CANCER AND ONCOLOGY NURSING NCLEX EXAM 2 50 CORRECT QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GUARANTEED PASS | RATED A+
1. A 32-year-old woman meets with the nurse on her first office visit since undergoing a left
mastectomy. When asked how she is doing, the woman states her appetite is still not good, she is
not getting much sleep because she doesn’t go to bed until her husband is asleep, and she is
really anxious to get back to work. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse
explore to support the client’s current needs?
o A. Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her
mastectomy
o B. Suggest that the client learn relaxation techniques to help with her
insomnia
o C. Call the physician to discuss allowing the client to return to work earlier
o D. Perform a nutritional assessment to assess for anorexia
Correct Answer: A. Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her
mastectomy
ï‚· Option A: The content of the client’s comments suggests that she is avoiding
intimacy with her husband by waiting until he is asleep before going to bed.
Addressing sexuality issues is appropriate for a client who has undergone a
mastectomy.
ï‚· Option B: Suggesting that she learn relaxation techniques to help her with her
insomnia is appropriate; however, the nurse must first address the psychosocial
and sexual issues that are contributing to her sleeping difficulties.
ï‚· Option C: Rushing her return to work may debilitate her and add to her
exhaustion.
ï‚· Option D: A nutritional assessment may be useful, but there is no indication that
she has anorexia.
2. One of the most serious blood coagulation complications for individuals with cancer and for
those undergoing cancer treatments is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). The most
common cause of this bleeding disorder is:
ï‚· A. Brain metastasis
ï‚· B. Sepsis
ï‚· C. Intravenous heparin therapy
ï‚· D. Underlying liver disease
Correct
Correct Answer: B. Sepsis
ï‚· Option B: Bacterial endotoxins released from gram-negative bacteria activate the
Hageman factor or coagulation factor XII. This factor inhibits coagulation via the
intrinsic pathway of homeostasis, as well as stimulating fibrinolysis.
ï‚· Option D: Liver disease can cause multiple bleeding abnormalities resulting in
chronic, subclinical DIC; however, sepsis is the most common cause.
3. A pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure sometimes indicated for treatment of non-small-cell
lung cancer. A pneumonectomy involves removal of:
ï‚· A. One lobe of a lung
ï‚· B. An entire lung field
ï‚· C. One or more segments of a lung lobe
ï‚· D. A small, wedge-shaped lung surface
Correct
Correct Answer: B. An entire lung field
ï‚· Option B: A pneumonectomy is the removal of an entire lung field indicated for
the treatment of non-small cell lung cancer that has not spread outside of the lung
tissue. It is performed on patients who will have adequate lung function in the
unaffected lung.
ï‚· Option D: A wedge resection refers to the removal of a wedge-shaped section of
lung tissue. It may be used to remove a tumor and a small amount of normal
tissue around it/
ï‚· Option A: A lobectomy is the removal of one lobe.
ï‚· Option C: Removal of one or more segments of a lung lobe is called a partial
lobectomy.
4. A 36-year-old man with lymphoma presents with signs of impending septic shock 9 days after
chemotherapy. The nurse would expect which of the following to be present?
ï‚· A. Low-grade fever, chills, tachycardia
ï‚· B. Elevated temperature, oliguria, hypotension
ï‚· C. Flushing, decreased oxygen saturation, mild hypotension
ï‚· D. High-grade fever, normal blood pressure, increased respirations
Correct Answer: A. Low-grade fever, chills, tachycardia
ï‚· Option A: Nine days after chemotherapy, one would expect the client to be
immunocompromised. The clinical signs of shock reflect changes in cardiac
function, vascular resistance, cellular metabolism, and capillary permeability.
Low-grade fever, tachycardia, and flushing may be early signs of shock.
ï‚· Option B: Oliguria and hypotension are late signs of shock. Urine output can be
initially normal or increased.
ï‚· Options C and D: The client with impending signs of septic shock may not have
decreased oxygen saturation levels and normal blood pressure.
5. Which of the following represents the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with
pruritus caused by cancer or the treatments?
ï‚· A. Silk sheets
ï‚· B. Steroids
ï‚· C. Medicated cool baths
ï‚· D. Administration of antihistamines
Correct
Correct Answer: C. Medicated cool baths
ï‚· Option C: Nursing interventions to decrease the discomfort of pruritus include
those that prevent vasodilation, decrease anxiety, and maintain skin integrity and
hydration. Medicated baths with salicylic acid or colloidal oatmeal can be
soothing as a temporary relief.
ï‚· Option A: Using silk sheets is not a practical intervention for the hospitalized
client with pruritus.
ï‚· Options B and D: The use of antihistamines or topical steroids depends on the
cause of pruritus, and these agents should be used with caution.
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