AANP STUDY BUNDLE PACK SOLUTION 2023 (Questions and Answers )(Verified Answers)

1 / 8
AANP Board Exam 2023 Questions and Answers
(Verified Answers)
1.INR values below increase stroke risk sixfold. ANS 2
2.What allergy contradicts the use of thiazide diuretics? ANS Sulfa
3.Why should ACE-Is be avoided with renal stenosis? ANS Leads to ARF
4.Adverse effects of aldosterone antagonists (Aldactone) ANS
Galactorrhea and hyperkalemia
5.What are beta blocker indications? ANS HTN, post-MI< angina,
arrhythmias, mi- graine prophylaxis, hyperthyroidism
6.1st line BP med for DM? ANS ACE or ARB
7.Grapefruit juice should be avoided in what 1st line antihypertensive
med- ication? ANS CCB
8.Alternative antibiotic treatment for patients with gram positive
baterial infections that are allergic to PCN ANS macrolides

2 / 8
9.Initial treatment of COPD ANS Ipratropium bromide (anticholinergic)
10.1st line treatment for gonorrheal infections ANS Rocephin IM
11.Treatment of anthrax ANS Cipro 500mg BID 7-10 days
12.Treatment of traveler’s diarrhea ANS Cipro 500mg BID 3 days
13.What can increase the risk of tendon rupture when on a quinolone?
ANS age and steroids
14.How long does ASA suppress platelet function? ANS up to 7 days
15.What is the FDA category and dose of finasteride? ANS 5mg PO
QD and category X
16.What drug category should not be given with warfarin? ANS sulfa drugs17.When should routine screening for breast cancer start? ANS 40
18.If a patient had only one dose of the hep B vaccine what is
recommend- ed? ANS Do not restart series; Start with 2nd dose
19.What is done if a patient has a tetanus-prone wound and an unknown
vac- cination status? ANS Administer immediate dose of Td and the
teatnus immunoglob- ulin injection
20.If a person is vaccinated with pneumovax prior to 65 what is

3 / 8
recommend- ed? ANS Give a booster dose of pneumovax 5 years after
initial dose
21.When should Zostavax be given? ANS age 60
22.How far apart should the varicella vaccines be given? ANS 4 weeks

1 / 20
AANP FNP Certification Exam 2023 Questions and
Answers (Verified Answers)
1.All diastolic murmurs are pathological. Murmurs Grades I-barely IIaudible III- clearly audible. IV- first time thrill V-Steth edge VI-entire steth.
EXAM: III first time audible, IV first time thrill
2.Fundal height 12 weeks: Fundal Height 12 weeks above symphysis
pubis. EXAM
Fundus 16 weeks between symphysis pubis and
umbilicus. Fundus at 20 weeks is at umbilicus.
2 cm more of less from # of wk gestation is normal if more or less
order US
3.3 month old infant with down syndrome, due to milk intolerance, mom
started on goats milk; now has pale conjunctiva but otherwise healthy.
Low HCT. What additional test would you order?: Iron, TIBC
4.3 months of synthroid, TSH increased, T4 normal, what do you do?:
In- crease Medication

2 / 20
5.3 ways to assess cognitive function in patient with signs/symptoms
of memory loss: Mini mental exam
6.4 month old with strabismus, mom is worried……: tell her it is normal.
7.4 month old wont keep anything down, what is the main thing you
look at?: Growth chart
8.6 month old closed anterior fontanel.: XRAY
9.Abnormal cells on PAP, what do you do next?: Refer for Colposcopy
10.CAGE ACRONYM: Cut
down Annoyed by criticism
Guilty about
drinking Eye
opener drink
11.Causes of tachycardia:

3 / 20
Fever Anemia
Hypotension
12.Cranial nerves responsible for extraocular eye movements: CN 3,4,6
13.Definition of metabolic syndrome: cluster of conditions that increase
risk of heart disease, stroke, diabetes.
14.diagnose trichomoniasis: wet prep
15.Elderly presents with atrophic vaginitis, small uterus, palpable 4×5
ovary, what do you do next?: Pelvic US

