br>d. Carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.<br>Acts as a second messenger. In addition to being an important ion that participates in a<br>multitude of cellular actions, Ca++ is considered an important second messenger.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) synthesized, and where does it act?<br>a. Hypothalamus; renal tubular cells<br>b. Anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary<br>c. Renal tubules; renal collecting ducts<br>d. Posterior pituitary; loop of Henle<br>Hypothalamus; renal tubular cells. Once synthesized in the hypothalamus, ADH acts on<br>the vasopressin 2 (V2) receptors of the renal duct cells to increase their permeability.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>How does a faulty negative-feedback mechanism result in a hormonal imbalance?<br>a. Hormones are not synthesized in response to cellular and tissue activities.<br>b. Decreased hormonal secretion is a response to rising hormone levels.<br>c. Too little hormone production isinitiated.<br>d. Excessive hormone production results from a failure to turn of the system.<br>Excessive hormone production results from a failure to turn off the system. Negativefeedback systems are important in maintaining hormones within physiologic ranges. The<br>lack of negative-feedback inhibition on hormonal release often results in pathologic<br>conditions. Excessive hormone production, which is the result of the failure to turn of<br>the system, can cause various hormonal imbalances and related conditions.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A deficiency of which chemical may result in hypothyroidism?<br>a. Iron<br>b. Zinc<br>c. Iodine<br>d. Magnesium<br>Zinc. The only cause of hypothyroidism from among the provided options is a deficiency<br>of endemic iodine.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What imbalance lessensthe rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone<br>a. Increased serum calcium levels<br>b. Decreased serum magnesium levels<br>c. Decreased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone<br>d. Increased levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone<br>The overall effect of parathyroid hormone (PTH)isto increase serum calcium and to<br>decrease serum phosphate concentration.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which condition may result from pressure exerted by a pituitary tumor?<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>NURS 611 EXAM 2 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM 2023-2024 COMPLETE 100<br>QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH<br>RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+ (MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Review: the parasympathetic system is all about what?<br>Conserving energy, digesting, metabolism, and rest<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The sympathetic nervoussystem primarily servesto protect an individual by doing which<br>of the following? (select all that apply)<br>A. Decreasing mucous production<br>B. Increasing blood sugar levels<br>C. Increasing body temperature<br>D. Decreasing sweat excretion<br>E. Increasing blood pressure<br>Increases blood sugar levels, increases body temperature, and increases blood pressure<br>In general, sympathetic stimulation promotes responses that are concerned with the<br>protection of the individual, which include increasing glucose, body temp, and BP.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Review: the sympathetic system is all about what?<br>It\u2019s all about mobilizing energy stores, for instance glucose to muscles, decreased<br>release of insulin, redirects blood supply from the gut to the muscles, heart, and lungs.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which characteristic isthe most critical index of nervoussystem dysfunction?<br>Level of consciousness<br>LOC is the most critical clinical index of nervous system function or dysfunction. An<br>alteration in consciousnessindicates either improvement or deterioration of a person\u2019s<br>condition.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?<br>Prefrontal lobe<br>The prefrontal area is responsible for goal-oriented behavior such as the ability to<br>concentrate,short-term or recall memory, and the elaboration of thought and inhibition<br>on the limbic (emotional) areas of the CNS.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Where isthe region responsible for the motor aspects?<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>Broca area in the frontal lobe<br>Broca speech area is the only region responsible for the motor aspects of speech.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"7\">\n<li>Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which area of the<br>brain?<br>Basal ganglia<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation of behavioral<br>patterns are main functions of which area of the brain?<br>Hypothalamus<br>Hypothalamic function falls into 2 major areas: 1) maintenance of a constant internal<br>environment, and 2) implementation of behavioral patterns.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional and behavioral<br>states?