ACLS FINAL EXAM - Expert-Verified explanation This ACLS Certifica...

ACLS FINAL EXAM

Actual Questions and Answers Expert-Verified explanation

This ACLS Certification Exam contains:

❖ The ACLS Certification Exam has passing score of 90% ❖ 50 Questions and Answers ❖ format set of multiple-choice ❖ Expert-Verified explanation ❖ Verified with trusted textbooks

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### 1. Cardiac monitoring of a patient in cardiac arrest reveals ventricular fibrillation. In addition to high-quality CPR, what intervention should be a priority for the team?

• **A)** Defibrillation.
• **B)** Insert an advanced airway.
• **C)** Initiate capnography.
• **D)** Perform a pulse check.

**Answer: A) Defibrillation.**

**Expert Explanation:** In cases of ventricular fibrillation, immediate

defibrillation is critical alongside high-quality CPR. The American Heart Association (AHA) emphasizes that rapid defibrillation within 3 to 5 minutes of onset significantly increases the likelihood of survival and favorable neurological outcomes. CPR helps maintain blood flow, but defibrillation is the definitive intervention (AHA Guidelines 2020).

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### 2. A patient with suspected stroke arrives at the emergency department.The patient is diagnosed with acute ischemic stroke and is a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy. To achieve the best outcomes, this therapy should be initiated within what time frame?

• **A)** Within 30 minutes of the patient's arrival.
• **B)** Within 1 hour of the patient's arrival.
• **C)** Within 2 hours of the patient's arrival.
• **D)** Within 3 hours of the patient's arrival.

**Answer: B) Within 1 hour of the patient's arrival.**

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**Expert Explanation:** For patients with acute ischemic stroke,

administering intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rtPA) within 1 hour of arrival is optimal, though it must be given within 3 hours of the onset of symptoms. Prompt administration is correlated with decreased morbidity and mortality (Sacco et al., "Guidelines for the Management of Patients with Recent Transient Ischemic Attack or Ischemic Stroke," Stroke).

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### 3. A 35-year-old female patient's ECG is consistent with STEMI. The ECG reveals a new ST-segment elevation at the J point in leads V2 and V3 of at least which size?

• **A)** 0.10 mV
• **B)** 0.15 mV
• **C)** 0.2 mV
• **D)** 0.25 mV

**Answer: B) 0.15 mV.**

**Expert Explanation:** A diagnosis of STEMI includes a new ST-segment

elevation of at least 0.15 mV in leads V2 and V3. This elevation indicates myocardial injury and necessitates urgent intervention, ideally cardiac catheterization or thrombolytic therapy, to restore coronary blood flow (ACCF/AHA Guidelines for the Management of ST -Elevation Myocardial Infarction, 2013).

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### 4. A 28-year-old pregnant patient presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling feverish and faint. The patient deteriorates and goes into cardiac arrest. If available, what diagnostic tool could be used to guide decision-making in her care? 3 / 4

• **A)** Abdominal radiograph
• **B)** Fetal monitoring
• **C)** Point-of-care ultrasound
• **D)** Fetal echocardiogram

**Answer: C) Point-of-care ultrasound.**

**Expert Explanation:** Point-of-care ultrasound is crucial for evaluating

pregnancy status in emergencies, especially during resuscitation. It can quickly assess gestational age and fetal viability without delaying resuscitation efforts, thereby informing the care approach effectively (Doran et al., "Emergency Ultrasound," Emergency Medicine Clinics of North America).

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### 5. An ECG strip reveals features indicating atrial fibrillation. Which characteristic is most significant?

• **A)** Presence of flutter waves and sawtooth patterns.
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