AAPC CPC Practice Questions 2022 (Questions for Practice with Answers)
A 46-year-old female had a previous biopsy that indicated positive malignant margins anteriorly on
the right side of her neck. A 0.5 cm margin was drawn out and a 15 blade scalpel was used for full
excision of an 8 cm lesion. Layered closure was performed after the removal. The specimen was
sent for permanent histopathologic examination. What are the CPT® code(s) for this procedure?
A. 11626
B. 11626, 12004-51
C. 11626, 12044-51
D. 11626, 13132-51, 13133 – C. 11626, 12044-51
A 30-year-old female is having 15 sq cm debridement performed on an infected ulcer with eschar
on the right foot. Using sharp dissection, the ulcer was debrided all the way to down to the bone of
the foot. The bone had to be minimally trimmed because of a sharp point at the end of the
metatarsal. After debriding the area, there was minimal bleeding because of very poor circulation of
the foot. It seems that the toes next to the ulcer may have some involvement and cultures were
taken. The area was dressed with sterile saline and dressings and then wrapped. What CPT® code
should be reported?
A. 11043
B. 11012
C. 11044
D. 11042 – C. 11044
A 64-year-old female who has multiple sclerosis fell from her walker and landed on a glass table.
She lacerated her forehead, cheek and chin and the total length of these lacerations was 6 cm. Her
right arm and left leg had deep cuts measuring 5 cm on each extremity. Her right hand and right
foot had a total of 3 cm lacerations. The ED physician repaired the lacerations as follows: The
forehead, cheek, and chin had debridement and cleaning of glass debris with the lacerations being
closed with one layer closure, 6-0 Prolene sutures. The arm and leg were repaired by layered
closure, 6-0 Vicryl subcutaneous sutures and Prolene sutures on the skin. The hand and foot were
closed with adhesive strips. Select the appropriate procedure codes for this visit.
A. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 12002-59, 11042-51
B. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59, 12002-59
C. 99283-25, 12014, 12034-59, 11042-51
D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59 – D. 99283-25, 12053, 12034-59
A 52-year-old female has a mass growing on her right flank for several years. It has finally gotten
significantly larger and is beginning to bother her. She is brought to the Operating Room for
definitive excision. An incision was made directly overlying the mass. The mass was down into the
subcutaneous tissue and the surgeon encountered a well encapsulated lipoma approximately 4
centimeters. This was excised primarily bluntly with a few attachments divided with
electrocautery. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
A. 21932, D17.39
B. 21935, D17.1
C. 21931, D17.1
D. 21925, D17.9 – C. 21931, D17.1
Question 5
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Right scaphoid fracture. TYPE OF PROCEDURE: Open reduction and
internal fixation of right scaphoid fracture. DESCRIPTION OF PROCEDURE: The patient was brought
to the operating room; anesthesia having been administered. The right upper extremity was
prepped and draped in a sterile manner. The limb was elevated, exsanguinated, and a pneumatic
arm tourniquet was elevated. An incision was made over the dorsal radial aspect of the right wrist.
Skin flaps were elevated. Cutaneous nerve branches were identified and very gently retracted. The
interval between the second and third dorsal compartment tendons was identified and entered. The
respective tendons were retracted. A dorsal capsulotomy incision was made, and the fracture was
visualized. There did not appear to be any type of significant defect at the fracture site. A 0.045
Kirschner wire was then used as a guidewire, extending from the proximal pole of the scaphoid
distal ward. The guidewire was positioned appropriately and then measured. A 25-mm Acutrak®
drill bit was drilled to 25 mm. A 22.5-mm screw was selected and inserted and rigid internal
fixation was accomplished in this fashion. This was visualized under the OEC imaging device in
multiple projections. The wound was irrigated and closed in layers. Sterile dressings were then
applied. The patient tolerated the procedure well and left the operating room in stable condition.
What CPT® code is reported for this procedure?
A. 25628-RT
B. 25624-RT
C. 25645-RT
D. 25651-RT – A. 25628-RT
An infant with genu valgum is brought to the operating room to have a bilateral medial distal femur
hemiepiphysiodesis done. On each knee, the C-arm was used to localize the growth plate. With the
growth plate localized, an incision was made medially on both sides. This was taken down to the
fascia, which was opened. The periosteum was not opened. The Orthofix® figure-of-eight plate was
placed and checked with X-ray. We then irrigated and closed the medial fascia with 0 Vicryl suture.
The skin was closed with 2-0 Vicryl and 3-0 Monocryl®. What procedure code is reported?