<br>Limbic system and prefrontal cortex<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations,sneezing,<br>swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the brain?<br>Medulla oblongata<br>The medulla oblongata makes up the myelencephalon and isthe lowest portion of the<br>brainstem.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for conscious and unconscious<br>muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture?<br>Cerebellum<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The brain receives approximately what percentage of the cardiac output?<br>20% or 800 to 1000 ml of blood flow per minute<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What evidence does the nurse expect to see when a patient experiences trauma to the<br>hypothalamus? (select all that apply)<br>A. Uneven expression of mood<br>B. Unstable blood glucose levels<br>C. Poor regulation of body temperature<br>D. Visual disturbances such as blurred vision<br>E. N\/V and symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease<br>Uneven expression of mood, unstable blood glucose levels, and poor temp regulation<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>NURS 611 EXAM 1 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM 2023-<br>2024 COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND<br>CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH<br>RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+<br>(MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>It is true that a eukaryotic cell:<br>\u25cb Is smaller than a prokaryotic cell.<br>\u25cb Contains structures called organelles.<br>\u25cb Lacks a well-defined nucleus.<br>\u25cb Does not contain histones.<br>Eukaryotes are large, have membrane-bound intracellular compartments called organelles, has<br>a well defined nucleus, and have histones.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The function of a histone found in a eukaryote cell focuses on cellular:<br>\u25cb Division<br>\u25cb Movement<br>\u25cb Activities<br>\u25cb Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) folding<br>These proteins bind DNA and are involved in supercoiling of DNA.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An organelle that is responsible for the metabolism of cellular energy is referred to as<br>a\/an:<br>\u25cb Golgi complex<br>\u25cb Mitochondrion<br>\u25cb Endoplasmic reticulum<br>\u25cb Nucleolus<br>Organelle found in large numbers and is responsible for cellular respiration and energy<br>production. Mitochondria contain their own DNA that codes for enzymes needed for oxidative<br>phosphorylation.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which statement best describes a desmosome?<br>\u25cb A desmosome is a barrier to diffusion.<br>\u25cb Desmosomes hold cells together by continuous bands.<br>\u25cb A desmosome is a communicating tunnel.<br>\u25cb Desmosomes function as a zona occludens.<br>Desmosomes hold cells together by forming either continuous bands or belts of epithelial sheets<br>or button-like points of contact. Desmosomes also act as a system of braces to maintain<br>structural stability.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which statement describes the function of a second messenger?<br>\u25cb Extracellular ligand that binds with membrane-bound receptors<br>\u25cb Intracellular enzyme that once will trigger a cascade of intracellular events<br>\u25cb Chemical messenger that opens specific channels in the cell membrane<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>\u25cb Chemical messenger that blocks a membrane-bound receptor signal<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>NURS 611 EXAM 1 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM AND<br>TEST BANK 2023-2024 COMPLETE 400<br>QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED<br>ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY<br>GRADED A+ (MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY)<br>NURS 611 EXAM 1 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>It is true that a eukaryotic cell:<br>\u25cb Is smaller than a prokaryotic cell.<br>\u25cb Contains structures called organelles.<br>\u25cb Lacks a well-defined nucleus.<br>\u25cb Does not contain histones.<br>Eukaryotes are large, have membrane-bound intracellular compartments called organelles, has<br>a well defined nucleus, and have histones.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>The function of a histone found in a eukaryote cell focuses on cellular:<br>\u25cb Division<br>\u25cb Movement<br>\u25cb Activities<br>\u25cb Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) folding<br>These proteins bind DNA and are involved in supercoiling of DNA.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An organelle that is responsible for the metabolism of cellular energy is referred to as<br>a\/an:<br>\u25cb Golgi complex<br>\u25cb Mitochondrion<br>\u25cb Endoplasmic reticulum<br>\u25cb Nucleolus<br>Organelle found in large numbers and is responsible for cellular respiration and energy<br>production. Mitochondria contain their own DNA that codes for enzymes needed for oxidative<br>phosphorylation.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which statement best describes a desmosome?