{"id":132737,"date":"2024-07-29T09:53:06","date_gmt":"2024-07-29T09:53:06","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/learnexams.com\/blog\/?p=132737"},"modified":"2024-07-29T09:53:15","modified_gmt":"2024-07-29T09:53:15","slug":"nr-325-exam-123-and-final-newest-actual-exam-complete-questions-and-correct-detailed-answers-verified-answers-already-graded-a","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.learnexams.com\/blog\/2024\/07\/29\/nr-325-exam-123-and-final-newest-actual-exam-complete-questions-and-correct-detailed-answers-verified-answers-already-graded-a\/","title":{"rendered":"NR 325 EXAM 1,2,3 AND FINAL NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+"},"content":{"rendered":"\n

NR 325 EXAM 1,2,3 AND FINAL NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+<\/p>\n\n\n\n

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NRS 325 FINAL EXAM NEWEST 2024-2025 ACTUAL
EXAM COMPLETE 150 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
The nurse should include which instructions when teaching a patient
about sulfamethoxazole therapy? SATA
A. “Use sunscreen when you are outside”
B. “If you have diarrhea more than five times a day, notify your
healthcare provider”
C. “Avoid using this drug if you are pregnant”
D. “Stop taking the drug if you experience nausea”
E. “Stop taking the drug if you experience vomiting” – ANSWERAnswers: A, B, C
Rationale: A – sulfamethoxazole has a side effect of photosensitivity
therefore the patient should cover up and use sunscreen when in
direct sunlight. B – This is a symptom of a superinfection (such as c.
diff) and the provider should be notified. C – sulfamethoxazole is
contraindicated in pregnancy (and in newborns). D & E – These can
be expected side effects of antibiotic use.
You are ordered to take a peak and trough for a patient on vancomycin.
The student nurse shadowing you asks why this is important. Which
statement by the nurse would be the best response?<\/p>\n\n\n\n

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A. “It’s to show how well the medication is metabolizing in the body.”
B. “These tests help identify what kind of infection the body is fighting.”
C. ” These tests help determine if a medication is in therapeutic range.”
D. ” Using these tests will help us decide if we need to switch to another
drug.” – ANSWER- Answer: C
Rationale: A peak and trough is obtained to help determine whether
a drug is in therapeutic range for it to be effective. If the peak is too
high, the drug becomes toxic, and if it becomes too low, then the
drug is not as effective.
You are treating a patient with vancomycin and begin to see redness
around the IV site and the patient reports that, “my throat feels a little
tight”. Which is a priority intervention that the nurse can do.
A. Call the provider
B. Stop the infusion
C. Give the patient epinephrine
D. This is a normal reaction to the drug – ANSWER- Answer: B
Rationale: This is an adverse reaction and the drug should be
stopped immediately. Calling the provider is also important, but not
the priority action. Epinephrine may be indicated, but it is still not
the priority action in this scenario.
A patient comes in feeling fatigued and has redness in different areas of
their skin. The doctor concludes that they have a fungal infection and
prescribed amphotericin B as a medication. The nurse notes the patient
has adequate understanding of the drug with which statement?
A. “I should watch my teeth for any yellowing while on this medication”<\/p>\n\n\n\n

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B. ” I will be more prone to bleeding and infections.”
C. ” I should decrease my activity and exercise less.”
D. ” I will feel sleepy when I take this medication.” – ANSWERAnswer: B
Rationale: Amphotericin B causes bone marrow suppression, which
decreases WBC, Platelets, and RBC. The patient will be more prone
to bleeding and infections.
*Side note: amphotericin B is typically only used for life-threatening
fungal infections and requires pre-medicating for adverse effects and
close monitoring of the patient after administration. It is likely not being
used outpatient for mild skin\/fungal infections.
A nurse is helping a patient who was ordered gentamicin for a bacterial
infection. What is a priority step that the nurse must do when giving
gentamicin?
A. Avoid giving the patient zinc, calcium, and other vitamins with this
medication
B. Teach the patient to avoid long exposure to sunlight
C. Take the peak and trough for this medication
D. Watch for signs of seizure and neuropathy – ANSWER- Answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside and they have a narrow
therapeutic range. Drawing a peak and trough would be a priority
to make sure the drug will be most effective.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

