{"id":121142,"date":"2023-10-09T10:03:35","date_gmt":"2023-10-09T10:03:35","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/blog\/?p=121142"},"modified":"2023-10-09T10:03:37","modified_gmt":"2023-10-09T10:03:37","slug":"a-bundled-for-aanp-fnp-certification-exam-2022-2023-with-100-correct-answers","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/2023\/10\/09\/a-bundled-for-aanp-fnp-certification-exam-2022-2023-with-100-correct-answers\/","title":{"rendered":"A BUNDLED FOR AANP FNP certification exam 2022\/2023 with 100% correct answers"},"content":{"rendered":"\n<p>AANP Board Questions<br>INR values below <em>__<\/em> increase stroke risk sixfold. correct answer2<br>What allergy contradicts the use of thiazide diuretics? correct answerSulfa<br>Why should ACE-Is be avoided with renal stenosis? correct answerLeads to ARF<br>Adverse effects of aldosterone antagonists (Aldactone) correct answerGalactorrhea and hyperkalemia<br>What are beta blocker indications? correct answerHTN, post-MI&lt; angina, arrhythmias, migraine<br>prophylaxis, hyperthyroidism<br>1st line BP med for DM? correct answerACE or ARB<br>Grapefruit juice should be avoided in what 1st line antihypertensive medication? correct answerCCB<br>Alternative antibiotic treatment for patients with gram positive baterial infections that are allergic to<br>PCN: correct answermacrolides<br>Initial treatment of COPD correct answerIpratropium bromide (anticholinergic)<br>1st line treatment for gonorrheal infections correct answerRocephin IM<br>Treatment of anthrax correct answerCipro 500mg BID 7-10 days<br>Treatment of traveler&#8217;s diarrhea correct answerCipro 500mg BID 3 days<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>What can increase the risk of tendon rupture when on a quinolone? correct answerage and steroids<br>How long does ASA suppress platelet function? correct answerup to 7 days<br>What is the FDA category and dose of finasteride? correct answer5mg PO QD and category X<br>What drug category should not be given with warfarin? correct answersulfa drugs<br>When should routine screening for breast cancer start? correct answer40<br>If a patient had only one dose of the hep B vaccine what is recommended? correct answerDo not restart<br>series; Start with 2nd dose<br>What is done if a patient has a tetanus-prone wound and an unknown vaccination status? correct<br>answerAdminister immediate dose of Td and the teatnus immunoglobulin injection<br>If a person is vaccinated with pneumovax prior to 65 what is recommended? correct answerGive a<br>booster dose of pneumovax 5 years after initial dose<br>When should Zostavax be given? correct answerage 60<br>How far apart should the varicella vaccines be given? correct answer4 weeks<br>Treatment for otitis externa correct answerCortisporin otic drops<br>Common bacterial pathogen of otitis externa correct answerPseudomonas<br>What is cholesteatoma a complication of? correct answerperiorbital sinusitis<br>What indicates an abnormal Rinne test? correct answerBC>AC<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP Practice Questions<br>A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination after a new patient visit. She has not seen a<br>healthcare provider for several years. She is a smoker and her hypertension is now adequately<br>controlled with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid profile<br>shows cholesterol = 240 mg\/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In addition to starting Therapeutic Lifestyle<br>Changes, the nurse practitioner should start the patient on:<br>1.bile acid sequestrant.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\" start=\"2\">\n<li>a statin drug.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>a cholesterol absorption inhibitor.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>low-dose aspirin. correct answerA statin drug<br>The most commonly prescribed medication for mild systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>azathioprine (AZA).<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>belimumab (Benlysta).<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>ibuprofen (Advil).<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). correct answeribuprofen (advil)<br>The most common sign of cervical cancer is:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>postcoital bleeding.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>strong odor from vaginal discharge.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>itching in the vaginal area.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>molluscum contagiosum. correct answerpostcoital bleeding<br>The nurse practitioner prescribes amitriptyline (Elavil) for a patient with neuropathic pain secondary to<br>diabetes mellitus. On follow-up, the patient complains of urine retention and dry mouth. The<br>practitioner would:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>discontinue amitriptyline and begin ibuprofen (Motrin).<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>refer to physical therapy.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>start methocarbamol (Robaxin).<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>discontinue amitriptyline and begin gabapentin (Neurontin). correct answerdiscontinue amitriptyline<br>and begin gabapentin (neurontin)<br>A 17-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with an NSAID and omeprazole (Prilosec).