FREE MILITARY AND STUDY GAMES ABOUT OPNAVINST

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FREE MILITARY AND STUDY GAMES ABOUT OPNAVINST

3500.39C EXAM QUESTIONS

Actual Qs and Ans Expert-Verified Explanation

This Exam contains:

-Guarantee passing score -58 Questions and Answers -format set of multiple-choice -Expert-Verified Explanation Question 1: Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact on mission capability or unit readiness?

Answer:

category IV Question 2: Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate it up the chain of command?

Answer:

ORM manager/XO Question 3: Which condition refers to all the items that compete for an individual's or crew's attention during the execution of a mission or task?

Answer:

additive conditions Question 4: What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to mission or task degradation?

Answer:

root cause

Question 5: What is used to create an initial list of the hazards that may exist in an operation, task or mission?

Answer:

preliminary hazard analysis Question 6: Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably occur in time?

Answer:

B Question 7: Which ORM steps does the "A" in the pneumonic of the ABCD RM model combine?

Answer:

identify and assess the hazards Question 8: What is an assessment of the likelihood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard called?

Answer:

probability Question 9: How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness?

Answer:

biannually Question 10: Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are likely to occur, immediately or within a short period of time?

Answer:

A Question 11: Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capabilities or unit readiness?

Answer:

category III

Question 12: How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination?

Answer:

Annually Question 13: How many different types of ORM evaluations can be used by any activity or command for self-assessment?

Answer:

two

Question 14: Who serves as the Navy's ORM program subject matter expert?

Answer:

NAVSAFECEN

Question 15: How often must individuals take the ORM fundamentals course?

Answer:

tri-annually Question 16: What is defined as the complete picture of what is expected to happen that assures all elements of a mission or task are evaluated for all potential hazards?

Answer:

operational analysis Question 17: What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets, or effect on the mission or task?

Answer:

severity Question 18: The ORM process is a systematic, continuous, and repeatable process that consists of the following basic five steps: identifying hazards, assess the hazards, make risk decisions, implement controls, and what final step?

Answer:

supervise

Question 19: What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have been identified and selected?

Answer:

residual risk Question 20: Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all of the steps of the 5 step ORM process?

Answer:

communicate to others Question 21: In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk management process is applied on?

Answer:

time-critical Question 22: What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as?

Answer:

controls Question 23: What refers to applying ORM at the point of commencing or during execution of a mission or task, at the time critical level?

Answer:

TCRM Question 24: What is the most common cause of task degradation or mission failure?

Answer:

human error Question 25: How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation?

Answer:

annually