WGU D236 Pathophysiology Exam (Latest
2023\/ 2024 Update) Questions and Verified
Answers| Grade A
Q: An ultrasound reveals that a woman’s baby is a boy.
If she is a carrier for hemophilia, what is the probability her son will have hemophilia?
50%
75%
100%
25%
Answer:
50%
Rational: The woman has two copies of the X chromosome. One of the woman’s X
chromosomes has the allele that causes hemophilia, and one has a healthy allele. Therefore, she
is expected to pass on the disease-causing allele 50% of the time. Since her son only inherits one
X chromosome, inheriting one allele that causes hemophilia would give him the disease.
Q: Noah, who has sickle cell anemia, is encouraged by recent gene therapy studies. Rather than
fixing the defective gene, the treatment tells the body to begin making a fetal form of
hemoglobin.
How does sickle cell anemia affect the body?
Individuals with sickle cell anemia lack the gene for the fetal form of hemoglobin.
In individuals with sickle cell anemia, the genes for both fetal hemoglobin and the adult form of
hemoglobin have mutations that cause the disease.
Individuals with sickle cell anemia are heterozygous for the sickle cell gene and possess one
good copy of the sickle cell gene.
In individuals with sickle cell anemia, the gene for the fetal form of hemoglobin does not have a
sickle cell mutation.
Answer:<\/p>\n\n\n\n
In individuals with sickle cell anemia, the gene for the fetal form of hemoglobin does not have a
sickle cell mutation.
Q: Which effect does alcohol consumption have during pregnancy on the development of the
brain?
It increases the volume of the frontal lobe, but the overall volume of the brain is unchanged.
It decreases brain volume.
It decreases the volume of the occipital lobe, but the overall volume of the brain is unchanged.
It increases the proliferation of neuronal cells.
unanswered
Answer:
It decreases brain volume.
Q: What does Down syndrome result from?
Exposure to alcohol during embryonic development
A single point mutation
An extra copy of chromosome 21
An extra copy of chromosome 9
Answer:
Down syndrome results from an extra copy of chromosome 21.
Q: Your patient has experienced significant blood loss due to an injury incurred in a car
accident.
Which physiological response is to be expected?
Vasodilation will help to reduce blood pressure.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
ADH will stimulate the kidneys to reabsorb more water.
The adrenal gland will stop releasing aldosterone.
The RAAS will be inactivated.
correct
Answer:
ADH will stimulate the kidneys to reabsorb more water.
Q: Respiratory rate increases during exercise.
How does this increased respiratory rate allow the body to maintain a homeostatic pH level?
The increased inhalation of CO2 helps to increase pH.
The increased exhalation of CO2 helps to decrease pH.
The increased inhalation of CO2 helps to decrease pH.
The increased exhalation of CO2 helps to increase pH.
Answer:
The increased exhalation of CO2 helps to increase pH.
Q: An ICU patient’s arterial blood gas results show low pH and low CO2 levels. The patient’s
respiratory rate is increased.
What is the name of this condition?
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory alkalosis
Answer:
Metabolic acidosis
Rational: Since the pH is low, and the pH and CO2 are trending in the same direction, the
condition is metabolic acidosis. The low CO2 indicates that CO2 is not causing the acidosis. The
increased respiratory rate lowers blood CO2 in an attempt to compensate for the metabolic
acidosis.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Q: Your patient has type I diabetes and has developed kidney disease requiring dialysis. The
patient is diligent about caring for themselves and wants to maintain as much independence as
possible.
What course of treatment would address the patient’s kidney disease while allowing the patient to
care for this condition at home?
Hemodialysis
Peritoneal dialysis
Sugar tablets
An insulin pump
Answer:
Peritoneal dialysis
Q: Your patient has pulmonary edema, which raises levels of CO2 in the blood.
What helps the patient’s body to compensate for this increase?
The kidneys conserve both H+ and HCO3-.
The kidneys excrete more H+ and more HCO3-.
The kidneys conserve H+ and excrete more HCO3-.
The kidneys excrete more H+ and conserve HCO3-.
Answer:
The kidneys excrete more H+ and conserve HCO3-.
Q: Your patient was stung by a bee, and his ankle is red and swollen. The inflammatory
response is causing the redness and swelling.
What is unlikely to occur?
Antihistamines are released by mast cells at the site of the sting.
Vasoconstriction at the site of the sting, causing fluid to accumulate.
Blood flow to the site of the sting increases.
Capillaries become leakier, allowing immune cells to be delivered to the site of the sting.<\/p>\n\n\n\n
WGU D236 Pathophysiology Exam Review
(Latest 2023\/ 2024 Update) Complete Guide
with Questions and Verified Answers| 100%
Correct
Q: Alzheimer’s disease vs parkinson’s disease
Answer:
Alz – affects language and memory
Park – affects all executive functioning
Q: Huntington’s disease
Answer:
Genetic disorder that causes progressive deterioration of brain cells. caused by a dominant allele.
symptoms do not appear until about the age of 30. involves involuntary muscle movement
Q: Sclerosis
Answer:
abnormal condition of hardening
Q: disorders that cause vision loss
Answer:
glaucoma – loss of pheripheral vision, cataracts – cloudy vision, retinal detachment – floaters,
flashes, curtain vision<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Q: kyphosis
Answer:
excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back.