<br>The patient complains of headache, abdominal pain, and gas. These symptoms are most likely:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>associated with the omeprazole.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>related to the underlying condition.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>the result of the NSAID.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>caused by viral gastroenteritis. correct answerassociated with the omeprazole<br>The medication of choice for the initial treatment of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>acetaminophen.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>prednisone.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>aspirin.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>ibuprofen. correct answeribuprofen<br>A 12-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and presents for a<br>follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring<br>growth, development, and:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>white blood cell levels.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>fecal occult blood test.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>hemoglobin levels.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>urine dipsticks. correct answerhemoglobin levels<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>A 90-year-old female is brought to the clinic by her neighbor. She states that everything is fine, but the<br>nurse practitioner notes that she has poor hygiene and bruises on her trunk. The neighbor is concerned<br>that the patient often has no money to buy food, despite income from social security and a coal miner&#8217;s<br>pension. The nurse practitioner suspects abuse. Which of the following is the nurse practitioner<br>obligated to do next?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>Report the case to the proper authorities.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Tell the neighbor to check on the woman daily and report back.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Document the data and report the information to risk management.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>Call the patient&#8217;s family and inquire about the concerns. correct answerreport the case to proper<br>authorities<br>In most cases, the first manifestation of Alzheimer&#8217;s disease is:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>impaired judgment.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>decrease in short-term memory.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>disorientation in time and place.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>decrease in long-term memory. correct answerdecrease in short-term memory<br>The optimal treatment for latent tuberculosis is:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>rifampin (Rifadin) for 5 months.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>isoniazid (Nydrazid) for 9 months.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>pyrazinamide for 6 months.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>ethambutol for 6 months. correct answerosioniazid (nydrazid) for 9 months<br>Unilateral spontaneous serous or serosanguineous discharge from a single duct of a breast is most often<br>caused by:<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>intraductal papilloma.<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>mucinous breast lesions.<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP FNP certification<br>All diastolic murmurs are pathological. Murmurs Grades I-barely II-audible III- clearly audible. IV- first<br>time thrill V-Steth edge VI-entire steth. EXAM correct answerIII first time audible, IV first time thrill<br>Fundal height 12 weeks correct answerFundal Height 12 weeks above symphysis pubis. EXAM<br>Fundus 16 weeks between symphysis pubis and umbilicus.<br>Fundus at 20 weeks is at umbilicus.<br>2 cm more of less from # of wk gestation is normal if more or less order US<br>3 month old infant with down syndrome, due to milk intolerance, mom started on goats milk; now has<br>pale conjunctiva but otherwise healthy. Low HCT. What additional test would you order? correct<br>answerIron, TIBC<br>3 months of synthroid, TSH increased, T4 normal, what do you do? correct answerIncrease Medication<br>3 ways to assess cognitive function in patient with signs\/symptoms of memory loss correct answerMini<br>mental exam<br>4 month old with strabismus, mom is worried\u2026\u2026 correct answertell her it is normal.<br>4 month old wont keep anything down, what is the main thing you look at? correct answerGrowth chart<br>6 month old closed anterior fontanel. correct answerXRAY<br>Abnormal cells on PAP, what do you do next? correct answerRefer for Colposcopy<br>CAGE ACRONYM correct answerCut down<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Annoyed by criticism<br>Guilty about drinking<br>Eye opener drink<br>Causes of tachycardia correct answerFever<br>Anemia<br>Hypotension<br>Cranial nerves responsible for extraocular eye movements correct answerCN 3,4,6<br>Definition of metabolic syndrome correct answercluster of conditions that increase risk of heart disease,<br>stroke, diabetes.