A. 27470-50
B. 27475-50
C. 27477-50
D. 27485-50 – D. 27485-50
The patient is a 67-year-old gentleman with metastatic colon cancer recently operated on for a
brain metastasis, now for placement of an Infuse-A-Port for continued chemotherapy. The left
subclavian vein was located with a needle and a guide wire placed. This was confirmed to be in the
proper position fluoroscopically. A transverse incision was made just inferior to this and a
subcutaneous pocket created just inferior to this. After tunneling, the introducer was placed over
the guide wire and the power port line was placed with the introducer and the introducer was
peeled away. The tip was placed in the appropriate position under fluoroscopic guidance and the
catheter trimmed to the appropriate length and secured to the power port device. The locking
mechanism was fully engaged. The port was placed in the subcutaneous pocket and everything sat
very nicely fluoroscopically. It was secured to the underlying soft tissue with 2-0 silk stitch. What
CPT® code(s) is (are) reported for this procedure?
A. 36556, 77001-26
B. 36558
C. 36561, 77001-26
D. 36571 – C. 36561, 77001-26
Question 8
A CT scan identified moderate-sized right pleural effusion in a 50 year-old male. This was estimated
to be 800 cc in size and had an appearance of fluid on the CT Scan. A needle is used to puncture
through the chest tissues and enter the pleural cavity to insert a guidewire under ultrasound
guidance. A pigtail catheter is then inserted at the length of the guidewire and secured by stitches.
The catheter will remain in the chest and is connected to drainage system to drain the accumulated
fluid. The CPT® code is:
A. 32557
B. 32555
C. 32556
D. 32550 – A. 32557
The patient is a 59-year-old white male who underwent carotid endarterectomy for symptomatic
left carotid stenosis a year ago. A carotid CT angiogram showed a recurrent 90% left internal
carotid artery stenosis extending into the common carotid artery. He is taken to the operating room
for re-do left carotid endarterectomy. The left neck was prepped and the previous incision was
carefully reopened. Using sharp dissection, the common carotid artery and its branches were
dissected free. The patient was systematically heparinized and after a few minutes, clamps were
applied to the common carotid artery and its branches. A longitudinal arteriotomy was carried out
with findings of extensive layering of intimal hyperplasia with no evidence of recurrent
atherosclerosis. A silastic balloon-tip shunt was inserted first proximally and then distally, with
restoration of flow. Several layers of intima were removed and the endarterectomized surfaces
irrigated with heparinized saline. An oval Dacron patch was then sewn into place with running 6-0
Prolene. Which CPT® code(s) is/are reported?
A. 35301
B. 35301, 35390
C. 35302
D. 35311, 35390 – B. 35301, 35390
A 52-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital for chronic cholecystitis for which a laparoscopic
cholecystectomy will be performed. A transverse infraumbilical incision was made sharply
dissecting to the subcutaneous tissue down to the fascia using access under direct vision with a
Vesi-Port and a scope was placed into the abdomen. Three other ports were inserted under direct
vision. The fundus of the gallbladder was grasped through the lateral port, where multiple
adhesions to the gallbladder were taken down sharply and bluntly: The gallbladder appeared
chronically inflamed. Dissection was carried out to the right of this identifying a small cystic duct
and artery, was clipped twice proximally, once distally and transected. The gallbladder was then
taken down from the bed using electrocautery, delivering it into an endo-bag and removing it from
the abdominal cavity with the umbilical port. What CPT® and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
AAPC CPC FINAL EXAM 2022/2023 QUESTIONS WITH FULL ANSWER KEY &
RATIONALE
When coding in operative report what action would NOT be recommended? – Coding from the
header with out reading the body of the report
If an NCD doesn’t exist for a particular service/procedure performed on a Medicare patient who
determines coverage? – Medicare administrative contractor (MAC)
MAC stands for what!? – Medicare administrative contractor
What is the definition of coding? – Translating documentation into numerical/alphabetical codes
used to obtain reimbursement.
How many components should be included in an effective compliance plan? – 7
Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? – Acts as a gland by synthesizing vitamin A.
What is affected by myasthenia gravis? – Neuromuscular junction
The term “episiotomy” Best describes a procedure of what type? – An incision made into the
perineum to enlarge the passage for the fetus during delivery
A patient is diagnosed with inflammation of the testes and epididymis. The medical term for this
condition is: – Orchiepididymitis
A condition where the thyroid is overactive is called: – Thyrotoxicosis
What does ICD 10 CM stand for? – International classification of diseases – 10th revised – clinical
modification
What is the sequencing order when coding a sequela (late effect)? – The residual condition is coded
first, in the code(s) for the cause of the late effect are coded as secondary
What is the ICD 10 CM code for hives? – L50.9
20-year-old comes into the ED with symptoms of a severe headache, vomiting, stiff neck, and fever.
