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1. A 45-year-old female patient presents with a complaint of persistent
lower abdominal pain. Based on the current evidence-based guidelines,
which of the following is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
 A) Transvaginal ultrasound
 B) Complete blood count (CBC)
 C) Urinalysis
 D) Pelvic MRI
 Answer: A) Transvaginal ultrasound
 Rationale: Transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred initial diagnostic test
for women presenting with lower abdominal pain as it provides detailed
images of the reproductive organs and can help identify gynecological
conditions such as ovarian cysts or fibroids.
2. In managing menopause-related symptoms, which of the following
therapeutic options aligns with contemporary practice for a patient who
prefers non-pharmacological management?
 A) Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
 B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
 C) Antidepressant medication
 D) Over-the-counter (OTC) supplements
 Answer: B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
 Rationale: CBT is an evidence-based non-pharmacological approach
that helps manage menopause-related symptoms by addressing
psychological and behavioral factors.
3. When assessing cardiovascular risk in postmenopausal women, which
factor is most significant according to current guidelines?
 A) Age
 B) Family history of heart disease
 C) Body mass index (BMI)
 D) Smoking status
 Answer: D) Smoking status
 Rationale: Smoking is a modifiable risk factor that significantly
increases the risk of cardiovascular disease in postmenopausal women.
4. For a patient with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), which of the
following management strategies is recommended to improve fertility
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