<br>diagnose trichomoniasis correct answerwet prep<br>Elderly presents with atrophic vaginitis, small uterus, palpable 4&#215;5 ovary, what do you do next? correct<br>answerPelvic US<br>Epistaxis is most common in the area of the nose known as kiesselbachs triangle, where is this located?<br>correct answerAnterior septum<br>Definitive diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis correct answerurinalysis and culture<br>GERD treatment correct answerH2 is first line, give hs<br>Grade 3 cells on Pap, treatment? correct answerLEEP<br>excision<br>Fingernail hematoma treatment? correct answerdrill hole and drain blood?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy correct answerSalpingitis, or history of abortion, PID,<br>Koplick spots correct answerMeasles (rubeola). Grains of salt lesions inside mouth in Measles<br>Koplick spots correct answerMeasles (rubeola). Grains of salt lesions inside mouth in Measles<br>Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease correct answerAvascular necrosis of the proximal femoral head<br>Lipid level of 1500, increased risk for? correct answerPancreatitis<br>Low HGB, Low HCT, High MCV indicates what? correct answerMacrocytic anemia, B12 Def<br>Man with BPH, prostate feels on digital exam? correct answerEnlarged, symmetrical, smooth<br>Man with HTN, CAD, present femoral pulses but absent pedal correct answerArterial Insufficiency<br>McMurray&#8217;s Sign<br>(+) palpable or audible click while extending with varus stress correct answerMeniscus tears<br>Lachman&#8217;s Test correct answerpivot shift test (ACL tear)<br>Newborn with foot turned in, what do you do? correct answerrefer to orthopedist<br>Osgood-Schlatter disease correct answerKnee pain.<br>inflammation or irritation of the tibia at its point of attachment with the patellar tendon<br>Patient forgot to start Thanksgiving dinner and husband states she has trouble remembering tasks and<br>trouble with organization. What is this indicative of? correct answerAlzheimer&#8217;s<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP AGPCNP PSI Test 1 &amp; 2<br>An 88-year-old presents with right-side weakness after being unable to rise unassisted following a fall to<br>the bathroom floor. History includes aphasia and noncompliance with hypertension medication<br>regimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?<br>Left-sided or right-sided CVA? correct answerLEFT-SIDED CVA<br>Which of the following signs\/symtpoms are often associated with headahces due to intracranial tumor?<br>1) pain worse laying down, focal neurological signs<br>2) Hyperflexia, personality change<br>3) acute onset: hours to days<br>4) pupillary constriction; stupor correct answer1) pain worse laying down, focal neurological signs<br>Which of the following pharmacotherapeutics would be most important to administer to a patient who<br>has a corneal abrasion?<br>1) Timolol<br>2) Gentamicin ophthalmic<br>3) Cromolyn optha<br>4) Olopatadine correct answer2) Gentamicin ophthalmic (Genoptic)<br>A 25-year-old presents with the chief complaint of decreased mobility and pain of the right shoulder<br>exacerbated by movement. The patient reports that he participated in extensive house painting 24<br>hours prior to the onset of pain. He denies any trauma. Passive ROM is intact. No redness or ecchymosis<br>is present. What is the next step to be taken in order to make a diagnosis?<br>1) Xray of shoulder<br>2) Palpate structures around the shoulder.<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>3) MRI of shoulder<br>4) EMG correct answer2) palpate structures<br>A 16-year-old female in the first month of taking Ortho-Novum 7\/7\/7 complains of midcycle spotting.<br>She has not missed any doses and uses no other medication. Which of the following is appropriate?<br>1) Changing to Ortho-Novum 1\/35<br>2) Discontinue use<br>3) Providing reassurance<br>4) Double dose-for two days correct answer3) provide reassurance<br>According to the Report of the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force, which of the following is NOT a<br>current recommendation guideline for preventive care in elderly female patients?<br>1) Mammogram and clinical breast exams<br>2) Fecal Occult blood test and\/or sig<br>3) Rubella serology or vaccination history<br>4) Pnuemo and influenza vaccines correct answer3) Rubella serology or vaccination history<br>87 y\/o NH patient is drowsy and barely responsive. Temp 95, BP: 110\/70, Pulse 60, R 10. The best action<br>is to:<br>1) initiate passive warming<br>2) apply a rebreather<br>3) Perform fluid replacement<br>4) initiate active warming correct answer1) initiate passive rewarming<br>A patient is referred with DM, HTN and CAD. He is on insulin and a beta blocker. How would you educate<br>this patient on recognizing the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia?<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>1) Edema<br>2) Tachycardia<br>3) palpitations<br>4) sweating correct answer4) sweating<br>A 65-year-old overweight patient is diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. Initial therapy of NSAIDs, stretching,<br>ice, and rest has proven ineffective after 3 weeks. The best follow-up plan of care would be to:<br>1) stop NSAID, apply a heel cup and encourage exercise and wt loss.<br>2) continue NSAID, apply an arch support and encourage wt loss and exercise<br>3) continue NSAID, xray and add a short-leg night splint<br>4) COntinue NSAID, xray and add a metatarsal bar correct answer2) continue NSAID, apply an arch<br>support and encourage wt loss and exercise<br>Fundoscopic exam of Hypertensive patient.