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A patient with myasthenia gravis was recently diagnosed with a bacterial
infection in a left foot wound. The doctor prescribed gentamicin q8 hrs
via IV. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer the medication and educate the patient about the risk of cdiff infections.
B. Hold the medication and call the provider because of the risk of
causing respiratory suppression.
C. Take a peak and trough because of gentamicin’s narrow therapeutic
range.
D. Monitor closely for tinnitus and vertigo. – ANSWER- Answer: B
Rationale: MG is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle
weakness. When combined with aminoglycosides, it can result in
life-threatening respiratory paralysis.
A patient with a history of asthma is prescribed IV prednisone to
manage their airway inflammation and acute exacerbations. Which
nursing education does not require further teaching?
A. Recommend foods high in calcium and vitamin D
B. Advise the patient to increase fluid intake
C. Promote a low-potassium diet
D. Advise the patient to immediately stop taking prednisone if s\/sx of
infection occur – ANSWER- Answer: A
Rationale: A – Long-term corticosteroid use is associated with bone
loss \u2192 vitamin D foods can help prevent osteoporosis. B –
Corticosteroids cause fluid retention \u2192 should not recommend
increase in fluid intake. C – Corticosteroids cause K+ loss \u2192 may
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NR 325 EXAM 3 NEWEST 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM
COMPLETE 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+<\/p>\n\n\n\n

    \n
  1. The nurse is performing an assessment of an 80-year-old patient.
    Which information obtained by the nurse will be of most concern?
    a. Decreased appetite
    b. Difficulty chewing food
    c. Unintentional weight loss
    d. Complaints of indigestion – ANSWER- ANS: C
    Rationale: Unintentional weight loss is not a normal finding in older
    patients and may indicate a problem such as cancer or depression.
    Poor appetite, difficulty in chewing, and complaints of indigestion
    are common in older patients. These will need to be addressed, but
    are not of as much concern as the weight loss<\/li>\n\n\n\n
  2. To promote bowel evacuation in a patient with chronic complaints of
    constipation, the nurse will suggest that the patient should attempt
    defecation
    a. in the mid-afternoon.
    b. after eating breakfast.
    c. right after getting up in the morning.
    d. immediately before the first daily meal. – ANSWER- ANS: B<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n

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    Rationale: These reflexes are most active after the first daily meal.
    Arising in the morning, the anticipation of eating, and physical
    exercise do not stimulate these reflexes.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

      \n
    1. When a patient has a history of a total gastrectomy, the nurse will
      monitor for clinical manifestations of
      a. constipation.
      b. dehydration.
      c. elevated total cholesterol.
      d. cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency. – ANSWER- ANS: D
      Rationale: The patient with a total gastrectomy does not secrete
      intrinsic factor, which is needed for cobalamin (vitamin B12)
      absorption. Because the stomach absorbs only small amounts of
      water and nutrients, the patient is not at higher risk for
      dehydration, elevated cholesterol, or constipation.<\/li>\n\n\n\n
    2. The nurse will monitor a patient who has an obstruction of the
      common bile duct for
      a. melena.
      b. steatorrhea.
      c. decreased serum cholesterol levels.
      d. increased serum indirect bilirubin levels. – ANSWER- ANS: B
      Rationale: A common bile duct obstruction will reduce the
      absorption of fat in the small intestine, leading to fatty stools.
      Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is not caused by common bile duct
      obstruction. Serum cholesterol levels are increased with biliary<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n

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      obstruction. Direct bilirubin level is increased with biliary
      obstruction.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

        \n
      1. During change-of-shift report, the nurse receives the following
        information about a patient who is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which
        information should be communicated to the health care provider before
        sending the patient for the procedure?
        a. The patient has a permanent pacemaker to prevent bradycardia.
        b. The patient is worried about discomfort during the examination.
        c. The patient has had an allergic reaction to shellfish and iodine in the
        past.
        d. The patient refused to drink the ordered polyethylene glycol
        (GoLYTELY). – ANSWER- ANS: D
        Rationale: If the patient has had inadequate bowel preparation, the
        colon cannot be visualized and the procedure should be rescheduled.
        Because contrast solution is not used during colonoscopy, the iodine
        allergy is not pertinent. A pacemaker is a contraindication to
        magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), but not to colonoscopy. The
        nurse should instruct the patient about the sedation used during the
        examination to decrease the patient’s anxiety about discomfort.<\/li>\n\n\n\n
      2. When the nurse is obtaining a history from a patient who is admitted
        with jaundice, which statement is most indicative of a need for patient
        teaching?
        a. “I used cough syrup several times a day last week.”
        b. “I take a baby aspirin every day to prevent strokes.”
        c. “I need to take an antacid for indigestion several times a week”<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n

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        d. “I use acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for chronic pain.” –
        ANSWER- ANS: D
        Rationale: Chronic use of high doses of acetaminophen can be
        hepatotoxic and may have caused the patient’s jaundice. The other
        patient statements require further assessment by the nurse, but do
        not indicate a need for patient education.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