The ED physician suspects that the meningitis is bacterial and performs a lumber puncture. The ED
physician reviews the results in the patient is admitted in the hospital for meningitis. The ED
physician suspects that the meningitis is bacterial. Which ICD 10 CM code is reported by the ED
physician? – G03.9
45 year old female with malignant Mullerian duct cancer is receiving her first treatment of
chemotherapy. What diagnosis codes are reported? – Z51.11, C57.7
The patient is a 12 month old with a history of muscle weakness. Unfortunately his etiology is
unknown and to help delineate the diagnosis neurology has consulted us to obtain a right biceps
muscle biopsy. What diagnosis code is reported? – M62.81
The provider orders the following serum blood tests as part of a pre-employment physical exam.
The patient goes to the local hospital for the following tests: CBC automated and automated
differential WBC count (85025), comprehensive metabolic panel (80053), and a thyroid stimulating
hormone assay (84443), all part of the general health panel. A drug screen for multiple drug classes
was also collected (80100). What diagnosis code is reported? – Z02.1
What ICD 10 CM code is reported for a patient who is a habitual abuser of cannabis? – F12.10
What codes, according to ICD 10 CM sequencing guidelines, describe a patient that has heart
disease due to malignant hypertension with left heart failure? – I11.0, 150.1
AAPC CPC Exam 2022 prep Compliance and Regulatory (100% correct)
What document is referenced to when looking for potentialproblem areas identified by the
government indicatingscrutiny of the services within the coming year?:
A) OIG Compliance Plan Guidance
B) OIG Security Summary
C) OIG Work Plan
D) OIG Investigation Plan – C (Rationale: Twice a year, the OIG releases a Work Plan outlining its
priorities for the fiscal year ahead. Within the Work Plan, potential problem areas with claims
submissions are listed and will be targeted with special scrutiny.)
What form is provided to a patient to indicate a servicemay not be covered by Medicare and the
patient may be responsible for the charges?:
A) LCD
B) CMS-1500
C) UB-04
D) ABN – D (Rationale: An Advanced Beneficiary Notice (ABN) is used when a Medicare beneficiary
requests or agrees to receive a procedure or service that Medicare may not cover. This form notifies
the patient of potential out of pocket costs for the patient.)
Under HIPAA, what would be a policy requirement for “minimum necessary”? “
A) Only individuals whose job requires it may have access to protected health information.
B) Only the patient has access to his or her own protected health information.
C) Only the treating provider has access to protected health information.
D) Anyone within the provider’s office can have access to protected health information. – A
(Rationale: It is the responsibility of a covered entity to develop and implement policies, best suited
to its particular circumstances to meet HIPAA requirements. As a policy requirement, only those
individuals whose job requires it may have access to protected health information.)
Which statement describes a medically necessary service? :
A) Performing a procedure/service based on cost to eliminate wasteful services.
B) Using the least radical service/procedure that allows for effective treatment of the patient’s
complaint or condition.
C) Using the closest facility to perform a service or procedure.
D) Using the appropriate course of treatment to fit within the patient’s lifestyle. – B (Rationale:
Medical necessity is using the least radical services/procedure that allows for effective treatment of
the patient’s complaint or condition.)
According to the example LCD from Novitas Solutions, which of the following conditions is
considered a systemic condition that may result in the need for routine foot care? :
A) arthritis
B) chronic venous insufficiency
C) hypertension
D) muscle weakness – B (Rationale: According to the LCD, Chronic venous insufficiency is a systemic
condition that may result in the need for routine foot care.)
When presenting a cost estimate on an ABN for a potentially noncovered service, the cost estimate
should be within what range of the actual cost?
A) $25 or 10 percent
B) $100 or 10 percent
C) $100 or 25 percent
D) An exact amount – C (Rationale: CMS instructions stipulate, “Notifiers must make a good faith
effort to insert a reasonable estimate…the estimate should be within $100 or 25 percent of the
actual costs, whichever is greater.”)
Which act was enacted as part of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA) and
affected privacy and security? :
A) HIPAA
B) HITECH
C) SSA
D) PPACA – B
AAPC CPC FINAL PRACTICE TEST QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS (CPC exam preparation 2021/2022)
A covered entity does NOT include
a. Healthcare providers
b. Health plans
c. Patients
d. Clearinghouses – c. Patients
What does MAC stands for?
a. Medicare Administrative Contractor
b. Medicare Advisory Contractor
c. Medicaid Administrative Contractor
d. Medicaid Alert Contractor – a. Medicare Administrative Contractor
When are providers responsible for obtaining an ABN for a service NOT considered medically
necessary?
a. After providing a service or item to a beneficiary.
b. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary.
c. After a denial has been received from Medicare.
d. During a procedure or service. – b. Prior to providing a service or item to a beneficiary
AAPC credentialed coders have proven mastery of what information?