<br>\u25cb A desmosome is a barrier to diffusion.<br>\u25cb Desmosomes hold cells together by continuous bands.<br>\u25cb A desmosome is a communicating tunnel.<br>\u25cb Desmosomes function as a zona occludens.<br>Desmosomes hold cells together by forming either continuous bands or belts of epithelial sheets<br>or button-like points of contact. Desmosomes also act as a system of braces to maintain<br>structural stability.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which statement describes the function of a second messenger?<br>\u25cb Extracellular ligand that binds with membrane-bound receptors<br>\u25cb Intracellular enzyme that once will trigger a cascade of intracellular events<br>\u25cb Chemical messenger that opens specific channels in the cell membrane<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>\u25cb Chemical messenger that blocks a membrane-bound receptor signal<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Transferring signal to an intracellular messenger, which in turn triggers a cascade of<br>biochemical events within the cell. Second messengers are generated in large numbers when<br>the membrane-bound enzyme is activated, and they then rapidly diffuse away from their source,<br>broadcasting the signal throughout the cell.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"6\">\n<li>Which statement is correct regarding cellular energy?<br>\u25cb Glycolysis is the building of sugar molecules.<br>\u25cb Oxidative cellular metabolism is a single reaction making adenosine triphosphate<br>(ATP).<br>\u25cb Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria.<br>\u25cb Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the presence of oxygen.<br>Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria and is the mechanism by which the<br>energy produced from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is transferred to ATP.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Movement of a solute molecule from an area of high concentration to an area of low<br>concentration is called:<br>\u25cb Diffusion<br>\u25cb Filtration<br>\u25cb Osmosis<br>\u25cb Hydrostatic pressure<br>Diffusion is the movement of a solute molecule from an area of greater solute concentration to<br>an area of lesser solute concentration. Filtration is the movement of water and solutes through<br>a membrane because of a greater pushing pressure on one side of the membrane than on the<br>other side. Hydrostatic pressure is the mechanical force of water against cellular membranes.<br>Osmosis is the movement of water \u201cdown\u201d a concentration gradient, across a semipermeable<br>membrane from a region of higher water concentration to a region of lower water concentration.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following is an example of an energy-releasing process?<br>\u25cb Anabolism<br>\u25cb Catabolism<br>\u25cb Substrate-induced reaction<br>\u25cb Second messenger system<br>Catabolism is the energy-releasing process of cellular metabolism. Anabolism is the energyusing process of cellular metabolism.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which of the following describes the term chemotaxis?<br>\u25cb Uses the second messenger system<br>\u25cb Cellular signal affecting the cell of origin<br>\u25cb Movement of cells along a chemical gradient<br>\u25cb Ligands bind with receptors, triggering a second reaction<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>NURS 611 EXAM 2 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK 2023-<br>2024 COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED<br>ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+<br>(MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY)<br>Where is the region responsible for the motor aspects?Broca area in the<br>frontal lobe. &#8211; ANSWER- Broca speech area is the only region<br>responsible for the motor aspects of speech.<br>Parkinson and Huntington diseases are associated with defects in which<br>area of the brain? &#8211; ANSWER- Basal ganglia<br>Maintenance of a constant internal environment and the implementation<br>of behavioral patterns are main functions of which area of the brain? &#8211;<br>ANSWER- Hypothalamus. Hypothalamic function falls into 2 major<br>areas: 1) maintenance of a constant internal environment, and 2)<br>implementation of behavioral patterns.<br>What parts of the brain mediate the expression of affect, both emotional<br>and behavioral states? &#8211; ANSWER- Limbic system and prefrontal cortex<br>Reflex activities concerned with heart rate, blood pressure, respirations,<br>sneezing, swallowing, and coughing are controlled by which area of the<br>brain? &#8211; ANSWER- Medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata makes<br>up the myelencephalon and is the lowest portion of the brainstem.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Which area of the brain assumes the responsibility for conscious and<br>unconscious muscle synergy and for maintaining balance and posture? &#8211;<br>ANSWER- Cerebellum<br>The brain receives approximately what percentage of the cardiac output?