Q: disorders that cause hearing loss
Answer:
Meniere’s disease – changes in fluid in tube of inner ear (imbalance and vertigo), Otitis media –
middle ear infection
Q: Predisposing factors of ischemic stroke
Answer:
a fib, carotid stenosis, cerebral arteriosclerosis
Q: rheumatoid arthritis
Answer:
A chronic systemic disease characterized by inflammation of the joints, stiffness, pain, and
swelling that results in crippling deformities. Causes elevated WBC counts.
Q: cerebral contusion
Answer:
the bruising of brain tissue as the result of a head injury that causes the brain to bounce against
the rigid bone of the skull; symptoms: ringing in ears, severe headache, n\/v.
Q: TIA vs CVA<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Answer:
TIA =
-result when a cerebral artery is temp blocked and decreases blood flow to brain
Stroke= artery completely blocked
leading to death of brain and permanent loss of certain functions
Q: multiple sclerosis
Answer:
A chronic, irreversible disease of the central nervous system marked by damage to the myelin
sheath. Plaques occur in the brain and spinal cord causing tremor, weakness, incoordination,
paresthesia, and disturbances in vision and speech
Q: aneurysm
Answer:
ballooning of a weakened portion of an arterial wall
Q: thrombus vs embolus
Answer:
Thrombus = clot in arteries
embolus = dislodged traveling clot in arteries, blocks blood flow
Q: Artherosclerosis
Answer:
Hardening and narrowing of the arteries due to buildup of cholesterol plaques
1.endothelial injury<\/p>\n\n\n\n
2.foam cell formation
3.fatty streak formation
Q: angina pectoris
Answer:
chest pain, which may radiate to the left arm and jaw, that occurs when there is an insufficient
supply of blood to the heart muscle
Q: myocardial infarction
Answer:
the occlusion of one or more coronary arteries caused by plaque buildup (heart attack)
Q: endocaritis
Answer:
inflammation of the inner lining of the heart
Q: peridcarditis
Answer:
inflammation of the pericardium (sack surrounding heart)
Q: benign vs malignant hypertension
Answer:
benign – “essential hypertension”, chronic vascular damage due to sodium retention.
malignant – acute vascular damage due to renin release<\/p>\n\n\n\n
WGU D236 Objective Assessment
Pathophysiology Exam (Latest 2023\/ 2024
Update) Questions and Verified Answers|
Grade A
Q: What is Spina Bifida? Why are relative deficiencies in Folic acid or B12 associated with
Spina Bifida?
Answer:
Failure to close the neural tube early in gestation due to low folic acid and B-12 These vitamins
help activate DNA synthesis in the developing fetus in the first 4 weeks of pregnancy, that are
responsible for closing up the spinal column. Three types of spina bifida. 1) spina bifida occulta
(most common, less severe) 2) Meningocele (least common) 3) Myelomeningocele (most
severe).
Q: How does the body’s cellular responses and adaptations react to disrup- tions?
Answer:
The body uses the RAAS system to regulate blood volume and pressure, the immune response
reacts to fight infection, the inflammatory response reacts to injury
Q: Describe how calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, and calcitriol (Vitamin D) work together to
maintain normal blood calcium levels.
Answer:
Vitamin D: UV light stimulates formation of cholecalciferol, which is hydroxylated in the liver
and the kidney into the active form of Vitamin D, calcitriol. Calcitriol stimulates absorption of
calcium and phosphorus from the GI tract in the intestine and phosphate in the
kidney. Calcitriol increases the calcification of osteoid. Calcitriol also stimulates the formation of
bone by raising the levels of calcium and phosphorus in the blood. Low
vitamin D levels can cause hypocalcemia, which stimulates the parathyroid gland to release
parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone calcium to increase blood
calcium levels. PTH also stimulates osteoblasts to form bone. PTH stimulates kidneys to<\/p>\n\n\n\n
reabsorb calcium into the blood and to synthesize vitamin D. When blood calcium gets too high,
the thyroid is stimulated to release calcitonin (suppresses osteoclast activity and calcium will be
used to form bone).
Q: Describe the function of osteocytes within lacunae of bone
Answer:
Osteocytes absorb nutrients from the bloodstream and distribute them within the bone structure. Osteocytes absorb waste products from the bone and excrete them into the bloodstream.
Q: Describe bone remodeling. Which cells are involved in this process and what is their
function?
Answer:
Osteoclasts breakdown older bone structure and secrete the release calcium into the
bloodstream. Osteoblasts absorb calcium from the bloodstream and use it to build new bone
structure. Working together, these two cell types allow for regeneration of damaged bone
structure.
Q: Describe the process of articular degeneration. Which cells are involved in this process and
what is their function?