a. Code sets
b. Evaluation and management principles
c. Documentation guidelines
d. All of the above – d. All of the above
Local Coverage Determinations are administered by whom?
a. LMRPs
b. NCDs
c. State Law
d. Each regional MAC – d. Each regional MAC
Rationale: Each Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) is then responsible for interpreting
national policies into regional policies
Which of the following best describes constituent components of the human lymphatic system?
a. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, spleen, thoracic duct
b. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, thymus gland, pancreas
c. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, tonsils, liver
d. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels, bone marrow, kidneys – a. Lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels,
spleen, thoracic duct
The term hemic specifically refers to what bodily fluid?
a. Bile interstitial fluid
b. Interstitial fluid
c. Blood
d. Lymph – c. Blood
Which part of the brain controls blood pressure, heart rate and respiration?
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Cortex
d. Medulla – d. Medulla
The radiology term fluoroscopy is described as:
a. Use of high-frequency sound waves to image anatomic structures
b. An X-ray procedure allowing the visualization of internal organs in motion
c. Technique using magnetism, radio waves and a computer to produce images
d. A scan using an X-ray beam rotating around the patient – b. An X-ray procedure allowing the
visualization of internal organs in motion
Which of the following characterizes the disorder dystonia?
a. Difficulty swallowing
b. Slowness of motion
c. Abnormal muscle tone causing abnormal postures and muscle spasm
d. Impairment of speech – c. Abnormal muscle tone causing abnormal postures and muscle spasm
In the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index what is the code next to the main term called?
a. Category Code
b. Default Code
c. Unspecified Code
d. Subcategory Code – b. Default Code
What is the ICD-10-CM code for eyestrain?
a. H53.10
b. H53.10, H53.10
c. H57.811, H57.812
d. H57.813 – a. H53.10
What is the ICD-10-CM code for fatigue?
a. R29.898
b. F45.8
c. F48.8
d. R53.83 – d. R53.83
A patient sees his primary care provider for chest pain and regurgitation. The provider’s diagnosis
for the patient is gastroesophageal reflux. What diagnosis code(s) should be reported?
a. K21.9
b. K21.9, R07.9, K21.9
c. R07.9, R11.10
d. R07.9, R11.10, K21.9 – a. K21.9
A 45 year-old female with malignant Mullerian duct cancer is receiving her first treatment of
chemotherapy. What diagnosis codes are reported?
a. C79.82, Z51.11
b. C57.7, Z51.11
c. Z51.11, D28.7
d. Z51.11, C57.7 – d. Z51.11, C57.7
According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, when a patient is seen for management of anemia due to
malignancy, how is it reported?
a. Anemia is the only condition reported.
b. The malignancy is the only condition reported.
c. Anemia is reported first, followed by the code for the malignancy.
d. The malignancy is reported first, followed by the code for the anemia. – d. The malignancy is
reported first, followed by the code for the anemia.
CPC Practice Exam Questions and Answers
(2023 – 2024) With Complete Solution
When a patient has a blood test for HIV that is inconclusive, what ICD-10-CM code is assigned
a. Z21
b. R75
c. B20
d. Z11.4 – b. R75
What does MRSA stand for
a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
b. Methicillin Resistant Streptococcus Aureus
c. Moderate Resistance Susceptible Aureus
d. Mild Resistance Streptococcus Aureus – a. Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
What does the fourth character in diabetes mellitus diabetes codes indicate?
a. The condition as controlled or uncontrolled
b. Any complication associated with diabetes
c. Type of diabetes (type 1, or Type 2, secondary)
d. If the diabetes is primary or secondary diabetes – b. Any complication associated with diabetes
When do you code acute respiratory failure as a secondary diagnosis
a. the patient has any other condition at the same time
b. When it is determined to be the cause of the shortness of breath
c. Acute respiratory failure is always listed first
d. When it occurs after admission – d. When it occurs after admission
When the type of diabetes mellitus is not documented in the medical note, what is used as the
default type
a. Type 2
b. Type 1
c. Can be type 1 or 2
d. Secondary diabetes – a. Type 2
When is it appropriate to use history of malignancy, from category Z85
a. once the malignancy is removed form that site but the patient is still receiving chemotherapy
b. When the patient cancels treatment for that site
c. It has been excised, no evidence of any existing primary malignancy, and there is not further
treatment directed to the site
d. when 5 years has passed after surgery – c. It has been excised, no evidence of any existing primary
malignancy, and there is not further treatment directed to the site
If a patient uses insulin, what type of diabetic does it mean the patient is
a. secondary diabetes
b. type 2
c. type 1
d. the use of insulin does not specify the patient is a certain type of diabetic – d. the use of insulin
does not specify the patient is a certain type of diabetic
Pneumonia due to adenovirus. What ICD-1-CM code is reported
a. B34.0