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ul class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>ANSWER- 20% or 800 to 1000 ml of blood flow per minute<br>What evidence does the nurse expect to see when a patient experiences<br>trauma to the hypothalamus? (select all that apply) A. Uneven<br>expression of mood B. Unstable blood glucose levels C. Poor regulation<br>of body temperature D. Visual disturbances such as blurred vision E.<br>N\/V and symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease &#8211; ANSWERUneven expression of mood, unstable blood glucose levels, and poor<br>temp regulation. The hypothalamus forms the base of the diencephalon.<br>Hypothalamic function controls autonomic nervous system function,<br>regulation of body temp, endocrine function (glucose levels), and<br>regulation of emotional expression.<br>What is the first defense of our bodies? &#8211; ANSWER- Skin and mucous<br>membranes<br>Which action is the purpose of the inflammatory process? &#8211; ANSWERTo prevent infection of the injured tissue. If the epithelial barrier is<br>damaged, then a highly efficient local and system response<br>(inflammation) is mobilized to limit the extent of damage, to protect<br>against infection, and to initiate the repair of damaged tissue.<\/li>\n<\/ul>\n\n\n\n<p>What are the 4 cardinal signs of infection? &#8211; ANSWER- Edema (tumor),<br>warmth (calor), redness (rubor), and pain (dolar). There is a 5th sign<br>known as loss of function (functio laesa) but Dr. Wunderlich did not<br>mention this.<br>Which type of white blood cell is first to arrive at the site of infection? &#8211;<br>ANSWER- Leukocytes<br>Parasympathetic nervous system &#8211; ANSWER- Body system responsible<br>for conserving energy and body resources<br>Sympathetic nervous system (SNS) &#8211; ANSWER- Body system that<br>responds to stress by preparing the body to defend itself<br>how is blood flow redistributed by the sympathetic nervous system<br>(SNS) &#8211; ANSWER- blood flow to the muscles is increased while blood<br>flow to GI and integumentary is decreased<br>how are primary brain injuries classified &#8211; ANSWER- Focal or diffuse<br>(aka multifocal)<br>focal brain injuries &#8211; ANSWER- specific, grossly observable brain<br>lesions that occur in a precise location<br>Epidural and subdural hemorrhages<br>diffuse brain injuries &#8211; ANSWER- include brain injury due to hypoxia,<br>meningitis, encephalitis, and damage to blood vessels<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The brain is confined in a limited space so increased pressure can cause<br>collateral dysfunction: Diabetes Insipidus (ADH not secreted thus<br>polyuria)<br>autonomic hyperreflexia &#8211; ANSWER- affected at the t5-t6 level or<br>above; characterized by paroxysmal HTN (up to 300 mmHg systolic), a<br>pounding headache, blurred vision, sweating above the level of the<br>lesion with flushing of the skin, nasal congestion, nausea, piloerection<br>caused by pilomotor spasm, and bradycardia (30-40 beats\/min)<br>location of lesions in cases of autonomic hyperreflexia &#8211; ANSWERindividual most likely to be affected have lesions at the T5-T6 level or<br>above<br>sequence of events that lead to hyperreflexia induced bradycardia &#8211;<br>ANSWER- bradycardia (30-40bpm) is a sx of hyperreflexia<br>Stimulation of the carotid sinus &#8211;>vagus nerve &#8211;>sinoatrial (SA) node.<br>The intact ANS reflexively responds with an arteriolar spasm that<br>increases blood pressure. Baroreceptors in the cerebral vessels, the<br>carotid sinus, and the aorta sense the HTN and stimulate the PNS. The<br>heart rate decreases, but the visceral and peripheral vessels do not dilate<br>because efferent impulses cannot pass through the cord<br>Alzheimer&#8217;s disease &#8211; ANSWER- leading cause of dementia and one of<br>the most common causes of severe cognitive dysfunction in older adults<br>what are the greatest risk factors for Alzheimer&#8217;s disease &#8211; ANSWERage, family history<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>NURS 611 EXAM 3 PATHO 2 LATEST VERSIONS ACTUAL<br>EXAM TEST BANK 2023-2024 COMPLETE 250 QUESTIONS<br>AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH<br>RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+ (MARYVILLE<br>UNIVERSITY)<br>VERSION A<br>when insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by<br>the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a<br>hormone?<br>a.Pharmacologic<br>c.Synergistic<br>b.Permissive<br>d.Direct &#8211; ANSWER- D<br>Rationale: Direct effects are the obvious changes in cell function that specifically<br>result from the stimulation by a particular hormone. The other options are not used<br>to identify the described effect.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"8\">\n<li>Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone<br>(TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example<br>of:<br>a.Positive feedback<br>b.Negative feedback<br>c.Neural regulation<br>d.Physiologic regulation &#8211; ANSWER- B<br>Rationale: Feedback systems provide precise monitoring and control of the<br>cellular environment. Negative feedback occurs because the changing chemical,<br>neural, or endocrine response to a stimulus negates the initiating change that<br>triggered the release of the hormone. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>the hypothalamus stimulates TSH secretion from the anterior pituitary. Secretion of<br>TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of THs. Increasing levels of T4 and<br>triiodothyronine (T3) then generate negative feedback on the pituitary and<br>hypothalamus to inhibit TRH and TSH synthesis. The described example is not<br>accurately identified by any of the other options.<br>Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located:<br>a.Inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm<br>b.On the outer surface of the plasma membrane<br>c.Inside the mitochondria<br>d.On the inner surface of the plasma membrane &#8211; ANSWER- A<br>Rationale: Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located inside the plasma<br>membrane and easily diffuse across the plasma membrane to bind to either<br>cytosolic or nuclear receptors. The other options are not true statements.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"10\">\n<li>Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a \u03b2adrenergic receptor?<br>a.Calcium<br>b.Inositol triphosphate (IP3)<br>c.Diacylglycerol (DAG)<br>d.Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) &#8211; ANSWER- D<br>Rationale: Second-messenger molecules are the initial link between the first signal<br>(hormone) and the inside of the cell (see Table 21-3). For example, the binding of<br>epinephrine to a \u03b2 adrenergic-receptor subtype activates (through a stimulatory G<br>protein) the enzyme, adenylyl cyclase. Adenylyl cyclase catalyzes the conversion<br>of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to the second messenger, 3&#8242;, and 5&#8242;-cAMP. The<br>remaining messengers are not stimulated by epinephrine to bind as described.<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>Which hormone does the second messenger calcium (Ca++) bind to activate<br>phospholipase C through a G protein?<br>a.<br>Angiotensin II<br>c.<br>Estrogen<br>b.<br>Thyroxine<br>d.<br>Testosterone &#8211; ANSWER- A<br>Rationale: Ca++ is considered an important second messenger that facilitates the<br>binding of a hormone (e.g., norepinephrine, angiotensin II) to a surface receptor,<br>activating the enzyme phospholipase C through a G protein inside the plasma<br>membrane. None of the other options acts on its target cell via a second messenger.<br>The control of calcium in cells is important because it:<br>a.<br>Is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.<br>b.<br>Is continuously synthesized.<br>c.<br>Acts as a second messenger.<br>d.<br>Carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream. &#8211; ANSWER- C<br>Rationale: In addition to being an important ion that participates in a multitude of<br>cellular actions, Ca++ is considered an important second messenger. The other<br>options are not true statements related to the control of calcium within the cells.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is:<br>a.<br>Posterior<br>c.<br>Anterior<br>b.<br>Inferior<br>d.<br>Superior &#8211; ANSWER- A<br>Rationale: Only the posterior pituitary secretes oxytocin.<br>Antidiuretic hormone acts to cause vasoconstriction when:<br>a.<br>Urine output is less than 20 ml\/hr.<br>b.<br>Serum osmolality is increased.<br>c.<br>Osmotic and oncotic pressures are increased.<br>d.<br>Vasopressin is pharmacologically administered. &#8211; ANSWER- D<br>Rationale: ADH was originally named vasopressin because, in extremely high<br>doses, it causes vasoconstriction and a resulting increase in arterial blood pressure.<br>However, significant vasoconstriction may only be achieved pharmacologically.<br>Antidiuretic hormone induced vasoconstriction is not a result of the other options.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>1<br>NURS 611 EXAM 4 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM AND REAL EXAM<br>TEST BANK 2023-2024 COMPLETE 300 QUESTIONS AND<br>CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH<br>RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+ (MARYVILLE<br>UNIVERSITY)<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Exposure to which substance protectsthe mucosal barrier of the stomach?<br>a. Prostaglandins<br>b. Helicobacter pylori<br>c. Aspirin<br>d. Regurgitated bile<br>Prostaglandins. Prostaglandins and enterogastrones,such as gastric inhibitory<br>peptide, somatostatin, and secretin, inhibit acid secretion.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Glucose transport enhancesthe absorption of which electrolyte?<br>a. Sodium<br>b. Potassium<br>c. Phosphate<br>d. Chloride<br>Sodium. Sodium passes through the tight junctions and is actively transported<br>across cell membranes. Sodium and glucose share a common active transport<br>carrier (sodium-glucose ligand transporter 1 [SGLT1]).<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What isthe cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease?<br>a. Excessive production of hydrochloric acid<br>b. Zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter<br>c. Presence of Helicobacter pylori in the esophagus<br>d. Reverse muscular peristalsis of the esophagus<br>Zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter. Normally, the resting<br>tone of the lower esophageal sphincter maintains a zone of high pressure that<br>prevents gastroesophageal reflux. In individuals who develop reflux esophagitis,<br>this pressure tendsto be lower than normal from either transient relaxation or a<br>weakness of the sphincter.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>By what mechanism doesintussusception cause an intestinal obstruction?<br>a. Telescoping of part of the intestine into anothersection of intestine,<br>usually causing strangulation of the blood supply<br>b. Twisting the intestine on its mesenteric pedicle, causing occlusion of the<br>blood supply<br>c. Loss of peristaltic motor activity in the intestine, causing an adynamic ileus<br>d. Forming fibrin and scartissue that attach to the intestinal omentum,<br>causing obstruction<br>A. Intussusception is the telescoping of part of the intestine into another section<br>of intestine, usually causing strangulation of the blood supply.<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>2<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"5\">\n<li>What isthe most immediate result of a small intestinal obstruction?<br>a. Vomiting<br>b. Electrolyte imbalances<br>c. Dehydration<br>d. Distention<br>Distention begins almost immediately, as gases and fluids accumulate proximal<br>to the obstruction. Within 24 hours, up to 8 L of fluid and electrolytes<br>enters the lumen in the form of saliva, gastric juice, bile, pancreatic juice, and<br>intestinal secretions. Copious vomiting or sequestration of fluids in the<br>intestinal lumen preventstheir reabsorption and producessevere fluid and<br>electrolyte disturbances.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>An intestinal obstruction at the pylorus or high in the small intestine causes metabolic<br>alkalosis by causing which outcome?<br>a. Gain of bicarbonate from pancreatic secretionsthat cannot be absorbed<br>b. Excessive loss of hydrogen ions normally absorbed from gastric juices<br>c. Excessive loss of potassium, promoting atony of the intestinal wall<br>d. Loss of bile acid secretions that cannot be absorbed<br>Excessive loss of hydrogen ions. If the obstruction is at the pylorus or high in the<br>small intestine, then metabolic alkalosisinitially develops as a result of<br>excessive loss of hydrogen ionsthat normally would be reabsorbed from the<br>gastric juices.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What are the cardinalsymptoms ofsmall intestinal obstruction?<br>a. Constant, dull pain in the lower abdomen relieved by defecation<br>b. Acute, intermittent pain 30 minutesto 2 hours after eating<br>c. Colicky pain caused by distention, followed by vomiting<br>d. Excruciating pain in the hypogastric area caused by ischemia<br>Colicky pain caused by distention followed by vomiting.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>What isthe primary cause of peptic ulcers?<br>a. Hypersecretion of gastric acid<br>b. Helicobacter pylori<br>c. Hyposecretion of pepsin<br>d. Escherichia coli<br>Helicobacter pylori.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following areas except the:<br>a. Stomach<br>b. Jejunum<br>c. Duodenum<br>d. Esophagus<br>Jejunum<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>3<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"10\">\n<li>After a partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty, clinical manifestationsthat include increased<br>pulse, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness are the results of which<br>mechanism?<br>a. Anaphylactic reaction in which chemical mediators, such as histamine,<br>prostaglandins, and leukotrienes, relax vascularsmooth muscles, causing<br>shock.<br>b. Postoperative hemorrhage during which a large volume of blood is lost,<br>causing hypotension with compensatory tachycardia.<br>c. Concentrated bolusthat movesfrom the stomach into the small intestine,<br>causing hyperglycemia and resulting in polyuria and eventually<br>hypovolemic shock.<br>d. Rapid gastric emptying and the creation of a high osmotic gradient in the<br>small intestine, causing a sudden shift of fluid from the blood vessels to<br>the intestinal lumen.<br>D. Dumping syndrome occurs with varying severity in 5% to 10% of individuals<br>who have undergone partial gastrectomy or pyloroplasty. Rapid gastric<br>emptying and the creation of a high osmotic gradient in the small intestine cause a<br>sudden shift of fluid from the vascular compartment to the intestinal<br>lumen. Plasma volume decreases, causing vasomotor responses, such as<br>increased pulse rate, hypotension, weakness, pallor, sweating, and dizziness.<br>Rapid distention of the intestine produces a feeling of epigastric fullness,<br>cramping, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which statement is consistent with dumping syndrome?<br>a. Dumping syndrome usually responds well to dietary management.<br>b. It occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating.<br>c. Constipation is often a result of the dumping syndrome.<br>d. It can result in alkaline reflux gastritis.<br>Usually responds well to dietary management.