AGPCNP Board Review 2026/2027 With Complete QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (22pages)

Lesions often begin as small, firm, dome-shaped growths on genitals or other parts of the body (armpits, neck, face, hands); have a surface that feels smooth, waxy, or pearly; are flesh-colored or pink; have a dimple in the center (may be filled with a thick, white substance that is cheesy or waxy); and are painless but itch. Scratching or picking can spread the virus. - answerMolluscum contagiosum Thayer-Martin Selective Agar is an enriched medium for the selective isolation of - answerNeisseria species. N. gonorrhoeae Trauma to Kiesselbach's plexus will result in an - answeranterior nosebleed The diagnostic or gold-standard test for sickle cell anemia - answerglucose- 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) anemia the test is positive in De Quervain's tenosynovitis - answerFinkelstein's test—positive in De Quervain's tenosynovitis Anterior drawer maneuver and Lachman maneuvers are positive when: - answeranterior cruciate ligament (ACL) of the knee is damaged positive in meniscus injuries of the knee - answerMcMurray's sign neovascularization, cotton wool spots, and microaneurysms are suggestive off - answerdiabetic retinopathy atrioventricular [AV] nicking, silver and/or copper wire arterioles on fundal exam are suggestive of - answerhypertensive retinopathy A S4 heart sound is auscultated in an elderly patients, suggesting: - answerS4 heart sounds absent other symptoms in the elderly are often a benign finding For pain relief during pregnancy use: - answerFor pain relief, pick acetaminophen (Tylenol) instead of NSAIDs such as ibuprofen (Advil) or naproxen (Aleve, Anaprox) which hand should the ophthalmoscope be held in to examine a patient's eye - answershould be held in the same hand as the eye being examined the cut to disc ratio of a normal fundal exam should not exceed - answer1:2, e.g. the cup should not be more than half the size of the disc diameter if the provider is having trouble visualizing the macula on fundoscopic exam, the patient should be asked to look: - answerdirectly into the light of the ophthalmoscope clinical term used to described patient who have trouble seeing items that are far away (nearsightedness) - answermyopia clinical term for farsightedness - answerhyperopia difficulty in maintaining a clear focus at a new distance due to lessening of flexibility of the crystalline lens and weakening of ciliary muscles - common after 40 years - answerpresbyopia raised, wedge-shaped growth of noncancerous tissue over the conjunctiva exacerbated by sun, wind and dust - answerpterygium acute inflammatory process affecting the eyelid usually caused by staphylococcus aureus - answerhordeolum (stye) hordeolum (stye) is most commonly caused by what organism - answerstaphylococcus aureus hordeolum is commonly managed with: - answer1. warm compresses 2. topical bacitracin or erythromycin ointment 3. refer to an ophthalmologist if not resolved in ~ 2 days beady nodule on the eye lid that is usually painless apart from the tenderness caused by swelling - answerchalazion seborrheic dermatitis of the LID EDGE, often presents with red, scaly, greasy flakes - answerblepharitis tends to be the most irritating clinical symptoms of blepharitis - answeritching TX for blepharitis - answer1. hot compress 2. topical abx: bacitracin or erythromycin 3. Vigorously scrub lashes and lid margins with eyes closed and follow with thorough rinsing organism most commonly responsible for blepharitis - answerstaphylococcus most common inflammatory eye disorder with itching, burning, increases tearing, blurred vision (possible), sensation of foreign body in the eye which may be caused by allergies, chemical irritation, bacterial, viral or gonococcal/chlamydial infection - answerconjunctivitis (pink-eye) results from an increased intraocular pressure - answerglaucoma acute increase in IOP, opthalmic emergency - answerclosed-angle glaucoma a patient who presents with extreme eye pain, blurred vision, pupils that are dilated or fixed and HALOS AROUND LIGHTS should be: - answerreferred to opthlamology for emergent suspicion of closed-angel glaucoma screening for glaucoma should begin at age - answer40 results from clouding and opacification of the normally clear lens of the eye - answercataracts highest cause of treatable blindness is: - answercataracts most common surgical procedure in patients 65+ - answercataract surgery a patient presents with painless, clouded or dim vision with halos around lights, no red reflex and DIPLOPIA IN A SINGLE EYE would be suspected of - answercataract floaters in the eye is the most concerning symptom for: - answerretinal detachment the most important diagnostic indicator in the evaluation of headache is: - answerchronology patient describes a "vise-like", generalized headache that is more intense about his neck and back of head. The most probable diagnosis is: - answertension headache duration of tension headaches are usually: - answerno more than a few hours management of tension headache include: - answerOTC analgesics and relaxation the pathophysiology of most migraines is: - answera result of dilation and excessive pulsation of the external carotid artery migraine's typically last: - answerat least 2 but no more than 72 hours migraines without aura are classified as: - answercommon migraine migraines with aura are classified as: - answerclassic migraine migraine headaches, which affect females > males can commonly be triggered by this inciting event in women: - answerhormonal changes seen with onset of the menstrual cycle patient reports a unilateral throbbing headache that occurs episodically. she states reports "seeing stars" and some weakness. she has no history of migraines. the appropriate first step is: - answerall patients with new migraines must be worked up to R/O organic causes of disease. the provider should order: CBC CMP VDRL ESR CT scan the priority management of chronic migraine includes: - answer1. avoidance of triggers 2. relaxation / stress avoidance 3. prophylactic daily therapy if attacks occur more than 2-3 times per month if amitriptyline (Elavil) is being used for migraine prophylaxis, the provider knows to monitor for: - answerprolongation of the QT interval which is a BLACK BOX warning on all tricyclics abortive therapy for migraines include: - answersumatriptan 6mg sub-q, repeated every other to max of 3 doses OR sumatriptan 25 mg PO an onset