        When the nurse is listening to a patient’s abdomen, which finding
        indicates a need for a focused abdominal assessment?
        a. Loud gurgles
        b. High-pitched gurgles
        c. Absent bowel sounds
        get pdf at https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

        To palpate the liver, the nurse
        a. places one hand on the patient’s back and presses upward and inward
        with the other hand below the patient’s right costal margin.
        b. places one hand on top of the other and uses the upper fingers to apply
        pressure and the bottom fingers to feel for the liver edge.
        c. presses slowly and firmly over the right costal margin with one hand
        and withdraws the fingers quickly after the liver edge is felt.
        d. places one hand under the patient’s lower ribs and presses the left
        lower rib cage forward, palpating below the costal margin with the other
        hand. – ANSWER- ANS: A
        Rationale: The liver is normally not palpable below the costal
        margin, the nurse needs to push inward below the right costal
        margin while lifting the patient’s back slightly with the left hand.
        The other methods will not allow palpation of the liver.<\/p>\n\n\n\n

        get pdf at https:\/\/learnexams.com\/search\/study?query=<\/a><\/p>\n\n\n\n

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        NR 325 EXAM 2 NEWEST 2024-2025 ACTUAL EXAM
        COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
        DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
        |ALREADY GRADED A+
        _ is used to assess soft tissue injury, neurologic changes, unexplained neurologic deficits, or worsening neurologic condition in SCI. – ANSWER- MRI Goals immediately after include maintaining a patent
        airway, adequate ventilation\/breathing, and adequate circulating
        blood volume (ABCs) and preventing extension of spinal cord
        damage (secondary injury). – ANSWER- SCI
        allows the patient to move and ambulate while cervical
        bones fuse – ANSWER- Halo fixation device
        One of the physically demonstrable symptoms of meningitis is
        __<\/em><\/strong>. Severe neck stiffness causes a patient’s hips and
        knees to flex when the neck is flexed. – ANSWER- Brudzinski’s
        sign<\/p>\n\n\n\n

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        Positive _ sign is involuntary flexing of hips and knees (an involuntary reaction to lessen the stretch on the inflamed meninges) – ANSWER- Brudzinski’s sign is a neuropsychiatric manifestation of liver
        disease. The pathogenesis is multifactorial. It includes the
        neurotoxic effects of ammonia, abnormal neurotransmission,
        astrocyte swelling, and inflammatory cytokines. – ANSWERHepatic encephalopathy
        A characteristic manifestation of hepatic encephalopathy is
        , or flapping tremors, with the most common involving the
        arms and hands. – ANSWER- asterixis
        If the common bile duct is obstructed due to , no bilirubin
        will reach the small intestine to be converted to urobilinogen.
        Thus the kidneys will excrete bilirubin, causing dark amber to
        brown urine. – ANSWER- cholelithiasis
        Complications of _<\/em><\/strong> and cholecystitis include gangrenous
        cholecystitis, subphrenic abscess, pancreatitis, cholangitis
        (inflammation of biliary ducts), biliary cirrhosis, fistulas, and
        rupture of the gallbladder, which can cause bile peritonitis. –
        ANSWER- cholelithiasis<\/p>\n\n\n\n

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        Manifestations of _ vary from indigestion to moderate to severe pain, fever, chills, and jaundice. – ANSWERcholecystitis When a stone is lodged in the ducts or when stones are moving through the ducts, spasms may result in response to the stone. This sometimes causes severe pain, which is termed
        . – ANSWER- biliary colic
        results in the replacement of liver tissue by fibrosis (scar
        tissue) and regenerative nodules that occur from the liver’s
        attempt to repair itself – ANSWER- cirrhosis
        Hepatic encephalopathy caused by cirrhosis is treated with
        , to prevent breakdown of blood and the release of
        ammonia in the intestine. – ANSWER- lactulose
        Increased levels of alkaline phosphatase, ALT, and AST are the
        notable labs present with . – ANSWER- cholecystitis
        After an _<\/em><\/strong>, tell the patient to avoid heavy lifting for
        4 to 6 weeks. Usual sexual activities, including intercourse, can
        be resumed as soon as the patient feels ready, unless otherwise
        instructed by the HCP. – ANSWER- incisional cholecystectomy<\/p>\n\n\n\n

        4 | P a g e<\/p>\n\n\n\n

          \n
        1. Remove the bandages on the puncture sites the day after
          surgery and you can shower.<\/li>\n\n\n\n
        2. Notify your HCP if any of the following signs and symptoms
          occurs:<\/li>\n<\/ol>\n\n\n\n