<br>1) nicking of arteriols and viens, and small retinol hemorrages<br>2) drusen bodies and pale retina<br>3) pale macula and swollen disk margins<br>4) microaneurysms and optic disc cupping correct answer1) nicking of arteriols and viens, and small<br>retinol hemorrages<br>Which of the following is a common presenting feature of hyperthyroidism in the elderly?<br>1) elevated TSH<br>2) Thyroid enlargement<br>3) atrial fibrillation<br>4) abnormal T3 suppression correct answer3) atrial fibrillation<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>A 35-year-old lawn maintenance worker presents reporting &#8220;something in my eye&#8221; since the previous<br>day. The eye was rinsed with over-the-counter eyewash, without relief. The patient denies visual<br>disturbances or drainage. In formulating a plan of care, the nurse practitioner would FIRST:<br>1) send to ophthalmologists<br>2) florescreen staining<br>3) test visual field<br>4) prescribe eyedrops correct answer3) test visual field<br>A 72-year-old patient presents with dry, itchy eyes. During the course of the physical examination, the<br>nurse practitioner notes the presence of a gray band of opacity in the cornea that encircles the iris. The<br>band is 1.0-1.5 mm wide. This finding is most consistent with a diagnosis of a\/an:<\/p>\n\n\n\n<ol class=\"wp-block-list\">\n<li>corneal abrasion<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>arcus senilis<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>corneal ulcer<\/li>\n\n\n\n<li>herpetic infection of the eye correct answer2) arcus senilis<br>A 26-year-old presents with reports of anorexia, fatigue, weight loss, malaise, fever, night sweats, and a<br>cough that has been present for 4 weeks. The diagnostic study to perform first would be:<br>1) xray<br>2) pulmonary function test<br>3) bronchoscopy<br>4) H &amp; H correct answer1) xray (tb-night sweats)<br>A 44-year-old female is complaining of frequent anxiety attacks with chest discomfort and fatigue. On<br>physical examination, her lungs are clear bilaterally. There are a midsystolic click and a grade II\/VI<br>systolic murmur at the apex. Further evaluation would include which of the following?<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP Exam Review<br>microcytic hypochromic anemias correct answerMCV &lt;80 MCHC &lt;31<br>Iron deficiency Anemia<br>Thalassemia Minor<br>always check ferritin and serum Fe with microcytic anemias to determine which one<br>Iron deficiency anemia correct answermicrocytic hypochromic<br>low: h\/h, ferritin, serum Fe, RBC<br>high: RDW*<br>periph smear: poikilocytosis (var. shaped RBCs) &amp; anisocytosis (var. sizes RBCs)<br>s\/s: pallor, fatigue, DOE, glossitis, pica, angular cheilitis, koilonycha (spoon shaped nails), tachycardia, HF<br>tx: ferrous sulfate, incr fiber, fluids, iron rich foods<br>etiology: blood loss, diet, post gastrectomy, infants chronic intake cows milk &lt;12 mo causes gi bleed<br>also test for lead poisoning in children<br>Thalassemia minor correct answermicrocytic hypochromic<br>normal ferritin and serum iron and RDW**<br>-genetic disorder: bone marrow produces abnormal hgb &#8211; screen fam members of pos pts<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Alpha: Asians, Africans<br>Beta: Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, Africans<br>dx by hgb electrophoresis<br>*offer genetic counseling prior to pregnancy<br>Macrocytic Normochromic Anemias correct answerMCV &gt;100 MCHC 31-37<br>Pernicious Anemia<br>Vit B12 deficiency<br>Folate deficiency<br>always check both vitB12 and serum folate in macrocytic anemias<br>Pernicious anemia correct answermacrocytic normochromic \/ megaloblastic RBCs<br>autoimmune destruction of parietal cells in fundus &#8211; x intrinsic factor production, essential for vit B12<br>absorption<br>often cause of vitB12 def<br>Vitamin B12 deficiency correct answermacrocytic normochromic<br>B12 &lt;150<br>high: RDW, low: h\/h, RBC<br>antibody tests: antiparietal AB, anti-IF Ab<br>24 hr urine for increased MMA (pos for vit b12 def)<br>Homocysteine level incr in both folate &amp; vitb12 def<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>s\/s: paresthesias of extremities, s\/s anemia, decr reflexes, weak hand grip, abn romberg<br>Tx: B12 injections weekly x 4 weeks then monthly<br>Folate deficiency anemia correct answermacrocytic normochromic<br>-lack of folate leading to premature RBC death\u2026 caused by dietary deficiency<br>-folate &lt;4<br>-no neuro symptoms<br>tx: incr folate in diet, PO 1-5 mg folate, preg 400mcg\/day<br>Normocytic normochromic anemia correct answerMCV 80-100, MCHC 31-37<br>Anemia of Chronic Disease<br>Bone Marrow failure\/leukemia<br>Aplastic Anemia<br>acute blood loss<br>Cancer<br>sickle cell anemia<br>hgb&lt;12\/13, decr RBC and reticulocytes<br>Aplastic Anemia correct answera normocytic-normochromic type of anemia characterized by the failure<br>of bone marrow to produce red blood cells<br>decr WBC, PLT, RBC<br>s\/s: bruising and bleeding, s\/s anemia, neutropenia = fungal and bacterial infections<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>FNP from practice exam AANP<br>If patient has right sided weakness, etc. the CVA occurred where correct answerleft