Answer:
Articular Degeneration is the thinning and breakdown of the articular cartilage that covers joints
and acts as a lubricant and cushion. This articular cartilage is comprised of chondrocytes in a
matrix of collagen and aggrecan. The chondrocytes produce enzymes and other proteins that
slowly break down and reform the matrix, allowing for regeneration. Stress caused by being
overweight or physical trauma can cause chondrocytes to speed up the matrix breakdown process
relative to the reformation process, leading to a thinning of the articular cartilage.
Q: What is rickets? How does it develop? Who usually develops rickets? How can rickets be
treated?
Answer:<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Rickets is, primarily, due to a deficiency of vitamin D (due to sunlight exposure), which leads to
a deficiency of blood calcium. Rickets can lead to bone weakness, deformity, and susceptibility
to fracture. Rickets results from a failure to calcify osteoid due to low amounts of blood calcium
and low vitamin D (typically). There are many different types of rickets. Children, especially
under age
2, are most likely to be diagnosed with rickets. Infants can develop rickets if their mother’s diet
was low in vitamin D or in calcium, and breastmilk is low in vitamin D, so mother and baby
need to supplement vitamin D (and calcium). The best way to treat rickets is to prevent it by
taking supplements of vitamin D and calcium, eating food\/drink containing vitamin D\/calcium,
and getting sufficient sunlight. Physical therapy with weight-bearing exercise can help to treat
rickets, as well. It is a multi step process to make the active form of Vit D
Q: How does Denosumab treat osteoporosis?
Answer:
Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to osteoclasts and inhibits their Calciumwithdrawing capability.
Q: Distinguish between open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) and hip replacement
surgery.
Answer:
Open reduction and internal fixation involves “surgical open- ing’ and insertion of hardware into
the patient that assists with maintaining proper bone alignment during the healing process. Hip
replacement involves replacement of a fractured hip joint with a prosthesis.
Q: What is degenerative disc disease? What are some of the anatomical features of degenerative
disc disease? What are some symptoms of lumbar vs. cervical degenerative disc disease?
Answer:
Degenerative disc disease (DDD) is a disorder of the intervertebral discs. When the discs
deteriorate, they cause improper alignment of the spinal column. Some anatomical issues that
result are thinning discs, herniated discs (nucleus pulposus leaking through annulus fibrosus
cartilage), bulging discs, and degenerated discs (possible with the formation of osteophytes).
Lumbar DDD results in pain in the buttock and thighs that gets worse with sitting, bending,
lifting or twisting; weakness and numbness in the lower body, such as sciat- ica. Cervical DDD
<\/p>\n\n\n\n
WGU D236 Pre-Assessment Pathophysiology
Exam (Latest 2023\/ 2024 Update) Questions
and Verified Answers| Grade A
Q: A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry skin and small
lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis. The physician prescribes topical antiitch cream and instructs daily skin care.
Answer:
Eczema
Q: A patient presents for follow-up of several painful vesicular lesions on the face, mouth, and
tongue. The patient is diagnosed with a condition caused by the same virus that causes chicken
pox.
Answer:
Herpes zoster (shingles)
Q: Patient presents to the ED complaining of a sudden onset of speech impairment, severe
headache, falling down while standing, and inability to move the arm and leg on the right side. A
cerebral angiogram shows occlusion of blood vessels.
Answer:
Ischemic stroke
Q: Which disease can vitamin B12 deficiency be attributed to?
Answer:
Alcoholism<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Q: What are two possible causes for peripheral neuropathy?
Answer:
Vitamin B12 deficiency & Lead poisoning
Q: A patient has slurred speech, difficulty walking, and dilated pupils. Which condition does
this describe?
Answer:
Subdural hematoma
Q: A patient has tremors, bradykinesia, and abnormal gait. The patient is taking
anticholinergics; however, the symptoms are aggravated. A neurologist treats the patient with
deep brain stimulation.
Answer:
Parkinson disease
Q: Following pupil dilation, an opthalmoscopy shows a cloudy and crystalline lens of the left
eye. An intracapsular extraction intraocular lens inmplant is recommended.
Answer:
Cataract
Q: A 47-year-old diabetic patient presents with aching eyes, visual disturbances, and a loss of
peripheral vision. Which diagnosis is described?
Answer:
Glaucoma<\/p>\n\n\n\n
Q: A patient record shows that an ear exam revealed growth of new bone that is fixed. The
patient has permanent hearing loss.
Answer:
Otosclerosis
Q: A 43-year-old patient presents to the urgent care center reporting ongoing symptoms of
dizziness with ringing and buzzing in the ear and hearing loss on the left side. The patient
indicated no history of head injury that would cause this, and symptoms have included nausea,
vomiting, and having to hold on to things while walking.
Answer:
Meniere disease
Q: A patient has local dilation of a blood vessel with weakening of its walls.
Answer:
Aneurysm
Q: Which cardiovascular condition occurs when blood flow to a section of heart muscle
becomes blocked (usually by a clot), potentially causing heart muscle damage and death?
Answer:
Myocardial infarction
Q: Which condition occurs when a blood clot blocks blood flow to the heart and damages the
heart muscle due to lack of oxygen?
Answer:
Myocardial infarction<\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"
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