4 / 20
16.Epistaxis is most common in the area of the nose known as
kiesselbachs triangle, where is this located?: Anterior septum
17.Definitive diagnosis of acute bacterial prostatitis: urinalysis and culture18.GERD treatment: H2 is first line, give hs
19.Grade 3 cells on Pap, treatment?: LEEP
excision
20.Fingernail hematoma treatment?: drill hole and drain blood?
21.Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy: Salpingitis, or history of abortion,PID,
22.Koplick spots: Measles (rubeola). Grains of salt lesions inside
mouth in Measles
23.Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease: Avascular necrosis of the proximal
femoral head

1 /
AANP Review Questions and Answers 2023
(Verified Answers)

1. A 64 year old with HTN and DM presents with productive cough, fever,
   body aches. What diagnosis is most likely?
   a. Acute bronchitis
   b. Chronic bronchitis
   c. Pneumonia
   d. Pertussis: c. Pneumonia
   1st clue: 64 year old
   2nd clue: multiple
   comorbidities 3rd clue:
   cough, fever
   what was the stem of the question?
   2.Indications for a chest xray with acute cough: abnormal vital signs
   (in- creased RR or HR, temp >38c, 100.4F
   rales, consolidation

or equal 75 years of age with cough***

2 /
***Pneumonia in older patient: tachypnea, decreased O2 sat, OR
change in mental status or behavior

3. A 75 year old patient wo smokes and has COPD presents with a
   worsening cough, weight loss, fatigue, and an enlarged right
   supraclavicular node. Which finding is most indicative of a right lung
   tumor?
4. worsening cough
5. weight loss
6. fatigue
7. supraclavicular node: 4. supraclavicular node
   most important stem clue because this lymph node drains the chest
   and breast. It’s a BIG deal!
   If the stem gives a unilateral finding, look for a unilateral diagnosis
8. What symptoms most commonly accompany acute bronchitis?
9. Fever, runny nose
10. Cough, fever
11. Cough and URI symptoms
12. Cough, URI, and headache: 3. Cough and URI symptoms
    Remember that bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchioles,
    bronchi, and

3 /
trachea; usually follows an upper respiratory infection
Starts above the shoulders and drops down into chest.

5. A 35 year old patient with acute bronchitis has no underlying lung
   disease. He asks, “How long before my cough goes aways?” The NP
   responds:
6. <1 week
7. about 1 week
8. 1-3 weeks
9. >3 weeks: 3. 1-3 weeks
   The patient with bronchitis will have evidence of upper AND lower
   airway symp- toms.
   COUGH, COUGH, COUGH, usually worse at night!
   6.What is the management of bronchitis?: Treat
   symptoms! Time is the only thing for bronchitis
   ABX usually prescribed, but usually not necessary
   7.Differential Diagnosis for Acute Bronchitis:
   PND Asthma
   PNA
   Pertussi
   s TB
   8.Supraclavicular nodes: associated with high rates of malignancy.
   What organs are on the right vs left?: RT: Lungs, mediastinum,
   esophagus

4 /
LT: Abdominal malignancy: stomach GB liver pancreas ovaries prostate

9. Pneumonia
   Vaccine Who?
   Who else?
   When is it given again?: Who-Prevention: Pneumococcal polysaccharide
   vacci- nation (PPSV) given once in a lifetime to immunocompetent
   adults > or equal 65 years
   Who else-Adults 19-64 with
   –chronic CV, lung, liver disease
   –smokers, DM, ETOH, or asplenic
   –chronic care facilities
   –immunocompromising conditions
   When again-one time 5 years after for CRF, nephrotic syndrome,
   asplenia, sickle cell, immunocompromising conditions

1 / 18
AANP Practice Questions and Answers 2023
(Verified Answers)

1. A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination after a
   new patient visit. She has not seen a healthcare provider for several
   years.
   She is a smoker and her hypertension is now adequately controlled with
   medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid
   profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. In
   addition to starting Therapeutic Lifestyle Changes, the nurse practitioner
   should start the patient on:
   1.bile acid sequestrant.
2. a statin drug.
3. a cholesterol absorption inhibitor.
4. low-dose aspirin.: A statin drug
5. The most commonly prescribed medication for mild systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is:
6. azathioprine (AZA).
7. belimumab (Benlysta).