side<br>erythromycin for chlamydia eye infection in infants correct answer\u2026<br>squamous epithelial cells with stippling appearance, no lactobacilli and many WBCs is correct answerwet<br>mount that shows BV<br>the headache of an intracranial tumor correct answerfocal neurological signs and pain worse in supine<br>position<br>in order to improve longevity of patient with COPD, tx of choice is correct answeroxygen<br>which of the following criteria differentiates a TIA from a CVA correct answerabsence of residual<br>symptoms &#8211; TIA sx occur rapidly and then resolve, CVA sx are residual &#8211; TIA is temporary block and<br>usually no residual sx<br>med of choice for polymyalgia rheumatica correct answerprednisone<br>helical CT pulmonary angiography correct answertest for PE<br>electric shock unilateral facial pain correct answertrigeminal neuralgia<br>sudden vision loss in which person feels like a curtain came down over his eye correct answerretinal<br>detachment<br>decreased gastric production with aging correct answer\u2026<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP Certification Exam<br>diverticulum can be an infection of correct answerboth gram &#8211; and +<br>bacteria<br>Which diuretic should be used for osteoporosis? correct<br>answerThiazide diuretics:<br>slows the kidneys excretion of calcium and increases reabsorption<br>Lachman maneuver correct answerknee instability<br>tear of ACL<br>Infections of labia and vagina correct answerbacterial vaginosis,<br>candidiasis, and trichomoniasis<br>Chlamydia affects correct answercervix, endometrial lining, fallopian<br>tubes, pelvic cavity<br>Acute abdomen symptoms correct answerinvoluntary guarding,<br>rebound tenderness, board-like abdomen, +obturator and psoas sign<br>Care of preecplampsia correct answerbed rest, weight and blood<br>pressure monitoring<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Preeclampsia labs correct answerurine protein, serum protein,<br>creatinine, platelet count<br>Preeclampsia symptoms correct answerhypertension, proteinuria,<br>edema (weight gain)<br>Preeclampsia complications correct answerplacental abruption,<br>coagulopathy (DIC), renal failure, uteroplacental insufficiency, liver<br>failure, hypertensive encephalopathy, retinal detachment, pulmonary<br>edema, seizure, death<br>community acquired pneumonia<br>Most common bacteria<br>least common bacteria<br>Population<br>treatment correct answermycolpasma pneumoniae (atypical)<br>h. influenza, strep pneumoniae<br>atypical: psuedomonas aeruginosa<br>college student, school children, military<br>macrolides: azithromycin, clarithromycin<br>Mantoux test correct answerPositive: 5mm<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Positive for recent immigrants: 10mm<br>Murphy&#8217;s sign correct answerbiliary disorders<br>deep inspiration by patient and deep palpation RUQ below<br>costovertebral angle<br>placenta previa correct answerimplantation of the placenta over the<br>cervical opening or in the lower region of the uterus<br>painless bright red blood in the second or third trimester<br>Order abdominal US<br>Hashimoto&#8217;s is most common in which population correct<br>answermiddle age to older women<br>Hypertension Retinopathy correct answerAV nicking and copper or<br>silver wire arterioles<br>flame-shaped hemorrhages<br>threatened abortion correct answervaginal bleeding and cramping, soft<br>uterus, cervix closed<br>bacterial vaginosis correct answerfishy odor, milky white or dull gray<br>discharge<br>pH &gt; 4.5<\/p>\n\n\n\n<blockquote class=\"wp-block-quote is-layout-flow wp-block-quote-is-layout-flow\">\n<p>20% clue cells<br>KOH whiff test<br>squamous cells dotted with lots of bacteria that obscure borders<br>correct answerclue cells<br>Lichen sclerosis correct answerskin disease, white spots appear over<br>time, most common genital and rectal<br>most common in older woman<br>itching, discomfort, bleeding<br>order biopsy<br>AV valves correct answermitral and tricuspid<br>semilunar valves correct answerpulmonary and aortic<br>S1 correct answersystole<br>closure of AV valves<br>mitral regurgitation<br>aortic stenosis<br>S2 correct answerdiastole<br>closure of semilunar valves<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n<\/blockquote>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP-FNP exam<br>Hegar&#8217;s sign correct answerSoftening of lower uterine segment<br>Chadwick&#8217;s sign correct answerBluish color of cervix and vagina at 6-8 weeks<br>Goodell&#8217;s sign correct answerSoftening of cervix at 4+ weeks<br>Lipids in chronic inactivity correct answerLow HDL<br>Lipids in under- or untreated hypothyroidism correct answerElevated total cholesterol, TG, and LDL<br>Lipids in chronic renal insufficiency correct answerElevated total cholesterol and TG<br>Lipids in alcohol abuse correct answerElevated TG, HDL, and LDL<br>Vaccines with live attenuated viruses correct answerMMR, varicella, flu-mist(intranasal), Zostavax<br>Drugs of choice for abdominal infection correct answerBeta lactams + metronidazole (most common);<br>fluoroquinolones<br>Drugs of choice for urinary tract infection correct answerFluoroquinolones (except moxi), TMP-SMX,<br>fluconazole, b-lactams, nitrofurantoin, fosfomycin if pt has many allergies<br>Drugs of choice for pulmonary infections correct answerMacrolides, resp fluoroquinolones, b-lactams,<br>doxycycline (MRSA, atypical coverage)<br>Drugs of choice for skin and soft tissue infections correct answerMRSA: TMP-SMZ, doxycycline,<br>clindamycin; b-lactams<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Drugs of choice for MRSA correct answerVancomycin, daptomycin , linezolid, TMP-SMZ, doxycycline,<br>ceftaroline<br>Macrolide drugs correct answerErythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin<br>Macrolide AEs correct answerGI, QT prolongation<br>Tetracycline uses correct answerMRSA, rocky mtn spotted fever, atypicals (mycoplasma pneumonia,<br>chlamydia), spirochetes (Lyme), h.pylori<br>Tetracycline AEs correct answerGI, teeth, hepatic dysfunction, photosensitivity<br>Fluoroquinolone drugs correct answerCiprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin<br>Fluoroquinolone uses correct answerUTI (cipro or levo), atypicals (mycoplasma, legionella)<br>Fluoroquinolones and dairy or vitamins correct answerTake 2 hrs before or 4 hours after (decrease<br>concentrations)<br>Metronidazole (Flagyl) uses correct answerC. Diff, vaginitis<br>Metronidazole AEs correct answerGI, peripheral neuropathy, disulfiram reaction<br>Nitrofurantoin uses correct answerUTI -not pyelonephritis due to no systemic absorption<br>Nitrofurantoin AEs, contraindications correct answerPulmonary fibrosis, contraindicated in CrCl &lt;60<br>(excludes many elderly)<br>Aminoglycoside drugs correct answerGentamycin, tobramycin<br>download pdf at<a href=\" https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\"> https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP Exam 3<br>Mens Health Priapism correct answerpainful erection for 204 hours, ischemi form is medical\/surgical<br>emergency<br>Testicular cancer correct answerhard fixed, nodule, heaviness or aching, one testicle larger than other,<br>hydrocele from tumor, painless asymptomatic until Metz, DX gold standard testicular biopsy, US of<br>testes, refer to urology, for surgical removal (orchiectomy)<br>Prostate Cancer correct answermost common cancer in men, new onset of low back pain, rectal perianal<br>area, obstructive voiding symptoms, weak stream, nocturia, risk factor obese and family history, &gt;50<br>years old, DX routine screening not recommended<br>Torsion of the appendix testes correct answerblue dot sign, blue colored round mass located on<br>testicular surface, polyp like structure attached to testicular surface, infarction and necrosis of the<br>appendix due to torsion, refer to ER<br>Testicular torsion correct answerabrupt onset extremely painful and swollen red scrotum, n\/v, affected<br>testes higher and closer to body, the cremasteric reflex is missing, &gt; not corrected in &lt;6 hours<br>permanent damage, if not corrected in 24 hours becomes gangrene, common in males with bell clapper<br>deformity, TX call 911, US doppler preferred test, manual reduction or surgery, elevated PSA, biopsy of<br>prostate tissue, PSA level with DRE TX refer to urologist, individualize screen per risk factors<br>Varicocele correct answerenlargement of the veins within the scrotum, bag of worms, testicular tumor<br>can cause infertility, DX US of scotum, TX surgical removal or varicosities<br>Hydrocele correct answerfluid filed sac around testicle, swelling of scrotum, asymptomatic, DX will glow<br>with transillumination, US of scrotum, TX refer to urologist<br>Direct inguinal hernias correct answerare found in the Hesselbachs triangle<br>indirect inguinal hernia correct answerare common on the right side internal ring<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Cryptorchidism correct answera testicle that has not moved into the bag of skin below the penis before<br>birth, maybe one or two, increases risk of testicular cancer<br>BPH correct answergradual development of urinary obstruction, weak urinary stream, postvoid<br>dribbling, occasional urinary retention, DX PSA is elevated, prostate enlarged, TX alpha adrenergic<br>antagonist-terazosin\/Hytrin-first for patients with HTN, Flomax, or Proscar shrinks prostate by 50%<br>Chronic bacterial prostatis correct answer>6 weeks infection, gradual onset, asymptomatic or<br>UTI,caused by E.coli, suprapubic or perineal pain, irritative voiding, dysuria, nocturia, frequency, DX<br>boggy prostate, urine and prostatic fluid cultures, three tubes, PSA elevated, TX Bactrim,<br>fluoroquinolone<br>Acute prostatis correct answerinfections ascends to urinary tract, E.coli, sudden onset of high fever,<br>chills, suprapubic pain perineal discomfort, radiates to back to rectum, UTI, symptoms, DX DRE reveals<br>tender prostate warm and boggy, CBC shows leukocytosis, pyuria, urine culture, TX Ceftriaxone<br>tetracycline, macrolide, fluoroquinolone, refer if septic shock<br>Acute bacterial epididymitis correct answerbacteria ascend the urethra, urethritis, reaching epididymitis,<br>rule out testicular torsion, E coli, swollen red scrotum, unilateral testicular tenderness with urethral<br>discharge, hydrocele with symptoms of UTI, fever, green colored purulent or serous clear discharge,<br>Prehn&#8217;s sign positive with relief of srotal elevation, DX leukocytosis pyuria, hematuria, Urine culture, test<br>for gonorrhea\/chlamydia TX ceftriaxone, doxycycline, or fluoroquinolone<br>Erectile dysfunction correct answerd\/t vascular insufficiency, neuropathy, medications, smok,ing<br>alcohol, TX first line TX [hosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor, Viagra Levitra<br>Peyronie&#8217;s disease correct answerinflammatory disorder of the penis with firbrotic plaques on the tunica<br>albuginea, penile pain during erection, palpable nodules cause deformity penile erections, may resolve<br>or require surgery, TX refer to urologist<br>Balanitis correct answercandidal infection of the glans penis, diabetic or immunocompromised men, TX<br>topical azole cream, treat partner too<br>Phimosis correct answerforeskin cannot be pushed back d\/t edema, seen in neonates<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP<br>Measles (Rubeola) correct answerWhat RNA virus is associated with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis<br>with photophobia, rash that starts on head or face?