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which statement isfalse regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to<br>hepatic encephalopathy?<br>a. End products of intestinal protein digestion are sources of increased<br>ammonia.<br>b. Digested blood leaking from ruptured varicesis a source of increased<br>ammonia.<br>c. Accumulation ofshort-chain fatty acidsthat is attached to ammonia is a<br>source of increased ammonia.<br>d. Ammonia-forming bacteria in the colon are sources of increased<br>ammonia.<br>The accumulation of short-chain fatty acids, serotonin, tryptophan, and false<br>neurotransmitters probably contributesto neural derangement and is not<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>4<br>associated with ammonia levels. The other options provide accurate<br>information regarding how the sources of ammonia contribute to hepatic<br>encephalopathy.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"13\">\n<li>Which statement isfalse regarding the pathophysiologic process of acute pancreatitis?<br>a. Bile duct or pancreatic duct obstruction blocksthe outflow of pancreatic<br>digestive enzymes.<br>b. Acute pancreatitis can also result from direct cellular injury from drugs or<br>viral infection.<br>c. Acute pancreatitisis an autoimmune disease in which immunoglobulin G<br>(IgG) coats the pancreatic acinar cells; consequently, the pancreatic<br>enzymes destroy the cells.<br>d. Acute pancreatitisis usually mild and spontaneously resolves.<br>The false answer is C. The backup of pancreatic secretions and the activation and<br>release of enzymes (activated trypsin activates chymotrypsin, lipase, and<br>elastase) within the pancreatic acinar cells cause acute pancreatitis, an<br>obstructive disease. The activated enzymes cause autodigestion<br>(e.g., proteolysis, lipolysis) of the pancreatic cells and tissues, resulting<br>in inflammation. Acute pancreatitis is usually a mild disease and<br>spontaneously resolves; however, approximately 20% of those with the<br>disease develop a severe acute pancreatitis that requires hospitalization.<br>Pancreatitis develops because of a blockage to the outflow of pancreatic<br>digestive enzymes caused by bile duct or pancreatic duct obstruction (e.g.,<br>gallstones). Acute pancreatitis can also result from direct cellular injury from<br>drugs or viral infection.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Obesity is defined as a body mass index (BMI) greater than what measurement?<br>a. 22<br>b. 28<br>c. 25<br>d. 30<br>Obesity is an energy imbalance, with caloric intake exceeding energy<br>expenditure, and is defined as a BMI greater than 30.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Which are the early (prodromal) clinical manifestations of hepatitis? (Select all that<br>apply.)<br>a. Fatigue<br>b. Vomiting<br>c. Itching<br>d. Splenomegaly<br>e. Hyperalgia<br>A, B, E. The prodromal (preicteric) phase of hepatitis begins approximately 2<br>weeks after exposure and ends with the appearance of jaundice. Fatigue,<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>1NURS 611 EXAM 4 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM 2023-2024COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILEDANSWERS WITH RATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+(MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY) 2 3 1NURS 611 EXAM 3 PATHO ACTUAL EXAM 2023-2024 COMPLETE 100QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITHRATIONALES|ALREADY GRADED A+ (MARYVILLE UNIVERSITY) 2a. Ironb. Iodidec. Zinc 3d. CopperIodide. TSH, which is synthesized and stored in the anterior pituitary, [&hellip;]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"open","ping_status":"open","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"site-sidebar-layout":"default","site-content-layout":"","ast-site-content-layout":"default","site-content-style":"default","site-sidebar-style":"default","ast-global-header-display":"","ast-banner-title-visibility":"","ast-main-header-display":"","ast-hfb-above-header-display":"","ast-hfb-below-header-display":"","ast-hfb-mobile-header-display":"","site-post-title":"","ast-breadcrumbs-content":"","ast-featured-img":"","footer-sml-layout":"","ast-disable-related-posts":"","theme-transparent-header-meta":"","adv-header-id-meta":"","stick-header-meta":"","header-above-stick-meta":"","header-main-stick-meta":"","header-below-stick-meta":"","astra-migrate-meta-layouts":"default","ast-page-background-enabled":"default","ast-page-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"ast-content-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"footnotes":""},"categories":[25],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-119669","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-exams-certification"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/119669","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=119669"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/119669\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=119669"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=119669"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=119669"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}