2 / 18

3. ibuprofen (Advil).
4. cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan).: ibuprofen (advil)
5. The most common sign of cervical cancer is:
6. postcoital bleeding.
7. strong odor from vaginal discharge.
8. itching in the vaginal area.
9. molluscum contagiosum.: postcoital bleeding
10. The nurse practitioner prescribes amitriptyline (Elavil) for a patient
    with neuropathic pain secondary to diabetes mellitus. On follow-up, the
    patient complains of urine retention and dry mouth. The practitioner
    would:
11. discontinue amitriptyline and begin ibuprofen (Motrin).
12. refer to physical therapy.
13. start methocarbamol (Robaxin).
14. discontinue amitriptyline and begin gabapentin (Neurontin).:
    discontinue amitriptyline and begin gabapentin (neurontin)
15. A 17-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with an
    NSAID and omeprazole (Prilosec). The patient complains of headache,
    abdominal pain, and gas. These symptoms are most likely:

3 / 18

1. associated with the omeprazole.
2. related to the underlying condition.
3. the result of the NSAID.
4. caused by viral gastroenteritis.: associated with the omeprazole
5. The medication of choice for the initial treatment of juvenile
   rheumatoid arthritis is:
6. acetaminophen.
7. prednisone.
8. aspirin.
9. ibuprofen.: ibuprofen
10. A 12-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle
    cell crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent
    hospitalization. It is most important to continue monitoring growth,
    development, and:
11. white blood cell levels.
12. fecal occult blood test.
13. hemoglobin levels.
14. urine dipsticks.: hemoglobin levels
15. A 90-year-old female is brought to the clinic by her neighbor. She states
    that everything is fine, but the nurse practitioner notes that she has poor

4 / 18
hygiene and bruises on her trunk. The neighbor is concerned that the
patient often has no money to buy food, despite income from social
security and a coal miner’s pension. The nurse practitioner suspects
abuse. Which of the following is the nurse practitioner obligated to do
next?

1. Report the case to the proper authorities.
   2.Tell the neighbor to check on the woman daily and report back.
2. Document the data and report the information to risk management.
3. Call the patient’s family and inquire about the concerns.: report the
   case to proper authorities
4. In most cases, the first manifestation of Alzheimer’s disease is:
5. impaired judgment.
6. decrease in short-term memory.
7. disorientation in time and place.
8. decrease in long-term memory.: decrease in short-term memory
9. The optimal treatment for latent tuberculosis is:

1 / 36
AANP Certification Exam Questions and Answers 2023
(Verified Answers)
1.diverticulum can be an infection of: both gram – and + bacteria
2.Which diuretic should be used for osteoporosis?: Thiazide
diuretics: slows the kidneys excretion of calcium and increases
reabsorption
3.Lachman maneuver: knee
instability tear of ACL
4.Infections of labia and vagina: bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis, and
trichomo- niasis
5.Chlamydia affects: cervix, endometrial lining, fallopian tubes, pelvic
cavity
6.Acute abdomen symptoms: involuntary guarding, rebound
tenderness, board-like abdomen, +obturator and psoas sign
7.Care of preecplampsia: bed rest, weight and blood pressure monitoring
2 / 36
8.Preeclampsia labs: urine protein, serum protein, creatinine, platelet
count
9.Preeclampsia symptoms: hypertension, proteinuria, edema (weight
gain)
10.Preeclampsia complications: placental abruption, coagulopathy
(DIC), renal failure, uteroplacental insufficiency, liver failure,
hypertensive encephalopathy, reti- nal detachment, pulmonary edema,
seizure, death