<br>Ortolani maneuver correct answertechnique for checking hip integrity. unequal movement suggests the<br>hip is dislocated<br>varicocele correct answerenlarged, dilated veins near the testicle<br>bladder cancer correct answercancerous tumor that arises from the cells lining the bladder; major sign is<br>hematuria, smoking or industrial chemicals can cause<br>Roseola infantum correct answerrash starts on the trunk and goes to the extremities<br>Rash comes out when the fever breaks<br>endovenous laser therapy (EVLT) correct answertreatment of large varicose veins in the legs in which a<br>laser fiber is inserted directly into the affected vein to heat the lining within the vein, causing it to<br>collapse, shrink, and eventually disappear; also called endovenous laser ablation (EVLA)<br>B12 deficiency correct answerMethylmalonic acid and Homocystein level<br>cervical dysplasia correct answerthe presence of precancerous changes in the cells that make up the<br>inner lining of the cervix, white, sharply demarcated lesion of cervix<br>polycythemia vera correct answergeneral increase in red blood cells (erythremia), pruritis after a shower<br>L5-S1 correct answerweak plantarflexion<br>roseacea correct answertopical metronidazole<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Constructive pericarditis correct answerPericardial knock<br>Restrictive Pericarditis correct answerS3<br>Cluster Headache correct answerUnilateral severe orbital, supraorbital, or temporal pain. More common<br>in males. Restlessness, tearing of eyes, nasal congestion, rhinnorrhea, fullness of ear, tx-O2 100%<br>CA 125 correct answerOvarian cancer<br>Deficiency of Niacin correct answerDermatitis, diarrhea, dementia<br>Pertussis treatment in children correct answerAzithromycin<br>HLA-DQA or HLA-DQB correct answergene for susceptibility for DM 1<br>Glyburide correct answerMost likely sulfa to cause hypoglycemia<br>Prehn sign correct answerelevation of testicles &#8220;feels better, less pressure&#8221;<br>Dengue fever correct answerSupportive Care<br>Hypoparathyroidism correct answerLow serum mag<br>Lovastatin correct answerFirst choice for children<br>Vit D dosage in older adults correct answer800 units\/day<br>Allergy med that won&#8217;t cause dizziness correct answerLoratadine<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>Meriere&#8217;s disease first line treatment correct answerAntihistamines of Benzo (diazepam)<br>Rhinosinutis can cause? correct answerOrbital cellulitis<br>Hemophilia B correct answerProlong PTT<br>Fibroadenoma correct answerMost common breast mass from 25-40 years old<br>Treponema pallidum correct answersyphilis<br>Wermer syndrome correct answertumors on parathyroid glands<br>Polycythemia vera correct answercondition characterized by too many erythrocytes; blood becomes too<br>thick to flow easily through blood vessels, splenomegaly, pruritis after showering<br>Lyme disease correct answerbullseye rash,<br>alopecia areata correct answerAutoimmune disorder that causes the affected hair follicles to be<br>mistakenly attacked by a person&#8217;s own immune system; usually begins with one or more small, round,<br>smooth bald patches on the frontal bone of the scalp.<br>Biguanides (Metformin) correct answerWorks by suppressing hepatic gluconeogenesis and enhancing<br>insulin sensitivity of muscle and fat<br>Sulfonylureas correct answerWork by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas<br>Hutchinson sign correct answerzoster eruption on the tip of the nose<br>When should screening for diabetes start? correct answer45 years old if no symptoms present<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>AANP\/ANCC<br>A). Right lower lobe crackles correct answer13 yo male diagnosed as bronchitis was treated with fluids<br>and expectant. He returns with fever 102.8, R. pleuretic pain, and green sputum. which of the following<br>would be an expected finding?<br>a) Right lower lobe crackles<br>B) decreased fremitus<br>c)bilateral wheezing<br>d)normal percussion<br>c) The child quickly begins using arm to pick up toy correct answer3yo diagnosed with radial head<br>subluxation (nursemaid elbow). After closed manipulation the best indicator of successful procedure is:<br>a) swelling decreases immediately<br>b) pulses return<br>c) the child quickly begins using arm to pick up toy<br>d) a click is felt while the child is attempting to pick up toy<br>D)Measles correct answera 11mo old presents with a rash, runny clear nose, and cough. During<br>assessment you note tiny white papules with erythema on the buccal mucousa. What is this suggestive<br>of?