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1. A 68-year-old male patient presents with sudden onset of severe chest pain radiating to the back and dyspnea. A CT scan reveals a thoracic aortic aneurysm. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management? A. Immediate surgery B. Intravenous beta-blockers C. Observation with serial imaging D. Anticoagulation therapy Correct Answer: B. Intravenous beta-blockers Rationale: The initial management of a thoracic aortic aneurysm presenting with pain is to control the blood pressure and heart rate to decrease the risk of rupture. Beta-blockers are the first-line treatment to achieve this goal. 2. A patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes is admitted with complaints of shortness of breath and wheezing. Physical examination reveals rales in the lower lung fields, and the chest X-ray shows pulmonary edema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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