11. community acquired
    pneumonia Most common bacteria
    least common bacteria
    Population
    treatment: mycolpasma pneumoniae (atypical)
    h. influenza, strep
    pneumoniae atypical:
    psuedomonas aeruginosa
    college student, school children,
    military macrolides: azithromycin,
    clarithromycin

3 / 36
12.Mantoux test: Positive: 5mm
Positive for recent immigrants:
10mm
13.Murphy’s sign: biliary disorders
deep inspiration by patient and deep palpation RUQ below
costovertebral angle
14.placenta previa: implantation of the placenta over the cervical
opening or in the lower region of the uterus
painless bright red blood in the second or third
trimester Order abdominal US

4 / 36
15.Hashimoto’s is most common in which population: middle age to
older women
16.Hypertension Retinopathy: AV nicking and copper or silver wire
arterioles flame-shaped hemorrhages
17.threatened abortion: vaginal bleeding and cramping, soft uterus,
cervix closed
18.bacterial vaginosis: fishy odor, milky white or dull gray
discharge pH > 4.5

20% clue
cells KOH
whiff test
19.squamous cells dotted with lots of bacteria that obscure borders:
clue cells
20.Lichen sclerosis: skin disease, white spots appear over time, most
common genital and rectal
most common in older
woman itching,
discomfort, bleeding order

1 / 20
APEA Questions Bank AANP Review

1. Gestational diabetes screening occurs between what weeks gestation?
   ANS –
   24-48
2. When you ask the patient to take a deep breath in and then
   palpate over the RUQ abdomen. Positive when pain is elicited. This is
   a sign of
   . ANS Murphy’s sign; cholecystitis
   3.What are names of LABA medications? ANS salmeterol
   4.What is encopresis in children? ANS stool incontinence after the age of
   being toilet trained
   5.The medical term for being cross-eyed ANS strabismus
   6.What is atopic dermatitis? ANS eczema

2 / 20
7.Tests used to diagnose developmental hip dysplasia ANS Barlow and
Ortolani maneuvers
8.What is the female athlete triad? ANS disordered eating, amenorrhea,
osteoporo- sis
9.How do patients with aortic regurgitation typically present? ANS they
will have a long asymptomatic period followed by exercise intolerance,
then dyspnea at rest. The left ventricle eventually fails unless the
aortic valve is replaced.
10.What does the rash of fifth disease (a viral exanthem) look like? ANS
macu- lopapular rash that blanches easily and may be accompanied
by joint aches
11.What cardiac abnormalities are expected to be heard on auscultation
of a pregnant patient? ANS a venous hum murmur and an S3
12.When a headache accompanies a stroke, is this most often

3 / 20
hemorrhagic or ischemic? ANS hemorrhagic
13.AV nicking is most commonly seen on retinal exam of which
chronic condition? ANS hypertension
14.Within 6 months of being started on a TCA or SSRI, what is a
common side effect that occurs? ANS weight gain
15.When does otitis media with effusion usually occur? ANS either
before or after an episode of acute otitis media. This effusion is not
infected fluid but it is considered a breeding ground for bacteria.
This should not be treated with antibiotics.
16.The medical term for jock itch ANS tinea cruris
17.Tinea cruris “jock itch” is a common infection and should
be treated with what? ANS fungal; OTC antifungal cream

4 / 20
18.What are teaching points for males to avoid contracting tinea cruris?
ANS dry off after swimming and don’t stay in a wet bathing suit
19.Tinea cruris can affect the inner thighs but never what else? ANS the
penis or scrotum
20.On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence
of a bacterial infection? ANS cocci and rods
21.On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence
of a candidal infection? ANS yeasts
22.What are dermatophytes? ANS fungi
23.On microscopic exam, what is most likely to be seen in the presence
of a dermatophytic (fungal) infection? ANS hyphae that are long, thin,
and branching (such as in the case of tinea pedis, tinea cruris, and
tinea corporis)
24.The medical term for ringworm ANS tinea corporis