<br>a)Scarletina<br>b)Rubella<br>c)hand, foot, mouth<br>d) Measles<br>A)Augmentin correct answerA 17yo complains of 14 day onset of facial pain in maxillary region with<br>yellow nasal drainage. what is an appropriate initial pharmacological intervention?<br>a)Augmentin<br>b)Ceftriaxone(rocephin)<br>c)Levaquin<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>d)Erythromycin<br>d)Lung correct answerLeading cause of cancer-related death in women?<br>a)cervical<br>b)ovarian<br>c)breast<br>d)lung<br>b) No obvious signs\/symptoms correct answera 27yo male uncomplicated chlamydia infection may<br>exhibit:<br>a)urticaria<br>b)no obvious signs or symptoms<br>c) green mucoid penile drainage<br>d)penile shaft ulcer<br>b)start lower dose then taper up correct answercommon practice rule to follow with initiating<br>medications in the elderly is:<br>a)prescribe meds to take in am<br>b)start lower dose then taper up<br>c)obtain creatinine clearance for baseline data for those over 70<br>d)give meds with a full glass of water<br>b) lower the seizure threshold correct answer12 yo with PMI of seizure is reported by mother that cold<br>symptoms are present. Denies fever. The NP should advise that a fever may:<br>a)make seizure medication less effective<br>b)lower the seizure threshold<br>c)increase the seizure threshold<br>d) have no effect on the seizure threshold<\/p>\n\n\n\n<p>c. doxycyline correct answerAccording to the American Thoracic Society\/Infectious Disease Society of<br>American (ATS\/IDSA) Consensus guidelines on the Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in<br>Adults, which of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial for tx of CAP in a:<br>46 y\/o well female with a hx of a bilateral tubal ligation who is macrolide intolerant?<br>a. clarithromycin<br>b. amoxicillin<br>c. doxycyline<br>d. fosfomycin<br>c) Doxycycline correct answerafter a 3 wk camping trip, a 11yo presents with a target lesion with central<br>clearing on the inner left thigh. Chief complaints of headache, fatigue,and generalized muscle pain for<br>several days. What should NP prescribe?<br>a)bactrim<br>b)azithromycin<br>c) doxycycline<br>d) metronidazole<br>b. osteoporosis correct answerDuring development of a treatment plan for a 78 yo with dx<br>hypothyroidism, the NP needs to be concerned with?<br>a)renal insufficiency<br>b)osteoporosis<br>c)dementia<br>d)anemia<br>d)provide reassurance correct answer16 yo currently taking ortho-novum 7\/7\/7 comes to clinic to report<br>midcycle spotting. Denies missing doses and is currently not on any other medications. Which is<br>appropriate?<br>a)modify usage<br>b)double her dose x 2 days<br>c) change to a different medication<br>d) provide reassurance<br>download pdf at <a href=\"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=\" target=\"_blank\" rel=\"noopener\">https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>AANP Board QuestionsINR values below __ increase stroke risk sixfold. correct answer2What allergy contradicts the use of thiazide diuretics? correct answerSulfaWhy should ACE-Is be avoided with renal stenosis? correct answerLeads to ARFAdverse effects of aldosterone antagonists (Aldactone) correct answerGalactorrhea and hyperkalemiaWhat are beta blocker indications? correct answerHTN, post-MI&lt; angina, arrhythmias, migraineprophylaxis, hyperthyroidism1st line BP med [&hellip;]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":{"site-sidebar-layout":"default","site-content-layout":"","ast-site-content-layout":"default","site-content-style":"default","site-sidebar-style":"default","ast-global-header-display":"","ast-banner-title-visibility":"","ast-main-header-display":"","ast-hfb-above-header-display":"","ast-hfb-below-header-display":"","ast-hfb-mobile-header-display":"","site-post-title":"","ast-breadcrumbs-content":"","ast-featured-img":"","footer-sml-layout":"","ast-disable-related-posts":"","theme-transparent-header-meta":"","adv-header-id-meta":"","stick-header-meta":"","header-above-stick-meta":"","header-main-stick-meta":"","header-below-stick-meta":"","astra-migrate-meta-layouts":"default","ast-page-background-enabled":"default","ast-page-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"ast-content-background-meta":{"desktop":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"tablet":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""},"mobile":{"background-color":"var(--ast-global-color-5)","background-image":"","background-repeat":"repeat","background-position":"center center","background-size":"auto","background-attachment":"scroll","background-type":"","background-media":"","overlay-type":"","overlay-color":"","overlay-opacity":"","overlay-gradient":""}},"footnotes":""},"categories":[25],"tags":[],"class_list":["post-121142","post","type-post","status-publish","format-standard","hentry","category-exams-certification"],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/121142","targetHints":{"allow":["GET"]}}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=121142"}],"version-history":[{"count":0,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/121142\/revisions"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=121142"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=121142"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=121142"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}